Week 3 Flashcards by Brendan Knapp

_____ cellular rejection is associated with diffuse _____ infiltration

acute, lymphocytic

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what murmur is heard best when the patient is sitting up and leaning forward with expiration?

aortic regurg

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

aortic regurg:

when does peak intensity occur?

immediately after aortic valve closure

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

inactivated viral vaccines primarily generate a ______ immune response. the influenza vaccine induces neutralizing Abs against the ____ antigen

humoral (vs cell-mediated);

hemagglutinin

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

primary TB infection = characterized by ghon complex, which consists of a _____ lobe lesion and ipsilateral ______ _____

lower;

hilar adenopathy

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

orotic aciduria:

causes a ______ anemia. due to defect in _____. treat with _____ supplementation

megaloblastic;
UMP synthase;
uridine

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

most common cause of death in acute rheumatic fever?

pancarditis –> HF

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

ovarian vein thrombosis:

often occurs ____partum. typically ____ sided and can extend into the ______

post;
RIGHT;

IVC

(L side can extend to renal vein)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

inheritence of spina bifida?

multifactorial

same as clef lip/palate, diabetes, CAD, HTN

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

where cell layer are parietal cells found in?

upper glandular layer

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what kind of transplant rejection is characterized by immediate mottling and cyanosis of the organ upon initial perfsion?

hyperacute

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

hyperacute rejection is mediated by _____ _____ _____. 2 examples =

preformed anti-donor Abs;

ABO, HLA

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what nerve runs in the anterior compartment of the leg?

deep peroneal (also with anterior tibial artery)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

embryological cause of transposition of great arteries?

failure of aorticopulmonary septum to sprial

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

S4:

heard in ____ diastole. associated with ventricular ______. 2 causes?

late;
noncompliance;

LVH, restrictive cardiomyopathy

represents atrial contraction

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

release of ____ ____ from ischemic neurons leads to liquefactive necrosis

lysosomal enzyymes

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

in anaerobic glycolysis, ____ is regenerated via conversion of pyruvate to _____ via _____ dehydrogenase

NAD+;

lactate, lactate

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

F-2,6-bisphosphate ______ PFK1 = ______ gycolysis. it also _____ F16-bisphosphatase = _____ gluconeogensis

stimulates, increases;

inhibits, decreases

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

interstitial lung disease:

associated with _____ lung elastic recoil caused by fibrosis–> _____ radial traction on airways

increased;
increased

leads to increased FEV1

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

celiac disease typically affects what part of the GI tract?

duodenum

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

phenoxybenzamine and phentolamine both inhibit ____. phenoxybenzamine is a _____ antagonist. phentolamine is a _____ antagonist

alpha 1, alpha2;

irreversible,
reversible

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

the lunate is the more ______ of the bones that articulates with the radius. what is the other bone?

medial;

scaphoid

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

in general what RNA are considered infectious? (ie act directly as mRNA)

single strand positive sense

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

infants born to ____-positive mothers have a high risk of aquiring perinatal HBV. typically present as ….?

HBeAG;

asymptomatic

but high risk for HCC, cirrhosis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

diuretics, ACE inhibitors, and ARBs all _____ plasma renin activity

increase

strawberry hemangiomas: present when? grow rapidly or remain stable? regress or no?

infancy, grow rapidly and then regress

mutations in what 2 sarcomeric proteins can cause hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

beta-myosin heavy chain; | myosin binding protein C

parvovirus: DNA or RNA? ss or DS? enveloped or naked?

ss DNA naked

S3: | associated with increased ______ _______ _____ volume. often occurs with?

increased LV End-systolic volumel Left HF

what part of the body has the most deoxygenated blood?

coronary sinus

2 most important mediators of coronary vascular dilation?

NO, adenosine

what part of the urethra is most commonly damaged with pelvic fractures? what about straddle injuries

posterior (ie membrnaous segment); anterior (ie bulbous and penile)

2 most important risk factors for esophageal SCC?

smoking, alcohol; see keratinization + intracellular bridges

MQs and monocytes can be identified by what CD marker?

