WEEK 11: AEROBIC GRAM-POSITIVE BACILLI Flashcards

(221 cards)

1
Q

Non-spore formers can be divided into two, smaller groups
as:

A

non-branching catalase-positive bacilli and non
branching catalase-negative bacilli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

frequently isolated from urogenital specimens from women
and are incubated aerobically but they are aerotolerant
anaerobes

A

Lactobacillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Frequently isolated in clinical laboratory but are typically
considered contaminants or commensals:

A

Bacillus and
Corynebacterium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A large diverse group of bacteria that includes animal and
human pathogens as well as saprophytes and plant
pathogens

A

CORYNEBACTERIUM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

closely related to
mycobacteria and nocardiae On the basis of 16S ribosomal ribonucleic acid (rRNA)
sequencing,

A

corynebacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

CORYNEBACTERIUM CAN BE DIVIDED INTO

A
  • Can be divided into nonlipophilic and lipophilic species
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  • Lipophilic corynebacterial:
A

o Considered fastidious and grow slowly on
standard culture media
o incubated for at least 48 hours
o Growth is enhanced if lipids are included in the
culture medium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Slightly curved, gram-positive rods with
nonparallel sides and slightly wider ends, producing the
described “club shape”

A

CORYNEBACTERIUM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The term diphtheroid, meaning “diphtheria-like,” is
sometimes used in reference to this Gram staining
morphology

A

CORYNEBACTERIUM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The classification of corynebacteria is not well
characterized. It is not possible to identify 30% to 50% of
coryneform-like isolates to the species level without

A

16S
rRNA gene sequencing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Most significant pathogen of the group CORYNEBACTERIUM

A

C. diphtheriae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

CORYNEBACTERIUM DIPTHERIAE
IS CLASSIFIED INTO

A

Classified into biotypes (mitis, intermedius, and gravis)
according to colony morphology, as well as into lysotypes
based upon corynebacteriophage sensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

WHAT IS NEEDED FOR OPTIMAL GROWTH OF C. DITHERIAE??

A
  • Most strains require nicotinic and pantothenic acids for growth; some also require thiamine, biotin, or pimelic acid
  • For optimal production of diphtheria toxin, the medium should be supplemented with amino acids and must be deferrated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Virulence factor of c diptheriae

A
  • diptheria toxin
  • fragment a and b
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

he major virulence factor and a protein
of 62,000 daltons (Da)

A

Diphtheria toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

__________and _______ which belong to the
“C. diphtheriae group,” can also produce the toxin when
they become infected with the tox-carrying β-phage____

A

C. ulcerans and C. pseudotuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

when is diptheria toxin toxic?

A

Toxin is exceedingly potent and is lethal for humans in
amounts of 130 ng/kg body weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

is responsible for the cytotoxicity

A

fragment a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

binds to receptors on human cells
and mediates the entry of fragment A into the
cytoplasm

A

Fragment B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

diptheria toxin is caused by and secreted by

A
  • The toxicity is caused by the ability of diphtheria toxin to
    block protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells.
  • The toxin is secreted by the bacterial cell and is nontoxic
    until exposed to trypsin.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

cleaves the diptheria toxin into the two fragments,
which are held together by a disulfide bridge

A

Trypsinization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

splits nicotinamide adenosine dinucleotide to form nicotinamide and adenosine diphosphoribose
(ADPR).

A

Fragment A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

binds to and inactivates elongation factor 2 (EF-2),
an enzyme required for elongation of polypeptide chains on
ribosomes.

A

ADPR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Production of the diptheria toxin in vitro depends on numerous
environmental conditions:

