Week 1 Flashcards

(88 cards)

1
Q

What term deals with how the drug is made (dosage form determines the rate of drug dissolution)

A

Pharmaceutics

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2
Q

What does pharmacokinetics means?

A

Its the study of the movement of drugs throughout the body and what the body does to the drug. “ADME” (Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, and Excretion)

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3
Q

“Absorption” with regards to pharmacokinetics means

A

relates to route of administration (enteral; parenteral, topical)

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4
Q

Bio-Availability, with regards to absorption, means

A

the amount of drug that actually reaches circulation.

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5
Q

Describe the “First Pass Effect”

A

First Pass Effect is when the Liver encounters the drug before it enters the system. This effect only takes place with drugs administered PO (by mouth). Oral doses of drugs are absorbed into the GI tract and metabolized by the liver, resulting in a reduced amount of bioavailability or active drug in the circulatory system. Enteral absorption from intestine –> Portal circulation (connects small intestines to Liver) –> Hepatic Portal Vein –> central vein –> hepatic vein –> inferior vena cava–> heart –> body. Drugs administered parenterally (IV) will have 100% initial bio-availability because they bypass the liver.

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6
Q

Pharmacodynamics means

A

“therapeutic effects” or the way the drugs act on the body

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7
Q

What is the slowest absorption route by mouth, what is the fastest absorption route

A

Extended release tablet is the slowest and sublingual absorption route is the fastest.

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8
Q

Are Elixir, Tablets and capsules affected by the First Pass Effect?

A

YES, NOT affected are IV, sublingual, transdermal patch, suppository

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9
Q

Describe Half-life?

A

The time it takes for a drug to lose 50% of its strength in systemic circulation.

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10
Q

Distribution, with regards to pharmacokinetics is

A

how the drug travels throughout the body. Plasma (yellow fluid part of blood that hold the cells), Interstitial fluid (fluid in tissues between cells), Intracellular fluid (fluid within cells), Transcellular fluid (part of extracellular fluid)

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11
Q

The heart and Liver are areas of fast or slow distribution?

A

fast distribution

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12
Q

Muscle, fat, and skin are areas of fast or slow distribution?

A

Slow distribution.

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13
Q

What can happen if a person is taking a protein binding drug and they have low protein levels?

A

They can build up a toxic level of the drug because more of the drug will be free floating and not bound to proteins.

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14
Q

Metabolism, in regards to phamacokinetics, means

A

Use and transformation of drugs so that they can be excreted from the body.

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15
Q

How are drugs metabolized and excreted in the body

A

In the Liver and KIdneys

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16
Q

Why are neonates/infants have decreased or poor metabolism and excretion of drugs?

A

Because they have immature liver and kidneys.

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17
Q

many drugs are bio-transformed through what enzyme that forms fat soluble metabolites that are easy to eliminate

A

Cytochrome P450.

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18
Q

What does fast/slow acetylators mean?

A

an organism that acetylates a substance during metabolism —used especially to describe the rate at which a person acetylates certain drugs (such as isoniazid, hydralazine, or sulfamethazine) in the body

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19
Q

What are the different ways a drug can be excreted from the body

A

Liver, Kidneys (urine), hair, skin, breath, saliva, perspiration, feces, milk, bile

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20
Q

Schedule I drugs are

A

Drugs with no accepted medical use. illegal drugs like heroin, LSD, Cannabis

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21
Q

Schedule II drugs are

A

High potential for abuse - may lead to severe psychological or physical dependence. Examples of Schedule II drugs Hydromorphone (Diluadid), Methadone (dolophine) meperidine (demerol), oxycodone (OxyContin Percocet) and fentanyl (sublimaze, duragesic), morphine, opium, and codeine

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22
Q

Schedule III drugs are

A

potential for abuse less than substances in Schedules I or II and abuse may lead to moderate or low physical dependence or high psychological dependence. Examples drugs containing less than 15mg of hydrocodone per dose (vicodin), products containing less than 90 mg of codeine per dose (Tylenol with Codeine)

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23
Q

Schedule IV drugs are

A

Low potential for abuse relative to substances in Schedule III. examples alprazolam (xanax), carisoprodol (soma), clonazepam (klonopin), diazepam (valium), lorazepam (ativan), midazolam (versed), temazepam (restoril) and triazolam (halcion)