CD14

disproportionate loss to follow up between exposed and unexposed groups is an example of _____ bias, a form of ____ bias

attrition; | selection

the rubber-like properties of elastin are due to ________ _____ between elastin monomers which is facilitated by ____ ____

extensive cross-linking; | lysyl oxidase

what region of the sarcomere contains only thick (myosin filaments)? what band only has thin filaments?

H band; | I band

HPV has predilection for what kind of epithelium? what part of the respiratory tract has this epithelium?

stratified squamous; true vocal cords

____ head sublaxation results from sudden traction on outstretched and pronated arm of child. what ligament is torn?

radial; | annular

either and organic solvents destroy virus infectivity by what mechanism?

dissolve lipid bilayer of envelope

femoral hernias: ____ to inguinal ligament; ____ to pubic tubercle; medial to what vessel?

below; lateral; femoral vein

Guallain-Barre syndrome is characterized by _____ demyelination and _____ inflammatory infiltrate

segmental; | endoneural

what kind of benign breast tumor is characerized by a cellular/myxoid stroma that encircles glandular/cystic spaces?

fibroadenoma (most common benign breast tumor)

lactose intolerance: | ____ stool pH, _____ hydrogen breath content, _____ stool osmolality

decreased, increased, increased

what does Protein A produced by staph aureus do?

binds Fc portion of IgG --> impaired complement activation and phagocytosis

______ hypersensitivity reaction is strongly associated with HLA-B57:01 allele

abacavir

T cells: positive selection occurs in the _____; negative selection occurs in the ______

thymus cortex; | thymus medulla

what can be used to reverse both CNS and peripheral symptoms of atropine overdose? is this a tertiary or quarternary amine?

physostigmine; tertiary

klinefelter: | _____ testosterone; ____ LH, ____ FSH, ____ estrogen

decreased, increased, increased, increased

pneumococcal _____ vaccines produce both B and T cell recruitment. _____ vaccines cause a T-cell indepenedent respone

conjugate; | polysacharride

(acidosis or alkalosis)? stimulates renal amniogenesis. what amino acid is required for this?

acidosis; | glutamine

myasthenia gravis: | decreased ____ ____ potentials --> prevents ability to form _____ _____

end plate; | action potentials

what 2 bacteria are pyrrolidonyl arylamidase-positive?

