Week 1 review questions Flashcards

1
Q

what are the benefits and drawbacks of the VL device?

A

Benefits:
- auditing tool
- teaching tool
- everyone can see where you are at in your laryngoscope.
- able to sit back further from airway. (infection control)

Drawbacks:
-White/pink out
- camera smearing with fluids
- may be temperamental in extremes of temp.
- hard in poor light

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2
Q

What are cannon waves and what are they indicative of?

A

These are pulsations of the Jugular vein able to be seen when the atria and ventricle are opposing each other. In the case of VT ventricles would be contracting closing the mitral valve while atria is attempting to contract meaning that blood may push back on the superior vena cava.

also known as A waves

Ref: Goyal A, Basit H, Bhyan P, et al. A Wave. [Updated 2022 Jul 5]. In: StatPearls [Internet]. Treasure Island (FL): StatPearls Publishing; 2022 Jan-. Available from: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK499925/

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3
Q

If you have a QRS axis of -60 what type of axis deviation do you have?

A

L) axis deviation.

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4
Q

When pacing has been applied, what may indicate pseudo capture?

A
  • no pulse.
  • no t waves (t wave are signs of muscle repolarisation hence if non are seen the muscle wasn’t actually depolarised)
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5
Q

What is the optimal plasma concentration for Ketamine for analgesia.

A

this is seen between 60-100ng/ml. above this we begin to see dissociative states.

Ref: Zanos P, Moaddel R, Morris PJ, et al. Ketamine and Ketamine Metabolite Pharmacology: Insights into Therapeutic Mechanisms [published correction appears in Pharmacol Rev. 2018 Oct;70(4):879]. Pharmacol Rev. 2018;70(3):621-660. doi:10.1124/pr.117.015198

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6
Q

List 4 post ROSC syndromes:

A
  • Postcardiac arrest brain injury (Disruption on both a micro- and macro- circulatory levels may result in either ischaemia or hyperaemia)
  • Postcardiac arrest myocardial dysfunction (Although the heart initially becomes hyperkinetic, likely due to circulating catecholamines, global hypokinesis often follows
    Usually resolves within 72 hours)
  • Systemic ischaemia/reperfusion response (The response of the body is similar to the septic shock with activation of the immune and complement systems, and release of inflammatory cytokines and a wide range of cellular responses)
  • Persistent precipitating pathology (The cause of the arrest may continue to impact physiological parameters)
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7
Q

What is the mechanism or broadly how does atropine work to increase HR?

A

Atropine is a muscarinic acetylcholine receptors antagonist blocking parasympathetic effects at both the SA and AV node. It has greater effects on the SA over the AV node.

https://go.drugbank.com/drugs/DB00572

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8
Q

What are the 3 criteria required for SAAS intubation?

A
  • Reduced conscious state.
  • impending need to intubate (ie. high risk of gastric emptying or difficult extrication)
  • immediate risk/need (ie. bariatric pt’s requiring increased pressures or significantly soiled airway)
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9
Q

What is the 2nd dose of amioderone available in ROSC if pt has already received 300mg in cardiac arrest?
a. 150mg
b. 300mg
c. Do not give subsequent dose
d. non of the above

A

a. 150mg

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10
Q

If the QRS is predominately positive in lead I and negative in AVF, what is the axis:
a. Normal
b. High axis deviation
c. Left axis deviation
d. north-west axis

A

c. Left axis deviation

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11
Q

What are the likely causes of narrow vs wide complex PEA’s?

A

Narrow:
- tamponade
- tension pneumothorax
- PE
- mechanical hyperinflation
- acute MI (myocardial rupture)

Wide:
-severe hyperK+
-Na+ channel blocker toxicity
- agonal rhythm
- acute MI (pump failure)

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12
Q

Patient calls because of swollen testicle, what could it be?

A

thanks Owen!

  • R) sided heart failure.
  • cancer
  • trauma
  • infection
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13
Q

In bradycardia what does the DIVE acronym stand for?

A

D- drugs
I- infarction
V- Vagal stimulation
E- environment/electrolytes

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14
Q

Wide QRS complexes at <130BPM. What are the causes and the risk with giving amioderone?

A

The risk is having patients with a Na channel problem (Na-channel blocker tox and/or hyperK+) and giving them another Na channel blocker in amioderone. Generally these patients need something to balance the equation such as calcium. In the case of Na channel blocker toxicity, sodium bicarbonate may also increase protein binding of the drug and reduce the availability of the drug for action at Na channels.

HypoCa+

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15
Q

Laryngospasm happens to your patient - what can you do as an ICP

A
  • Call for help
  • Remove stimuli.
    -Oxygenation and ventilation may still be achievable with cautious strategies that have increased risk of gastric insulation’s.
  • FONA will bypass the occlusion. Laryngospasm however may be transient.
  • Larson’s point manœuvre is an option.
  • Consult for bougie oxygenation if still in situ

https://litfl.com/laryngospasm/

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16
Q

What are the causes of a wide complex PEA?
a. tension pneumothorax
b. hyperK+
c. other metabolic causes
d. tamponade
e. Pulmonary embolism
f. agonal rhythm

A

b. hyperK+
c. other metabolic causes
f. agonal rhythm

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17
Q

Negative potential side effects of Amiodarone include:
a. hypotension
b. laryngospasm
c. cardiac dysfunction
d. respiratory depression
e. prolonged half-life in bariatric patients

A

a. hypotension
c. cardiac dysfunction
e. prolonged half-life in bariatric patients (may be a benefit or a hinderance)

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18
Q

If the post-ROSC intubated patient remains persistently hyperaemic. what can be used to improve SpO2?
a. PEEP
b. increased ventilation rate.
c. ensure adequate O2 reserve
d. posture
e.apply nasal cannula
f. OGT
g. closed suction

A

a. PEEP
b. increased ventilation rate.
c. ensure adequate O2 reserve
d. posture
f. OGT
g. closed suction

in different situations all of these may be applicable but this is my answer. I would be interested in who wrote this to let me know if this is right.

