week 2 -- PE, chest trauma, valve diseases, & aneurysms Flashcards

(63 cards)

1
Q

common cause of a PE

A

DVT

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2
Q

ABG’s with a PE tell you

A

intubate or escalate O2

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3
Q

D-dimer

A

tells you how much fibrins were relaeased to take apart a clot

**higher # = more likely of a clot

**expected rage is less than 0.4 mcg/mL

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4
Q

if a patient w allergy to iodine/shellfish cannot do angiography to diagnose PE then they will do a

A

ventilation perfusion scan—– shows circulation of air and blood in the lungs

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5
Q

gold standard to diagnose PE

A

pulmonary angiography — allergy to shellfish & iodine

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6
Q

6 ways to diagnose a PE

A
  1. pulmonary angiography (gold standard)
  2. ABG
  3. Ventilation perfusion
  4. Ct Scan
  5. chest x-ray
  6. d- dimer
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7
Q

interventions for PE

A
  1. initiate o2 & high - fowlers (90 degrees)
  2. iv access
  3. vitals
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8
Q

INR range

A

describes blood clotting

0.8 to 1.1

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9
Q

goal of INR when on warfarin

A

2 to 3

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10
Q

normal pT time

A

11 to 12.5 seconds

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11
Q

normal ApTT time

A

30 to 40 seconds but 1.5 to 2.5x more w heparin

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12
Q

low molecular weight heparin

A

enoxaparin

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13
Q

anticoagulants are contraindicated in

A

peptic ulcer disease
uncontrolled HTN
stroke
trauma

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14
Q

thrombolytic agents are used for

A

bigger clots

ALTEPLASE
reteplase
tenecteplase

  • -eplase
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15
Q

therapeutic procedures for a PE

A

embolectomy
vena cava filter

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16
Q

normal PaO2

A

80 to 100 mmhg

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17
Q

vitamin K foods on wafarin

A

do not increase or decrease

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18
Q

teaching to prevent DVT/PE

A

walk 5 min every hour
compression stockings
dorsi-plantar flexion

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19
Q

s/s of decreased cardiac output

A

hypotension
tachycardia
JVD
cyanosis
syncope

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20
Q

antidote for heparin

A

protamine sulphate

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21
Q

antidote for warfarin

A

vitamin K

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22
Q

a nurse is assessing a client who has a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect? sap

  1. bradypnea
  2. pleural friction rub
  3. hypertension
  4. petechiae
  5. tachycardia
A
  1. pleural friction rub
  2. petechiae
  3. tachycardia

** tachypnea
**hypotension

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23
Q

client has acute dyspnea & diaphoresis. client states “I am anxious & unable to get enough air”. vitals are HR 117/min, RR 38bpm , temp 101.2, and bp of 100/54. what is the nurses priority?

  1. notify the provider
  2. administer heparin via IV infusion
  3. administer oxygen therapy
  4. obtain a CT scan
A
  1. administer oxygen therapy

