WEEK 2 Flashcards

(68 cards)

1
Q

WHAT ARE THE 3 PHARMACOLOGICAL PHASES?

A
  1. PHARMACEUTICAL PHASE (DISSOLUTION OF THE DRUG)
  2. PHARMACOKINETICS (BODY AFFECT TO THE DRUG)
  3. PHARMACODYNAMIC (DRUG AFFECT ON THE BODY)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

WHAT IS PHARMOCOTHERAPEUTICS?

A

It’s the ability of a drug to treat or prevent illness. (drug action)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

WHAT IS TOXICOLOGY?

A

its the study of adverse effects of drugs/chemicals on living organisms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

THE STUDY OF NATURAL VERSUS SYNTHETIC DRUG SOURCES IS CALLED?

A

Pharmacognosy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Liquids are the fastest to be absorbed while enteric-coated tablets are the slowest in oral drug absorption.

ENTERIC COATED DRUGS SHOULD NOT BE CRUSHED. This would cause disruption
of the tablet coating designed to protect the stomach lining
from the local effects of the drug and prevent the drug from
being prematurely disrupted by stomach acid.

true or false?

A

true.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what type of release allows
drugs to be released continuously and more slowly into the
bloodstream prolonging drug absorption

A

TIME RELEASED DOSAGE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

opposite of time-released dosage?

A

IMMEDIATE RELEASE DOSAGE.
its the release all of the active
ingredients immediately upon dissolution in the gastrointestinal
tract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Extended-release oral dosage forms must not be crushed, as
this could cause accelerated release of drug from the dosage
form and possible toxicity.
Drugs noted by SR (slow
release or sustained release), SA (sustained action), CR(controlled release), XL (extended length), and XT (extended
time). This includes granules capsule
TRUE OR FALSE?

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what drug delivery refers to drug products that dissolve in the mouth
and are absorbed through the oral mucosa.

A

THIN FILM DELIVERY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what pharmacokinetic process involves the movement of drugs from its site of administration into the bloodstream

A

ABSORPTION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

fastest and slowest route for drug absorption

A

parenteral (fastest)
enteral
topical (slowest)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what route absorbs drugs through the mucosa of the stomach, large and small intestine

A

ENTERAL ROUTE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what route absorbs drugs directly into the circulation?

A

PARENTERAL ROUTE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

FASTEST AND SLOWEST PARENTERAL ROUTES?

A

INTRAVENOUS AND INTRA-ARTERIAL (FASTEST)

INTRA MUSCULAR (due to the germ layers) AND SUBCUTANEOUS (due to the fatty tissues) (SLOWEST)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

the four routes that uses the first pass effect

A

Hepatic arterial
Oral
Portal venous
Rectal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what pharmacokinetic process involves the transport of drugs by the bloodstream to the drug’s site of action

A

DISTRIBUTION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

drugs are first distributed to areas with higher blood supply like the heart, brain, kidney before moving to areas with lower blood supply like the muscles, skin, fat.

true or false?

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the most common blood protein that bounds to drug molecules

A

ALBUMIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is a drug-drug interaction?

A

is when one drug increases or decreases the action of the other drug that was administered concurrently

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

list and the transport mechanisms

A
  • Passive diffusion: diffusion of drug from a higher concentration to a lower concentration. (for hypertension\drophobic and small drugs)
  • Facilitated diffusion: diffusion of drug from a higher concentration to a lower concentration using a specialized protein. (for hydrophilic and large drugs )
  • active transportation: diffusion of drug from a lower concentration to a higher concentration using ATP. (also for hydrophilic and large drugs)
    -Endocytosis: is the movement of a substance into a cell (for extra large drugs).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the factors that affect bioavailability?

A
  • first pass effect
    (only 30% passes to the bloodstream)
  • solubility of drug
  • instablity of environment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

factors affecting distribution

A
  1. BLOOD FLOW
    - areas with higher blood flow = higher distribution
    - areas with lower blood flow = lower distribution
  2. CAPILLARY PERMEABILITY (passage through capillary walls)
    - increased C.P = increased distribution
    - decreased C.P = decreased distribution
  3. SOLUBILITY OF DRUG (how easily the drug moves around)
    - Small, nonpolar, hydrophobic drugs will have higher solubility, therefore, higher distribution
    - large, polar, hydrophilic drugs will have lower solubility and therefore lower distribution as well as albumin-binded drugs.
  4. PROTEIN BINDING
    the more protein binds to a drug, the less it would be distributed and vice versa
  5. VOLUME OF DISTRIBUTION
    - higher volume = higher penetration into tissues = higher distribution
    - lower volume = lower penetration into tissues = lower distribution
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what pharmacokinetic process involves the biochemical alteration of a drug

A

METABOLISM (biotransformation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

the organ most responsible for the biotransformation of drugs is the?

