week 1 to week 3

Question 1

What is pelvic inflammatory disease?

Answer 1

most serious complication of chlamydial infection

Question 2

Pelvic inflammatory disease causes infection to

Answer 2

fallopian tubes, ovaries, and uterus

Question 3

those with P.I.D are at risk for

Answer 3

ectopic pregnancy [fertilized egg implants outside the uterus], infertility, chronic pelvic pain

Question 4

Those with P.I.D are at increase risk for

Answer 4

acquiring HIV

Question 5

1. Which contraceptive method best protects against STIs and the HIV?

Answer 5

Barrier methods- female and male condoms

Question 6

A female client who has been sexually active for 5 years is found to have gonorrhea. The client is upset and asks the nurse, “What can I do to keep from getting another infection in the future?” Which statement by the client indicates that the teaching by the nurse was effective?

Answer 6

1. “My partner has to use a condom all the time.”

Question 7

Medication for gonorrhea

Answer 7

Antibiotic therapy: cefixime or ceftriaxone

Question 8

gonorrhea can cause what type of harm to the fetus when born

Answer 8

blindness

Question 9

what medication that treats chlamydia?

Answer 9

Azithromycin or amoxicillin if pregnant

Question 10

What are the signs and symptoms of Hepatitis A

Answer 10

flulike symptoms with malaise fatigue, anorexia, nausea, pruritis, fever, and RUQ pain

Question 11

What can be done for prevention of hepatitis A

Answer 11

HAV vaccination

Question 12

Which Hepatitis virus is most threatening to the fetus

Answer 12

Hep B

Question 13

Hep B is transmitted how?

Answer 13

parenterally, perinatally, rarely oral, intimate contact

Question 14

Prevention for Hepatitis B consists of?

Answer 14

Vaccination series

Question 15

Hep C is transmitted how?

Answer 15

Blood borne infection

Question 16

Who is at risk for Hep C

Answer 16

Those who use IV injection drugs

Question 17

Severe depression of the cellular immune system
associated with which disorder

Answer 17

HIV infection characterizes AIDS

Question 18

Signs and symptoms of HIV

Answer 18

fever headache night sweats malaise generalized lymphadenopathy myalgias, nausea, D, weight loss, sore throat, and rash

Question 19

How is HIV transmitted?

Answer 19

Primarily through exchange of bodily fluids

Question 20

A male client asks the nurse why it is better to purchase condoms that are not lubricated with nonoxynol-9 (a common spermicide). Which response by the nurse is the most accurate?

Answer 20

Nonoxynol-9 does not provide protection against STIs as originally thought; it has also been linked to an increase in the transmission of the HIV and can cause genital lesions.

Question 21

If consistently and correctly used, which of the barrier methods of contraception has the lowest failure rate?

Answer 21

Male condoms

Question 22

An unmarried young woman describes her sex life as active and involving many partners. She wants a contraceptive method that is reliable and does not interfere with sex. She requests an intrauterine device (IUD). Which information is most important for the nurse to share?

Answer 22

The risk of pelvic inflammatory disease will be higher with the IUD.

Question 23

Importantly, the nurse must be aware of which information related to the use of IUDs?

Answer 23

IUDs containing copper can provide an emergency contraception option if inserted within a few days of unprotected intercourse.

Question 24

A young woman has been using oral contraceptives. When she misses her regular menstrual period, she visits the women’s health clinic and tells the nurse that she may be pregnant because she missed taking her contraceptive pills for 1 week when she had the flu. How should the nurse respond?

Answer 24

“You may be right. One of the reasons that an exact schedule is prescribed for birth control pills is that they have to be taken regularly to be effective

Question 25

A woman who has just undergone a first-trimester abortion will be using oral contraceptives. To protect against pregnancy, the client should be advised to do what?

Answer 25

Use another method of contraception for 1 week after starting the pill.

Question 26

A woman will be taking oral contraceptives using a 28-day pack. What advice should the nurse provide to protect this client from an unintended pregnancy?

Answer 26

Take one pill at the same time every day.

Question 27

Which relevant drug history is appropriate for the client who had a dark complexion with brownish pigmentation over the cheeks, nose, and forehead during pregnancy, which faded and has recurred?

