Week 3 Flashcards

(61 cards)

1
Q

What is the step-by-step pathway of the classical complement pathway?

A

1) Antibody binds to antigen
2) C1q portion of C1 complex (C1q2r2s) binds to Fc portion of antibody
3) Activated C1s cleaves C4 and C2 –> C4a + C4b + C2a + C2b
4) C4b + C2a –> C2a4b (C3 convertase)
5) C3 convertase cleaves C3 –> C3a + C3b
6) Some C3b binds to C4b2a –> C4b2a3b (C5 convertase)
7) C5 convertase cleaves C5 –> C5a + C5b
8) C5b binds to C6-9 = MAC

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2
Q

What is the step-by-step pathway of the alternative complement pathway?

A

1) C3 spontaneously hydrolyzes –> C3a + C3b
2) C3b binds with Factor B C3bB
3) Factor D cleaves C3bB –> C3bBb + Ba
4) C3bBb (C3 convertase) hydrolyzes C3 –> C3a + C3b
5) C3b binds with C3bBb –> C3bBb3B (3B reprsents newly cleaved C3b)
6) C3bBb3B (C5 convertase) cleaves C5 –> C5a + C5b
7) C5b binds to C6-9 = MAC

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3
Q

What are the early pathway steps in the classical complement pathway?

A

C1 complex (C1qr2s2), C2, C4, C3

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4
Q

What are the late pathway steps in the classical and alternative complement pathway?

A

C5 - C9

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5
Q

What consequences are associated with the early complement pathway defects?

A

Invasive infections with encapsulated microbes

Lupus or glomerulonephritis are common issues

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6
Q

What consequences are associated with the late complement pathway defects?

A

Invasive infections with Neisseria species

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7
Q

What is the CH50 test?

A

Test to diagnose late complement pathway defect

AB-coated sheep blood is added to patient’s serum. Look at how many sheep RBCs are lysed

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8
Q

What are the functions of C1-INH? Is it soluble or membrane bound?

A

C1-INH binds to C1r and C1s of the C1 complex, which inhibits cleavage of C4 and C2

C1-INH inhibits the Kinin-Kallikrein System, which is involved in vasodilation, vascular permeability, and blood pressure.

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9
Q

What is the consequence of defective C1-INH?

A

Hereditary angioedema

-Characterized by attacks of rapid swelling in various tissues

Triggered by

  • Trauma
  • Surgery
  • Emotional stress
  • And dental procedures (can be life-threatening)
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10
Q

What is C3 Nephritic Factor (C3NeF)? Is it soluble or membrane bound?

A

Autoantibody that prolongs the half-life of C3bBb

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11
Q

What is the consequence of C3NeF?

A

Membranoproliferative Glomeruloneohritis Type II

-kidney disfunction due to deposits of immune complexes in the glomeruli

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12
Q

What is factor H? it soluble or membrane bound?

A

Competes with factor B by preventing the formation of C3Bb (alternative pathway)

soluble

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13
Q

What is factor I? Type of activity?

A

Has serine protease activity to cleave C3b –> inactive C3b (iC3b)

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14
Q

What is Membrane Cofactor Protein (MCP aka CD46)

A

Membrane bound protein located on self-cell membranes via GPI anchors

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15
Q

What is the consequence of defective Factor H?

A

Hemolytic Uremia Syndrome

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16
Q

What is the consequence of defective Factor H or Factor I or Membrane Cofactor Protein (MCP)?

A

Hemolytic Uremia Syndrome (HUS)

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17
Q

What is leukocyte adhesion deficiency?

A

Inability of leukocytes to migrate to site of infection/inflammation

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18
Q

What is chronic granulomatous disease?

A

Defect with NADPH oxidase complex preventing proper oxidative bursts

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19
Q

What is primary immunodeficiency?