A

o Alkaline pH (7.8 to 8.0)
o Oxygen
o Iron concentration in the environment (most
important)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
diseases cause dby c diptheria
2 different form of disease in humans Respiratory diptheria Cutaneous diphtheria = nonhealing ulcer and dirty gray membrane Begins gradually and is characterized by low-grade fever, malaise, and a mild sore throat Most common site of infection is the tonsils or the pharynx The symptoms of diphtheria include pharyngitis, fever, swelling of the neck or area surrounding the skin lesion Combination of cell necrosis and exudate forms a tough gray-to-white pseudomembrane, which attaches to the tissues. diphtheritic lesion diphtheritic lesion Cardiac failure Asymptomatic nasopharyngeal carriage
26
how to diagnose c diptheria
Toxigenicity is identified by a variety of in vitro (e.g., gel immunodiffusion, tissue culture) or in vivo (e.g., rabbit skin test, guinea pig challenge) methods In vivo toxin testing is rarely done because the in vitro methods are reliable, less expensive, and free from animal use.
27
appearance of c diptheria
- pleomorphic - palisades, sharp angles with v and L formation - club shaped swelling and beads - babes ernst granules - irregular stain esp with meth blue
28
accumulation of polymerized polyphosphates.
Babès-Ernst granules
29
accumulation of nutrient reserves and differs with the type of medium and the metabolic state of the individual cells.
Babès-Ernst granules
30
temp for c diptheriae
FA Grows best under aerobic conditions and has an optimal growth temperature of 37° C, although multiplication occurs within the range of 15° to 40° C.
31
WHAT AGAR MEDIUM IS BEST FOR C DIPTHEIRA
Grows on nutrient agar, better growth is usually obtained on a medium containing blood or serum, such as Loeffler serum or Pai agars LOEFFLER = KITANG KITA SBA = SMALL ZONE OF B HEMOLYSIS CTBA - BLACK/BROWN COLONY DUE TO REDUCED TELLURITE
32
is useful for differentiating corynebacteria because only C. diphtheriae, C. ulcerans, and C. pseudotuberculosis form a brown halo as a result of cystinase activity
CTBA
33
CTBA is useful for differentiating corynebacteria because only____________________ form a brown halo as a result of cystinase activity
CTBA is useful for differentiating corynebacteria because only C. diphtheriae, C. ulcerans, and C. pseudotuberculosis form a brown halo as a result of cystinase activity
34
1distinguishes C. diphtheriae from c. ULCERANCE AND C PSEUDOTUBERCULSOSIS
Lack of urease production
35
Identification of an isolate as C. diphtheriae does not mean that the patient has diphtheria t or f
trueeeeeee
36
elek test what bacteria and explain procedure
c. diptheria o Requires reagents and antisera be carefully controlled and titrated o Organisms (controls and unknowns) are streaked on medium of low iron content. o Each organism is streaked in a single straight line parallel to each other and 10 mm apart. o A filter paper strip impregnated with diphtheria antitoxin is laid along the center of the plate on a line at right angles to the inoculum lines of control and unknown organisms o The plate is incubated at 35° C and examined after 18, 24, and 48 hours. o Lines of precipitation are best seen by transmitted light against a dark background. o The white precipitin lines start about 4 to 5 mm from the filter paper strip and are at an angle of about 45 degrees to the line of growth. If an isolate is positive for toxin production and it is placed next to the positive control, the toxin line of the positive control should join the toxin line of the positive unknown to form an arch of identity
37
what else can be used to diagnose c diptheria
Rapid enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays and immunochromatographic strip assays: Available for the detection of diphtheria toxin. * PCR - for tox gene
38
Toxoid vaccine-formalin-treated diphtheria toxin is part of
trivalent diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis vaccine preventing disease but not infection
39
Antimicrobial agents have no effect on the toxin that is already circulating, but they do eliminate the focus of infection and prevent the spread of the organism.
c diptheria
40
treatment of diptheria
* Drug of choice is penicillin * Erythromycin is used for penicillin-sensitive individuals. * Most patients do not develop immunity after infection; therefore, vaccination should be administered after recovery
41
C. Amycolatum
- normal skin microbiota - prosthetic joint infection and has been reported to cause bloodstream infection and endocarditis - flat and dry, have a matte or waxy appearance, and are nonlipophilic. - MDR:β-lactams, fluoroquinolines, macrolides, clindamycin, and aminoglycosides
42
C. jeikeium
- NORMAL SKIN MICROBIOTA - LIMITED TO IMMUNOCOMPOROMISED, HAD INVASIVE PROCEDURE OR THOSE WITH CENTRAL LINE CATHETER OR PROSTHETIC DEVICE - Most common cause of Corynebacterium-associated prosthetic valve endocarditis in adults. * Causes septicemia, meningitis, prosthetic joint infections, and skin complications, such as rash and subcutaneous nodules. * Lipophilic - MDR: Cephalosporins, aminoglycosides. - SUS: VANCOMYCIN
43
C. pseudodiptheriticum
* Part of the normal biota of the human nasopharynx, is an infrequent cause of infection. * Associated with respiratory tract infections in immunocompromised or patients with other underlying diseases, such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or diabetes mellitus * Respiratory tract infection can mimic respiratory diphtheria. * Cause endocarditis, urinary tract infections (UTIs), and cutaneous wound infections in immunocompromised patients. - NOT PLEOMORPHIC - EVEN STAIN
