Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Gastrointestinal > Week 3 > Flashcards

Week 3 Flashcards

1
Q

The left and right hepatic ducts form which structure

A

Common hepatic duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The bile duct drains into which part of duodenum

A

2nd part

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The common hepatic duct joins with the cystic duct to form what

A

Bile duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Duodenum has how many parts?

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which part of the duodenum is partly intraperitoneal?

A

Superior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The pyloric sphincter is comprised of which type of muscle?

A

Smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The duodenum ends at which structure?

A

Duodenojejunal flexure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The pancreas is a intra/retro-peritoneal organ?

A

Retroperitoneal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe the regions of the pancreas from the “tip” to the other end (5)

A
  • Tail
  • Body
  • Neck
  • Head
  • Ucinate process
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The main pancreatic duct and bile duct come together to form

A

The ampulla of vater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The ampulla of vater drains into the duodenum via

A

Major duodenal papilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The main pancreatic duct (inside the pancreas) is called

A

Duct of Wirsung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The sphincter which controls the major duodenal papilla

A

Sphincter of Oddi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

ERCP stands for

A

Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Jaundice can result in an overspill in which agent into the blood

A

Bile (in extra-hepatic jaundice)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Blood supply to the pancreas is via which artery

A

Gastroduodenal artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The gastroduodenal artery is a branch of which artery

A

Common hepatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The duodenum is supplied by which artery

A

SMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The SMA comes off at which level of the aorta?

A

L1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Spleen is supplied by which artery

A

Splenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The pancreas is a foregut/midgut structure

A

It is both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Pancreatitis pain can present in which regions in particular

A

Epigastric and umbilical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Acute pancreatitis is associated with which signs (2)

A

Gray-Turner’s Sign (on flanks)

Cullen’s Sign (around umbilicus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The first and second part of the duodenum are foregut. True/false?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The ileum ends at which structure

A

Ileocaecal junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The jejunum is masculine, the ileum is feminine, true/false?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Key differences between jejunum and ileum?

A

Jejunum is redder, ileum is pinker.
The wall of the jejunum is thick and heavy while ileum is lighter and thinner.
Jejnum is more vascularised and has less muscle than the ileum.
Jejunum has large, tall, close plicae circularis while ileum are spread out.
Ileum has Peyer’s patches.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Blood supply to the jejunum and ileum comes from which artery?

A

SMA, via jejunal and ileal arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Venous drainage from the jejunum and ileum occurs to where?

A

Jejunal/ileal veins into the superior mesenteric vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The SMA travels anterior to the ucinate process of pancreas, true or false?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Fat is absorbed through which structure?

A

Lacteals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The lacteals drain into the venous system at which venous angle?

A

Left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The left thoracic duct collects how much lymph drainage form body?

A

3/4rd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The right thoracic duct collects how much lymph from body?

A

1/4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The lymphatic drainage occurs at a junction between which veins?

A

Subclavian and internal jugular veins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The taste buds are present on which papillae?

A

Fungiform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

An oral manifestation of anaemia?

A

Apthous ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

CD may present orally with (5)

A

Ulcers, mucosal tags, cobblestone mucosa, swollen lips, angular chelitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Sjorgen’s Syndrome may present orally with

A

Dry mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the most common textural appearance of oral cancer?

A

Granular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How many cases of oral cancer do NOT present with ulceration or bleeding?

A

98%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Oral cancer incidence is greater/lesser in Scotland than in England.

A

Greater (2.5x)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Common sites of oral cancer

A

Tongue, tonsils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Causes of oral cancer (4)

A
  • Tobacco
  • Alcohol AND tobacco (synergy)
  • HPV
  • candida
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Cannabis smokers are at heightened risk of oral cancer, why?

A

Increased tar in cannabis c.f. tobacco leaves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Smoking tobacco cigarettes is the only hazardous method of ingesting tobacco. True/false?

A

False - also with chewing/hookah/shisha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Why does vitamin A deficiency present as orally and why does this predispose to oral cancer?