A

LIVER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Metabolism involves the biochemical alteration of a drug into:
- a more potent metabolite - a less active metabolite - an inactive metabolite - a more soluble compound
26
phase 1 biotransformation has to do with a specific enzyme known as?
CYP450
27
what is the role of CYP450?
a drug molecule is oxidized, reduced and hydrolyzed by CYP450, converting it into a polar, water-soluble molecule
28
what term is used to describe the genetics of an individual to be a slow or fast metabolizer?
POLYMORPHISM
29
explain the relation between CYP450 and polymorphism.
when an individual has a fast metabolism, the enzyme is rapidly metabolized leading to an increase in inactive metabolite and a decrease in the active drug. In this case, the drug would have been fully metabolized before reaching the site of action so therapeutic effect is decreased. in this instances, higher amount of drug are given. while when an individual has a slow metabolism, the enzyme is slowly metabolized leading to an decrease in inactive metabolite and an increase in the active drug. However, if the active drug level is too high, this can cause toxicity .
30
what is polypharmacy?
are drugs given that act as CYP450 inducers and inhibitors. - inducers (reduces the effect of the drug) - inhibitors (delays metabolism of the active drug)
31
which phase of biotransformation is related to CYP450
PHASE 1 PHASE 2 IS ABOUT CONVERTING DRUGS INTO ACTIVE METABOLITES SO THEY DO NOT BUILD UP IN THE SYSTEM.
32
the organ most responsible for excretion of drug is ?
THE KIDNEY others include: - liver - bowel - intestine
33
Drugs that have been metabolized by the liver become more polar and water-soluble. However, some drugs bypass the liver and reach the kidney in their original form. True or false?
TRUE
34
what is the excretion of drugs y the intestine?
BILIARY EXCRETION
35
WHAT IS THE TERM GIVEN TO A PROCESS WHEREBY A DRUG (like a fat-soluble drug) EXCRETED INTO THE BILE GETS REABSORSED into THE BLOODSTREAM, REACHES THE LIVER, THEN IS SECRETED BACK INTO THE BILE
ENTEROHEPATIC RECIRCULATION
36
when the same amount of drug absorbed is about the same amount of drug cleared out, this is known as?
STEADY STATE
37
Half-life: time required for half (50%) of a given drug to be removed from the body Steady-state. Peak level: highest blood level of a drug Trough level: lowest blood level of a drug Toxicity: occurs if the peak blood level of the drug is too high true or false?
true
38
what is important in determining the peak level (highest blood level) and trough level (lowest blood level) of a drug? - The length of time until the onset - The peak of action - The duration of action true or false?
true
39
what are the processes of pharmacodynamics
- drug-receptor interaction extracellular receptor (hydrophilic, large, polar charged) intracellular receptor (hydrophobic, small, non-polar) - dose- response relationship - potency vs efficacy - drug activity profile - classes of medication.
40
the process whereby the drug molecule interacts with the reactive site on the surface of the cell/tissue is ?
DRUG-RECEPTOR INTERACTION
41
what is used to compare different drugs at the same time to see which is faster in providing a therapeutic effect?
DOSE-RESPONSE
42
efficacy vs potency
Efficacy maximal therapeutic response that a drug is able to produce related to # of drug-receptor complexes formed Potency how much drug is required to produce a therapeutic response the lower the amount of drug needed the greater the potency.
43
drug activity profile includes: - duration of action - onset of action - therapeutic index
- Duration of action the length of time a drug exhibits a therapeutic effect - Onset of action time it takes for drug to meet the minimum effective concentration - Therapeutic index the ratio of the minimum concentration of drug that produces toxic effects & the minimum concentration that produces the desired effect. narrow TI: high incidence of side effects eg, digoxin, lithium, warfarin large TI: safer, less chance of toxicity eg naloxone
44
SYMPTOMATIC DISEASE
THESE ARE DISEASES THAT STRONGLY SHOW THE SIGNS AND SYMPTOMS OF THE DISEASE.
45
ASYMPTOMATIC DISEASE
THESE ARE DISEASES THAT DO NOT SHOW THEIR SYMPTOMS EARLY (symptoms can appear late when the disease has already progressed) CAN BE FOUND EARLY THROUGH REGULAR SCREENING/EXAMINATION.