44
C. pseudotuberculosis
* Veterinary pathogen * Human infections typically have been associated with contact with sheep and are rare * Causes a granulomatous lymphadenitis in humans.
45
C. striatum
* Part of the human skin and the nasopharynx * commensal, contaminant, nosocomial * device-related infection and has been reported in cases of endocarditis, septic arthritis, meningitis, and pneumonia. * Nonlipophilic * Pleomorphic * Produces small, shiny, convex colonies in about 24 hours. * Resistant: Penicillins and other β-lactams, macrolides, fluoroquinolones, daptomycin (reported recently) * Susceptible: Vancomycin. Resistance to daptomycin has been reported recently.
46
C. ulcerans
* Isolated from humans with diphtheria-like illness, and a significant number of isolates produce the diphtheria toxin. * veterinary pathogen, causing mastitis in cattle and other domestic and wild animals * Isolated from skin ulcers and exudative pharyngitis.
47
C. urealyticum
* Most commonly associated with UTIs. * Presumptive identification can be made for urine isolates with pinpoint, nonhemolytic, white colonies * Christensen urea slant * Resistant: β-lactams, trimethoprimsulfamethoxazol, macrolides, and tetracycline. * Drug of choice: Vancomycin
48
Linked to bacteremia, endocarditis, pneumonia, and other infections.
R. MUCILAGINOSA
49
R. DENTOCARIOSA
* Normal human oropharyngeal microbiota * Found in saliva and supragingival plaque. * Isolated from patients with endocarditis. * Resembles coryneform bacilli
50
o Branching filaments that resemble filaments of facultative actinomycetes. o However, when placed in broth, the species produces coccoid cells, a characteristic differentiating it from actinomycetes.
R. DENTOCARIOSA
51
is widespread in the environment and has been recovered from: o Soil o Water o Vegetation o Animal products: Raw milk, cheese, poultry, and processed meats
LISTERIA MONOCYTOGENES - can also be in git * Isolated from crustaceans, flies, and ticks. * Known to cause illness in many species of wild and domestic animals, including sheep, cattle, swine, horses, dogs, cats, rodents, birds, and fishes * Can be isolated from both human and animal asymptomatic carriers.
52
Has the highest mortality rate secondary to its unique virulence factors
L. monocytogenes
53
is recognized as an uncommon but serious infection primarily of neonates, pregnant women, older adults, and immunocompromised hosts. Infection may also occur in healthy individuals
Listeriosis
54
Virulence Factors of listeria monocytogenes
- Hemolysin (Listeriolysin O (LLO)) - catalsew= - superoxide dismutase -Phosphatidylinositol-specific phospholipase C (PI-PLC) - Intracellular mobility via actin polymerization (ActA) - Surface protein (p60) - hemolysis - Intracellular mobility via actin polymerization (ActA) - Ability to replicate at refrigerator temperatures - Internalins (InlA and InlB) - cadherin
55
o Damages the phagosome membrane, effectively preventing killing of the organism by macrophages o Helps bacteria escape from host cell vacuole
Hemolysin (Listeriolysin O (LLO))
56
Helps the bacteria escape host cell vacuole and cause membrane disruption
* Phosphatidylinositol-specific phospholipase C (PI-PLC)
57
Induces phagocytosis through increased adhesion and penetration into mammalian cells.
* Surface protein (p60).
58
Nonhemolytic isolates are found to be avirulent and demonstrate no intracellular spread of the organism
L monocytogenes
59
forms "rocket tails" via actin polymerization that allows the bacteria to move rapidly between cells, avoid antibody detection, and spread hematogenously
L. monocytogenes * Intracellular mobility via actin polymerization (ActA)
60
Low temperatures induce enzymes such as RNA helicase which improves ??? activity and replication at low temperatures
Low temperatures induce enzymes such as RNA helicase which improves L. monocytogenes’ activity and replication at low temperatures enables the ability to propel itself and latch onto enterocytes early in infection, but eventually losing the flagella the longer the bacteria is exposed to higher temperatures
61
Bacterial surface proteins for host cell attachment
* Internalins (InlA and InlB)
62
An epithelial attachment protein that is found in abundance in the blood-brain barrier as well as the placental-fetus barrier which may explain why the bacteria can infect neonates and cause meningitis.
Cadherin
63
disease caused by l monocytogenes
Known to cause illness in many species of wild and domestic animals, including sheep, cattle, swine, horses, dogs, cats, rodents, birds, and fishes - meningitis - Sepsis, meningitis, encephalitis, spontaneous abortion, or fever and self-limiting gastroenteritis in a healthy adult - a tropism for the central nervous system (CNS) - Infections of newborns and immunocompromised adults are the most common - Early and late-onset listeriosis in newborn - Most common manifestations: CNS infection and endocarditis. - Outbreaks have occurred as a result of eating contaminated cheese, coleslaw, and chicken. - Contaminated ice cream, hot dogs, and luncheon meats have served as vehicles for this foodborne disease. - intestinal tract infection
64
Responsible for spontaneous abortion and stillborn neonates Signs and symptoms: flulike illness with fever, headache, and myalgia result in premature labor or septic abortion within 3 to 7 days. source of infection eliminated at birth so self limiting siya
l monocytogenes disease in preggy
65
disease in newborn l monocytogenes
