Week 3 [not including lab] Flashcards

1
Q

What are the functions of the skin (4)?

A
  • protection
  • thermoregulation
  • sensation
  • excretion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the 3 layers of the skin from the surface to the deepest layer?

A
  • epidermis
  • dermis
  • subdermal adipose tissue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the epidermis made of (3)?

A
  • basal cells
  • squames
  • melanocytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are hairs and nails derived from?

A

skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are basal cells for?

A

where keratinocytes originate before they move to the outer layer of the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define: melanocytes (and give location?)

A

cells in the bottom layer of the epidermis; produce melanin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Define: squames

A

a scale or flake of skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define: hyperhydrosis

  • secondary effects

- Tx

A
  • define: excessive sweating
  • secondary effects: chafing, blisters, calluses, greater chance of skin infection or fungal infection. difficulty taping these athletes
  • treatment: try and keep important areas dry with baby powder or frequently changing clothes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Blisters

  • cause
  • Tx
  • how can we avoid them?
A
  • cause: shearing force
  • try not to puncture it to avoid infections
  • to avoid: place vaseline on places where they’re likely to occur
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Calluses, corns

  • cause
  • secondary effects
  • Tx
A
  • cause: shear or pressure
  • thickening skin can cause problems like tighter fitting shoes
  • treatment: soak and use pumice stone to file it; could be surgically removed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

ingrown nail

  • causes
  • secondary effects
  • treatment
A
  • causes: trimming too close to your nail bed
  • secondary effects: can lead to infection if nail punctures skin
  • treatment: for infection use saline soap and anti fungal creams
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Fungal infections

  • causes (4)
  • prevention
  • treatment
A

causes

  • warmth
  • darkness
  • moisture
  • contamination (direct/indirect contact)

prevention: keep workout areas clean and dry (mats, gym floors, etc), general good hygenie
treatment: anti-fungal creams, wash hands, oral medication (must exercise after to get anti-fungal medication to skin surface by sweating)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe the different varieties of fungal infections

  • Tinea corporis
  • Tinea capitis
  • Tinea cruris
  • Tinea pedis
  • Tinea unguium
A
  • Tinea corporis: body (ringworm)
  • Tinea capitis: scalp (rash & alopecia)
  • Tinea cruris: groin
  • Tinea pedis: feet
  • Tinea unguium: nail and nail beds; not responsive to topical tx
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How many phalanges are there per foot?

A

14! 2 in the great toe, 3 in toes 2 through 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which bone is attached to the flexor hallucis brevis?

A

sesamoid bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe the 3 areas of the foot

A
  • forefoot
  • midfoot
  • hindfoot/rearfoot
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How much degrees of extension do you need in your metatarsal joint for normal walking-running gait?

A

45-70 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What joint makes up the hindfoot?

A
  • subtalar (talus and calcaneus)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What joints are part of the midfoot?

A
  • Navicular joints (cunneiform & cuboid bones)

- Tarso-metatarsal (cuneiforms & cuboid with MTs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What joints are part of the forefoot?

A
  • metatarsophalangeal (MTP)

- interphalangeals (distal DIP, interphalangeal IP, proximal PIP,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the metatarsophalangeal (MTP) responsible for?

A
  • flexion and extension and some abudction and adduction
22
Q

What are the interphalangeals (MTP) responsible for?

A
  • flexion and extension (hinge)
23
Q

Foot flexor muscles (4)

A
  • Flexor hallucis longus (FHL)
  • Flexor hallucis brevis (FHB)
  • Flexor digitorum longus (FDL)
  • Flexor digitorum brevis (FDB)
  • All flex at MTP & IP joints
  • Also assist foot plantar flexion
24
Q

Foot extensor muscles (4)