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24
Q

Schedule V drugs are

A

low potential for abuse relative to substances listed in Schedule IV. Examples cough preparations containing less than 200 mg of codeine per 100 ml or per 100 g (phenergan with codeine)

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25
ADPIE - Assessment and medications
always assess patients before, during and after drug administration. Nurses are legally bound as assessment is one of the roles of the RN
26
ADPIE - Evaluation and medications
always evaluate the therapeutic response of a medication. Ie. pain control directly after IV morphine given. Therapeutic window refers to the margin of effectiveness and safety of a drug. IF a drug has a narrow therapeutic window. It has a narrow margin of safety (with some drugs, there is a fine line between therapeutic effectiveness and toxicity).
27
what are the 8 drug routes?
intravenous; transdermal patch; sublingual; subcutaneous; Intramuscular; Buccal; Oral; Suppositories
28
What are the 6 rights of medication adminstration
Right...Patient; dose; medication, time, route, documentation
29
Taking Gingko Biloba while taking Coumadin (warfarin) can exacerbate bleeding, is an example of what
Drug Interactions
30
What is the antidote, used to prevent liver damage, of a Tylenol overdose
Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)
31
When someone overdoses an opiate (Morphine or Codeine) they are given what? and it does what?
Naloxone (Narcan) ; it blocks the effect of opioids and reduces respiratory distress.
32
What is an Agonist?
Drug action that stimulates a specific neuroreceptor (mimics natural response)
33
What is an Antagonist?
Drug action that blocks a specific neuroreceptor (opposite effect). Ie. pain medication blocks a receptor so pain signals are not received.
34
What is an Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor?
drugs inhibit or block the breakdown of acetylcholine.
35
What is an inhibitor?
an inhibitor blocks the receptors.
36
What is an esterase?
an esterase is an enzyme that breaks down a chemical (acetylcholine)
37
Acetylcholine is
a neurotransmitter that activates muscle action potentials.
38
How are drug names written?
Chemical; Generic; Trade (Brand)
39
agonist adrenergic drugs stimulate which nervous system
Sympathetic Nervous System - **stimulate Alpha and Beta receptors -** Causes a **"DRY"** response
40
agonist cholinergic drugs stimulate which nervous system
parasympathetic nervous system - stimulate **nicotinic & muscarinic receptors** - Causes "**wet**" response "Rest & Digest"
41
Anticholinergic drugs block nictinic & muscarinic receptors and offer what kind of effect
sympathetic nervous system - fight or flight - "**DRY RESPONSE"** **dilate pupils**, paralyzes cilliary muscle (eye), increases heart rate with large dose (decrease with small dose), relax GI, decrease GI motility (**constipation)**, decrease GI sencretions, relax bladder, tighten bladder sphincter (**urinary retention**), dilate bronchi and decrease bronchial secretions, decrease muscle tremors and rigidity.
42
Cholinergic drugs mimic parasympathetic neurotransmitter \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Acetylcholine
43
Anticholinergic drug Prototype is
Atropine - Atropine is also the antidote for muscarinic receptor & anticholinesterase inhibitor drugs
44
Theophylline is used to treat COPD and is which type of drug? What are typical side effects of Theophylline? What is the drug classification?
anticholinergic - typical side effects include tachycardia and palpitations - it is classified with Xanthines
45
Antiadrenergic drugs _______ Alpha & Beta receptors
Block
46
Anti Adrenergic drug prototype is
Metoprolol (Lopressor)
47
Anti-adrenergic drugs cause what kind of response, wet or dry?
Wet - cause vasodilation, decrease blood pressure, constrict pupils, relax urinary sphincter. (rest & digest)
48
Antagonistic reaction with Albuterol, which increases blood pressure is ________ which decreases blood pressure. They have opposite actions.
Metoprolol (Lopressor) - Which is the prototype for antiadrenergics
49
Prototype for adrenegic drugs is
Epinephrine
50