* Extremely serious * 50% fatality for babies born alive * Similar to Streptococcus agalactiae neonatal disease, there are two forms of neonatal listeriosis: early onset and late onset.
66
o Early-onset listeriosis:
From an intrauterine infection that can cause illness at or shortly after birth. ▪ The result is most often sepsis. ▪ Associated with aspiration of infected amniotic fluid.
67
o Late-onset disease listeriosis
▪ Occurs several days to weeks after birth. ▪ Affected infants generally are full-term infants and healthy at birth. ▪ Most likely to manifest itself as meningitis. ▪ Fatality rate is lower than in early-onset infection
68
* Outbreaks have occurred as a result of eating contaminated cheese, coleslaw, and chicken. * Contaminated ice cream, hot dogs, and luncheon meats have served as vehicles for this foodborne disease.
l monocytoegenes
69
Most common manifestations: CNS infection and endocarditis.
l monocytogenes
70
appearance of l monocytogenes
* Gram-positive coccobacillus. * Subculturing, cells become coccoidal * Older cultures often appear gram variable. * Singly, in short chains, or in palisades. * L. monocytogenes can resemble Streptococcus when found in the coccoid form * L. monocytogenes can resemble Corynebacterium when the bacillus forms prevail. * Not usually seen on the CSF smear * Colonies and hemolysis resemble those seen with S. agalactiae
71
how to grow l monocytogenes
* Grows on a special type of agar called Mueller-Hinton agar. * Grows well on SBA and chocolate agar * Grows well on nutrient agars and in broths, such as brain heart infusion medium and thioglycolate broth. * Prefers a slightly increased carbon dioxide (CO2) tension for isolation.
72
temp for l monocytogenes
Optimal growth temperature: 30° to 35° C, but growth occurs over a wide range (0.5° to 45° C). * Cold Enrichment: Can grow at 4° C and used to isolate the organism from polymicrobial clinical specimens
73
wet mount prep in l mono cytogenes
▪ Exhibits tumbling motility (end-over-end motility) when viewed microscopically ▪ Umbrella pattern is seen when the organism is incubated at room temperature (22° to 25° C) but not at 35°
74
l monocytogenes camp reaction
▪ More pronounced CAMP reaction is seen when Rhodococcus equi is used in place of Staphylococcus aureus. L. ▪ Produces a “block”-type hemolysis ▪ distinguishes L. monocytogenes (+) from other Listeria spp (-)
75
* Presumptive identification and confrimatory findings of l monocytogewnes
* Presumptive identification: o Gram staining o Tumbling motility o Positive catalase o Esculin hydrolysis. * Confirmatory findings: o Acid production from glucose and positive o Voges-Proskauer o Methyl red reactions.
76
HOW TO TREAT L MONOCYTOGENES
* Preferred Drug: Ampicillin * Penicillin, aminoglycosides, and macrolides is effective to treat Listeriosis
77
* There are three species in the genus Erysipelothrix:
o Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae o Erysipelothrix tonsillarum o Erysipelothrix inopinata
78
* Only species known to cause disease in humans. genus Erysipelothrix
ERYSIPELOTHRIX RHUSIOPATHIAE
79
Commensal and present in vertebrates and invertebrates, including domestic swine, birds, and fishes.
ERYSIPELOTHRIX RHUSIOPATHIAE
80
ROute of infection: ERYSIPELOTHRIX RHUSIOPATHIAE
Cuts or scratches on skin * Human cases typically result from occupational exposure. Work involves handling fish and animal products are most at risk.
81
LOC OF ERYSIPELOTHRIX RHUSIOPATHIO
Survives well in environmental sources: Water, soil, and plant.
82
DISEASE CAUSED BY ERYSIPELOTHRIX RUSOPATHIAE
Linked to bacteremia, endocarditis, pneumonia, and other infections. Produces three types of disease in humans: ERYSPELOID SEPTICIMEIA DIFFUSE CUTANEOUS INFECTION AND SYSTEMIC DISEASE pneumonia, abscesses, meningitis, endophthalmitis, osteomyelitis, and septic arthritis
83
A localized skin infection that resembles streptococcal erysipelas.
Erysipeloid - Lesions usually are seen on the hands or fingers because they are inoculated through work activities. - Signs and symptoms: Low-grade fever, arthralgia, lymphangitis, and lymphadenopathy may occur.
84
ERYSIPELOTHRIX RHISIOPATHIAE IS RESISTANT AND SUSCEPTIBLE TO
o Resistant: Aminoglycosides and Vancomycin o Susceptible: Cephalosporins Fluoroquinolones
85
APPEARANCE OF ARYSIPELOTHRIX RHUSOPATHIAE
* Thin, rod-shaped, grampositive organism that can form long filaments * Arranged singly, in short chains, or in a “V” shape. * V shape arrangement is similar to corynebacterial * E. rhusiopathiae decolorizes easily, so it may appear gram variable.
86
Inoculated in a nutrient broth with 1% glucose and incubated in 5% CO2 at 35° C.
ERSYPELOTHRIX RHUSOPATHIAE
87
Gelatin stab culture yields a highly characteristic “test tube brush–like” pattern at 22° C.
ERYSIPELOTHRIX RHUSOPATHIAE
88
* Stain gram variable or gram negative. * Gram-positive type of cell wall o Peptidoglycan layer is thinner
GARDNERELLA VAGINALIS
89
Characterized by a malodorous discharge and vaginal pH greater than 4.5.
bacterial vaginosis (BV)
90
BV
o Results from a reduction in the Lactobacillus population in the vagina o Increase in vaginal pH
91
GARDNERELLA VAGINALIS
* BV * Also play a role in UTIs in men and women * BV is associated with preterm birth and increased risk for acquisition of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and other sexually transmitted infections (STIs)
92
GARDNERELLA VAGINALIS VF
VAGINOLYSIN PROTEASE AND SIALIDASE ENZYME
93
cholesterol-dependent cytolysin that initiates complex signaling cascades that induce target cell lysis and allow for Gardnerella’s virulence
