weather Flashcards
(150 cards)
1
Q
A ceiling is defined as the height of the:
a. highest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena aloft that covers over 6/10 of the sky.
b. lowest layer of clouds that contributed to the overall overcast
c. lowest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena aloft that is reported as broken or overcast
A
c. lowest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena aloft that is reported as broken or overcast
2
Q
The station originating the following weather report has a field elevation of 1300 feet msl. From the bottom of the overcast cloud layer, what is its thickness? (tops of OVC are reported at 3800 feet)
SPECI KOKC 2228Z 28024G36KT 3/4SM BKN008 OVC020 28/23 A3000
A-500 FT
B-1,700 FT
C-2500 FT
A
A-500FT
3
Q
The reporting station originating this Aviation Routine Weather Report has a field elevation of 620 ft. If the reported sky cover is one continuous layer, what is its thickness? (tops of OVC are reported at 6500 ft)
METAR KMDW 121856Z AUTO 32005KT 1 1/2SM +RABR OVC007 17/16 A2980
A-5,180 FT
B-5,800 FT
C-5,880 FT
A
A-5,180 FT
4
Q
What is meant by the entry in the remarks section of METAR surface report for KBNA?
METAR KBNA 211250Z 33018KT 290V260 1/2 SM R31/2700FT +SN
BLSNFG VV008 00/M03 A2991 RMK RAE42SNB42
A- The wind is variable from 290 degrees to 360
B- Heavy blowing snow and fog on runway 31
C- Rain ended 42 past the hour, snow began 42 past the hour.
A
C- Rain ended 42 past the hour, snow began 42 past the hour.
5
Q
What significant sky condition is reported in this METAR observation?
METAR KBNA 1250Z 33018KT 290V360 1/2SM R31/2700FT +SN BLSNFG VV008 00/M03 A2991 RMK RERAE42SNB42
A-Runway 31 ceiling is 2700 ft
B- Sky is obscured with vertical visibility of 800 ft
C- Measured ceiling is 300 ft overcast
A
B- Sky is obscured with vertical visibility of 800 ft
6
Q
The body of a terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) covers a geographical proximity within a
A- 5 nautical mile radius of the center of an airport.
B- 5 statue mile radius from the center of an airport runway complex
C- 5-10 statue mile radius from the center of an airport runway complex
A
B- 5 statue mile radius from the center of an airport runway complex
7
Q
Which weather product is a concise statement of the expected weather of an airport’s runway complex?
A- Area Forecast (FA)
B- Weather depiction charts
C- Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF)
A
C- Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF)
8
Q
Which primary source should be used to obtain forecast weather information at your destination for the planned ETA?
A- Area Forecast
B- Radar summary and weather depiction charts
C- Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF)
A
C- Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF)
9
Q
A “VRB” wind entry in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) will be indicated when the wind is
A- 3 knots or less
B- 6 knots or less
C- 9 knots or less
A
B- 6 knots or less
10
Q
When the visibility is greater than 6SM on a TAF it is expressed as
A- 6PSM
B- P6SM
C- 6SMP
A
B- P6SM
11
Q
What is the forecast wind at 1800z in the following TAF?
KMEM 091740Z 1818 00000KT 1/2SM RAFG OVC005=
A- Calm
B- unknown
C- Not recorded
A
A- Calm
12
Q
From which primary source should you obtain information regarding the weather expected to exist at your destination at your estimated time of arrival?
A- Weather depiction Chart
B- Radar summary and weather depiction chart
C- Terminal Aerodrome Forecast
A
C- Terminal Aerodrome Forecast
13
Q
What is the wind shear forecast in the following TAF?
KCVG 231051Z231212 12012KT 4SM -RA BR OVC008 WS005/27050KT TEMPO 1719 1/2SM -RA FG FM1930 09102KT 1SM -DZ BR VV003 BECMG 2021 5SM HZ=
A- 5 ft AGL from 270 degrees at 50 kt
B- 50 ft AGL from 270 degrees at 50 kt
C- 500 ft AGL from 270 degrees at 50 kt
A
C- 500 ft AGL from 270 degrees at 50 kt
14
Q
“WND” in the categorical outlook in the Aviation Area Forecast means that the wind during that period is forecast to be
A- sustained surface wind speed of 6 knots or greater
B- sustained surface wind speed of 15 knots or greater
C- sustained surface wind speed of 20 knots or greater
A
C- sustained surface wind speed of 20 knots or greater
15
Q
Area forecasts generally include a forecast period of 18 hours and cover a geographical
A- terminal area
B- area less than 3000 square miles
C- area the size of several states
A
C- area the size of several states
16
Q
Which is true regarding the use of airborne weather- avoidance radar for the recognition of certain weather conditions?
