Week 01.Women's Health.Breast Care Flashcards

(58 cards)

1
Q

A patient comes in c/o mastalgia; what do you need to know?

A

more common before menopause than after
usually not a sign of cancer
often related to the cycle –> find out if it is cyclic or noncyclic

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2
Q

What can worsen mastalgia?

A

changes in meds, hormones

stress

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3
Q

Why is mastalgia usually worse in the luteal phase?

A

increased water content in breast stroma

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4
Q

What do you need to know about cyclic mastalgia?

A

usually worst prior to menses and relieved after menses
usually bilateral
disappears w/ menopause

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5
Q

What do you need to know about noncyclic mastalgia?

A
most common b/w 30-50
unilateral or focal
sharp/burning
can be caused by cyst or fibroadenoma
ligamentous pain from pendulous breasts
can be caused by OCP, HRT, psychotropic drugs, spironalactone
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6
Q

Who should get an ultrasound for breast complaints? How about a mammogram?

A

< 30: ultrasound
30-40: mammogram +/- U/S
> 40: mammogram

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7
Q

What is the dose for primrose oil for mastalgia?

A

1000mg BID for 3-6 months

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8
Q

When to use tamoxifen for mastalgia? What are the risks?

A

(SERM)
used for severe breast pain
increased risk for endometrial cancer and DVT

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9
Q

Breast cancer is ________ (rare/common)

but lifetime risk is _________ (low/high)

A

common

high

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10
Q

For women at normal risk, describe screening via mammogram based on a patient’s age (listing risks and benefits)

A

40-50: offer mammography, but review benefits and risks; benefit: potential mortality benefit of 10% w/ starting at age 40, risk: higher likelihood of detection of DCIS & difficult therapeutic decisions
50-74: mammography every 2 years (10-year mortality reduced by 20-30% with screening)
> 75: optional to offer every 2 years after considering harms and benefits (unknown mortality benefit; possible positive benefit if life expectancy > 10 years)

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11
Q

Name a risk assessment tool that can be used to inform breast cancer screening decisions

A

Gail model

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12
Q

Which women are at increased risk of breast cancer?

A

extremely dense breasts

history of breast cancer in 1st degree relative

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13
Q

For women at increased risk of breast cancer, when should screening start and end?

A

annual screening starting ages 40-49, continuing indefinitely as long as life expectancy > 5 years

supplement with MRI screening for extremely dense breasts and negative mammograms

risks: high false-alarm rate
benefits: potential for reductions in invasive and advanced cancers

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14
Q

Who is at very high risk of breast cancer?

A

personal or family history of breast, ovarian, tubal, or peritoneal cancer
OR who have a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2

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15
Q

In addition to intensive screening, what else should be offered to patients at very high risk of breast cancer?

A

chem-prevention (SERMs, ASA, NSAIDs)

OR prophylactic mastectomies

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16
Q

When a woman presents with a breast mass, what is the first line test?

A

mammogram

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17
Q

If a pregnant or lactating woman presents with a breast mass, what alternate test can be offered?

A

ultrasound

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18
Q

When should MRI be used to image breast tissue?

A

for diagnostic dilemmas

NOT for the workup of an undiagnosed mass

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19
Q

For what patients should caution be used when ordering MRI for breast imaging, and why?

A

gadolinium used

can be hard on the kidneys; caution in renal disease; consider baseline BUN/Cr

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20
Q

What is BIRADS?

A

Breast Imaging and Data Recording System

a method of standardizing results from mammograms

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21
Q

What does BIRADS 0 mean?

A

more information needed
incomplete
more imaging required

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22
Q

What does BIRADS I mean?

A

negative, symmetrical

no masses, architectural disturbances, suspicious calcifications present

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23
Q

What does BIRADS II mean?

A

benign

may have cysts, lipomas, galactoceles

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24
Q

What does BIRADS III mean?