Vaginolysin
94
Diagnosis of BV:
o Presence of “clue cells,” large squamous epithelial cells o Gram-positive ,gram-variable bacilli and coccobacilli clustered on the edges o Lactobacillus rods are absent in the wet mount.
95
Amsel’s clinical criteria
used to diagnosis BV if three of four criteria are found: 1. Homogeneous, thin, white discharge that smoothly coats the vaginal walls 2. Clue cells 3. pH of vaginal fluid greater than 4.5 4. Fishy odor of vaginal discharge before or after addition of 10% potassium hydroxide, the whiff test (positive).
96
detect vaginal fluid sialidase activity
o Affirm VP III (Becton Dickinson, Sparks, MD) o DNA hybridization probe test o OSOM BV Blue test (Sekisui Diagnostics, Framingham, MA
97
for definitive identification of G. vaginalis
16S rRNA gene sequencing
98
Gram staining of the vaginal fluid to examine the predominant strain of bacteria to make a microbiological diagnosis of BV
Nugent CriteriaQ
99
GARDNERELLA VAGINALIS GROWS BEST IN
* It takes more than 24 hours to develop visible colonies * Grows best in 5% to 7% CO2 at a temperature of 35° to 37° C. Medium of choice: Human blood bilayer Tween (HBT) agar. Also produces β-hemolytic colonies on media made with rabbit or human blood, but not sheep blood (NONHEMOLYTIC ON SBA AND PIN POINT)
100
Differential Diagnosis OF BV
PROPER PELVIC EXAM, = exclude other similarly presenting diseases such as herpes simplex virus SPECULUM EXAM, = can look for cervicitis and a wet mount of the vaginal discharge can determine if there is candidiasis or trichomoniasis CERVICAL SWAB = can be sent for chlamydia and gonorrhea
101
GARDNERELLA VAGINALIS Treatment
* Drug of choice: Clindamycin and Metronidazole
102
are a primary clue that a clinical sample contains Nocardia spp.
Finely beaded, branching rods
103
Colony, microscopic morphology and types of infections caused, sometimes resemble those of fungi, but these organisms are true bacteria.
NOCARDIA
104
isolation of __________ from patients should be carefully evaluated for the presence of disseminated disease, immunocompromised hosts
Nocardia
105
was considered the most prominent Nocardia human pathogen
Nocardia asteroides
106
more virulent than the other members of the N. asteroides complex, since infection with this species is more likely to result in disseminated disease
N. farcinica
107
different susceptibility pattern, showing consistent susceptibility to erythromycin and ampicillin NOCARDIOA
N. NOVA
108
VF OF NOCARDIA
Superoxide dismutase and catalase nocobactin = ironchelating compound
109
occurs from the inhalation of the organism present in dust or soil and is the most common manifestation of disease. NOCARDIA
PULMONARY INFECTION
110
DISEASE CAUSED BY NOCARDIA
- Infection occurs by two routes: pulmonary and cutaneous. - Serious infection - brain abscess infection - 40% of the diagnoses are made at autopsy. Pulmonary infections - Confluent bronchopneumonia - thick and purulent sputum - no sulfur granules Cutaneous infections - acetinmycotic mycetomas - Direct inoculation of Nocardia species by transcutaneous routes results in three forms of infection: cellulitis, lymphocutaneous disease, or actinomycetoma - Primary cutaneous nocardiosis - Lymphocutaneous nocardiosis/sporotrichoidtype - Actinomycetoma
111
No sulfur granules (masses of filamentous organisms bound together by calcium phosphate) develop, and no sinus tract formation occurs.
Confluent bronchopneumonia
112
Cutaneous Infection IN NOCARDIA IS OFTEN caused by what species
N. brasiliensis is the most frequent cause of this form of nocardiosis
113
most common cause of actinomycotic mycetoma.
N. brasiliensis
114
are characterized by swelling, draining sinuses, and granules
mycetomas
115
MYCETOMAS
* As the infection progresses, burrowing sinuses open to the skin surface and drain pus. * The pus may be pigmented and contain “sulfur granules” * Sulfur granules appear yellow or orange and have a distinct granular appearanc
116
Direct inoculation of Nocardia species by transcutaneous routes results in three forms of infection:
cellulitis, lymphocutaneous disease, or actinomycetoma
117
This Nocardia infection is marked by the presence of a primary pyodermatous lesion frequently associated with areas of chronic drainage and crusting. progresses to the formation of lymphatic abscesses
Lymphocutaneous nocardiosis/Sporotrichoidtype
118
te-stage infection, characterized by a chronic, localized, slowly progressive, and subcutaneous and bone disease, usually involving the foot and often painless
Actinomycetoma
119
Chalky, matte, velvety, or powdery appearance and may be white, yellow, pink, orange, peach, tan, or gray pigmented.
NOCARDIA
120
beaded appearance may be confused as chains of gram-positive cocci
NOCARDIA
121
Can have a dry, crumbly appearance similar to breadcrumbs
NOCARDIA
122
Examination of colonies with a dissecting microscope may reveal the presence of aerial hyphae (production of spores)
NOCARDIA
123
Branching isolate that is partially acid fast on staining with carbolfuchsin and decolorizing with a weak acid (0.5% to 1% sulfuric acid) compared with 3% hydrogen chloride in the stain for mycobacteria.
NOCARDIA
124
Direct examination specimen: Tissue and pus from draining sinuses
NOCARDIA
125
Broad, interwoven, septate hyphae that are wider (2 to 5 µm) compared to actinomycotic mycetoma
Eumycotic mycetoma
126
HOW TO GROW NOCARDIA