A

Leukoplakia - the mucosa is thinner and more sensitive to carcinogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

High risk sites for oral cancer?

A

Non-keratinised sites e.g. ventral tongue/lateral tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Low-risk sites for oral cancer?

A

Underside of tongue, hard palate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Red flags for oral cancer? (6)

A

Red/white lesions, ulcers, numbness in face/lips, unexplained pain in neck or mouth, hoarseness, dysphagia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

4 key questions which should be asked when investigating suspected oral lesions?

A
  • How long has it been present?
  • Is it painful?
  • Does patient smoke and drink?
  • Colour?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Dental caries are measured using which scale?

A

DMF Index (Decayed Missing Filled)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Peridontal disease is

A

Inflammation of periodontal tissues (e.g. gingivia) due to plaque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

National Scottish programme to promote dental health amongst children?

A

CHILDSMILE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Fatty acids can be used as they are for gluconeogenesis. True/false?

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Fatty acids have to be first activated to acetyl-CoA to be used in metabolism. True/false?

A

False - they are activated firstly to malonyl-CoA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Beta oxidation yields (5)

A
  • 1x Acetyl-CoA
  • 1x FADH2
  • 1x NADH
  • 1x H+
  • 1x Fatty acyl-CoA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

For an even number saturated fat, how many oxidations must be performed to complete catalysis?

A

(N/2)-1 (n being number of carbons)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Ketone bodies are toxic to peripheral tissues which prefer glucose. True/false?

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Ketone bodies can cross the BBB. True/false?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Lipogenesis occurs mainly in which organ?

A

Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the maximum carbon-length of FA the body can synthesize?

A

C16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Synthesis of FAs requires which cofactor(s)?

A

NADPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Citrate stimulates conversion of acetyl-CoA to what?

A

Malonyl-CoA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Fatty acid synthesis is induced during conditions of glucagon-mediated glucose release. True or false?

A

False - this is the starvation state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

The donor molecule of carbon atoms to growing FAs is what?

A

Malonyl-CoA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Does citrate allosterically assist insulin in up-regulating catalytic activity of acetyl-CoA carboxylase?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Urea is mainly synthesised where?

A

Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

The rate-limiting step in glycogen breakdown is conversion to glucose-6-phosphate. True/false?

A

False - rate limiter is conversion to glucose-1-phosphate via glycogen phosphorylase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Gluconeognesis requires how many unique liver enzymes?

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Glycogenin can bind how many glucose molecules? What is the bond type?

A

4, covalent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Why is glycogenin important?

A

As glycogen synthase can only add glucose residues to EXISTING chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Glycogen synthase starts glycogen synthesis with one molecule of glycogen. True or false?

A

False - more than 1 needed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Gluconeogenesis is the reverse of glycolysis. True/false?

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Glycolysis occurs in which cell compartment

A

Cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Glucose is removed from glycogen as glucose-6-phopsphate. True/false?

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Anabolic reactions synthesise oxidised or reduced products?

A

Reduced

78
Q

Are NADH/FADH2 consumed in the TCA cycle?

A

No, they are produced

79
Q

TCA is how many reactions?

A

Eight

80
Q

Each turn of the TCA cycle yields (4)

A

CO2
NADH/H
FADH2
GTP (one)

81
Q

The P/O is the measure of what

A

ATP molecules produced to oxygen reduced

82
Q

Does NADH have more negative redox potential than FADH2?

A

No

83
Q

Pancreatic enzymes (5)

A

Trypsin, chymotrypsin, elastate, procarboxypeptidase A and B

84
Q

The oral cavity is lined by keratinised epithelium. True/false?

A

False

85
Q

Nasal cavity is covered with which type of epithelium?

A

Respiratory epithelium

86
Q

Which papillae sense temperature?

A

Filiform

87
Q

Which papillae have taste buds?

A

Foliate & circumvallate

88
Q

The anterior 2/3rds of the tongue are covered with what type of epithelium?

