Week 2 Questions Flashcards

1
Q

A 24-year-old woman attempts suicide by ingesting 50 acetaminophen tablets. She is rushed to the emergency department. Which of the following treatments would the attending physician most likely order?

a. Alkalinization of urine
b. Ca2+/EDTA chelation
c. Deferoxamine
d. N-acetylcysteine
e. Protamine sulfate

A

d. N-acetylcysteine (drug of choice for treatment of overdose of acetaminophen, active ingredient in Tylenol)

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2
Q

Which of the following is the mechanism of action of aspirin?

a. Is a selective COX-2 inhibitor
b. Irreversibly inhibits platelet COX
c. Reversibly inhibits COX-1 and COX-2
d. Inhibits phospholipase A2
e. Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

A

b. Irreversibly inhibits platelet COX

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3
Q

Which of the following drugs can be used to treat rheumatoid arthritis and have the smallest risk of GI bleeding?

a. Indomethacin
b. Ibuprofen
c. Aspirin
d. Naproxen
e. Celecoxib

A

e. Celecoxib

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4
Q

A 6-year-old boy arrives at the emergency department breathing rapidly and complaining of tinnitus and nausea. His parents explain that he swallowed half a bottle of aspirin that they had accidentally left out. The physician decides to administer a medication that alters the pH of the boy’s urine. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of this medication?

a. Acidification of the urine
b. Alkalinization of the urine and promoting salicylate excretion

A

b. Alkalinization of the urine and promoting salicylate excretion

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5
Q

Which of the following types of hepatocellular injury is commonly seen after acetaminophen overdose?

a. Acute hepatitis
b. Centrilobular necrosis
c. Fibrosis
d. Granuloma formation
e. Microvesicular fatty change

A

b. Centrilobular necrosis

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6
Q

A 40-year-old woman presents with progressive fatigue and bilateral joint inflammation. She is diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. She is prescribed Methotrexate. Which of the following is the mechanism of this drug?

a. Reversibly inhibits COX-2
b. Irreversibly inhibits platelet COX
c. Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase
d. Selectively binds to and blocks COX-2 enzyme much more effectively than that of COX-1
e. It is a weak COX-1 and COX-2 inhibitor in peripheral tissues and possesses no significant anti-inflammatory effects

A

c. Methotrexate is a folic acid analog antimetabolite that inhibits dihydrofolate reductase. It is used in a number of neoplastic conditions and non-oncologic conditions.

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7
Q

A 34-year-old man with moderately severe ulcerative colitis has been taking oral prednisone for 4 months. Which of the following symptoms is the most likely adverse effect of this drug?

a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Muscle hypertrophy
c. Weight loss

A

a. This patient is at risk for prednisone-induced Cushing’s syndrome - associated with diabetes mellitus, which can be an adverse effect of chronic corticosteroid use.

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8
Q

A 24-year-old law student has bee experiencing frequent headaches for which he has been taking increasingly large doses of aspirin for 3 months. One night he takes a particularly large dose and becomes confused. He presents to the emergency department with signs of aspirin toxicity. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

a. Bicarbonate
b. Glucagon
c. N-acetylcysteine
d. Proteamine
e. Vitamin K

A

a. Administration of bicarbonate will alkalinize the urine and will promote salicylate excretion.

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9
Q

LTRs found in the HIV genome:

a. are also found in all other RNA viruses
b. are only located at the 3’ end of the genome in simple retroviruses
c. are involved with the regulation of gene expression and viral replication
d. are involved with the process of entry of HIV into the cell

A

c. are involved with the regulation of gene expression and viral replication

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10
Q

Which of the following HIV enzymes is associated with its correct function?

a. ribonuclease: synthesizes HIV RNA from the chromosome
b. reverse transcriptase: converts HIV RNA to HIV DNA
c. integrase: clips the HIV polyprotein into separate viral proteins
d. protease: splices the HIV DNA into the human chromosomal DNA

A

b. reverse transcriptase

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11
Q

Which of the following HIV enzymes is/are targets of currently available antiviral drugs?