* Grow well on most common nonselective laboratory media * Incubated at temperatures between 22° and 37° C, * 3 to 6 days or more may pass before growth is seen. * Recovered on simple media containing a single organic molecule as a source of carbon. * Media containing antimicrobial agents used for isolating fungi should not be used because they susceptible to many of the agents used in these media. * SBA: some isolates are β-hemolytic * Thayer-Martin agar may enhance recovery by inhibiting the growth of contaminating organisms. * They also grow on nonselective buffered charcoal–yeast extract agar
127
Phenotypic tests are used to identify relevant Nocardia spp.
o Substrate hydrolysis (casein, tyrosine, xanthine, and hypoxanthine) o Other substrate and carbohydrate use, arylsulfatase, and gelatin liquefaction o Antimicrobial susceptibility profile o Fatty acid analysis by high-performance liquid chromatography
128
most reliable identification method for nocardia
16S rRNA gene sequencing
129
nocardia is susceptible to
trimethoprim sulfamethoxazole (mild to tolerate diseases) combination therapy with TMP SMX plus amikacin (life threatening heart, disseminated disease, infection of immunocomporomised, cns disease) Cetrafioxone (cns disease) TMP SMX and/or minocycline and/or amoxicillin-clavulanate (Improves on iv and no cns disease) Sulfonamide
130
nocardia is resistant to
Penicillin Antifungal agents
131
actinomyces is found in
Actinomyces species are members of the endogenous flora of mucous membranes and are frequently cultured from the gastrointestinal tract, bronchi, and female genital tract - The major sites of actinomycoses are cervicofacial, abdominopelvic, and thoracic
132
most common cause of human disease among the Actinomyces species is
A. israelii
133
never been cultured from nature, and no person-to-person spread has been documente
actinomyces
134
Infections are associated with the breakdown of normal physical barriers, such as disruption of mucosal membranes in the mouth and gastrointestinal tract
Actinomyces
135
Certain conditions may predispose to infection, including erupting secondary teeth, dental extractions and caries, gingivitis, and gingival trauma
Actinomyces
136
diagnosis of ______ in children should alert the astute physician to consider an underlying immunodeficiency such as chronic granulomatous disease.
actinomyces
137
The major sites of actinomycoses are
cervicofacial, abdominopelvic, and thoracic
138
disease caused by actinomyces
Infections are associated with the breakdown of normal physical barriers, such as disruption of mucosal membranes in the mouth and gastrointestinal tract - Certain conditions may predispose to infection, including erupting secondary teeth, dental extractions and caries, gingivitis, and gingival trauma - in children should alert the astute physician to consider an underlying immunodeficiency such as chronic granulomatous disease. Virtually all infections are polymicrobial - Certvicofacial actinomycosis - thoracic disease -acute pneumonitis - abdominal and pelvic actinomycosis -acute inflammatory lesions -osteomyelitis -stimulates ptb -chronic inflammation, fibrosis, and cavitation that result in the invasion and destruction of surrounding structures
139
actinomyces is susceptible to
Thoracic, abdominal, or soft tissue abscesses may require a medico-surgical approach with drainage and extensive resection of affected tissues and excision of sinus tracts combined with prolonged antibiotic therapy Penicillins and extended spectrum penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems, and tetracycline Amoxicillin or penicillin-allergic patients, doxycycline, erythromycins, and clindamycins have proven to be suitable alternatives
140
actinomyces israelii is resistant to
A. israelii have developed resistance to penicillin
141
most challenging aspect of diagnosis of infection by members of the Actinomycetes is the
inclusion of these organisms in the differential diagnosis of patients with chronic cavitary pulmonary disease, especially the immunocompromised patient
142
Both species present as masqueraders in many clinical presentation
actinomycosis and nocardiosis
143
presence of beaded, branching, gram-positive bacilli in any clinical specimen should alert the clinician to consider both
aerobic Nocardia and anaerobic Actinomyces
144
transportation of actinomyces
Actinomyces are microaerophilic or facultative, specimens should be transported in anaerobic transport media and cultured under strict anaerobic conditions
145
Nocardia species will grow on standard blood culture media, but the use of selective media such as _________________________________may be useful
Thayer Martin with antibiotics
146
Cause mycetomas, which are identical to those caused by Nocardia.
Actinomadura
147
Actinomaduraudes
Actinomadura madurae and Actinomadura pelletieri.
148
is cellobiose and xylose positive
A. madurae
149
* Gram Stain Morphology: Moderate, fine, intertwining, branching with short chains or spores, fragmentation * Colony Appearance on Routine Agar: White-to-pink pigment, mucoid, molar tooth appearance after 2 weeks’ incubation; sparse aerial hyphae
Actinomadura
150
* Primarily saprophytes found as soil inhabitants
Streptomyces
151
specimens has been increasingly isolated from many clinical specimens, including sputum, wound, blood, and brain
Streptomyces anulatus
152
* Gram Stain Morphology: Extensive branching with chains and spores; does not fragment easily * Colony Appearance on Routine Agar: Glabrous or waxy heaped colonies; variable morphology; wide range of pigmentation from cream to brown-black; white aerial hyphae
Streptomyces
153
Distinguished by simple biochemical tests.
Gordonia
154
Absence of arylsulfatase and mycelia
gordonia
155