strep pyogenes; enterococci

B1 receptors are found mainly in what 2 areas?

``` heart; renal JGA (increase renin release) ``` not vascular!

equation for RPF

RBF * (1 - hematocrit)

insulin promotes glycogen _____ by activating ____ _____

synthesis, protein phosphatase

digoxin prevents sodium _____ and causes a _____ in intracellular sodium levels

efflux, increase; = decreased Na/Ca exhanger = increased Ca in cell

hartnup disease: | due to mutations in _____ ____ ____ transporters in PCT and intestine. causes symptoms due to _____ deficiency

neutral amino acid; niacin ie pellegra

the live attenuated oral (_____) poliovirus vaccine produces a stronger ______ Ig___ response compared to the inactivated vaccine

Sabin; | mucosal IgA;

acute transplant rejections can be _____ or _____ mediated. which is more common?

cellular, antibody; cellular (ie T lymphocytes)

what amino acid becomes essential in most patients with homocysteinuria?

cysteine; see buildup in methionine as well

buerger disease/thromboangiitis obliterans: heavily associated with _____; what kind of vasculitis?

smoking; | ``` segmental thrombosing which can extend into contiguous veins/nerves ```

when do red neurons first appear with an ischemic stroke?

12-24 hours

cryptococcal pneumonia is diagnosed by ______ staining of lung tissue and ______ _____

mucicarmine (stains red); bronchoalveolar washings

______ = PAH clearance

RPF (urine conc x urine flow)/plasma conc

equation for RBF in regards to PAH clearance

PAH clearance / (1 - hematocrit)

what drug is indicated for treatment of visceral nausea due to gastroenteritis?

ondansetron | mostly for chemo tho

what part of the basal ganglia is located directly lateral to the anterior horns of the lateral ventricles?

caudate

shigella: | what is the key pathogenic mechanism that causes symptoms?

mucosal invasion | not toxin production

atherosclerosis: _____ produced locally by _____, endothelial cells, and MQs promotes migration of smooth muscle cells from media into intima --> proliferation

PDGF, platelets

most carcinogens are converted into active metabolites by CYP450 systems. an example of an enzyme is ____ ____

microsomal monooxygenase

reciting months of the year backwards is a test for _____

concentration

following multi-step commands is a test for ____. drawing a clock at the correct time is a test for _____ function

comprehension; | executive function

21 hydroxylase is responsible for concverstion of progesterone to _____.

11-deoxycorticosterone

XY patients with no sertoli cells but normal leydig cells will have _____ internal reproductive organs and _____ genitalia

female and male; male (sertoli cells produce anti-mullerian hormone)

in CML, leukocyte alkaline phosphatase levels are _____. what is it in leukemoid reactions?

decreased; | normal or increased

INO: the affected eye is ____ to the lesion. it is unable to _____.

ipsilateral; adduct normal convergence, pupillary light reflex

mitral stenosis: | loud S___, opening snap heard when?

loud S1; | OS after S2

2 most common bacteria implicated in intra-abdominal abscesses?

Bacteroides, E. coli

what must happen to the Hepatitis D virus before it can infect hepatocytes?

be coated by HbSAg

in _____ order kinetics, a constant fraction of a drug is metabolized per unit time. in ____ order kinetics, a constant amount of drug is metabolized by unit time, independent of serum levels

first, zero

what renal problem is seen in patients with sickle cell trait?

renal papillary necrosis

B12 deficiency develops after absence of intake for how long?

4-5 years due to large liver stores

polyarteritis nodosa: | what kind of vasculitis?

transmural inflam with fibrinioid necrosis

polyarteritis nodosa: | associated with what viral disease?

hep B

what enzyme is responsible for pyruvate --> oxaloacetate? what reaction is this a part of? what vitamin is a cofactor?

pyruvate carboxylase; gluconeogenesis; B7

in addition to pyruvate carboxylase, ____ is also a cofactor for Acetyl-Coa carboxylase, which is involved in _____ and propionyl-coa carboxylase, which is involved with ______

B7 (biotin); FA synth; FA ox

_____ is an arrangement in which a payer pays a fixed, predetermined fee to provide all services required by a patient

capitation

______ is when an insurer pays a provider a single payment to cover all expenses associated with an incident of care

global payment ie elective surgeries`

should thoracentesis needles be inserted at the upper border of a rib or the lower border of a rib?

upper border; lower border is where Nerves, arts, and vessels are

neonatal tetanus can be prevented by what?

immunizing pregnant women

what is the main virulence factor of strep pyogenes? what does it do?

M protein; | inhibits phagocytosis and complement activation

_____ is a selective estrogen receptor modulator that decreases negative feedback inhibition on the hypothalamus--> increased gonadotropin production. used to treat?

clomiphene; | Polycystic ovarian syndrome

auer rods are seen in what kind of cancer?

AML

which DNA polymerase has 5 to 3' DNA synthesis and 3' to 5' exonuclease activity?

DNA polymerase 3

which DNA polymerase has 5 to 3' exonuclease activity? what is this used for?

DNA pol 1; used to remove RNA primer synthesized by RNA primase

_______ is characterized by rapidly progressive dementia and myoclonic jerks. multiple _____ are seen in the gray matter of the brain. due to prion.

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease; | vacuoules (spongiform encephalopathy)

lymph proximal to the dentate line drain to what 2 groups of lymph nodes?

internal iliac, inferior mesenteric

damage to brainstem at or below the red nucleus (ie pons) results in _____ or ____ posturing; damage above the red nucleus results in _____ or _____ posturing

decerebrate/extensor; decorticate/flexor

what ion is most responsible for the QRS complex? What about the QT interval?

Na (phase 0); | K (repolarization)

residual volume is _____ in patients with COPD

increased

what do you use to treat listeria meningitis?

ampicillin it is resistant to cehpalosporins

traumatic aortic rupture most commonly occurs where? | why here?

``` aortic isthmus (right after L. subclav); tethered by ligamentum arteriosum here ```

which group of class 1 antiarythmics prolongs AP duration? which shortens it?

1A prolong; | 1B shorten

Week 3 Flashcards

(104 cards)