A- The radarscope provides no assurance of avoiding instrument weather conditions
B- The avoidance of hail is assured when flying between and just clear of the most intense echoes
C- The clear area between intense echoes indicates that visual sighting of storms can be maintained when flying between the echoes
A
A- The radarscope provides no assurance of avoiding instrument weather conditions
17
Q
Pilots of IFR flight seeking ATC in-flight weather avoidance assistance should keep in mind that
A- ATC radar limitations and , frequency congestion may limit the controllers capability to provide this service
B- circumnavigating severe weather can only be accommodated in the en route areas away from terminals because of congestion
C- ATC narrow Band Radar does not provide the controller with weather intensity capability
A
A- ATC radar limitations and , frequency congestion may limit the controllers capability to provide this service
18
Q
If you encounter in- flight icing and ATC asks you to report your conditions, what are the official reportable icing values that you are expected to use?
A- Light, moderate, severe, extreme
B- Trace, light, moderate , severe
C- Few, light, moderate, severe
A
B- Trace, light, moderate , severe
19
Q
Which response most clearly interprets the following PIREP?
UA/OV OKC 063064/TM 1522/FL080/TP C172/TA M04/WV 245040/TB LGT/RM IN CLR
A- 64 nautical miles on the 63 degree radial from Oklahoma city VOR at 1522 UTC, flight level 8,000ft . type of aircraft is a Cessna 172
B-Reported by Cessna 172, turbulence and light rime icing in climb to 8,000 ft
C- 63 nautical miles on the 64 degree radial from Oklahoma City, thunderstorms and light rain at 1522 UTC
A
A- 64 nautical miles on the 63 degree radial from Oklahoma city VOR at 1522 UTC, flight level 8,000ft . type of aircraft is a Cessna 172
20
Q
Interpret this PIREP.
MRB UA/OV MRB/TM1430/FL060/TPC182/SK BKN BL/WX RA/TB MDT
A- Ceiling 6,000 ft intermittently below moderate thundershowers; turbulence increasing westward
B- FL 60,000 intermittently below clouds; moderate rain, turbulence increasing with the wind
C- At 6,000 ft; between layers; moderate turbulence; moderate rain
A
C- At 6,000 ft; between layers; moderate turbulence; moderate rain
21
Q
Which values are used for winds aloft forecasts?
A- magnetic direction and knots
B- magnetic direction MPH
C- true direction and knots
A
C- true direction and knots
22
Q
What wind direction and speed is represented by the entry 9900+00 for 9,000ft, on an Winds and Temperature Aloft Forecast (FB)?
A- Light and variable, less than 5knots
B- Vortex Winds exceeding 200 knots
C- Light and Variable; less than 10 knots
A
A- Light and variable, less than 5knots
23
Q
When is the temperature at one of the forecast altitudes omitted at a specific location or station in the Winds and Temperature Aloft Forecast (FB)?
A- when the temperature is standard for that altitude
B- for the 3000- foot altitude (level) or when the level is within 2,500 ft of station elevation.
C- Only when the winds are omitted for that altitude (level)
A
B- for the 3000- foot altitude (level) or when the level is within 2,500 ft of station elevation.
24
Q
When is the wind group at one of the forecast altitudes omitted at a specific location or station in the Winds and Temperature Aloft Forecast (FB)? When the wind
A- is less than 5 knots
B- is less than 10 knots
C- at the altitude is within 1,500 ft of the station elevation
A
C- at the altitude is within 1,500 ft of the station elevation
25
A station is forecasting wind and temperature aloft at FL 390 to be 300 degrees at 200 knots; temperature -54 degree Celsius. How would this data be encoded in the FB?
A- 300054
B- 809954
C- 309954
B- 809954
26
When are there severe weather bulletins (WW) issued?
A- every 12 hours as required
B- every 24 hours as required
C- unscheduled and issued as required
C- unscheduled and issued as required
27
SIGMETs are issued as a warning of weather conditions potentially hazardous
A- particularly to light aircraft
B- to all aircraft
C- only to light aircraft operations
B- to all aircraft
28
Which meteorologist condition is issued in the form of a SIGMET (WS)?
A- Widespread sand and dust storms affecting at least 3,000 square miles or an area deemed to have a significant effect on the safety of aircraft operations
B- moderate icing
C- Sustained winds of 30 knots or greater at the surface
A- Widespread sand and dust storms affecting at least 3,000 square miles or an area deemed to have a significant effect on the safety of aircraft operations
29
SIGMETs are unscheduled weather products that are valid for
A- a period to exceed 4 hours, but may be reissued for additional 4 hour period
B- 2 to 12 hours, depending on the severity of the weather
C- 6 hours, unless associated with hurricanes or tropical cyclones
A- a period to exceed 4 hours, but may be reissued for additional 4 hour period
30
A pilot planning to depart at 1100z on an IFR flight is particularly concerned about the hazard of icing. What sources reflect the most accurate information on icing conditions (Current and forecast) at the time of departure?
A- low-level significant weather prognostic chart, and the area forecast
B- The area forecast, and the freezing level chart
C- Pilot weather reports (PIREPs), AIRMETs, and SIGMETs
C- Pilot weather reports (PIREPs), AIRMETs, and SIGMETs
31
The hazardous inflight weather advisory service (HIWAS) is a continuous broadcast over selected VORs of
A- SIGMETs, CONVECTIVE SIGMETs, AIRMETs, Severe Weather Forecast Alerts (AWW), and Center Weather advisories.
