Week 15 - Alcoholic hep, hep and drug overdose Flashcards

1
Q

what is the step wise progression of alcohol-related liver disease

A
  1. alcoholic fatty liver (hepatic steatosis)
  2. alcoholic hepatitis
  3. cirrhosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is step 1 - alcoholic fatty liver

A

drinking leads to a build up of fat in the liver. this process is reversible with abstinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is step 2 - alcoholic hepatitis

A

drinking alcohol over a long period causes inflammation in the liver cells. binge drinking is associated with the same effect. mild alcoholic hepatitis is usually reversible with permanent abstinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is step 3 - cirrhosis

A

cirrhosis is where the functional liver tissue is replaced with scar tissue. it is irreversible.

stopping drinking can prevent further damage. continued drinking has a very poor prognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is binge drinking defined as in men and women

A

in women, 6 units or more and in men, 8 units or more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the examination findings with excess alcohol

A

Smelling of alcohol
Slurred speech
Bloodshot eyes
Dilated capillaries on the face (telangiectasia)
Tremor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the blood test results that suggest alcohol related liver disease

A

Raised mean cell volume (MCV)

Raised alanine transaminase (ALT) and aspartate transferase (AST)

AST:ALT ratio above 1.5 particularly suggests alcohol-related liver disease

Raised gamma-glutamyl transferase (gamma-GT) (particularly notable with alcohol-related liver disease)

Raised alkaline phosphatase (ALP) later in the disease

Raised bilirubin in cirrhosis

Low albumin due to reduced synthetic function of the liver

Increased prothrombin time due to reduced synthetic function of the liver (reduced production of clotting factors)

Deranged U&Es in hepatorenal syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is ultrasound used for in alcoholic liver

A

may show early fatty changes with increased echogenicity.

later, it can show changes related to cirrhosis. ultrasound is used to screen for hepatocellular carcinoma in patients with cirrhosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what can be used to assess the elasticity of the liver using high frequency sound waves

A

transient elastography (fibroscan)

it helps determine the degree of fibrosis (scarring)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what can be used to assess for and treat oesophageal varices when portal hypertension is suspected

A

endoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what can be used to look for fatty infiltration of the liver, hepatocellular carcinoma, hepatosplenomegaly, abnormal blood vessel changes and ascites

A

CT and MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what can be used to confirm the diagnosis of alcohol related hepatitis or cirrhosis

A

liver biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the one general principle to manage alcohol related disease

A

stop drinking alcohol permanently

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what vitamins are given to people with liver disease

A

thiamine - vitamin B1 and high protein diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what may be used to reduce inflammation in severe alcoholic hepatitis to improve short term outcomes

A

corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how long is alcohol abstenince require for a liver transplant

A

6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is alcohol dependence

A

Alcohol dependence involves daily alcohol consumption, strong urges and cravings for alcohol, difficulty controlling consumption, tolerance to the effects of alcohol and withdrawal symptoms when stopping.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the CAGE questionaire

A

C – CUT DOWN? Do you ever think you should cut down?

A – ANNOYED? Do you get annoyed at others commenting on your drinking?

G – GUILTY? Do you ever feel guilty about drinking?

E – EYE OPENER? Do you ever drink in the morning to help your hangover or nerves?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the AUDIT questionnaire

A

The Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test (AUDIT) was developed by the World Health Organisation to screen people for harmful alcohol use. It involves 10 questions with multiple-choice answers and gives a score

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what score on the AUDIT indicates harmful use

A

score of 8 or more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are the alcohol withdrawal symptoms at different time periods

A

6-12 hours: tremor, sweating, headache, craving and anxiety
12-24 hours: hallucinations
24-48 hours: seizures
24-72 hours: delirium tremens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is delirium tremens

A

a medical emergency associated with alcohol withdrawal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

how does alcohol work in the brain

A

it is a depressant. it stimulates GABA receptors that have a relaxing effect on the brain.

it also inhibits glutamate receptors causing further relaxing effect on the electrical activity of the brain

24
Q

what does chronic alcohol use result in in the brain

A

the GABA system becoming down regulated and glutamate system becoming up-regulated to balance the effects of alcohol

25
Q

what happens when alcohol is removed

A

the GABA system under functions and the glutamate system over functions, causing extreme excitability of the brain and excessive adrenergic activity

26
Q

how does delirium tremens present

A

Acute confusion
Severe agitation
Delusions and hallucinations
Tremor
Tachycardia
Hypertension
Hyperthermia
Ataxia (difficulties with coordinated movements)
Arrhythmias

27
Q

what tool can be used to score the patient on their withdrawal symptoms and guide treamtne t

A

the CIWA-Ar tool

28
Q

what is used to combat the effects of alcohol withdrawal

A

Chlordiazepoxide (Librium

29
Q

what is used to prevent Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome

A

high dose B vitamins (Pabrinex) followed by long term oral thiamine

30
Q

what is Wernicke Korsakoff syndrome

A

alcohol excess leads to thiamine (vit b1) deficiency.

this leads to Wernicke’s encephalopathy and Korsakoff syndrome.