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19
Q

Elevation in AVR may indicate:

A

acute L) main occlusion and stenosis

20
Q

Which CA occlusion would most likely lead to a tri-facicular block?
a. LCX
b. RCA
c. PDA
d. LAD

A

d. LAD

21
Q

What are examples of cognitive distortion?

A
  • Catastrophic thinking
  • Confirmation bias
  • Polarised thinking
  • Overgeneralisation
  • Personalisation
  • Mind reading
  • Mental filtering
  • Discounting the positive
  • “Should” statements
  • Emotional reasoning
  • Labeling
22
Q

How do you assess cuff pressure?

A

manometer

23
Q

What are the key words to remember for surgical FONA

A

CICO
Stab
Twist
Bougie
Tube

24
Q

what are the two options of pressure and FiO2 when using CPAP?
a. 8l/min = __cmH2O and __% FiO2
b. 12l/min = __cmH2O and __% FiO2

A

a. 8l/min = 5 cmH2O and 54% FiO2
b. 12l/min = 10 cmH2O and 62% FiO2

25
Q

what is the aim of PEEP?

A
  • increase end expiratory pressure.
  • recruit alveoli through avoiding alveoli collapse.
  • increase surface area for gas exchange.
26
Q

What are the contraindications for CPAP?

A
  • Respiratory arrest, inadequate respiratory effort or agonal respirations
  • Suspected pneumothorax
  • Unconscious
  • Cardiogenic shock
  • Chest trauma
  • Active upper GI bleeding or history of recent gastric surgery
  • Nausea or vomiting – aspiration risk
27
Q

What is the risk of giving fluid to a narrow complex tachycardia?

A

once reversion has occurred they are no longer in a state of cariogenic shock and at risk fluid overload.

28
Q

What does fentanyl aim to achieve in advanced airway analgesia and sedation?

A
  • pain reduction.
  • blunting of airway reflexes.
  • some sedation.
29
Q

When completing the post intubation check/procedure, should the need to be in order?

A

no - it is important to complete all checks but the order may change in different circumstances.
For example: if you were confident the ETT was inlace but worried it was in the R) main broncos you would consider auscultation as your first check over any others.
All checks:
- Visualisations
- ETCO2
- Auscultation
- Rise and fall of chest
- Misting

30
Q

Procedural sedation can be given to paediatrics experiencing an episode of unstable VT?
True
False

A

false

31
Q

Which is not a contraindication for COPD?
a. hypotension
b. suspected pneumothorax
c. COPD
d. Epistaxis
e. GCS <12

A

c. COPD

32
Q

what is the ARC’s recommendation for drug administration in an asthmatic cardiac arrest?
a.MgSO4 infusion
b. as per normal ALS protocols
c. MgSO4 infusion + nebuliser
d. adrenaline 10microg/kg up to 500microg.

A

b. as per normal ALS protocols

33
Q

With needle FONA:
a. oxygen flow rates should be at what rate?
b. if you have SpO2 readings what should your strategy be?
c. if you don’t have SpO2 readings what should your strategy be?

A

a. L/min per age (ie a 6yo would get 6L/min

b. 4 seconds oxygen on, then waiting for a 5% drop in SpO2 before applying another 2 second oxygenation.

c. 2 seconds on with oxygenation. Waiting 30 seconds before doing another 2 seconds.

34
Q

Describe what you would see in a child with significant respiratory depression?

A
  • fatigue and potentially little effort.
  • paradoxical breathing
  • intercostal recession
  • tracheal tugging
35
Q

What is the starting dose of adrenaline for adult adrenaline infusions?

A

5 microg/min

3 microg/min in asthma

36
Q

Is it acceptable to make a long vertical cut for a surgical airway if required?

A

yes

37
Q

general ICP management/treatment options may include:

A
  • doing nothing
  • providing leadership
  • doing the basics well
  • standing back and taking in all aspect of the patient.
  • providing educational/clinical/emotional support where needed.
38
Q

PEEP in cardiac arrest is good because it assists with alveoli recruitment?

A

it may provide some alveoli recruitment but is against general practice due to the risk or worsening the low flow state.

39
Q

Treatment options should be followed systematically, ie treatment for bradycardia should follow a stepwise approach:
oxygen => atropine => pace => adrenaline.
True or false

A

false: all options should be considered but do not need to be followed as some treatments may be detrimental to a patients care in some circumstances.

40
Q

To pace someone, you need to have the ECG attached?
true or false

A

true

41
Q

What is an adults natural PEEP?

A

3-5cmH2O

42
Q

30 second drill is the time it takes to visualise the cords during laryngoscope?
True or false

A

true

43
Q

What isn Osborn wave? and in which patient would you expect to see this?

A

hypothermia

notching at the J point often accompanied with ST elevation.

44
Q

How long should a full battery last on the cor-pulse?

A

90 minutes

45
Q

What reflex are you trying to trigger by a valsalva?

A

parasympathetic