B- SIGMETs, CONVECTIVE SIGMETs, AIRMETs, Wind shear Advisories, and severe weather forecast alerts (AWW)
C- Wind shear advisories, radar weather reports, SIGMETs, CONVECTIVE SIGMETs, AIRMETs, and center weather advisories (CWA)
A- SIGMETs, CONVECTIVE SIGMETs, AIRMETs, Severe Weather Forecast Alerts (AWW), and Center Weather advisories.
32
What is the maximum forecast period for AIRMETs?
A- two hours
B- four hours
C- six hours
C- six hours
33
AIRMETs are issued on a scheduled basis every
A- 15 mins after the hour only
B- 15 mins until the AIRMET is canceled
C- six hours
C- six hours
34
What information is provided by convective outlook (AC)?
A- it describes areas of probable severe icing and severe or extreme turbulence during the next 24 hours
B- it provides prospects of both general and severe thunderstorms activity during the following 24 hours
C- it indicates areas of probable convective turbulence and the extent of instability in the upper atmosphere (above 500 MB)
B- it provides prospects of both general and severe thunderstorms activity during the following 24 hours
35
Which weather forecast describes prospects for an area coverage of both severe and general thunderstorms during the following 24 hours?
A- Terminal Aerodrome Forecast
B- Convective Outlook
C- Radar Summary Chart
B- Convective Outlook
36
What does a Convective Outlook (AC) describe for a following 24 hour period?
A- General thunderstorm activity
B- A severe weather watch bulletin
C- When the forecast conditions are expected to continue beyond the valid period
A- General thunderstorm activity
37
The surface analysis chart depicts
A- actual pressure systems, frontal locations, cloud tops, and precipitation at the time shown on the charts
B- frontal locations and expected movement, pressure centers, cloud coverage, and obstructions to vision at the time of chart transmission
C- actual frontal positions, pressure patterns, temperature, dew point, wind, weather, and obstructions to vision at the valid time of the chart
C- actual frontal positions, pressure patterns, temperature, dew point, wind, weather, and obstructions to vision at the valid time of the chart
38
What flight planning information can a pilot derive from constant pressure charts?
A-Clear air turbulence and icing conditions
B- Levels of widespread cloud coverage
C- Winds and temperature aloft
C- Winds and temperature aloft
39
What conclusion(s) can be drawn from a 500-millibar Constant Pressure Chart for a planned flight at FL180?
A- Winds aloft at FL180 generally flow across the height contours
B- Observed temperature, wind, and temperature/ dewpoint spread along the proposed route can be approximated
C-Upper highs, lows, troughs, and ridges will be depicted by the use of lines of equal pressure
B- Observed temperature, wind, and temperature/ dewpoint spread along the proposed route can be approximated
40
The low-level significant weather prognostic chart depicts weather conditions
A- that are forecast to exist at valid time shown on the chart
B- as they existed at the time the chart was prepared
C- that existed at the time shown on the chart which is about 3 hours before the chart is received .
A- that are forecast to exist at valid time shown on the chart
41
A prognostic chart depicts the conditions
A- existing at the surface during the past 6 hours
B- which presently exist from the 1,000- millibar through the 700-millibar level.
C- forecast to exist at a specific time in the future
C- forecast to exist at a specific time in the future
42
Which meteorological conditions are depicted by a prognostic chart?
A- conditions existing at the time of the observation.
B- interpretation of weather conditions for geographical areas between reporting stations
C- Conditions forecast to exist at a specific time shown on the chart
C- Conditions forecast to exist at a specific time shown on the chart
43
A characteristic of the stratosphere is
A- an overall decrease of temperature with an increase in altitude
B- a relatively even base altitude of approximately 35,000 feet
C- relatively small changes in temperature with an increase in altitude
C- relatively small changes in temperature with an increase in altitude
44
The average height of the troposphere in the middle latitudes is
A- 20,000ft
B- 25,000ft
C- 37,000ft
C- 37,000ft
45
Which feature is associated with the tropopause?
A- absence od wind and turbulent conditions
B- absolute upper limit of cloud formation
C- abrupt change in temperature lapse rate
C- abrupt change in temperature lapse rate
46
A jet stream is defined as wind of
A- 30 knots
B- 40 knots
C- 50 knots or greater
C- 50 knots or greater
47
The strength and location of the jet stream is normally
A-stronger and farther north in the winter
B-weaker and farther north in the summer
C-stronger and farther north in the summer
B-weaker and farther north in the summer
48
The primary cause of all changes in the Earth's weather is
A- variation of solar energy received by the Earth's regions
B- changes in air pressure over the Earth's regions
C- movement of the air masses
A- variation of solar energy received by the Earth's regions
49
```
How much colder than standard temperature is the forecast temperature at 9000 ft, as indicated in the following excerpt from the Winds and Temperature Aloft Forecast?
FT 6000 9000
0737-04 1043-10
A- 3 degrees Celsius
B- 10 degrees Celsius
C- 7 degrees Celsius
```
C- 7 degrees Celsius
50
If the air temperature is +8 degree Celsius at an elevation of 1,350 feet and a standard (average) temperature lapse rate exists, what will be the approximate freezing level?
