Week 1 - airway assessment Flashcards

(67 cards)

1
Q

What is a Difficult Airway?

A

Failure to intubate with conventional laryngoscopy after three attempts and/or failure to intubate for more than 10 minutes

A difficult airway may present as difficulty with ventilation, rigid laryngoscopic tracheal intubation, or both.

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2
Q

What are the three categories of Difficult Airway?

A
  • Recognized or known difficult airway
  • Unrecognized or unexpected difficult airway
  • Potential difficult airway
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3
Q

What is the difference between difficult airway and difficult intubation?

A

A difficult airway involves difficulty with mask ventilation or tracheal intubation, while difficult intubation requires more than 3 attempts or more than 10 minutes of laryngoscopy.

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4
Q

What percentage of difficult airway claims occur during the perioperative period?

A

67%

This statistic highlights the critical nature of airway management during anesthesia.

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5
Q

What is the purpose of the Closed Claims Analysis?

A

To identify patterns of liability associated with malpractice claims arising from management of the difficult airway.

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6
Q

What assessments are important for airway evaluation?

A
  • Patient history
  • Physical examination
  • Mallampati score
  • Atlanto-occipital joint extension
  • Thyromental distance
  • Inter-incisor distance
  • Neck circumference
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7
Q

What does the Mallampati score assess?

A

The relative size of the base of the tongue compared to the oropharyngeal opening to predict a difficult airway.

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8
Q

What is the Cormack-Lehane Classification used for?

A

A grading system for laryngoscopy that describes the best view of the glottis.

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9
Q

What are the grades defined in the Cormack-Lehane Classification?

A
  • Grade 1: The entire laryngeal aperture
  • Grade 2: Only the posterior aperture
  • Grade 3: Arytenoids
  • Grade 4: Epiglottis
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10
Q

What are key anatomical features that may indicate a difficult airway?

A
  • Small mouth
  • Receding chin
  • High arched palate
  • Large tongue
  • Morbid obesity
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11
Q

What conditions can predispose a patient to a difficult airway?

A
  • Infections (e.g., epiglottitis)
  • Trauma (e.g., maxillofacial trauma)
  • Endocrine conditions (e.g., morbid obesity)
  • Congenital conditions (e.g., Pierre Robin Syndrome)
  • Physiologic conditions (e.g., pregnancy)
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12
Q

What is the MOANS mnemonic used for?

A

Evaluation of Difficult Bag-Mask Ventilation:
* Mask seal
* Obstruction or obesity
* Age
* No teeth
* Stiff lungs

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13
Q

What is the significance of a short thyromental distance?

A

It is a predictor of a difficult airway.

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14
Q

What airway equipment is essential for managing a difficult airway?

A
  • Suction
  • Laryngoscope
  • Endotracheal tubes
  • Bougie
  • Video laryngoscope
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15
Q

What are the components of the Airway Approach Algorithm?

A
  • Rapid Sequence Induction
  • Aspiration prophylaxis
  • Optimize intubating conditions
  • Denitrogenate - Pre-oxygenation
  • IV induction agent + Succinylcholine
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16
Q

What are the factors contributing to airway difficulties in pregnancy?

A
  • Mucosal vascular engorgement
  • Laryngeal edema
  • Immobility of the floor of the mouth
  • Enlarged breast and general weight gain
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17
Q

What is the incidence of failed intubation during a c-section?

A

1 in 300

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18
Q

True or False: A large neck circumference is associated with an increased risk of aspiration.

A

True

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19
Q

Fill in the blank: A _______ is a clinical situation where an anesthesia provider has difficulty with mask ventilation or tracheal intubation.

A

[Difficult Airway]

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20
Q

What is the importance of assessing the airway in both sitting and supine positions?

A

To evaluate for potential airway difficulties, especially in obese patients.

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21
Q

What should be done if airway obstruction occurs and is not relieved by an oral airway?

A

Stop the Sevoflurane and establish an airway with the patient awake.

Sevoflurane is an inhalational anesthetic agent.

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22
Q

What does the MOANS mnemonic stand for in the evaluation of difficult bag-mask ventilation?

A
  • M: Mask seal
  • O: Obstruction or obesity
  • A: Aged
  • N: No teeth
  • S: Stiffness (resistance to ventilation)

This mnemonic helps remember factors affecting mask ventilation.

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23
Q

What are the four endpoints provided by the Difficulty Airway Algorithm?

A
  • Intubation awake or sleep
  • Intubation emergent or nonemergent
  • Approach supraglottic or subglottic
  • Airway access surgical or nonsurgical

These endpoints guide the practitioner in managing difficult airways.

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24
Q

What is the purpose of the ASA Difficulty Airway Algorithm?

A

To facilitate the management of the difficult airway and reduce the likelihood of adverse outcomes.

Adverse outcomes include death, brain injury, and airway trauma.