46
what is an attempt done to discover a disease before it manifests in the patient?
SCREENING
47
Screening is reactive, not proactive true or false?
TRUE SCREENING HELPS DISCOVER ASYMTOMATIC DISEASE EARLY AND ALLOWS FOR EFFECTIVE TREATMENT OF DISEASE IN ITS EARLY STAGE, BUT THEY DO NOT PREVENT THE OCCURRENCE OF DISEASE
48
When and who to screen depends on: - Likelihood of patient developing disease - Availability of treatment - Cost of screening test true or false
true
49
difference between a test and a procedure
Test is the analysis of the specimen removed from the patient while procedure is a process/manipulation of the patient beyond the ones done during physical examination. (some procedures are done to obtain specimen for a test)
50
types of procedures
- Clinical Procedure: are the procedure done to acquire the specimen needed for testing in the laboratory. (urinalysis, vaginal swab, throat culture) - Radiologic Procedure: is the physical examination of the internal structures without surgery. (using ultrasound, MRI, x-ray, Computer Tomography scan)
51
when looking at an X-ray, what does the white cast and dark shadow represent?
the white cast represent radio dense material like the bones while the dark cast represent air-filled cavity
52
what is used to produce a more dynamic X-ray image?
FLUOROSCOPE (IT ALLOWS THE RADIOLOGIST TO WATCH THE MOVEMENT IN THE BODY)
53
-------is a more sophisticated x-ray in which the absorption patterns are analyzed by the computer and creates cross-sectional images of the body.
COMPUTER TOMOGRAPHY SCAN (CT SCAN) It's faster, readily available and it's the preferred method for detecting acute processes and detecting lesions.
54
what radiologic procedure is better for soft tissue imaging?
MRI: MAGNETIC RESONANCE IMAGING (also does not expose the patient to radiation)
55
MRI uses a computer to record the characteristics of tissue planes. T1 image gives a strong for ? T2 image gives a strong for ?
T1= LIPIDS T2= WATER
56
Ultrasound is a dynamic image for visualizing soft tissues and liquids. it measures the reflection of high-frequency sound waves. it is the greatest contrast provided by interfaces between soft tissues and liquids. true or false?
true
57
ultrasound of the heart is called?
2d Echo
58
Nuclear medicine Involves injecting radioactive materials into the bloodstream and determining their degree of localization within tissue. It can evaluate the functional activity of an organ. However, its too expensive and exposes patients to radiation true or false?
TRUE
59
the diagnosis of lesions in pieces of tissues removed from a patient is done by what type of pathologist.
SURGICAL PATHOLOGIST
60
WHAT IS BIOPSY AND ITS THREE TYPES
Biopsy is the removal of small specimens. - partial biopsy (removal of a part of lesion for diagnosis) - needle biopsy (insertion of a needle into a solid organ) - excisional biopsy (removal of the entire small lesion for diagnosis and treatment )
61
-------is the removal of large specimens in the operating room usually for treatment purposes
RESECTION
62
-------- ARE CELLS THAT ARE SCRAPED/SLOUGHED FROM BODY SURFACE TO BE PRIMARILY EXAMINED TO DETECT CANCER OR EARLY MUTATION CELLS
CYTOLOGY SPECIMEN
63
-------- IS THE PROCESS OF USING SMALL CALIBER NEEDLE TO OBTAIN SPECIMEN.
FINE NEEDLE ASPIRATION. (it is faster and less expensive than biopsy)
64
what tests are used to evaluate organ function and detect specific abnormalities?
BIOCHEMICAL TEST
65
Urinalysis is also performed in the chemistry laboratory. whereby a sample of urine is tested for the presence of microbes, red or white blood cells, and chemical substances such as glucose and protein. true or false
TRUE
66
Complete blood count (CBC) Consists of: Measurement of hemoglobin Counting of white and red blood cells Microscopic evaluation for morphologic changes in blood cells true or false
true
67
The detection of antigens and antibodies in blood and tissue and study of lymphocytes
Immunopathology
68
Pharmacogenomics Involves predicting patient’s response to particular drugs based on genetic makeup Useful when treatment involves a drug notorious for eliciting an “idiosyncratic” response Dangerous if therapeutic levels are exceeded true or false
true