A- 3,350
B- 5,350
C- 9,350
B- 5,350
51
A common type of ground or surface based temperature inversion is that which is produced by
a- warm air being lifted rapidly aloft in the vicinity of mountainous terrain
B- the movement of colder air over warm air, or the movement of warm air under cold air
C- ground radiation on clear, cool nights when the wind is light
C- ground radiation on clear, cool nights when the wind is light
52
The most frequent type of ground or surface based temperature inversion Is that produced by
A- radiation on a clear, relatively still night.
B- warm air being lifted rapidly aloft in the vicinity of mountainous terrain
C- the movement of colder air under warm air, or the movement of warm air over cold air
A- radiation on a clear, relatively still night.
53
What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?
A- A stable layer of air
B- an unstable layer of air
C- air mass thunderstorms
A- A stable layer of air
54
A temperature inversion will normally form only
A- in stable air
B- in unstable air
C- when a stratiform layer merges with a cumuliform mass
A- in stable air
55
Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high?
A- smooth air and poor visibility due to fog, haze, or low clouds
B- light wind shear and poor visibility due to haze and light rain
C- turbulent air and poor visibility due to fog, low stratus-type clouds and showery precipitation
A- smooth air and poor visibility due to fog, haze, or low clouds
56
What causes surface winds to flow access the isobars at an angle rather than parallel to the isobars?
A- Coriolis force
B- Surface friction
C- The greater density of the air at the surface
B- Surface friction
57
Winds at 5,000 ft AGL on a particular flight are southwesterly while most of the surface winds are southerly. This difference in direction is primarily due to
A- a stronger pressure gradient at higher altitudes
B- friction between the wind and the surface
C- stronger coriolis force at the surface
B- friction between the wind and the surface
58
What relationship exists between the winds at 2,000 ft above the surface and the surface winds ?
A- The winds at 2,000 ft and the surface winds flow in the same direction, but the surface winds are weaker due to friction
B- The winds at 2,000 ft tend to parallel the isobars while the surface winds cross the isobars at an angle toward lower pressure and are weaker
C- The surface winds tend to veer to the right of the winds at 2,000 ft and are usually weaker.
B- The winds at 2,000 ft tend to parallel the isobars while the surface winds cross the isobars at an angle toward lower pressure and are weaker
59
Which force, in the Northern Hemisphere, acts at a right angle to the wind and deflects it to the right until parallel to the isobars?
A- Centrifugal
B- Pressure Gradient
C- Coriolis
C- Coriolis
60
Clouds, fogs or dew will always form when
A- water vapor condenses
B- water vapor is present
C- the temperature and dew point are equal
A- water vapor condenses
61
To which meteorological condition does the term "dew point" refer?
A- the temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated
B- the temperature at which condensation and evaporation are equal
C- The temperature at which dew will always form
A- the temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated
62
The amount of water vapor which air can hold largely depends on
A- relative humidity
B- air temperature
C- stability of air
B- air temperature
63
What enhances the growth rate of precipitation?
A- advection action
B- upward currents
C- cyclonic movement
B- upward currents
64
What temperature condition is indicated if wet snow is encountered at your flight altitude?
A- the temperature is above freezing at your altitude
B- the temperature is below freezing at your altitude
C- you are flying from a warm air mass into a cold air mass
A- the temperature is above freezing at your altitude
65
The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that
A- there are thunderstorms in the area
B- a cold front has passed
C- there is freezing rain at a higher altitude
C- there is freezing rain at a higher altitude
66
Which precipitation type normally indicates freezing rain at higher altitudes?
A- Snow
B- Hail
C- Ice pellets
B- Hail
67
Stability can be determined from which measurement of the atmosphere?
A- low-level winds
B- ambient lapse rate
C- atmospheric pressure
B- ambient lapse rate
68
What determines the structure or type of clouds which form as a result of air being forced to ascend?
A- the method by which the air is lifted
B- the stability of the air before lifting occurs
C- the amount of condensation nuclei present after lifting occurs
B- the stability of the air before lifting occurs
69
Unsaturated air flowing up slope will cool at the rate of approximately (dry adiabatic lapse rate)
A- 3 degrees per 1,000 ft
B- 2 degrees per 1,000 ft
C- 2.5 degrees per 1,000 ft
A- 3 degrees per 1,000 ft
70
What type of clouds will be formed if very stable moist air is forced up slope?
A- First stratified clouds and then vertical clouds
B- Vertical clouds with increasing height
C- Stratified clouds with little vertical development
C- Stratified clouds with little vertical development
71
What type clouds can be expected when an unstable air mass is forced to ascend a mountain slope?
A- layered clouds with little vertical development
B- stratified clouds with considerable associated turbulence
C- clouds with extensive vertical development
C- clouds with extensive vertical development
72
Which of the following combinations of weather producing variables would likely result in cumuliform type clouds, good visibility, rain showers, and possible clear type icing in clouds?