A

Stratified squamous

89
Q

Posterior 1/3rd of tongue have which distinct feature?

A

Lymphoid aggregates, crypts.

90
Q

The mucosa is comprised of what (from lumenal to basal) ? (3)

A
  • Epithelium resting on basal lamina
  • Lamina propria
  • Muscularis mucosae
91
Q

The histological layers of the GI tract (from lumenal to basal) are: (4)

A
  • Mucosa
  • Submucosa
  • Muscularis externa (inner circular, outer longituindal)
  • Serosa or adventitia
92
Q

The stomach has which type of epithelium?

A

Columnar

93
Q

How many gastric glands per gastric pit?

A

1-7

94
Q

Chief cells produce what?

A

Digestive enzymes (e.g. pepsin)

95
Q

Parietal cells produce what?

A

Acid

96
Q

Muscularis external of stomach is unusual in that it contains what?

A

Additional oblique layer of muscle

97
Q

The villi of the duodenum contain which type of crypt?

A

Crypt of Lieberkuhn.

98
Q

What type of cells are present at the bottom of crypt of Lieberkuhn?

A

Paneth (secrete lyozyme)

99
Q

Brunner’s Glands are unique to which region of GI tract/

A

Duodenum

100
Q

Two principle cells in LI?

A

Absorptive cells, goblet cells.

101
Q

Macroscopic folding of LI is called what?

A

Teniae coli

102
Q

The epithelium type of anal canal?

A

Stratified squamous

103
Q

The “line” term for the gastro-oesophageal junction is termed what?

A

Z-line

104
Q

Microscopic features of reflux oesophagitis? (2)

A

Basal zone epithelial expansion (i.e. cells become thicker to accommodate for lost), intrapeithelial neutrophils

105
Q

Allergic oesophagitis is more common in which conditions?

A

Asthma or males

106
Q

On OGN allergic oesophagitis resembles

A

Corrugated fencing

107
Q

Treatment for allergic oesophagitis includes

A

Steroids, chromones, montelukast

108
Q

Allergic oesophagitis can only be diagnosed if which two conditions are met? (2)

A
  • increased blood eosinophils

- absence of pH probe detection of reflux

109
Q

Benign oesophageal tumour example

A

Squamous papilloma (associated with HPV)

110
Q

Malignant oesophageal tumour example

A

Squamous cell carcinoma or adenocarcinoma

111
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma is more common in which areas?

A

China

112
Q

Adenocarcinoma is commoner in which ethnic group?

A

Caucasians

113
Q

Adenocarcinoma is commonest in which part of oesophagus?

A

Lower 1/3rd

114
Q

What is the overarching pathophysiology of GORD?

A

Incompetent LOS

115
Q

Symptoms of GORD include (9)

A
  • Heartburn
  • Reflux
  • Waterbrash
  • Dysphagia
  • Odynophagia
  • weight loss
  • chest pain
  • hoarseness
  • coughing
116
Q

Investigations for GORD? (4)

A
  • Endoscopy
  • Barium swallow
  • Oesophageal manometry / pH studies
  • Nuclear sutides
117
Q

First-line therapy for GORD?

A

Lifestyle advice (stop smoking, lose weight, prop up bed head, avoid provocation)

118
Q

Example drug used in treatment of GORD?

A

H2 antagonists (e.g. cimetidine)

119
Q

A hiatus hernia of oesophagus is when…

A

Part of oesophagus breaches diaphragm

120
Q

A paraoesophageal hernia is when

A

Fundus of stomach breaches the diaphragm

121
Q

Gastroparesis is a condition of…

A

Delayed gastric emptying with NO obstruction

122
Q

Common causes of gastroparesis

A

Idiopathic, cannabis, opiates, sclerosis

123
Q

Treatment options for gastroparesis (4)

A
  • Sloppy diet
  • Eating little/often
  • Promotility agents
  • Gastric pacemaker
124
Q

Dyspepsia is defined by the Rome III criteria as… (3)

A
  • Epigastric pain or burning
  • Postprandial fullness
  • Early satiety
125
Q

Dyspepsia is commoner in people with H. pylori. True/false?