Alpha 1 receptors when blocked cause what
vasodilation, decreased blood pressure, constrict pupils, relax urinary sphincter
51
Beta 1 receptors when blocked
**decrease heart rate**, reduce force of contractions
52
Beta 2 receptors when blocked
constrict bronchioles, contract uterus, inhibit glycogenolysis
53
Drugs that are Beta 1 blockers may end in
"olols" - example Timolol
54
Drugs that are Alpha 1 blockers may end with
"sins" - Example Doxozasin (Cardura)
55
Drugs that are Alpha 1 blockers may end in
"ine" - example Phentolamine (Regitine). This is also and antidote for dopamine infiltration
56
Alpha & Beta Blockers are which type of drug, cholinergic - antiadrenergic - adrenergic - anticholinergic?
**anti - adrenergic** - "Wet response" - same response as cholinergic drugs - "**Rest & Digest**"
57
Cholinergic drugs stimulate a parasympathetic response. What is a typical parasympathetic response?
"**Wet response**" - constrict pupils, constrict bronchioles, increase secretions, decrease heart rate, dilate blood vessels, **increase peristalsis**, contract bladder, increase salivation, increase neuromuscular transmission & maintain muscle strength and tone. "**Rest & Digest**"
58
What is a prototype for cholinergic drugs?
**Bethanachol (Urecholine**) - _used to treat urinary retention_ (by contracting the bladder, urination is facilitated.
59
Cholinergic drugs make the body respond "SLUGBAM". What does that stand for?
S - Salivation/Secretion L - Lacrimation U - Urination G - GI upset B - Bradycardia A- abdominal cramp M - miosis (pupil constriction)
60
When Beta 1 receptors are stimulated
increased heart rate and increase renin secretion. **Increased myocardial contractility (1 Heart)**
61
When **Beta 2 receptors** are stimulated
**dilate bronchi**, decreased GI tone and motility **(2 LUNGS)**
62
What is the adrenergic prototype
Epinephrine
63
When Alpha 2 receptors are stimulated
they inhibit release of norepinephine (CNS), decrease GI motility
64
Antitussives are
cough suppressants by supressing the cough reflex
65
Expectorants do what
loosen bronchial secretions
66
What is used to treat nasal congestion but can cause rebound congestion when used \>5 days. Patient teaching is important.
Phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine)
67
What are prostaglandins?
Chemical mediators that are secreted during hte inflammatory process and cause vasodilation and pain.
68
Prostaglandins are derived from what
arachidonic acid
69
ibuprofen and acetylsalicylic acid (ASA or aspirin) reduces what by inhibiting prostaglandins.
Inflammation
70
what are inflammatory mediators produced in leukocytes?
Leukotrienes.
71
Oxidation of arachidonic acid produces
inflammation
72
Where does leukotrienes cause inflammation in the body
Lungs
73
How do steriods reduce inflammation
by inhibiting formation of arachidonic acid
74
Leukotriene receptor antagonists (LTRA) block leukotrienes in _______ which reduces _________ resulting in decreased inflammation.
lungs; bronchoconstriction
75
What is an example of LTRA (leukotriene receptor antagonists)
Monelukast (Singulair)
76
antihistamines are used to treat what?
allergies
77
What is the difference of 1 generation antihistamines vs. 2nd generation of antihistamines?
1st generation antihistamines cause drowsiness
78
What is an example of 2nd generation antihistamines?
Allegra, Zyrtec, Claritin
79
antihistamines work on what receptors
H1 receptor antagonist medication.
80
What can happen to elderly and children, with regards to antihistamine medications?
Can give the opposite effect, Causes CNS excitement, hyperactivity and sleeplessness (idiosyncratic adverse effect)
81
Name a Nasal decongestant that is adrenergic agonists
Oxymetazoline (Afrin)
82
How does Albuterol control asthma?
bronchodilation
83
Beta 2 receptors when stimulated do what to the lungs
dilate bronchi
84
Give an example of a anti-cholinergic that will decrease bronchial secretions and dilate bronchi
ipatropuim bromide (Atrovent)
85
What is offer an anti-inflammatory response in the lungs
Steroids
86
Give an example of an expectorants
Guaifenesin (Robitussin)
87
When taking an expectorant, what does drinking extra fluids do?
liquefy and loosen secretions
88