A- unstable, moist air, and no lifting mechanism
B- stable, dry air, and orographic lifting
C- unstable, moist air, and orographic lifting
C- unstable, moist air, and orographic lifting
73
The suffix "nimbus" used in naming clouds, means a
A- cloud with extensive vertical development
B- rain cloud
C- dark massive, towering cloud
B- rain cloud
74
What are the four families of clouds?
A- stratus, cumulus, nimbus, and cirrus
B- clouds formed by updrafts, fronts, cooling layers of air, and precipitation into warm air
C- High, middle, low and those with extensive vertical development
C- High, middle, low and those with extensive vertical development
75
A high cloud is composed mostly of
A- ozone
B- condensation nuclei
C- Ice crystals
C- Ice crystals
76
Which family of clouds is least likely to contribute to structural icing on an aircraft?
A- low clouds
B- high clouds
C- clouds with extensive vertical development
B- high clouds
77
Which clouds have the greatest turbulence?
A- towering cumulus
B- Cumulonimbus
C- Altocumulus castellanus
B- Cumulonimbus
78
Standing lenticular clouds, in mountainous areas, indicate
A- an inversion
B- unstable air
C- turbulence
C- turbulence
79
The presence of standing lenticular altocumulus clouds is a good indication of
A- jet stream
B- very strong turbulence
C- heavy icing conditions
B- very strong turbulence
80
Fair weather cumulus clouds often indicate
A- turbulence at and below the cloud level
B- poor visibility
C- smooth flying conditions
A- turbulence at and below the cloud level
81
Fog is usually prevalent in industrial areas because of
A- atmospheric stabilization around cities
B- an abundance of condensation nuclei from combustion products
C- increased temperatures due to industrial heating
B- an abundance of condensation nuclei from combustion products
82
Under which condition does advection fog usually form?
A-moist air moving over colder ground or water
B- warm, moist air settling over a cool surface under no-wind conditions
C- a land breeze blowing cold air mass over a warm water current
A-moist air moving over colder ground or water
83
In which situation is advection fog most likely to form?
A- an air mass moving inland from the coast in winter
B- a light breeze blowing colder air out to sea
C- warm moist air settling over a warmer surface under no wind conditions
A- an air mass moving inland from the coast in winter
84
In what localities is advection fog most likely to occur?
A- coastal areas
B- Mountain slopes
C- Level inland areas
A- coastal areas
85
What types of fog depend upon a wind in order to exist?
A- Steam fog and down slope fog
B- Precipitation induced fog and ground fog
C- advection fog and upslope fog
C- advection fog and upslope fog
86
What situation is most conducive to the formation of radiation fog?
A- warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights
B- moist, tropical air moving over cold, offshore water
C- the movement of cold air over much warmer water
A- warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights
87
Which conditions are favorable for the formation of radiation fog?
A- moist air moving over colder ground or water
B- cloudy sky and a light wind moving saturated warm air over a cool surface
C- Clear sky, little or no wind, small temperature/dew point spread, and over a land surface
C- Clear sky, little or no wind, small temperature/dew point spread, and over a land surface 0
88
Which weather condition can be expected when moist air flows from a relatively warm surface to a colder surface?
A- Increased visibility
B- Convective turbulence due to surface heating
C- Fog
C- Fog
89
An air mass is a body of air that
A- has similar cloud formations associated with it
B- creates a wind shift as it moves across the earth's surface
C- covers an extensive area and has fairly uniform properties of temperature and moisture
C- covers an extensive area and has fairly uniform properties of temperature and moisture
90
The general characteristics of unstable air are
A-good visibility, showery precipitation, and cumuliform-type clouds
B- good visibility, steady precipitation, and stratiform-type clouds
C- poor visibility, intermittent precipitation, and cumuliform-type clouds
A-good visibility, steady precipitation, and cumuliform-type clouds
91
What are some characteristics of unstable air?
A- nimbostratus clouds and good surface visibility
B- Turbulence and poor surface visibility
C- Turbulence and good surface visibility
C- Turbulence and good surface visibility
92
Which are characteristics of an unstable cold air mass moving over a warm surface?
A-Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and poor visibility
B-Cumuliform clouds, turbulence and good visibility
C-Stratiform clouds, smooth air, and poor visibility
B-Cumuliform clouds, turbulence and good visibility
93
Which is a characteristic of stable air?
A- fair weather cumulus clouds
B- stratiform clouds
C- unlimited visibility
B- stratiform clouds
94
What are the characteristics of stable air?
A- good visibility, steady precipitation, and stratus-type clouds
B- poor visibility, intermittent precipitation, and cumulus type clouds
C- poor visibility, steady precipitation, and stratus type clouds
C- poor visibility, steady precipitation, and stratus type clouds
95
Steady precipitation, in contrast to showers, preceding a front is an indication of
A- stratiform clouds with moderate turbulence
B- cumuliform clouds with little or no turbulence
C- stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence
C- stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence
96
Frontal waves normally form on
A- slow moving cold fronts or stationary fronts
B- slow moving warm fronts and strong occluded fronts
C- rapidly moving cold fronts or warm fronts
A- slow moving cold fronts or stationary fronts
97
Which weather phenomenon is always associated with the passage of a frontal system?