Infections are postsurgical sternal wounds, coronary artery infection, and infection from central venous catheters.
gordonia
156
gordonia is susceptible to
Susceptible: β-lactams, quinolones, aminoglycosides, macrolides, and other agents active against gram-positive organisms.
157
Colony appearance on Routine Agar: Somewhat pigmented; G. sputi smooth, mucoid, and adherent; G. bronchialis dry and raised
gordonia
158
* Contact with farm animals and feces is an important risk factor. * Lung infections account for about 80% of human disease
phodococcus
159
Rhodococcus - Most common human isolate
Rhodococcus equi
160
SBA: Colonies resemble Klebsiella and can form a salmon pink pigment on prolonged incubation, especially at room temperature
rhodococcus
161
Filaments w/ some branching, diphtheroid-like with minimal branching or coccobacillary; colony growth appears as coccobacilli in “zigzag” configuration
rhodococcus
162
Colony Appearance on Routine Agar: Nonhemolytic; round; often mucoid with orange-to-red, salmon-pink pigment developing within 4–7 days; pigment may vary widely
rhodococcus
163
* Causative agent of Whipple disease.
Tropheryma whipplei
164
Facultative intracellular pathogen first identified in 1991 by using PCR from a duodenal biopsy specimen
Tropheryma whipplei
165
Trypheryma whipplei loc
* Found in human feces, saliva, and gastric secretions * Ubiquitous in the environment
166
Symptoms: diarrhea, weight loss, malabsorption, arthralgia, and abdominal pain.
tropheryma whipplei -
167
T. whipplei can be identified with
PCR or 16S rRNA gene sequencing
168
how to treat tropheryma whipplei
Drug of Choice: Initially w/ Doxycycline and Hydroxychloroquine for 1 year followed by Doxycycline for life
169
diagnosis for tropheryma whipplei specimen
Diagnosis is best made by microscopic examination of endoscopic biopsy specimens.
170
Presence of characteristic periodic acid–Schiff staining is strongly suggestive of
Whipple disease
171
disease caused by tropheryma whipplei
* Symptoms: diarrhea, weight loss, malabsorption, arthralgia, and abdominal pain. * Neurologic and sensory changes often occur * Associated with culture-negative endocarditis * Rare but is seen more commonly in middle-aged men * Asymptomatic carriage or a mild self-limiting gastroenteritis occurs in children after ingestion of the organism.
172
Aerobic or facultative anaerobic bacilli that form endospores
bacillus
173
Do not grow on Columbia colistinnaladixic acid agar.
bacillus
174
bacillus
- nonpigmented - confused with aerotolerant strains of the other primary endospore-forming genus, Clostridium * Survival is aided by the formation of spores, which are resistant to conditions to which vegetative cells are intolerant * Grow well on SBA and other commonly used enriched media - lab contaminant -insect and plant pathogen -human infections (anthracis and cereus)
175
bacillus vs clostridium
form endospores aerobically and anaerobically, whereas Clostridium spp. form endospores anaerobically only.
176
Known to cause an anthrax-like disease in gorillas, chimpanzees, and other animals in Africa.
B. cereus biovar anthracis
177
Depends on a glutamic acid capsule and a three component protein exotoxin.
B. ANTHRACIS
178
vf of b antharcis
-capsule -3 proteins:rotective antigen (PA), EF, and LF,
179
* PA with EF,
Edema
180
PA and LF combine
death
181
denylate cyclase that increases the concentration of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) in host cel
ef
182
protease that kills host cells by disrupting the transduction of extracellular regulatory signals
lf
183
Spread by animals feeding on plants contaminated with the spores or from contaminated soil.
anthrax
184
Cases mostly occurred among postal workers as a result of exposure to sporetainted material (powder in or on envelopes) sent through the mail, although the actual source remains unknown for some cases.
anthrax
185
4 anthracis found in humans
cutaneous, inhalation or pulmonary, and gastrointestinal and injectional
186
hen wounds are contaminated with anthrax spores acquired through skin cuts, abrasions, or insect bites
cutaneous anthrax
187
Cutaneous Anthrax
* A small pimple or papule appears at the site of inoculation 2 to 3 days after exposure. * A ring of vesicles develops, and the vesicles coalesce to form an erythematous ring * A small dark area appears in the center of the ring and eventually ulcerates and dries, forming a depressed black necrotic central area known as an eschar or black eschar * Lesion is sometimes referred to as a malignant pustule, even though it is not a pustule and is not malignant. It is painless and does not produce pus, unless it becomes secondarily infected with a pyogenic organism
188
* Usually, the infection remains localized, but regional lymphangitis and lymphadenopathy appear * If septicemia occurs, symptoms of fever, malaise, and headache are seen
cutaneous anthrax
189
* Also called woolsorter’s disease
Inhalation Anthrax
190
It resembles an upper respiratory tract infection, such as that seen with colds and flu.
Inhalation Anthrax
191
initial and severe phase of inhalation anthrax
* The initial, mild form of the disease lasts 2 to 3 days. It is followed by a sudden severe phase in which respiratory distress is common. * The severe phase of the disease has a high mortality rate. The respiratory problems (dyspnea, cyanosis, pleural effusion) are followed by disorientation, coma, and death. * The severe phase (onset of respiratory symptoms to death) may last only 24 hours
192
Occurs when the spores are inoculated into a lesion on the intestinal mucosa after ingestion of the spores
Gastrointestinal Anthrax
