WEAPONS Flashcards
1
Q
HERO
A
Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Ordnance
2
Q
EMCON
A
Emissions Control
3
Q
CBU
A
Cluster Bomb Unit
4
Q
TALD
A
Tactical Air-Launched Decoy
5
Q
Non-Nuclear Ordnance/Explosive Handling Qualification Program
A
Instituted in 1968
Ordnance Certification is valid for 12 months
6
Q
What is considered HERO Unsafe?
A
Highly likely to initiate a detonation
7
Q
What is considered HERO Safe?
A
Items not susceptible to RF energy
8
Q
What is considered HERO Susceptible?
A
Adversely affected by RF energy resulting in unsafe or unreliable ordnance
9
Q
What does EMCON do?
A
Prevent enemy ships aircraft from locating us through their passive detection systems.
10
Q
What is the purpose of doing a stray voltage check?
A
Ensure that no electrical charges exist within the aircraft’s firing circuits.
11
Q
AIM
A
Air-launched, intercept-aerial guided missile
12
Q
AIM-7
A
Sparrow
13
Q
AIM-9
A
Sidewinder
14
Q
AIM-120
A
AMRAAM
15
Q
AGM
A
Air-launched, surface-attack guided missile
16
Q
AGM-65
A
Maverick
17
Q
AGM-84A-D
A
Harpoon
18
Q
AGM-84E
A
SLAM
19
Q
AGM-88
A
HARM
20
Q
AGM-119
A
Penguin
21
Q
AGM-122A
A
Sidearm
22
Q
RIM
A
Ship-launched, intercept-aerial guided missile
23
Q
RIM-7
A
NATO Sea Sparrow
24
Q
ATM
A
Air-launched, training guided missile
25
What CBU is onboard HST?
CBU-99
26
Types of CBU’s
MK-20
CBU99/100 Rockeye
CBU-59
CBU-78 Gator
27
What are the 3 types of TALD vehicles?
A/B37U-1(V) 1, chaff vehicle
A/B37U-1(V) 2, RF vehicle
ADM-141 A, RF vehicle
28
TALD provides what
False Imagery
29
Types of Weapons Elevators:
Upper Stage – 3
| Lower Stage – 6
30
Hung Ordnance
Failed to properly release or fire
31
Unexpended Ordnance
Ordnance that was loaded, but was never expended by the aircrew
32
Yellow High Explosive (HE)
Found on warhead sections.
2 yellow bands indicate thermal protected ordnance.
Brown
33
Brown
Indicates presence of explosive
Normally a propellant
Can function as a low explosive or to be particularly hazardous to the use
34
Gray with Red Bands
Irritant (harassing agent)
35
Black
Armor piercing ammunition
36
Light Green
Smoke or “marker” ammunition
37
Light Red
Incendiary ammunition
38
White
Illuminating ammunition
39
Light Blue
Inert training or firing practice ammunition
40
AWSE
Aviation Weapons Support Equipment
41
OHO
Ordnance Handling Officer
42
EOD
Explosive Ordnance Disposal
43
AMRAAM
Advanced Medium Range Air to Air Missile
44
Divisions of Weapons
```
G1
G2
G3
G4
G5
```
45
G-1
Hangar Bay and Flight Deck Ordnance, Aviation Weapons Support Equipment (AWSEP) Division
46
G-2
Armory Division
47
G-3
Magazine Division
48
G-4
Weapons Elevator Division
49
G-5
ADMIN
50
What does G-5 consist of?
Weapons Administration, Aviation Weapons Movement Control Station, ROLMS
51
Under G-5 admin, what is Ordnance Control?
Aviation Weapons Movement Control Station
Controls the movement of all ordnance onboard
52
Under G-5 admin, what is ROLMS?
Ammo Accounting
Responsible for keeping track of all ammo received, transferred or expended
53
What is the Weapons Officer known as?
Gun Boss
54
What are G-3 division members known as?
Mag Rats
55
Which division is responsible for training ship’s crew on firearms?
G-2
56
Which division is responsible for the security and maintenance of all small arms and .50 caliber mounts?
G-2
57
ECM
Electronic Countermeasures
58
Which detection system provides early warning of approaching air/missile targets?
E-2C Hawkeye
59
Which detection system monitors the oceans for surface, subsurface, and airborne contacts?
Surface Combatants’ Ship
60
ECM is designed to do what?
Prevent the enemy of their use of radio transmitting systems
61
SPS-49
2D; provide counter jamming
62
SPS-48
3D, provide range, bearing and elevation
63
What is the primary Fire Control Radar onboard HST?
MK-23 Target Acquisition System
64
What does the MK-23 TAS do?
Controls the NATO Sea Sparrow Missile System (NSSMS)
65
M61A1 20MM GUN SYSTEM
6-barrel, rotary action, mechanism gun
2 Settings:
- 4,000 rounds per minute (gun low)
- 6,000 rounds per minute (gun high
66
What is the acronym for Air to Air Warfare?
AAW
67
What aircraft is the forward-deployed portion of any airborne strike?
E-2 C Hawkeye
68
ECM has what 2 types?
Active
| Passive
69
A surface combatants’ ship can link data to be displayed in what center of each ship?
Combat Direction Center
70
CV FTAS
CV Fast Time Analyzer System
71
ASROC
Anti-Submarine Rocket System
72
H-60
USW Helicopter
73
CDC
Combat Direction Center
Collect, evaluate and disseminate tactical information
74
MK-46 Torpedo
Primary weapon used in ASW
Search for, detect, attack and destroy submarines
Salt-water activated
Uses OTTO II fuel
Launched from any # of aircraft
75
What direction system collects pertinent tactical information regarding undersea contacts?
CDC
76
What direction system collects pertinent tactical information regarding undersea contacts?
Sonobuoys
77
Which torpedo is used against the faster, deeper-diving, and more sophisticated submarines?
MK-50
78
What are the 2 methods of mine activation?
Contact and Influence
79
What position does a moored mine take in the water?
Connected by a cable to an anchor resting on the bottom
80
What aircraft can the MK-46 Torpedo be launched from?
Helicopter or Fixed-wing aircraft
81
HARM
High-Speed Anti-Radiation Missile
82
Name 3 surface search Detection Systems
SPS-67;
RASCAR;
FURUNO
83
3 types of General Purpose bombs:
MK 82 – 500 lbs
MK 83 – 1000 lbs
MK 84 – 2000 lbs
84
What is contained in the MK20 Cluster Bomb Unit?
247 MK 118 antitank bombs
85
NATO
North Atlantic Treaty Organization
86
CIWS
Close-In Weapons System
87
ECM
Electronic Countermeasures
88
Characteristics of the .50 Caliber mounts:
10 mounts
360 Degree Circle
Max range: 7,400 yds
Max effective range: 2,000 yards
400-500 rounds per minute
89
Characteristics of the NSSMS
2 systems consisting of:
1 launcher with 8 missiles
2 Directors per system
90
Characteristics of the CIWS
20 mm Gattling-gun system/Phalanx
4,500 rounds per minute
Magazine capacity is 1,550 rounds
3 mounts
91
What type of gun does the CIWS use?
M-61A1 Gattling
92
What type of targets is the CIWS designed to engage?
Anti-ship cruise missiles
Fixed-wing aircraft