A- a wind change
B- an abrupt decrease in pressure
C- clouds, either ahead or behind the front
A- a wind change
98
If you fly into severe turbulence, which flight condition should you attempt to maintain?
A- constant airspeed (Va)
B- level flight altitude
C- constant altitude and constant airspeed
B- level flight altitude
99
If severe turbulence is encountered during your IFR flight, the airplane should be slowed to the design maneuvering speed because the
A- maneuverability of the airplane will be increased.
B- amount of excess load the can be imposed on the wing will be decreased
C- airplane will stall at a lower angle of attack, giving an increased margin of safety
B- amount of excess load the can be imposed on the wing will be decreased
100
A pilot reporting turbulence that momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude should report it as
A- light turbulence
B- moderate turbulence
C- light chop
A- light turbulence
101
What are the requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm?
A- a cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture
B- a cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture and an inverted lapse rate
C- sufficient moisture, an unstable lapse rate, and a lifting action
C- sufficient moisture, an unstable lapse rate, and a lifting action
102
Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?
A- The start of rain at the surface
B- growth rate of cloud is maximum
C- strong turbulence in the cloud
A- The start of rain at the surface
103
During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominantly by downdrafts?
A- Cumulus
B- Dissipating
C- Mature
B- Dissipating
104
What is an indication that downdrafts have developed and the thunderstorm cell has entered the mature stage?
A- an anvil top has completed its developed
B- precipitation begins to fall from the cloud base
C- a gust front forms
B- precipitation begins to fall from the cloud base
105
Where do squall lines most often develop?
A- in an occluded front
B- in a cold air mass
C- ahead of a cold front
C- ahead of a cold front
106
If squalls are reported at your destination, what wind conditions should you anticipate?
A- sudden increases in wind speed of at least 16 knots, rising to 22 knots or more, lasting for at least one minute
B- peak gusts of at least 36 knots for a sustained period of 1 minute or longer
C- Rapid variation in wind direction of at least 20 degree and changes in speed of at least 10 knots between peaks and lulls
A- sudden increases in wind speed of at least 16 knots, rising to 22 knots or more, lasting for at least one minute
107
Which thunderstorms generally produce the most severe conditions, such as heavy hail and destructive winds?
A- warm fronts
B- squall line
C- Air mass
B- squall line
108
What is indicated by the term "embedded thunderstorms"?
A- severe thunderstorms are embedded within a squall line.
B- Thunderstorms are predicted to develop in a stable air mass
C- Thunderstorms are obscured by massive clouds layers and cannot be seen
C- Thunderstorms are obscured by massive clouds layers and cannot be seen
109
Which weather phenomenon is always associated with a thunderstorm?
A- lightening
B- heavy rain showers
C- supercooled raindrops
A- lightening
110
Which procedure is recommended if a pilot should unintentionally penetrate embedded thunderstorms activity?
A- reverse aircraft heading or proceed toward an area of known VFR conditions
B- reduce airspeed to maneuvering speed and maintain a constant altitude
C- set power for recommended turbulence penetration airspeed and attempt to maintain a level flight attitude
C- set power for recommended turbulence penetration airspeed and attempt to maintain a level flight attitude
111
What is the expected duration of an individual microburst ?
A- two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute
B- one microburst may continue for as long as 2 to 4 hours
C- seldom longer than 15 mins from the time burst strike the ground until dissipation
C- seldom longer than 15 mins from the time burst strike the ground until dissipation
112
Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as
A- 8,000 ft per min
B- 7,000 ft per min
C- 6,000 ft per min
C- 6,000 ft per min
113
An aircraft that encounters headwind of 45 knots, within a microburst , may expect a total shear across the microburst of
A- 40 knots
B- 80 knots
C- 90 knots
C- 90 knots
114
What conditions result in the formation of frost?
A- the temperature of the collecting surface is at or below freezing and small droplets of moisture are falling
B- when the dew forms and the temperature is below freezing
C-temperature of the collecting surface is below the dewpoint of surrounding air and the dewpoint is colder than freezing
C-temperature of the collecting surface is below the dewpoint of surrounding air and the dewpoint is colder than freezing
115
In which meteorological environment is aircraft structural icing most likely to have the highest rate of accumulation?
A- Cumulonimbus clouds
B- High humidity and freezing temperature
C- freezing rain
C- freezing rain
116
What is an operational consideration if you fly into rain which freezes on impact?
A- you have flown into an area of thunderstorms
B- Temperatures are above freezing at some higher altitude
C- you have flown through a cold front
B- Temperatures are above freezing at some higher altitude
117
Test data indicate that ice, snow, or frost having a thickness and roughness similar to medium or coarse sandpaper on the leading edge and upper surface of an airfoil
A- reduce lift by as much as 50 percent and increase drag by as much as 50 percent
B- increase drag and reduce lift by as much as 25 percent
C- reduce lift by as much as 30 percent and increase drag by 40 percent
C- reduce lift by as much as 30 percent and increase drag by 40 percent
118
During an IFR cross-country flight you picked up rime icing which you estimate is 1/2" thick on the leading edge of the wings. You are now below the clouds at 2000 feet AGL and are approaching your destination airport under VFR. Visibility under the clouds is more than 10 miles, winds at the destination airport are 8 knots right down the runway, and the surface temperature is 3 degrees Celsius. You decide to:
A- use a faster than normal approach and landing speed
B- approach and land at you normal speed since the ice is not thick enough to have any noticeable effect
C- fly your approach slower than normal to lesson the "wind chill" effect and break up the ice
A- use a faster than normal approach and landing speed
119
Why is frost considered hazardous to flight operation?