A

probably benign
short follow up interval recommended
2% chance of malignancy

25
What does BIRADS IV mean?
suspicious abnormality 30% chance of malignancy biopsy should be considered
26
Break down the BIRADS IV designation into subcategories
BIRADS IVa: low level suspicion for malignancy BIRADS IVb: intermediate level suspicion for malignancy BIRADS IVc: moderate level suspicion for malignancy
27
What does BIRADS V mean?
highly suggestive of malignancy (95% chance)
28
What does BIRADS VI mean?
known biopsy proven malignancy
29
Name some benign breast lumps
``` galactocele fibroadenoma cyst fat necrosis nipple piercing ```
30
What is a fibroadenoma?
``` benign solid mass firm can be rolled solitary, multiple, or bilateral ```
31
What is a cyst?
benign fluid-filled mass premenopausal, perimenopausal, occasionally postmenopausal
32
What is a galactocele?
mild retention cyst common in breastfeeding women
33
What is fat necrosis related to the breast?
benign breast mass that can develop after blunt trauma to breast
34
What is the most common breast cancer?
infiltrating ductal breast carcinoma
35
Name some skin changes that can be seen with breast cancer
``` puckering -- skin pulled by underlying cancer; can also happen with fat necrosis peau d'orange -- edema nodules discoloration ulceration ```
36
You find a breast mass on exam; what to document?
size (in cm), location, mobility, consistency
37
In what position(s) should a woman's breasts be examined?
sitting upright | supine
38
What lymph nodes are examined with a breast assessment?
cervical supraclavicular infraclavicular axillary
39
A patient has a breast lump; what patient characteristics make it more risky?
``` advanced age menarche < age 12 menopause > age 55 obesity, especially after menopause nulliparity > age 35 at first delivery extreme density on mammography BRCA1/2 Caucasian, Ashkenazi Jew first degree relative w/ breast cancer prior breast biopsy history of hyperplasia or carcinoma in situ thoracic exposures (e.g. exposed to radiation for Hodkin's Lymphoma) ```
40
Who is typically affected by mastitis? Who can be affected?
ages 15-45, especially lactating females | can affect neonates and adolescents
41
Most frequent pathogen causing mastitis
staphylococcus aureus
42
Symptoms of mastitis
``` flu-like sx: malaise, myalgia fever breast pain decreased milk outflow warmth, tenderness, firmness, swelling, erythema, edema breast mass fistula ```
43
How is mastitis diagnosed?
U/S
44
Name some signs of possible breast cancer
solitary or dominant breast mass abnormal nipple discharge nipple retraction
45
What is the definitive diagnostic test for a breast mass?
biopsy
46
A nipple discharge that is unilateral, spontaneous, and localized to one duct should be considered ______
pathologic
47
The most worrisome nipple discharge is _________
bloody
48
How do breasts normally change with the menstrual cycle?
hormonal stimulation in the cycle causes proliferation and desquamation of duct lining some areas of the breast overshoot in the monthly preparation for pregnancy; this thickens the breast and causes lumpiness
49
Typically, the first lymph nodes to exhibit lymphedema from breast cancer are the ________ nodes
axillary
50
When does breast pain typically occur in the menstrual cycle?
in the late luteal phase
51
If a patient is determined to have breast cancer, what else needs to be kept in mind?
not all breast cancer is primary; breast cancer can be metastatic disease from another site
52
Describe a dominant nodule on a breast exam
discrete distinctly different from surrounding breast tissue or the same area of the opposite breast unchanging and persistent nature throughout cycle
53
What should happen for a patient with unilateral discharge from multiple ducts?
follow the patient over time
54
What tests can be done for mastitis?
``` breast ultrasound diagnostic needle aspiration drainage cytology of nipple discharge or sample from aspiration C&S: milk, aspirate, discharge pregnancy test blood culture and sensitivity CBC mammogram ```
55
When does a patient need antibiotics for mastitis?
acute pain sx> 24hr fever sign of systemic infection
56
Name some antibiotics that can be used for mastitis
``` oral penicillin w/ activity against MSSA if MRSA ruled out Dicloxacillin 500mg QID Cephalexin 500mg QID Clindamycin 300mg QID Augmentin 875mg BID Bactrim DS BID ```
57
What does tamoxifen do?
blocks estrogen receptors | this keeps estrogen from binding to cancer cells and keeps it from proliferating
58
What is the only FDA approved medication for mastalgia? What does it do? What is the caution/risk?
Danazol --> suppresses gonadatropin secretion androgenic AE that may not be reversible (hirsutism, voice changes)