Answer 27

Contraceptives

Question 28

Which client would be an ideal candidate for injectable progestins such as Depo-Provera (DMPA) as a contraceptive choice?

Answer 28

The ideal candidate has difficulty remembering to take oral contraceptives daily.

Question 29

A client currently uses a diaphragm and spermicide for contraception. She asks the nurse to explain the major differences between the cervical cap and the diaphragm. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?

Answer 29

The cervical cap can be safely used for repeated acts of intercourse without adding more spermicide later.

Question 30

Which nonpharmacologic contraceptive method has a failure rate of less than 25%?

Answer 30

Standard days variation control

Question 31

Which statement made by the client correlates with a probable pregnancy?

Answer 31

"I can feel my uterus contract, but it does not hurt."

Question 32

Probable signs are what who can see or hear

Answer 32

what the doctor or nurse can see

Question 33

P.r.o.b.a.b.l.e stands for

Answer 33

positive test returning of the fetus, objective, braxton hicks, A soften cervix, Blue vulva or cervix, Lower uterine segment becomes soft, Enlarged cervix

Question 34

Presumptive signs are what who can see or feel

Answer 34

what mom can feel

Question 35

p.r.e.s.u.m.e stands for

Answer 35

period absent, really tired, enlarged boobs, sore breasts, urine frequency/urge, movement perceived, emesis/nausea

Question 36

Which laboratory finding indicates that the female client is pregnant?

Answer 36

Increased levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

Question 37

Which technology to test for human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is used in over-the-counter (OTC) pregnancy tests?

Answer 37

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)

Question 38

Which is a positive sign of pregnancy when teaching a client about the presumptive, probable, and positive signs of pregnancy?

Answer 38

Fetal movement palpated by the nurse-midwife

Question 39

Which changes are considered the presumptive signs of pregnancy?

Answer 39

Fatigue, quickening, amenorrhea

Question 40

Which presumptive signs (felt by the woman) or probable signs (observed by the examiner) of pregnancy are matched with another possible cause?

Answer 40

Amenorrhea: stress, endocrine problems Quickening: gas, peristalsis Chadwick sign: pelvic congestion Urinary frequency: infection

Question 41

Postive signs equal

Answer 41

baby

Question 42

Fetus stands for

Answer 42

fetal movement, EFM heart tones, The baby, Ultrasound detection of baby, seeing visible movement

Question 43

Which represents a positive sign of pregnancy?

Answer 43

Fetal heartbeat auscultated with Doppler/fetoscope

Question 44

To prevent anemia, how much iron should you intake daily?

Answer 44

27mg/day

Question 45

A nurse is counseling a pregnant client with iron-deficiency anemia about when and how to take supplemental iron. What time of day and with what drink is iron absorption most efficient?

Answer 45

Before breakfast with orange juice

Question 46

You should increase your iron intake by how much

Answer 46

double intake during pregnancy

Question 47

G T P A L stands for

Answer 47

g= number of pregnancy, T= number of 37 + weeks pregnancies, P= number of 20 to 26 week pregnancies', A= number of abortions/miscarriages, L= number of living children

Question 48

Implantations occurs when?

Answer 48

2 to 3 weeks after sex

Question 49

how much folic acid should you consume daily while pregnant

Answer 49

400 to 800mcb/daily

Question 50

Which nursing intervention is appropriate to suggest for the pregnant client who has a history of miscarriage?

Answer 50

Eat a healthy diet including folic acid

Question 51

Which preconception counseling interventions can decrease the incidence of spina bifida in the fetus?

Answer 51

Include a daily intake of 600 mcg of folic acid during pregnancy.

Question 52

BMI for underweight is

Answer 52

18.49 and below gain 28-40 lbs

Question 53

BMI for normal

Answer 53

18.5 to 24.9 gain 25 to 35

Question 54

BMI for overweight is

Answer 54

25-29.9 gain 15 to 25

Question 55

BMI for obese

Answer 55

above 30 gain 11 to 20

Question 56

A 35-year-old client is taking combined oral contraceptives (COCs). What should the nurse instruct this client?

Answer 56

. "Avoid herbal supplements."