A
  • EHL
  • EHB
  • EDL
  • EDB
25
Describe the foot posture names for a high arch, normal arch, and a flat foot
- high arch: Pes cavus - normal arch: neutral - flat foot: Pes planus
26
How can we easily test foot posture?
analyze wet foot pattern on concrete
27
Describe foot pronation vs supination
- over pronation leads to calcaneal valgus position/ rear foot valgus (decrease in joint angle) - supination leads to rear foot varus (increase in joint angle)
28
Differentiate between walking and running
- walking: one foot is always in contact with ground | - running: a point exists where neither foot is in contact with ground
29
Describe the Windlass mechanism
- tightening of the plantar fascia during dorsiflexion which shortens the longitudinal arch; allows for shock absorption and stiffness for propulsion - Prior to heel strike, ankle is in dorsiflexion, Plantar Fascia (PF) is taught, medial arch is high - During midstance PF is relaxed to allow medial arch to collapse pronation for shock absorption - Prior to toe-off, first toe is in extension, PF become taught again, foot is stiff for take off, medial arch is high again - Relies on ability of 1st toe to extend normally
30
List the four different arches in the foot
- medial longitudinal arch - lateral longitudinal arch - anterior metatarsal arch - transverse arch
31
What supports the arches of your foot (4)?
- bony anatomy - ligaments - tendons/ plantar flascia - muscle activity
32
Give examples of staple support for an arch
staple examples: plantar and calcaneovicular ligaments
33
Give examples of tie beam/cable support for an arch
- FHL and plantarfascia
34
Give examples of suspension support for an arch
- tibialis anterior (for medial longitudinal arch) and peroneus longus (for lateral longitudinal arch)
35
What are the Keystone Bones for the arches of the feet?
- medial longitudinal: talus - lateral longitudinal: cuboid - anterior metatarsal: 3rd metatarsal - transverse: intermediate cuniform
36
List all the bones that comprise the arches in the foot - medial longitudinal - lateral longitudinal - transverse
- medial longitudinal: talus, calcaneus, navicular, medial cuneiform, first metatarsal, aproximal phalange - lateral longitudinal (calcaneus, cuboid, 5th metatarsal) - transverse arch: metatarsal bases, the cuboid and the three cuneiform bones
37
# Define: exostoses - causes - mechanism - Ssx - Tx
- exostoses: excess bony growth on one of the tarsals bones or bones in the foot - causes: obesity and abnormal weight, faulty footwear, heredity - mechanism: without proper supportive footwear, an increase in stress on the bones causes more bone growth (bones are alwasy remodelling) - Ssx: bony bump, redness, pain, swelling - Tx: greater arch support (insoles, new shoes, cushions which will correct predisposing factors); donut pad (incircles bony growth so shoes don’t put pressure on it); surgical removal (last resort)
38
# Define: bunion (hallux valgus) - cause - SSx - Tx
- define: valgus deformity at MTP1 - cause: tight shoes, heredity - SSx: pain - Tx: warm soaks, improved footwear +/- orthoses (braces), wedge pads or taping, surgery
39
# Define: Plantar (Morton's) Neuroma - cause - DDx - SSx - Tx
- define: nerve tissue growth usually between MTs III and IV that feels as if you are standing on a pebble in your shoe; - cause: interdigital nerve becomes entrapped between metatarsal heads; running & pounding +/or tight shoes - DDx: anterior arch sprain - SSx: lateral forefoot pain: intermittent*, spontaneous*, reduced when barefoot*, excruciating, click & pain with MT compression (this is caused by squeezing of metatarsal heads)* * these help rule out arch sprains - Tx: metatarsal pad or cortisone injection into nerve to settle inflammation
40
arch sprains - causes - Ssx - grades of arch sprains - Tx
- causes: obesity, heredity, overuse, fatigue, poor footwear, hard surfaces Ssx: • Pain with use, more when barefoot • 1st degree – slight soreness • 2nd degree – inflammation, drop of arch • 3rd degree – fallen arch - Tx: POLICE, rest, rehab
41
Define: periostitis
inflammation of the membrane enveloping a bone
42
# Define: turf toe - cause - Ssx - Tx
- define: sprain of 1st MTP joint ligament and capsule due to forced hyperextension of 1st MTP joint beyond 60 degrees - SSx: Pain, decreased ROM, difficulty running or changing directions; 1st MTP is red, swollen, tender; pain worst at the end range of 1st toe extension - Tx: immobilize them, crutches, maybe even surgery, rehab; return to sport: taping to stabilize joint and limit hyperextension
43
Plantar Fasciitis | - treatment/ management
- rest then gradual return to sport - ultrasound physiotherapy - orthotics (soft>hard); wear all the time - heel cups built into orthotics - taping - night splint - short leg walking cast - achilles tendon stretching (3x a day) - rolling plantar surface with a rigid ball - rehab exercises that increase big toe dorsiflexion - anti-inflammatory medication - steroidal injection (if all other management options fail to resolve symptoms - strausberg sock
44
Fill in the blank: Don’t do surgery for Plantar Fasciitis before 6 months of conservative treatment. ______ will resolve with 6 months of consistent nonoperative treatment.
- 97%
45
Define: crepitus
grinding/ crunching sensation in joints when moving | - can be found in fractures
46
Specific foot injuries with risk of foot fractures where? - ankle sprains - fall or jump - crush injury - overuse - kicking injury
- ankle sprains: talus, fibula, tibia - fall or jump: calcaneus (possible spine vertebrae?) - crush injury: metatarsals, phalanges - overuse (stress): metatarsals, tibia, fibula, calcaneus - kicking injury: phalanges
47
Jones fracture - define - Ssx - Tx - notorious for?
- define: Fracture at fifth metatarsal proximal diaphysis/metaphysis junction - Ssx: pain, swelling, difficulty walking - Tx: brace, cast or splint for 4 to 8 weeks, risk of non-union (25%), surgical repair - notorious for poor healing because not much blood flow to this area
48
Describe some foot rehab modalities (4)
- contrast bath (hot/cold) - ultrasound: sound waves travel to tissues causing them to heat up and dilate and increase blood flow (helps with healing - shockwave therapy: higher intensity than ultra sound but usually used to break down scar tissue or adhesions - laser therapy: alters permeability of cells; allowing different healing substrates to enter
49
Describe some foot strengthening exercises
- towel scrunches - marble pick ups - short foot exercises (isometric exercise where you try and contract arch muscles and hold them)
50
What are some foot tape jobs we can do (2)?
- low dye arch tape job | - calcaneal fat pad tape job
51
Plantar fasciitis | - etiology
- pes cavus or pes planus - running (weight on the ball of foot) - bursitis - heel spurs - inappropriate footwear - poor running technique (long strides), - running on soft surfaces - discrepancy in leg length - excessive pronation of the subtalar joint, inflexibility of the longitudinal arch - tightness of the gastrocnemius + soleus
52
Plantar fasciitis | - signs and symptoms
- pain the medial arch/ medial distal heel - pain worst in morning and with sitting - swelling and tenderness - heel spur on x ray