WEEK 3 Notes Flashcards

peds sensory peds skin issues (notes from class)

1
Q

otitis media

A

results from inflammation in the middle ear
fluid accumulation causes pain and affects balance
bacterial, viral, or both

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2
Q

screening for otitis media

A

presentation of manifestations
signs would be: child pulling at ear, drainage, pain

otoscopic examination (green/brown drainage, red and inflamed membranes)

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3
Q

risk factors for otitis media

A

often cause is upper respiratory congestion

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4
Q

what to do before antibiotics for otitis media

A

wait and see method
fight off what is going on in their ear

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5
Q

medications to give for otitis media pain

A

Tylenol
Motrin
GIVEN BASED OFF WEIGHT

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6
Q

antibiotics for otitis media

A

amoxicillin
azithromycin
complete antibiotics fully, not just til you feel better

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7
Q

who does the hearing test for children?

A

audiologist (TEST Q)

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8
Q

types of hearing loss

A

conductive
sensorineural
mixed
acute vs. chronic

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9
Q

risk factors for hearing loss in children

A

meningitis
birth trauma (assisted deliveries)
high bilirubin levels (jaundiced) (hyperbilirubinemia)
TORCH infections (mom)
genetic anomalies

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10
Q

screening for hearing loss

A

after 1 month of age yearly until 21 years old at well visits

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11
Q

signs of hearing loss in children

A

lack of response
eye contact when speaking isn’t present
speech impediment
not engaged with other children

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12
Q

what signs are similar to hearing loss in children

A

signs of autism

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13
Q

3 R’s for pediatric hearing loss

A

rhythm, rhyme, repetition

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14
Q

strabismus

A

eye malalignment

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15
Q

types of strabismus

A

esotropia
exotropia
hypertropia
hypotropia

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16
Q

esotropia

A

one eye is straight and normal
one eye is looking in toward nose

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17
Q

exotropia

A

one eye is straight and normal
one eye is looking out toward ear

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18
Q

hypertropia

A

one eye is straight and normal
one eye is looking up

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19
Q

hypotropia

A

one eye is straight and normal
one eye is looking down

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20
Q

issues with strabismus

A

can’t read well
headaches
falls

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21
Q

treatment for strabismus

A

strengthen muscles and correct alignment

glasses
eye patches (over strong eye)
eye drops

eye surgery

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22
Q

eyeglasses can be what on a family?

A

financial strain

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23
Q

what to avoid with both otitis media, hearing loss, and vision impairments?