A- frost changes the basic aerodynamic shape of the airfoil
B- frost decreases control effectiveness
C- Frost causes early airfoil separation resulting in loss of lift
C- Frost causes early airfoil separation resulting in loss of lift
120
When icing is detected, particularly while operating an aircraft without deicing equipment , the pilot should
A- fly to an area with liquid precipitation
B- fly to a lower altitude
C- leave the area of precipitation or go to an altitude where the temperature is above freezing
C- leave the area of precipitation or go to an altitude where the temperature is above freezing
121
Tailplane icing can be detected by
A- a slow and steady decrease in altitude
B- flaps failing to operate
C- a sudden change in elevator force or uncommanded nose down pitch
C- a sudden change in elevator force or uncommanded nose down pitch
122
If tailplane icing or tailplane stall is detected, the pilot should
A- lower the flaps to decrease airspeed
B- decrease power to Vfe
C- retract flaps and increase power
C- retract flaps and increase power
123
Which is true with regards to icing?
A-heavy icing on the leading edge is not as bad as light icing on the upper surface
B- smooth ice on the upper surface will cause minimal if any problems
C- light icing is worse than heavy icing
A-heavy icing on the leading edge is not as bad as light icing on the upper surface
124
What is the most likely reason for buffeting or vibrations after extending the flaps during or exiting icing conditions?
A- incipient tailplane stall
B- aerodynamic stall due to increased angle of attack
C- aerodynamic instability due to ice accumulation forward of the ailerons
A- incipient tailplane stall
125
The best technique for using deicing boots is to
A- allow ice to build first to reduce likelihood of "ice bridging"
B- use them immediately upon visual detection of an ice
C- cycle several times after exiting to obtain a clean wing
B- use them immediately upon visual detection of an ice
126
How should deicing boot be used after exiting flight in icing conditions?
A- boots do not need to be operated after leaving icing conditions
B- continue to cycle the boots several times to remove residual ice left behind after normal boot operation
C-only to continue to cycle the boots if your are concerned ice may continue to accumulate
B- continue to cycle the boots several times to remove residual ice left behind after normal boot operation
127
The most hazardous aspect of structural icing is that
A- it can cause breakage of antennas
B- it can cause blockage of the pitot tube and/or static ports affecting aircraft instruments
C- it can result in aerodynamic degradation including loss of lift
C- it can result in aerodynamic degradation including loss of lift
128
Preventing ice from casting a hazard for aircraft certified for flight into known icing conditions is accomplished by
1. spraying alcohol or glycol solution on the aircraft before takeoff
2. a deicing system on the aircraft
3. an anti-icing system on the aircraft
A- all three statements are true
B- only statements 2 and 3 are true
C- only statement one is true
A- all three statements are true
129
What is the purpose of a weeping wing?
A- the weeping wing can be used in place of spoilers to slow the aircraft
B- The weeping wing provides leading edge protection against icing
C- The weeping wing provides additional camber for aerodynamic lifting
B- The weeping wing provides leading edge protection against icing
130
What should pilots do id icing is detected while also experiencing a rolling condition?
A- lower the flaps to decrease airspeed
B- set power and angle of attack for a controlled decent
C- retract flaps and increase power
B- set power and angle of attack for a controlled decent
131
What autopilot function should you turn off if icing is suspected?
A-HDG (heading) mode
B- AUTO Approach (APP) mode
C- Turn autopilot off
C- Turn autopilot off
132
A generally recommended practice for autopilot usage during cruise flight in icing conditions is
A- having the autopilot continuously engaged while monitoring the system for abnormal trim, trim rate, or attitude
B- periodically disengaging the autopilot and hand flying the airplane
C- periodically disengaging and immediately reengaging the altitude hold function
B- periodically disengaging the autopilot and hand flying the airplane
133
If icing is suspected on an airplane equipped with deicing equipment, the pilot should
A- first confirm ice with the ice light prior to deploying the pneumatic boots
B- operate the pneumatic deicing system several times to clear the ice
C- operate the pneumatic deicing system once to allow time for the ice removal
B- operate the pneumatic deicing system several times to clear the ice
134
The first place likely to form ice on an aircraft is the
A- wings
B- tailplane
c- windshield
B- tailplane
135
If a pilot encounters freezing drizzle, he can assume that
A- there is warmer air above
B- the freezing drizzle will accumulate as rime ice
C- since freezing drizzle is supercooled it is not a concern for structural icing
A- there is warmer air above
136
When flying through supercooled water droplets, the first sign of structural ice accumulation would be
A- the leading edge of the wings
B- one probe and antennas
C- the windshield
B- one probe and antennas
137
What actions should the pilot take in the event of suspected tailplane icing during an approach?