31
Q

what are the features of Wernicke’s encephalopathy include:

A

Confusion
Oculomotor disturbances (disturbances of eye movements)
Ataxia (difficulties with coordinated movements)

32
Q

Features of Korsakoff syndrome include:

A

Memory impairment (retrograde and anterograde)
Behavioural changes

33
Q

what are the mortality features of both of these

A

Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a medical emergency with a high mortality rate. Korsakoff syndrome is often irreversible and results in patients requiring full-time institutional care. Prevention and treatment involve thiamine supplementation and abstaining from alcohol.

34
Q

what is the single most common cause of acute liver injury in the western world

A

paracetamol overdose

35
Q

when to symptoms and signs of paracetamol overdose occur

A

not until 24 hours after ingestion

36
Q

what are the signs and symptoms of paracetamol overdose

A

Nausea / vomiting
Abdominal pain
RUQ tenderness
Hepatic necrosis causes:
Jaundice, RUQ pain (from hepatic necrosis)
Encephelopathy
Hypoglycaemia
Renal failure
Oliguria
Metabolic Acidosis
Often asymptomatic, until 24-72 hours after when acute liver failure occurs

37
Q

what are the most important tests to carry out in paracetamol overdose

A

Paracetamol level and ALT are the most important tests

38
Q

what is the paracetamol test

A

Paracetamol (+ salicylate) level –
Only accurate if >4 hours after ingestion

Paracetamol level is only useful for the purposes of the nomogram if taken >4 hours after ingestion

In cases of massive overdose – repeat the paracetamol level 2 hours before completion of acetylcysteine –
if it remains >10mg/L – continue acetylcysteine

39
Q

what are the LFT’s in paracetamol overdose

A

ALT is the most important LFT in paracetamol overdose

This should be taken at presentation and repeat 2 hours before the completion of acetylcysteine dose. If >50U/L – then continue acetylcysteine

40
Q

what is the graph used to estimate the need for treatment

A

normogram

41
Q

when should the nomogram only be used

A

if all the following are met
- Time of ingestion known
- Acute overdose (not staggered)
- Immediate release paracetamol has been taken (not prolonged release)
- Paracetamol level taken >4 hours since ingestion

42
Q

patients with what level according to the nomogram should be given modified acetylcysteine regimens

A

patients with levels more than double the nomogram line

43
Q

what is the management if <8 hours after ingestion

A

Not suitable in many instances.
Give 50mg activated charcoal orally if:
- <2hrs (most effective if <1hr) after overdose
- Can be considered up to 4hrs if >30g paracetamol ingested
- Consider in children with a dose of 1g/Kg up to 50g
Awake, co-operative adult
Dose greater than 30g
It is very unpleasant!

N-acetylcystine (aka NAC) promotes conjugation of circulating paracetamol.
Greatest effect if given <12 hours after ingestion

44
Q

what is N-acetylcystine usually administered with

A

5% dextrose

45
Q

what is the management if >8 hours after ingestion

A

Give acetylcystiene if >12g or >150mg/Kg has been ingested, regardless of current plasma level (don’t wait for blood result)

46
Q

when should liver transplant be considered in paracetamol overdose

A

INR >3 at 48 hours post ingestion or 4.5 at any time

Oliguira or creatinine > 200 umol/L

Persistent acidosis (pH < 7.3), or lactate >3

Systolic BP <80mmHg despite resuscitation

Hypoglycaemia, severe thrombocytopenia or encephelopathy

GCS <15 not associated with sedative ingestion

47
Q

what is autoimmune hepatitis

A

a rare cause of chronic hepatitis. it appears to occur due to a combination of genetic and environmental factors

48
Q

what are the two types of autoimmune hepatitis

A

type 1 and type 2

49
Q

what is type 1 autoimmune hepatitis

A

typically affects women in their late forties or fifties.

it presents around or after menopause with fatigue and features of liver disease on examination.

it takes a less acute course than type 2

50
Q

what is type 2 autoimmune hepatitis

A

usually affects children and young people, more commonly girls. it presents with acute hapatitis with high transaminases and jaundice

51
Q

what will investigations into autoimmune hepatitis show *(LFT’s)

A

Investigations will show high transaminases (ALT and AST) and minimal change in ALP levels (a “hepatitic” picture). Raised immunoglobulin G (IgG) levels are an important finding.

52
Q

what are the autoantibodies found in type 1 autoimmune hepatitis

A

Anti-nuclear antibodies (ANA)
Anti-smooth muscle antibodies (anti-actin)
Anti-soluble liver antigen (anti-SLA/LP)

53
Q

what are the autoantibodies found in type 2 autoimmune hepatitis

A

Anti-liver kidney microsomes-1 (anti-LKM1)
Anti-liver cytosol antigen type 1 (anti-LC1)

54
Q

what is found in a liver biopsy in autoimmune hepatitis

A

Liver biopsy forms part of the diagnosis. Key histology findings are interface hepatitis and plasma cell infiltration.

55
Q

what is the management of autoimmune hepatitis

A

treatment is with high dose steroids (prednisolone)

other immunosuppresants such as azathioprine are used

56
Q
A