a. reverse transcriptase
b. integrase
c. protease
d. reverse transcriptase and protease
e. all three (reverse transcriptase, integrase, protease)

A

e. all three

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12
Q

Patients with HIV are treated with combinations of multiple antiviral drugs because:

a. the virus is often resistant to one drug
b. the virus can mutate and become resistant to a single drug
c. multiple drugs are needed to suppress viral replication to prevent mutations from developing
d. multiple drugs are needed to treat a mutant virus

A

c. multiple drugs are needed to suppress viral replication to prevent mutations from developing

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13
Q

Prevalence increases if (mark all that apply):

a. infected people move into the population under study, and no one leaves
b. people with the disease die
c. uninfected people leave the population under study, and no one new enters
d. people are cured
e. people acquire the disease at a faster rate
f. people begin to live longer with the disease
g. people acquire the disease at a slower rate

A

a, c, e, f

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14
Q

Globally, according to the most recent available data, HIV incidence is:

a. Increasing
b. Decreasing
c. Neither increasing nor decreasing

A

b. decreasing

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15
Q

Globally, according to the most recent available data, HIV prevalence is:

a. Steeply declining
b. Steeply increasing
c. Continuing to decline, with evidence of leveling off
d. Continuing with increase, with evidence of leveling off

A

d. Continuing with increase, with evidence of leveling off

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16
Q

The general belief is that the risk of HIV transmission from an infected partner to a susceptible partner, during penile-vaginal sex, is about 1/1000 is:

a. More complicated than can be captured by one statistic
b. False
c. True

A

a. More complicated than can be captured by one statistic

17
Q

Co-factors that increase the risk of HIV transmission include (mark all that apply):

a. Lack of male circumcision in the susceptible partner
b. Female genital mutilation (FGS or “female circumcision”) in the susceptible partner
c. Higher HIV viral load in the infected partner
d. Older age in the susceptible partner
e. High-fat diet in the susceptible partner
f. More advanced HIV disease stage of the infected partner
g. Urban residence of the susceptible partner
h. Other sexually transmitted infections in either the infected or susceptible partner

A

a, c, f, h

18
Q

Men who have sex with men have increased HIV prevalence compared to the general adult population only in the US and Europe.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

19
Q

HIV’s entry into the CD4+ T cell is a 3 step process involving 2 viral glycoproteins gp120 and gp41 and CD4+ cells membrane. Which of the following most accurately describes this process?

a. gp41 binds the CD4 molecule and binds to the coreceptor. Then gp120 inserts into the cell membrane and fuses.
b. gp120 binds to the CD4 molecule and binds to the coreceptor. Then gp41 inserts into the cell membrane and fuses.
c. gp120 binds to the CD4 molecule and gp41 binds to the coreceptor. Then gp120 inserts into the cell membrane and fuses.

A

b. gp120 binds to the CD4 molecule and binds to the coreceptor. Then gp41 inserts into the cell membrane and fuses.

20
Q

During HIV infection which assay is used to estimate the degree of immune suppression?

a. CD4+ T cell count
b. CD8+ T cell count
c. CD4/CD8 ratio
d. HIV RNA level
e. Viral genotype

A

a. CD4+ T cell count - as this falls, cell-mediated immunity falls.

21
Q

What does a diagnosis of HIV infection require?

a. a positive antibody assay for HIV using a licensed antibody test
b. a positive cytotoxic T cell assay to HIV
c. a positive EIA HIV antibody assay followed by a confirmatory positive assay for HIV
d. a positive PCR assay for HIV RNA in the plasma
e. a positive PCR assay for HIV DNA in peripheral blood cells

A

c. a positive EIA HIV antibody assay followed by a confirmatory positive assay for HIV

22
Q

Which of the following immune parameters is associated with a better suppression of HIV in the blood stream?

a. broad CD4+ T cell response to HIV
b. broad CD8+ T cell response to HIV
c. broad natural killer cell response to HIV
d. broad neutralizing antibody response to HIV

A

b. broad CD8+ T cell response to HIV