A

SMOKING

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24
Q

premature birth risks with vision

A

They have dyspnea but don’t put on O2 because 100% O2 can cause neuropathy

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25
eye trauma
penetrating perforating
26
penetrating eye trauma
goes in
27
perforating eye trauma
goes in and out
28
risk factors for eye trauma
rough kids that fight curiosity automobile injuries (wear seatbelts)
29
what to do if eye is blurry and bleeding?
eye trauma DONT TOUCH ANYTHING IN IT. cover it up and go to the hospital
30
should the nurse ever remove anything from any eyes?
no
31
signs of eye injury
redness itchy eyes inflammation CHEMICAL IN EYE: wash eye forever
32
water temp when rinsing eyes
tap water temp not too hot
33
blindess
vision loss is not corrected by contacts/glasses/surgery partial or complete
34
risk factors for blindness
vitamin A deficiency (eat carrots) retinopathy of prematurity (babies on 100% O2)
35
legal blindness
20/200 or worse (with corrective devices)
36
blindness in children and lead to what risk?
risk of regression might not milestones the same as other children
37
retinoblastoma
cancer from unknown growth of cells in the retina
38
retinoblastoma (hereditary vs not)
hereditary: both eyes once you have it hereditarily, you are at an increased risk of other cancers later on in life unilateral if NOT hereditary
39
risk factors for retinoblastoma
hereditary young age low maternal consumption of fruits/veggies
40
clinical presentation
 Eye pain  Visual changes  Strabismus (misalignment)  Bleeding in the eye  Eye bulging  Non-reactive pupil  White pupil reflex  Pink appearance to the pupil
41
treatment for retinoblastoma
chemo/radiation surgery, cryotherapy, and/or laser treatment
42
Rhabdomyosarcoma
soft tissue cancer within connective tissue
43
clinical presentation of Rhabdomyosarcoma
strabismus bulging of the eye vision changes
44
risk factors for Rhabdomyosarcoma
males prenatal exposure to toxins (marijuana, cocaine, radiation)
45
treatment for Rhabdomyosarcoma
chemo radiation stem cell surgery
46
Eustachian tubes in children are more
horizontal than adults
47
chronic vs. acute otitis media
chronic: long lasting and doesn't resolve with treatment; can lead to necrosis and ischemia of tympanic tissue acute: short term and complies with treatment
48
are females or males more commonly diagnosed with otitis media
males
49
most common clinical presentation of a child who has OM
rapid onset inflammation and pain in the ear difficulty breathing fever tearfulness diarrhea poor appetite vomiting
50
f the child is unable to verbalize their manifestations of OM...
one may notice the child pulling at the affected ear and turning head from side to side
51
otorrhea of OM
drainage of ear yellow or green
52
tympanic membrane perforation
commonly cause by OM manifestations: abrupt ear pain vertigo tinnitus hearing loss in affected ear bloody otorrhea
53
most common age for ear infections in children
6 to 24 months old
54
A nurse is caring for a 20-month-old client newly diagnosed with acute otitis media. The client’s parent states, “My baby needs ear tubes. This is the second ear infection in two years.”  Which of the following is the best response by the nurse?
“Normally, ear tubes are not inserted until there are four or more ear infections in a 12-month period.”
55
A nurse is caring for a child experiencing re-current OM. Which of the following complications should the nurse know the child is at risk for?
speech delays
56
manifestations of strabismus
squinting strabismus vomiting headache diplopia impaired depth perception
57
A nurse is caring for a child suspected of having strabismus. Which of the following is true about strabismus?
may experience depth perception impairment
58
A nurse is caring for a 6-year-old child in the outpatient ophthalmology clinic evaluated for possible strabismus. Which of the following findings by the ophthalmologist is indicative of the presence of strabismus?
Hirschberg test reveals asymmetrical light reflection.
59
Mindy expects the ophthalmologist to present information about which of the following treatment options for strabismus?
eye patch atropine eye drops glasses eye surgery
60
penetrating trauma
Eye injury producing an entry wound without an exit wound 
61
blunt force trauma
A forceful hit to the eye by an object
62
perforating trauma
Eye injury producing an entry and exit wound   
63
ruptured globe
Caused by impaired integrity to the outermost layer of the eye
64
Eye trauma may present
obvious injury bleeding laceration
65
child may report what with eye trauma
pain sensation that something in in their eye photophobia blurred vision floaters diplopia
66
A nurse is discussing eye injuries during a staff meeting. Which of the following activities is identified as having an increased risk for globe rupture injuries?
playing tennis The nurse should identify that sports-related injuries such as football, baseball, and tennis are the most common causes of globe rupture injuries caused by blunt force trauma to the eye.
67
complications of ocular trauma
endophthalmitis hemorrhage traumatic cataract retinal detachment
68
food sources of vitamin A
orange vegetables: pumpkin, Hubbard squash, carrots, sweet potatoes eggs green leafy vegetables cantaloupes
69
retinopathy of prematurity
Disease involving the vessels of the retina that may lead to vision loss or blindness. happens when you give babies 100% O2 after birth
70
A nurse is educating a parent about the benefits of feeding their child foods rich in vitamin A to support eye health. Which of the following statements by the parent indicates more education is needed?
Vitamin A is necessary to build eye muscle strength.
71
Which of the following is a risk factor for blindness?
malnutrition genetics eye trauma prematurity
72
clinical presentation of blindness
unable to focus on an object or may not follow objects as they move other manifestations: photophobia eye discomfort floaters sudden vision loss
73
The two most common types of malignant pediatric ocular cancers
retinoblastoma and rhabdomyosarcoma
74
A nurse is caring for a child who has rhabdomyosarcoma. Which of the following manifestations would the nurse expect to see in this child?
bulging of the eye misalignment of the eyes description of worsening of vision in the last month
75
age group most likely to be affected by retinoblastoma
children 2 years or younger
76
prolonged exposure to blue lights from electronics can result in what
macular degeneration when older
77
experiencing photophobia that leads to headaches
wear sunglasses while outdoors
78
what can eye trauma put child at risk for
infection blindness tear in the sclera
79
dermatitis
inflammation of the skin that results in manifestations of redness and itching
80
contact dermatitis
inflammation that occurs when the skin encounters an irritant
81
irritants that can cause contact dermatitis
substances like perfumes jewelry plants like poison ivy/oak/sumac
82
allergic contact dermatitis vs irritant contact dermatitis
ACD- allergen triggers an immune response irritant contact- the irritant itself damages the skin
83
clinical presentation of irritant contact dermatitis
redness pruritus (itchy) swelling oozing vesicles
84
helpful non-medication treatment for contact dermatitis
calamine lotion oatmeal baths cool, wet compresses
85
what can be used for pruritis for contact dermatitis
OTC antihistamines
86
Clobetasol
topical corticosteriod Decreases skin irritation, inflammation, and pruritus
87
prednisone
corticosteriod Decreases inflammation and is used in dermatologic and a variety of other conditions adverse effects: Weight gain, fluid retention, hypertension, behavioral disturbances, stomach irritation, increased blood sugar, adrenal suppression, immunosuppression, increased risk of infection, osteoporosis
88
cephalexin
antibiotic; cephlosporin Treats bacterial infections adverse effects: Gastrointestinal upset, including nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain take full course as directed by the provider
89
dicloxacillin
antibiotic: penicillin
90
diaphenhydramine
antihistamine Treats allergic reactions and pruritus caused by histamine. Can be used off-label to help with sleep due to sedative effects. adverse effects: Drowsiness, dizziness, blurred vision, constipation, dry mouth avoid in kids under the age of 6
91
cetirizine
second-gen antihistamine Treats allergic reactions and pruritus caused by histamine can cause headache and drowsiness
92
antihistamines in children
can cause excitability toxicity can occur (hallucinations or double vision)
93
clinical presentation of poison ivy
papule vesicles bullae (linear)
94
bullae
large fluid filled blisters
95
papules
small, inflamed, raised areas on the skin
96
vesicle
A cyst or blister on the skin that is filled with fluid.
97
without treatment, how long does it take for poison ivy dermatitis to self-resolve
1-3 weeks
98
burned urushiol
can cause it to go into airway, so airway assessment and management is critical
99
medications that causes most exanthamtous drug eruption
antibiotics
100
human bite
more a semi-circle can warrant as child abuse sometimes
101
what hormone is acne vulgaris related to
testosterone
102
atopic dermatitis
caused by water-loss on the skin and itchy skin
103
medications for severe psoriasis
oral methotrexate
104
does seborrheic dermatitis cause pain
aka cradle cap no pain, it is mild manifestations, self-limiting
105