193
* Symptoms: abdominal pain, nausea, anorexia, and vomiting. * Bloody diarrhea can also occur * This form of the disease is difficult to diagnose, the fatality rate is higher than in the cutaneous form
gastrointestinal anthrac
194
Injectional Anthrax
* Characterized by soft tissue infection associated with “skin popping” or other forms of injection drug use and results from the direct injection of the spores into tissue. * Can be associated with necrotizing fasciitis, organ failure, shock, coma, and meningitis, and it has a much higher rate of mortality. * Soft tissue infections have not been associated with black eschar formation. Lack of eschar, severity of disease, and increased mortality rate make this form clinically distinct
195
Approximately 5% of patients with anthrax (cutaneous, inhalation, gastrointestinal, or injectional) develop meningitis, with a greater proportion of cases occurring in the i
nhalation and injectional forms.
196
when does Unconsciousness and death, happen after initial exposure to b anthrax
Unconsciousness and death, if they occur, follow 1 to 6 days after initial exposure.
197
Young cultures stain gram positive; as the cells age, or if they are under nutritional stress, they become gram variable.
b atnhrax
198
encapsulated gram-positive rods in blood is strongly presumptive for
B. anthracis identification.
199
spore stain
Spores can be observed with a spore stain. With this technique, vegetative cells stain red, and the spores stain green Spores can be observed with a spore stain. With this technique, vegetative cells stain red, and the spores stain green
200
Medusa head
B. anthracis.
201
Colonies have a tenacious consistency, holding tightly to the agar surface, and when the edges are lifted with a loop, they stand upright without support.
b anthracis
202
be isolated from normally sterile sites, such as blood, lung tissue, and CSF, selective media are not usually needed for recovery.
b anthracis
203
Grows in high-salt (7% sodium chloride) and low pH (<6) conditions.
b anthracis
204
Capsule production by B. anthracis can be detected by
India ink
205
Presence of both antigens (polysaccharide and capsule) is
confirmation for B. anthracis
206
treatment of b anthracis
The initial therapy should be a multidrug regimen, including a fluoroquinolone and one or more additional agents with good CNS penetration. Vaccne Penicillin, tetracycline, fluoroquinolones, and chloramphenicol ciprofloxacin or doxycycline be used for initial intravenous therapy until antimicrobial susceptibility results are known Initial therapy of inhalation anthrax: Ciprofloxacin or doxycycline plus one or two additional antimicrobial agents, depending on disease severity. clindamycin = inhibit exotoxin production. * metronidazole= injectional anthrax ciprofloxacin or doxycycline =postexposure prophylaxis for pulmonary anthrax
207
B. cereus is similar to B. anthracis in many ways—
morphologically and metabolically
208
o β-hemolytic frosted glass–appearing colony o Spore-forming
b cereus
209
o insect pathogen o produces parasporal crystals that can be observed by using phase contrast microscopy or spore staining.
B. thuringiensis
210
Common cause of food poisoning and opportunistic infections in susceptible hosts.
b cereus
211
diseases caused by b cereus
Common cause of food poisoning and opportunistic infections in susceptible hosts. food poison: diarrheal or emetic eye infection,endophthalmitis, panophthalmitis, and keratitis with abscess formation (occur more frequently in intravenous drug abusers, neonates, and immunosuppressed and postsurgical patients. ) few reports of B. cereus strains carrying the B. anthracis toxin genes that caused severe pneumonia similar to pulmonary anthrax
212
diarrheal form of b cereus
Associated with ingestion of meat or poultry, vegetables and pastas * Incubation period of 8 to 16 hours. * Signs and symptoms: o Abdominal pain and diarrhea. o About 25% of individuals have vomiting o Fever is uncommon. * The average duration of the illness is 24 hours. * Diarrheal form is clinically indistinguishable from diarrhea caused by Clostridium perfringens.
213
emetic form
* Signs and symptoms: o Predominant symptoms of nausea and vomiting 1 to 5 hours after ingestion of contaminated food. o Diarrhea is present in about one third of affected individuals.
214
eported in nonsterile alcohol pads used as an antiseptic measure before injections.
b cereus
215
treatment of b cereus
Treatment with vancomycin or clindamycin with or without an aminoglycosid SELF LIMITNG
216
b cereus is resistant to
resistant to penicillin and all of the other β-lactam antibiotics except the carbapenems
217
* These organisms have been reported to cause food poisoning, bacteremia, meningitis, pneumonia, and other infections. * They are more commonly seen as contaminants
other bacillus species
218
other bacillus species
These include, but are not limited to: o Bacillus subtilis o Bacillus licheniformis o Bacillus circulans o Bacillus pumilus o Bacillus sphaericus q
219
are two well-known antibiotics obtained from Bacillus species. Several species are used as standards in medical and pharmaceutical assays
Bacitracin and polymyxin
220
The spores of the___________ are used to test heat sterilization procedures, and B. subtilis subsp. globigii, which is resistant to heat, chemicals, and radiation, is widely used to validate alternative sterilization and fumigation procedures
obligate thermophile B. stearothermophilus
221
Rarely encountered but cause disease:
Listeria, Erysipelothrix, Corynebacterium diphtheriae, and Bacillus anthracis