A- leave the autopilot on to assist flying the approach
B- Use partial or no flaps and no autopilot
C- hand fly the approach until the IAF and then use the autopilot
B- Use partial or no flaps and no autopilot
138
Expect clear ice to form on the leading edge of airfoils when
A- liquid water and snow combine with ice
B- temperature are close to freezing, there is a large volume of liquid water precipitation, and the aircraft is at high airspeeds
C- the precipitation is small droplets and the aircraft is at low airspeeds
B- temperature are close to freezing, there is a large volume of liquid water precipitation, and the aircraft is at high airspeeds
139
When flying through stratiform clouds, the best way to alleviate icing is by
A- challenging altitude to one with above- freezing temperatures or where temperatures are colder than -10 degree celsius
B- slowly climbing out of the icing layer
C- always descending to find warm air below
A- challenging altitude to one with above- freezing temperatures or where temperatures are colder than -10 degree celsius
140
Where does wind sheer occur?
A- exclusively in thunderstorms
B- wherever there is an abrupt decrease in pressure and/or temperature
C- With either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere
C- With either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere
141
What is an important characteristic of wind sheer?
A- it is primarily associated with the lateral vortices generated by thunderstorms
B- it usually exist only in the vicinity of thunderstorms, but may be found near a strong temperature inversion
C- it may be associated with either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere
C- it may be associated with either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere
142
What is an important characteristic of wind sheer?
A- it is an atmospheric condition that is associated exclusively with zones of convergence
B- The coriolis phenomenon in both high and low level air masses in the principle generating force
C- It is an atmospheric condition that may be associated with a low level temperature inversion, a jet stream, or a frontal zone
C- It is an atmospheric condition that may be associated with a low level temperature inversion, a jet stream, or a frontal zone
143
Which is a characteristic of low level wind shear as it relates to frontal activity?
A- with a warm front, the most critical period is before the front passes the airport
B- with a cold front, the most critical period is just before the front passes the airport
C- Turbulence will always exist in wind shear conditions
A- with a warm front, the most critical period is before the front passes the airport
144
Hazardous wind shear is commonly encountered near the ground
A- during periods when the wind velocity is stronger than 35 knots
B- during periods when the wind velocity is stronger than 35 knots and near mountain valleys
C- during periods of strong turbulence inversion and near thunderstorms
C- during periods of strong turbulence inversion and near thunderstorms
145
Where can wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found? choose the most complete answer
A- in front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the right side of the cell
B- In the front of the thunderstorm cell and directly under the cell
C- on all sides of the thunderstorm cell and directly under the cell
C- on all sides of the thunderstorm cell and directly under the cell
146
When passing through an abrupt wind shear which involves a shift from a tailwind to a headwind, what power management would normally be required to maintain a constant indicated airspeed and ILS glide slope
A- higher than normal power initially, followed by a further increase as the wind shear is encountered, than a decrease
B- lower than normal power initially, followed by a further decrease as the wind sheer is encounter, than an increase
C- Higher than normal power initially, followed by a decrease as the shear is encountered, then an increase
B- lower than normal power initially, followed by a further decrease as the wind sheer is encounter, than an increase
147
While flying a 3 degree glide slope, a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind, Which conditions should the pilot expect?
A- airspeed and pitch altitude decrease and there is a tendency to go below the glide slope
B- airspeed and pitch altitude increase and there is a tendency to go below the glide slope
C- airspeed and pitch altitude increase and there is a tendency o go above the glide slope
C- airspeed and pitch altitude increase and there is a tendency o go above the glide slope
148
Thrust is managed IAS, and glide slope is being flown, What characteristics should be observed when a headwind shears to be a constant tailwind?
A- pitch attitude: increases; required thrust: increased, then reduced; vertical speed: increases; IAS increases, then decreases to approach speed
B- pitch attitude: decreases;required thrust: increased, then reduced; vertical speed: increases; IAS: decreases, then increases to approach speed
C-pitch attitude: increases; required thrust: reduced, then increased; vertical speed: decreases; IAS: decreases, then increases to approach speed
B- pitch attitude: decreases;required thrust: increased, then reduced; vertical speed: increases; IAS: decreases, then increases to approach speed
149
When flying a 3 degree glide slope, a headwind shears to a tailwind, Which conditions should the pilot expect on the glide slope?
A- airspeed and pitch attitude decrease and there is a tendency to go below glide slope
B- airspeed and pitch altitude increase and there is a tendency to go above the glide slope
C- airspeed and pitch altitude decrease and there is a tendency to remain on the glide slope
A- airspeed and pitch attitude decrease and there is a tendency to go below glide slope
150
When a climb or descent through an inversion or wind shear zone is being performed, the pilot should be alert for which of the following change in airplane performance?
A- a fast rate of climb or a slow rate of descent
B- a sudden change in airspeed
C- a sudden surge of thrust
B- a sudden change in airspeed