**ABC’s

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24
Q

BUN range

A

7 to 20

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25
creatinine range
0.7 to 1.3
26
INR range when on warfarin
2 to 3
27
aPTT goal with heparin therapy
40 to 60 sec
28
PaO2 range
80 to 100 mmhg
29
flail chest is stabilized by
positive pressure ventilation
30
tension pneumothorax occurs when
air enters on INSPIRATION and cannot exit on expiration
31
lung sounds w a pneumothorax
hyper-reasonance
32
lungs sounds w a hemothorax
dull percussion
33
key sign of a flail chest
paradoxical chest movement
34
patient considerations for a thoracentesis
- sit on edge of bed leaned over side table - no coughing, moving, or deep breathing - will feel pressure but no pain
35
a nurse is assisting a provider to care for a client who has developed a spontaneous pneumothorax. which of the following actions should the nurse perform first? 1. assess the client's pain 2. prepare a large bore IV needle for decompression 3. administer lorazepam 4. prepare for chest tube insertion
2. prepare a large bore IV needle for decompression
36
nursing considerations for an angiography
**LYING FLAT NPO for 8 hrs *renal function *iodine/shellfish allergy *withhold metformin for 48hrs before & after post op - pressure on site & lay flat
37
considerations for transesophageal echo
HOB @ 45 degrees NPO 6hrs prior IV access Post op = GAG reflex
38
client education for angiography
report: chest pain, SOB, &changes of colors in extremities leave dressing in place for 24 hrs avoid heavy weight & bending at waist withhold metformin 48 hrs before & after
39
cardiac tamponade nursing interventions
1. notify provider 2. admin IV fluid (combats hypotension) 3. obtain CXR / echo 4. prepare for a pericardiocentesis
40
structures on the left side of the heart
left atrium mitral valve left ventricle aorta
41
structures on the right side of the heart
tricuspid valve right atrium right ventricle pulmonic arteries
42
foods high in potassium and can be given w/
* thiazide & loop diuretics to prevent hypokalemia spinach bananas potateos nuts dried & citrus fruit
43
considerations when taking digoxin
apical pulse greater than 60/min same time every day separate 2 hrs from antacids
44
digoxin toxicity manifestations
visual changes (green halos) confusion muscle weakness fatigue loss of appetite
45
mechanical valves require
life long anti-coagulant therapy *prothrombin checked on a regular basis *kids
46
tissue valves require
replacement every 7 to 10 years older ppl
47
a nurse educator is reviewing expected findings who has right-sided valvular heart disease with a group of nurses. which of the following findings should the nurse include in the discussion? sap 1. dyspnea 2. client report of fatigue 3. bradycardia 4. pleural friction rub 5. peripheral edema
1. dyspnea 2. client report of fatigue 5. peripheral edema
48
expected outcome of a percutaneous balloon valvuloplasty. nurse response
this will assist with the ability to perform activities of daily living
49
a nurse is reviewing the health record of a client who is being evaluated for possible valvular disease. The nurse should recognize which of the following data as risk factors for this condition? 1. surgical repair of an atrial septal defect at age 2 2. hypertension for 5 years 3. weight gain of 10 pounds in the last year 4. diastolic murmur present
1. surgical repair of an atrial septal defect at age 2 2. hypertension for 5 years 4. diastolic murmur present
50
a nurse is completing the admission physical assessment of a client who has mitral valve insufficiency. which of the following findings should the nurse expect? 1. s4 heart sounds 2. petechiae 3. neck vein distention 4. splenomegaly
3. neck vein distention *s3 heart sounds *hepatomegaly
51
risk factors for valvular heart disease
HYPERTENSION RHEUMATIC FEVER marfan syndrome ineffective endocarditis
52
s/s of MITRAL stenosis
**apical DIASTOLIC murmur JVD hepatomegaly dry cough pitting edema afib dyspnea / orthopnea
53
s/s of mitral insufficiency
**SYSTOLIC murmur @ apex atypical chest pain diminished lung sounds hepatomegaly JVD dyspnea / orthopnea
54
s/s of aortic stenosis
SYSTOLIC MURMUR (A.S.S.) NARROWED pulse pressure syncope angina dyspnea / orthopnea
55
s/s of aortic insufficiency
DIASTOLIC murmur WIDE pulse pressure bounding pulse NOCTURNAL angina w diaphoresis tachycardia palpitations
56
aneurysm & types
widening or ballooning of a blood vessel *asymptomatic 1. saccular = one side 2. fusiform = both sides -- complete circumference
57
risk factors for aneurysms
atherosclerosis HTN syphillis hyperlipidemia males trauma tobacco
58
s/s of aortic abdominal aneurysm
pulsating abdominal mass bruit over area low back pain constant gnawing feeling in the abdomen
59
s/s of thoracic aortic aneurysm
SEVERE BACK PAIN COUGH sob difficulty swallowing decreased renal function
60
s/s of aortic disection
assoc. w marfan syndrome tearing, ripping, stabbing hypovolemic shock
61
priority intervention for aneurysms
to reduce systolic between 100 and 120 long term to maintain systolic between 130 to 140
62
nursing interventions for caring for aneurysms
hob below 45 degrees warm environment cough q 2 hrs w splint
63
Beck's Triad
1. hypotension 2. JVD 3. diminshed heart sounds