A

congenital immunodeficiency that can affect effector and regulatory arms of immune system

often caused by mutations in specific genes

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20
Q

What is secondary immunodeficiency

A

non-genetic immunodeficiency that is secondary to something else (chemotherapy, malnutrition, burns, HIV, etc)

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21
Q

Type 1 necrotizing soft tissue infection microbe(s) and treatment

A

aerobes and anaerobes

foul odor, grey discharge, crepitus (crackling skin)

surgery
Beta-lactam + Beta-lacatmase inhibitor combo

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22
Q

Type 2 necrotizing soft tissue infection microbe(s) and treatment

A

streptococcus pyogenes

surgery
Beta-lactam + beta-lactamase inhibitor combo PLUS clindamycin for GAS toxin inhibition

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23
Q

Type 3 necrotizing soft tissue infection microbe(s)

A

marine vibrio species

fresh or brackish (salty) water exposure

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24
Q

What are the common etiologies of necrotizing soft tissue infections?

A

Type I, Type II, Type II, and MRSA

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25
What is folliculitis?
infection or inflammation of hair follicles papules or pustules centered upon hair follicles
26
MRSA necrotizing soft tissue infection treatment
Vancomycin
27
What is an abscess?
purulent collection in dermis and subcutaneous tissue
28
What is a furuncle?
Boil; purulent abscess associated with hair follicles
29
What is a carbuncle?
Multiple furuncles that coalesce and form sinus tracts
30
What is Decay Accelerating Factor (DAF)? Is it soluble or membrane bound?
DAF is found on self cell membranes via GPI anchors that prevents the formation of C3 convertase in both classical (C2a4b) and alternative (C3bBb) pathways
31
What is the effector arm of the immune system?
carries out the immune response
32
What is the regulatory arm of the immune system?
regulates the effector arm of the immune system
33
What is a macule?
change in skin color <1cm
34
What is a patch?
a macule >1 cm at it's widest aspect
35
what is a papule?
Solid raised lesion that has distinct borders and is less than 1 cm in diameter
36
What is a plaque?
Solid raised flat-topped lesion >1 cm in diameter
37
What is a nodule?
Solid raised NON-flat-topped lesion >1 cm in diameter
38
What is a vesicle?
Raised lesion up to 1 cm in diameter, filled with clear fluid
39
What is a bulla?
Raised lesion >1 cm in diameter, filled with clear fluid
40
What is a pustule?
Raised lesion filled with pus
41
What is a wheal?
Evanescent papule or plaque, often with erythematous borders and pale center
42
What is a scale?
Visible fragments of the stratum corneum as it is shed from the skin
43
What is a crust?
Liquid debris (serum or pus) that has dried on the surface of the skin
44
What is lichenification?
Thickening of epidermis, with resulting accentutation of skin lines, often as a result of scratching
45
What is a fissure?
Sharply-defined, linear or wedge-shaped tears in the epidermis
46
What is an erosion?
Loss of superficial layers of upper epidermis by friction or pressure
47
What is an ulcer?
Epidermis and some dermis have been loss
48
What are the clinical symptoms of neutropenia?
``` fever infections/sepsis peri-rectal pain and abscesses skin infections mouth sores ```
49
What organisms would cause problems with complement deficiency?
encapsulated organisms
50
What organisms would cause problems with neutrophil/phagocytosis deficiency?
catalase + organisms
51
What is chronic granulomatous disease? How do you test for it?
Defect wit NADPH oxidase complex ``` Dihydrorhodamine 123 (DHR) dye Cells that have proper functioning oxidative burst will cause the cell to turn green ```
52
What are clinical features of necrotizing soft tissue infections
infections that spread rapidly along subcutaneous tissue planes, leading to tissue death (fascia, muscles and their associated nerves), and severe systemic toxicity
53
What are the risk factors for necrotizing soft tissue infections?
Immunocompromised - primary - secondary - diabetes - burns - peripheral vascular disease
54
What is the common cause of necrotizing soft tissue infections? second?
type 1 aerobes + anaerobes second is Staph a
55
What is impetigo? What are the two bugs that can cause it?
infection of epidermis Staph a (most common) and strep pyogenes
56
What is the topical of choice for skin infections?
Mupricin 2%
57
What causes erysipelas cellulitis?
Typically strep pyogenes
58
What causes mastoiditis?
complications of otitis media
59
What is sinusitis?
Inflammation of the ostia that drain the mucus from each sinus
60
What is orbital cellulitis?
inflammation of the sinus passage results in the movement of bacteria from the sinus spaces into the orbital space via the lamina paprycea
61
Septic jugular thrombophlebitis
infection of the jugular vein that occurs from pharyngitis that progresses to tonsilitis that progresses to peritonsillar abscesses