week 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 3 stages according to the sepsis 3 criteria

A

simple infection
sepsis
septic shock

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2
Q

what are the criteria for sepsis

A

lactate >2
new AKI
or one or more of

altered mental state
RR≥25
HR≥130
SBP <90 OR 40% below normal
Urine output <0.5mls/kg/hr or anuric for 18 hours
ashen or mottled skin or purpuric rash
cyaniotic skin lips or tongue
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3
Q

what is the criteria for septic shock

A

persisting hypotension or >2 lactate despite 3L IV fluid

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4
Q

what is sepsis 6

A
give oxygen
give fluids
give antibiotics
take lactate
take cultures
record urine/fluid balance
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5
Q

what antibiotic is commonly used prophylactically for chronic chest infection

A

azithryomycin

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6
Q

what is VBG useful for

A

lactate
pH
glucose
U&Es

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7
Q

co-amoxiclav can cause jaundice T or F

A

T

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8
Q

what is creatinine kinase an indicator of

A

muscle damage

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9
Q

old person with HR of 150 is until proven other wise?

A

tachy AF

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10
Q

why can BP be low in AF?

A

heart is pumping fast but inefficiently

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11
Q

how long is an acute wound classed as

A

<6 weeks

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12
Q

3 stages of wound healing

A

inflammatory phase
proliferation phase
remodelling/maturation phase

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13
Q

difference between healing by primary secondary and tertiary intention

A

primary is clean, low infection risk, minimal scar

secondary; slightly bigger scar, takes longer, partial or full thickness

tertiary; high infection risk, left open to heal before attempting to close

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14
Q

criteria for stage 1 AKI

A

creatinine >50-99% increase within 7 days

or

urine output <0.5ml/kg/hour for more than 6 hours

or creatinine rise >26 micromol within 48 hours

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15
Q

which cell does the HIV infect

A

CD4

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16
Q

3 routes of transmission for HIV

A

sexually
blood borne
vertically

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17
Q

how does HIV kill you

A

infect CD4 cells, destroying them progressively, as CD4 count goes lower, opportunistic infections and other complications arise, eventually leading to death

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18
Q

describe primary HIV infection

A

most patients go through seroconversion which manifests as flu-like symptoms - fever, malaise, anorexia, myalgia, rash, lymphadenopathy

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19
Q

what are CD4 and viral loads like during seroconversion

A

VL is high

cd4 drops

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20
Q

what happens after seroconversion

A

viral load drops
cd4 counts go back up

virus goes into dormant phase

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21
Q

what is the window period for HIV testintg

A

4-8 weeks

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22
Q

who should you offer HIV screening test

A

GUM clinic with risk factors
high-risk area GP registrations
diagnosis of HIV/AIDS associated illnesses

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23
Q

how are HIV patients monitored

A

CD4 and viral counts are checked 6 monthly to assess need for commencement of treatment

risk factors continually assessed

24
Q

what is AIDS defined as in terms of CD4 count

A

<200 x 10^6/ml

25
some side effects of HAART
anaemia neutropaenia thrombocytopaenia
26
4 non-infectious AIDS defining illnessess
kaposis' sarcoma lymphoma progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy AIDS dementia
27
what is the expected order of opportunistic infections as CD4 counts drop TB CMV retinitis PCP shingles
shingles TB PCP CMV
28
what is PCP?
pneumocystis jerovecii pneumonia presents with - sob, tachypnea, dry cough, fever
29
when should prophylaxis for PCP be given to HIV patients?
CD4 <200 OR hx of PCP infection
30
what is toxoplasmosis
caused by protozoan toxoplasmosis gondii infects the brain causing neurological symptoms
31
symptoms of toxoplasmosis in HIV patients
``` seizures focal neurological deficits hemiparesis headache confusion ```
32
what is PML?
progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy progressive demyelination of white matter in brain, leads to progressive neurological and cognitive loss and death
33
4 types of medicine given in HAART
nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI) Non-NRTI protease inhibitors integrase inhibitors
34
name some classes of antibiotics that target the 30s or 50s RNA subunits
amingoglycosides macrolides (50s) tetracyclines
35
what is co-amoxiclav most given for?
RTIs
36
what does clavulanic acid do
inhibits beta lactamase
37
co-amoxiclav is given for MRSA - T or F?
F
38
what is the 1st line antibiotic for cellulitis
flucloxacillin
39
flucloxacillin only exists as IV preperation - T or F
F, oral or IV
40
3rd generation cephalosporins are more potent than 1st generation ones - T or F
F, they have different spectrum of activity
41
cefutaxime is generation of cephalosporin
3rd gen
42
what is cef & met commonly given for
intra-abdominal infections
43
what is cefutaxime commonly given for
bacterial meningitis
44
what route of administration is meropenem given as
IV
45
name 1 glycopeptide
vancomycin
46
what is the target of glycopeptides
cell wall synthesis
47
why are tetracyclines not given to children and pregnant women
it gets deposited in teeth and bone
48
give 2 examples of a macrolide
erythromycin azithromycin clarithromycin
49
in severe pneumonia, co amoxiclav and clarithromycin are given, what does clarithromycin cover?
atypical organisms
50
ciprofloxacin, moxifloxacin are what class antibiotics?
quinolones
51
what is ciprofloxacin especially active against?
gram negative intracellular infections
52
which of these is an aminoglycoside - erythromycin gentamicin doxycyline?
gentamicin
53
what 2 organs do aminoglycosides damage most?
ototoxicty and nephrotoxicity
54
what is co-trimoxazole made up of and what is it used for commonly
trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole, PCP
55
what can you not take with metronidazole?
alcohol
56
what kind of organisms does metronidazole work against
anaerobes and protozoans