A

True

126
Q

Organic causes of dyspepsia are commoner/rarer than functional causes.

A

Rarer (25% of cases)

127
Q

Example organic causes of dyspepsia (3)

A
  • peptic ulcer disease
  • drugs (e.g. NSAIDs/COX2)
  • gastric cancer
128
Q

Functional causes of dyspepsia are commoner/rarer than organic causes?

A

Commoner (75% - includes organic causes WITH an underlying disorder e.g. IBS)

129
Q

Uncomplicated dyspepsia presents only with

A

Epigastric tenderness

130
Q

Complicated dyspepsia results in (4)

A

Cachexia, mass presence, outflow obstruction, peritonism.

131
Q

H. pylori causes which proportion of gastric and duodenal ulcers? (2)

A

90% and 50%, respectively

132
Q

H. pylori shape and Gram stain?

A

Gram negative, flagellated bacillus

133
Q

H. pylori always results in peptic ulcer disease. True/false?

A

False - only 20-40% of patients develop PUD

134
Q

H. pylori can cause gastric cancer. True/false?

A

True

135
Q

Diagnosis of H. pylori can be made by (4)

A
  • Gastric biopsy (urease? histology? culture?)
  • Urease breath test
  • Faecal antigen test
  • Serology (but not accurate with increasing age)
136
Q

H. pylori survives by doing what to its micro-environment?

A

Increasing pH via a urease to make bicarbonate

137
Q

Treatment regimens for H. pylori? (2)

A
  • 1 week of PPI, 1g of amoxicillin BD, 500mg clarithromycin BD.
  • 1 week of PPI, 400mg metronidazole, 250mg clarithromycin BD.
138
Q

Gastric cancer has a FH link. True/false?

A

True

139
Q

Peptic ulcer disease from H. pylori protects against gastric cancer. True/false?

A

True

140
Q

How does H. pylori reduce gastric secretions?

A

Likely due to inducing IL-1B, a powerful antisecretory cytokine.

141
Q

Commonest cause of chronic gastritis?

A

H. pylori infection

142
Q

Cytokine critical in inflammatory response to H. pylori?

A

IL-8

143
Q

Peptic ulceration is a breach in mucosa as a result of what?

A

Acid and pepsin attack

144
Q

Common duodenal ulceration point?

A

1st part

145
Q

Common stomach ulcer point?

A

Junction between body and antrum

146
Q

Common oesophageal ulcer point?

A

Z-line

147
Q

Peptic ulcers have which macroscopic appearance?

A

“punched out”

148
Q

At the deepest layer of an ulcer which type of tissue forms?

A

Fibrotic scar tissue

149
Q

Complications of peptic ulcers include? (5)

A
  • Perforation
  • Penetration
  • Haemorrhage
  • Stenosis
  • Intractable pain
150
Q

Gastric adenocarcinoma is commoner in which countries?

A

Japan, China, Finland

151
Q

Menetriere’s Disease is a…

A

Premalignant condition of stomach

152
Q

Stomach cancer gross appearance types (2)

A

Intestinal (better prognosis)

Diffuse

153
Q

Regurtitation is the effortless movement of swallowed food/stomach contents into the mouth, not associated with nausea or retching. True/false?

A

True - regurgitation is EFFORTLESS

154
Q

Vomiting is/isn’t due to stomach contraction.

A

Isn’t - stomach and all sphincters relax.

155
Q

The emetic control center is located in which area?

A

Area posterna of medulla oblongata

156
Q

Enterochromaffin cells in mucosa of gut release what?

A

5HT, stimulates vomiting via CTZ and NTS

157
Q

Brainstem structure involved in vomiting?

A

Nucleus tractus solitarri

158
Q

Motion sickness vomiting is triggered via which pathway?