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25
What are some basic recommendations for preparing for a difficult airway?
* Inform the patient of the special risks & procedures * Ensure help is available * Adequately preoxygenate the patient * Actively deliver supplemental oxygen during management ## Footnote Supplemental oxygen can be delivered via nasal cannula, facemask, or LMA.
26
What equipment must be available for managing a difficult airway?
* Functioning suction * Oxygen source * Monitors * Ventilation & oxygenation devices * Emergency drugs ## Footnote This equipment is crucial for effective airway management.
27
What are the criteria for performing invasive airway management?
* Cannot intubate * Cannot ventilate * Cannot awaken the patient * Supraglottic airway has failed * Clinically significant hypoxemia ## Footnote Meeting all five criteria indicates the need for an emergent invasive airway.
28
What is the significance of awake intubation?
It is the cornerstone of the difficult airway algorithm and is planned when a difficult intubation is anticipated. ## Footnote Examples include anticipated difficult airway and unstable neck fractures.
29
What is the main purpose of the transtracheal block?
To provide sensory innervation to the vocal cords and trachea, preventing coughing during intubation. ## Footnote This block is essential for comfort during the procedure.
30
What are the contraindications for performing an emergency cricothyrotomy?
* Laryngeal diseases (e.g., cancer) * Distortion of neck anatomy * Bleeding diathesis * Children less than 6 years old ## Footnote These contraindications must be carefully considered before the procedure.
31
What is the definition of an awake intubation?
An intubation performed with the patient awake, planned for anticipated difficult intubation scenarios. ## Footnote This technique allows for better control and less discomfort.
32
What is the role of topical anesthesia in airway management?
To anesthetize the nose, mouth, tongue, and pharynx to facilitate procedures such as intubation. ## Footnote Local anesthetics like lidocaine are commonly used.
33
Fill in the blank: The _______ is the identified spongy fibromuscular band between the thyroid and cricoid cartilages used in transtracheal blocks.
cricothyroid membrane ## Footnote Proper identification is crucial for effective airway management.
34
What must be confirmed before extubation of a patient?
* Patient is alert, conscious, and responsive to commands * Full reversal from neuromuscular blockade * Patient can maintain effective ventilation ## Footnote These confirmations are essential for safe extubation.
35
True or False: An emergency cricothyrotomy can be performed in less than 70 seconds.
True ## Footnote This rapid procedure is critical in life-threatening situations.
36
What is the importance of preoxygenation in airway management?
It delays arterial desaturation during subsequent apnea. ## Footnote This practice is essential for patient safety.
37
What is the main role of the laryngospasm maneuver?
To manage laryngospasm during airway procedures. ## Footnote Proper techniques can help alleviate this complication.
38
What should be confirmed regarding the patient after neuromuscular blockade?
The patient can maintain effective ventilation (Normal ETCO2).
39
What can be considered to prolong tolerance to ETT?
Topical lidocaine or LTA.
40
What should be considered before removing the ETT?
Inserting airway exchange catheter.
41
What is a potential course of action regarding intubation after extubation?
Consider leaving the patient intubated overnight.
42
What is the laryngospasm maneuver also known as?
Larson's maneuver.
43
What does the laryngospasm maneuver involve?
Applying pressure with fingertips to the area between the mastoid process, the ramus of the mandible, and the base of the skull.
44
What are the ASA recommendations for extubation?
Awake extubation vs. extubating before return of consciousness.
45
What should be considered regarding the patient's ventilations after extubation?
All clinical factors that may impact ventilations.
46
What should be included in an airway management plan post-extubation?
A device that can expedite reintubation.
47
What equipment should always be prepared when extubating?
A clean set of airway equipment.
48
What are some post-extubation complications?
* Laryngospasm * Hypoxemia * Hypoventilation * Laryngeal edema * Negative pressure pulmonary edema * Shivering * Blood loss
49
What immediate intervention can be used for laryngospasm?
100% FiO2 and jaw thrust.
50
What should be documented after managing a difficult airway?
The difficult airway and how it was managed.
51
What is the purpose of informing the patient about their difficult airway?
To evaluate potential complications from the management.
52
What are some airway adjuncts used in anesthesia?
* LMA * LMA-Fastrach * Bougie * Lighted Stylet * Esophageal-Tracheal Combitube * Bullard Scope * Retrograde Intubation * Video Laryngoscopy (Glidescope, C-MAC) * Cook Exchange Catheter
53
What does the LEMON approach evaluate?
Signs of difficult intubation.
54
What does the RODS mnemonic stand for?
* Restricted mouth opening * Obstruction or obesity * Distorted anatomy * Stiffness
55
What does the SMART mnemonic evaluate?
* Surgery * Mass (abscess, hematoma) * Access/anatomy problems (obesity, edema) * Radiation * Tumor
56
What is arguably the most important piece of equipment in anesthesia practice?
The Pulse Oximeter.
57
What does a pulse oximeter measure?
The saturation of oxygen carried in red blood cells.
58
What is a normal level of oxygen saturation?
95% or higher.
59
When should a healthcare provider be called regarding oxygen saturation?
When readings drop below 92%.
60
What are the normal SpO2 levels for adults and children?
95% to 100%.
61
What can indicate cyanosis in adults and children?
Oxygen saturation below 67%.
62
What is a key advantage of using a pulse oximeter over an ABG test?
It is easier to perform and provides rapid results.
63
Where is a pulse oximeter most commonly attached?
To a finger.
64
What is the first step in taking a reading with a pulse oximeter?
Remove any jewelry or fingernail polish.
65
What should be done with the hand when using a pulse oximeter?
Ensure it is warm, relaxed, and below heart level.
66
Where can the pulse oximeter be placed for reading?
On a finger, earlobe, or toe.
67
What should be done after monitoring with a pulse oximeter?
Remove the device once the test is over.