Question 57

Contraindications with oral contraceptive

Answer 57

a. OTC medications b. Herbal- St Johns wort c. Rifampin d. DM

Question 58

A woman taking an oral contraceptive pill (OCP) as her birth control method of choice should notify her health care provider immediately if she notes what?

Answer 58

Swelling and pain in one of her legs

Question 59

What medication is used to treat GBS- Group B strep

Answer 59

Penicillin or ampicillin

Question 60

TERATOWAS are teratogens agents and stands for?

Answer 60

Thalidomide Epileptic meds Retinoids Ace inhibitors T lithium Oral contraceptives Warfarin/heparin Alcohol Sulfonamides

Question 61

In reviewing the history of a woman who wants to become pregnant, which medication profile would indicate a potential concern relative to toxic exposure? Select all that apply.

Answer 61

A client being treated with an anticonvulsant is at risk for toxic effects during pregnancy. A client who is being treated with lithium is at risk for toxic effects during pregnancy. Coumadin can place a client Mat risk during pregnancy.

Question 62

TORCH stands for

Answer 62

Toxoplasmosis Other infx Rubella Cytomegalovirus Herpes simplex virus

Question 63

What is the function of amniotic fluid

Answer 63

Cushions baby, thermoregulation, promotes movement

Question 64

How much amniotic fluid should there be?

Answer 64

At term 500-2000ml

Question 65

ANF that is below 500 ml is called

Answer 65

oligohydramnios [less water]

Question 66

ANF that is above 2000ml is called

Answer 66

POlyhydramnios

Question 67

A woman at 35 weeks of gestation has had an amniocentesis. The results reveal that surface-active phospholipids are present in the amniotic fluid. The nurse is aware that this finding indicates what?

Answer 67

Lung maturity

Question 68

Upon reviewing the reports of a 12-week pregnant client, the nurse finds that the client has a low amniotic fluid volume. Which system does the nurse suspect to be affected in the fetus?

Answer 68

Renal system

Question 69

A maternity nurse should be aware of which fact about the amniotic fluid?

Answer 69

It serves as a source of oral fluid and as a repository for waste from the fetus.

Question 70

A client elects to have her pregnancy terminated after finding out at 16 weeks' gestation that she is carrying a fetus with Down syndrome. What should the nurse conclude about an abortion at this stage of the pregnancy?

Answer 70

An opportunity for the client to express feelings about her decision should be provided.

Question 71

A woman arrives at the prenatal clinic stating that her pregnancy test is positive. She asks the nurse for information about an abortion. After verifying that the woman is at 8 weeks' gestation, the nurse counsels her that having an abortion is controversial and that many women have long-lasting feelings of guilt after an abortion. What is the nurse's legal responsibility?

Answer 71

To provide the client with correct, unbiased information

Question 72

A woman is 16 weeks pregnant and has elected to terminate her pregnancy. Which is the most common technique used for the termination of a pregnancy in the second trimester?

Answer 72

Dilation and evacuation (D&E)

Question 73

Which statement is the most complete and accurate description of medical abortions?

Answer 73

They can be either elective or therapeutic.

Question 74

Postabortion instructions may differ among providers regarding tampon use and the resumption of intercourse. However, education should be provided regarding serious complications. When should the woman who has undergone an induced abortion be instructed to return to the emergency department? (Select all that apply.)

Answer 74

b. Chills c. Foul-smelling vaginal discharge e. Severe abdominal pain

Question 75

A pregnant client in the first trimester has developed pregnancy complications and undergoes a medical abortion. The nurse finds from the client's blood reports that the client is Rh negative. What is a priority action by the nurse?

Answer 75

The patient is given Rho(D) immune globulin within 72 hours of the abortion to prevent Rh isoimmunization.

Question 76

Which abortion technique is appropriate for a client during the 18th week of pregnancy?

Answer 76

Dilation and evacuation

Question 77

Methotrexate is used for?

Answer 77

cytotoxic drug that causes early abortion by blocking folic acid in the fetal cells so that they cannot divide.

Question 78

Which statement by the student nurse regarding therapeutic abortion indicates effective learning?

Answer 78

Therapeutic abortion may be performed for maternal health."

Question 79

Which nursing advice is appropriate for the 5-month-pregnant client reporting dizziness after waking up in the morning?

Answer 79

Try sleeping in the side-lying (lateral) position.