A

Vestibular nuclei

159
Q

Consequences of severe vomiting include (5)

A

Dehydration, loss of gastric protons, hypokalaemia, Mallory-Weiss Tear, aspiration

160
Q

Dopamine antagonists block vomiting through acting on which area?

A

Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone

161
Q

Side-effects of dopamine antagonists?

A

Dystonia, sedation

162
Q

Example dopamine antagonist

A

Haloperidol

163
Q

Prokinetic drugs block which receptor in which area to prevent vomiting?

A

D2 in CTZ

164
Q

Example prokinetic drug?

A

Metoclopramide

165
Q

Drug class of choice in chemotherapy induced nausea?

A

5HT3 receptor antagonists

166
Q

Example 5HT3 receptor antagonist

A

Granisetron (-setron drugs)

167
Q

Side effect of 5HT3 antagonists

A

Headache

168
Q

H1 antihistamines block vomiting via acting on which pathway

A

Vestibular nuclei of nucleus tractus solitarii

169
Q

Example H1 antihistamine

A

Cyclizine

170
Q

Anti-emetic of choice to treat motion sickness?

A

H1 antihistamine

171
Q

Side effect of H1 antihistamine?

A

Sedation

172
Q

Example of anticholinergic drug?

A

Hyoscine (AKA scopolamine)

173
Q

Anticholinergics act on which receptors to combat emesis?

A

Muscarinic receptors in vestibular nuclei of the NTS

174
Q

Side effect of anticholinergics? (4)

A

Blurred vision, urinary retention, dry mouth, sedation

175
Q

Adjuvants which may be used to antiemetics (4)

A
  • NK1 receptor antagonists
  • Corticosteroids
  • Benzodiazepines
  • Cannabinoids
176
Q

Condition which can result from intractable vomiting in pregnancy?

A

Hyperemesis gravidarum - fluid and electrolyte disturbance

177
Q

First line treatment of choice in hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

H1 histamine antagonist (e.g. cyclizine)

178
Q

Blood supply to the stomach is achieved from which arteries?

A

Left and right gastric arteries

179
Q

The gastric arteries come from which artery?

A

Common hepatic

180
Q

Oesophageal cancer is commoner/rarer in males compared to women/

A

Commoner

181
Q

After OGN in cases of abdominal cancer, what is the next investigation generally?

A

CT chest/abdo for spread

182
Q

Adenocarcinoma is treated with endoscopic resection if it is in which stage?

A

Tis or T1A

183
Q

Most common cause of gastric cancer?

A

H. pylori

184
Q

The rule of 100s in terms of upper GI haemorrhage is (6)

A
  • Systolic BP <100mmHg
  • Pulse >100/min
  • Hb <100g/L
  • Age>60
  • Comorbidities
  • Postural hypotension
185
Q

Severity of upper GI haemorrhage is scored on which systems?

A

Rockall and Blatchford

186
Q

Stigmata of a recent upper GI haemorrhage include (3)

A

Active bleeding, overlying clot or a visible vessel

187
Q

Why is haemostasis difficult to achieve in the stomach?

A

Acid dissolves clot

188
Q

Endoscopic treatments of upper GI bleed (4)

A
  • Injection (of adrenaline)
  • Heater probe coagulation
  • Clipping
  • Hameospary
189
Q

Risk factors for variceal bleeding (4)

A
  • High portal pressure (>12mmHg)
  • > 25% lumen obscured
  • red signs
  • liver failure
190
Q

Signs of cirrhotic disease (8)

A

Spider naevi, palmar erythema, leukoynchia, ascites, jaundice, encephalopathy, fetor hepaticus

191
Q

What is the name of the vasopressin analogue used to achieve upper GI haemostasis?

A

Terlipressin

192
Q

Haemostasis of upper GI bleeds can be achieved with (5):

A

1) Terlipressin
2) Ligation
3) Sclerotherapy
4) Sengstaken-Blakemore balloon
5) Glue

Gastrointestinal (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions