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Medicine Year 1 > Week 4- Cancer and Imaging > Flashcards

Week 4- Cancer and Imaging Flashcards

1
Q

What is embryology?

A

The study of development of an embryo from the stage of fertilisation until the fetal stage

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2
Q

What are the three stages of life before birth and give their timings?

A

Preimplantation stage- week 1
Embryonic stage/ Organogenesis- weeks 2-8
Fetal stage- week 8-40

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3
Q

Give a summary of events of week 1 of an embryo

A

Fertilised embryo (oocyte egg + sperm)
Embryo undergoes cleavage divisions
Cells compact against each other to form morula
Blastocyst forms and first signs of differentiation occur
Blastocyst hatches out of the zona pellucida

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4
Q

When is a zyogte formed?

A

When an oocyte (egg) comes into contact and is fertilised by a sperm in the uterine tube

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5
Q

What is cleavage?

A

A process of cell division
Occurs when the zygote starts to develop and the maternal and paternal pro-nuclei fuse together to form the embryonic genome

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6
Q

What happens to the size of a cell during cleavage and why?

A

Overall size of the cell remains the same but cells within the embryo get smaller
Cell is dividing but has to remain small enough to passage down the narrowest part of the uterine tube called the isthmus

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7
Q

What is the name of the coating around an embryo and what is its role?

A

Zona Pellucida
Tough glycoprotein coat
Prevents premature implantation and regulates the size of the embryo

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8
Q

What is the morula and when does it occur?

A

A cluster of cells that are maximising contact and held together by tight junctions
Approx 4 days after fertilisation

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9
Q

What are the first two key features of cellular differentiation in an embryo?

A

Inner cell mass
Outer cells trophoblast

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10
Q

What does the inner cell membrane go on to form?

A

Embryo and extraembryonic tissues

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11
Q

What does the outer cell trophoblast go onto form?

A

The placenta

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12
Q

What occurs in the embryo as it enters the uterine cavity?

A

Fluid enters via the zona pellucida into spaces of inner cell mass and a fluid filled blastocyst cavity forms

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13
Q

Briefly describe the process of hatching

A

Blastocyst begins to run out of nutrients as the only source of nutrition are fluid in uterine tube and uterus
ICM cells undergo proliferation and fluid builds up in the cavity causing pressure to build up
Pressure increases and the blastocyst hatches from the zona pellucida and facilitates implantation
Trophoblast cells make contact with uterine lining, attach and implant

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14
Q

What is implantation?

A

The interaction between the embryo and the endometrial layer of the uterus

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15
Q

Where does decidualisation occur and when?

A

Stromal cells of the uterus
When the blastocyst makes contact with the endometrium of the uterus

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16
Q

What does decidualisation form?

A

The maternal component of the placenta

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17
Q

What does the process of decidualisation result in?

A

Several changes in endometrium to prepare it for pregnancy
Process triggers the production of several molecules and promotes trophoblast cells to become invasive

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18
Q

What are the two layers of trophoblast cells formed in differentiation and where are they located?

A

Cytotrophoblast- single layer of cells closest to the inside of the embryo
Syncytiotrophoblast- outer invasive layer and is a syncytium of cells

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19
Q

What does it mean for a structure to be a syncytium?

A

a single cell or cytoplasmic mass containing several nuclei, formed by fusion of cells or by division of nuclei.

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20
Q

What are the two layers the inner cell mass forms?

A

Epiblast
Hypoblast

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21
Q

What are the two layers of the ICM collectively known as?

A

Bilaminar disc

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22
Q

What is a key process that occurs at the end of week 2 of an embryo’s life?

A

Implanting syncytiotrophoblast cells communicate with maternal side of placenta and begin to establish a connection to enable diffusion of oxygen, waste and nutrients via blood supply

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23
Q

What is the hormone present in early pregnancy and what is its role?

A

Human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG)
Induces a stable blood vessel connection between the mother and foetus and promotes overall maternal recognition of pregnancy

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24
Q

What is a key histological feature of endometrium cells during implantation and why?

A

Enlarged and elongated at the site closest to implantation
Due to decidualisation

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25
Q

What is a result of an abnormal implantation?

A

Ectopic pregnancy

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26
Q

Name the 4 extra-embryonic membranes

A

Amnion
Chorion
Yolk sac
Allantois

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27
Q

Where is the amnion located, what is its structure and what is its role?

A

Continuous with the epiblast of the bilaminar disc
Lines a structure called the amniotic cavity which is filled with fluid and acts to protect the developing embryo

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28
Q

When is the amnion present until?

A

Birth

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29
Q

Where is the chorion located, what is its structure and what is its role?

A

Double layered membrane formed by the the trophoblast and extra embryonic membranes
Lines a chorionic cavity and forms the fetal component of the placenta

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30
Q

Where is the yolk sac located, what is its structure and what is its role?

A

Continuous with the hypoblast of the bilaminar disk
Important in nutrient transfer
Important in blood cell formation and formation of the gut

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31
Q

When is the yolk sac present until?

A

Week 20

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32
Q

When is the chorion present until?

A

Dissappears when the amniotic expands

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33
Q

What is gastrulation?

A

A process of cell division and migration resulting in the formation of three germ layers

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34
Q

When does gastrulation occur?

A

Week 3- formation of the trilaminar embryo from the bilaminar epiblast

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35
Q

What are the three layers of the trilaminar embryo from most superficial?

A

Ectoderm
Mesoderm
Endoderm

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36
Q

What are three important structures in the trilaminar embryo?

A

Primitive streak
Notochord
Neural tube

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37
Q

Which end of an embryo is the primitive streak located at?

A

Tail end

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38
Q

What does the primitive streak show and where does it migrate?

A

Beginning of gastrulation
First appears at tail end of embryo and grows towards future head

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39
Q

What is the primitive node?

A

A thickened area of cells at the end of the primitive streak creating a bulge

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40
Q

Describe process of gastrulation

A

Invagination process
Primitive streak encourages migratation of cells of epiblast towards
Reach primitive streak cells move down through the embryo, pushing down and out to side to create mesoderm
Some cells move futrher down and push past the hypoblast creating endoderm
Cells left on top where epiblast was creates ectoderm

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41
Q

What does the ectoderm go on to produce?

A

Outside structures such as brain, epidermis, teeth and sensory receptors

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42
Q

What does the mesoderm go on to produce?

A

Muscles and bones, structural features such as the muscoskeletal system

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43
Q

What does the endoderm go on to produce?

A

Formation of the gut eg. GI tract and other things involved in digestion

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44
Q

What colours are layers of the embryo given in diagrams?

A

Ectoderm- blue
Mesoderm- red
Endoderm- yellow

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45
Q

What is a teratoma?

A

A type of tumour with tissue or organ components resembling derivatives of germ layers

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46
Q

What can teratomas be derived from?

A

Germ cells, oocytes or embryonal stem cells

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47
Q

Where are germ cell teratomas usually identified?

A

Gonads

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48
Q

What is the definition of cell cycle?

A

The interval between two successive mitotic divisions resulting in the production of two daughter cells, with chromosomes identical to the parent cell.

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49
Q

What are the two broad phases of the cell cycle?

A

Interphase
Mitotic phase/ cytokinesis

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50
Q

What are the 3 sub phases of interphase?

A

G1
Synthesis
G2

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51
Q

What occurs during G1?

A

Cells grow back towards their optimum size after cytokinesis
Monitoring external environment for optimal conditions for cell division- presence of growth factors
RNA and protein synthesis occurring in preparation for S phase

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52
Q

What occurs in S phase?

A

Synthesis of DNA

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53
Q

What occurs in G2?

A

Further growth of cell
Cell organelle replication
Preparation for mitosis

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54
Q

What are the phases of mitosis?

A

Prophase
Prometaphase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase

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55
Q

What occurs in prophase?

A

Chromatin condensation (chromatin shortens, thickens and resolves into recognisable chromosomes)
Nucleolus disappears
Centrioles move to poles (parallel microtubules assembled between them to create the mitotic spindle)

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56
Q

What occurs in prometaphase?

A

Nuclear membrane dissolves
Chromosomes attach to spindle microtubules and begin moving

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57
Q

What occurs in metaphase?

A

Spindle fibres align the chromosomes along the middle of the metaphase plate

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58
Q

What occurs in anaphase?

A

Paired chromosomes separate and move to opposite sides of the cell

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59
Q

What occurs in telophase?

A

Chromatids arrive at opposite poles of cell
New membranes form around daughter nuclei
Chromosomes decondense
Spindle fibres disperse

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60
Q

What occurs in cytokinesis?

A

Cleavage of cells to produce daughter cells

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61
Q

What is G0?

A

The phase when cells are not actively dividing

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62
Q

What is another term for G0?

A

Quiesence

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63
Q

What is the typical length of the cell cycle broken down into each phase?

A

24 hrs
G- 11 hours, S- 8 hours, G2- 4 hours, M- 1 hour

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64
Q

Why is regulation of the cell cycle important?

A

To prevent uncontrolled cell growth and to ensure DNA replication is checked for harmful mutations

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65
Q

What is a CDK?

A

Cyclin dependent kinase

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66
Q

What does it mean for a CDK to be a serine/ threonine kinase?

A

A kinase that phosphorylates other proteins on either serine or threonine in a target protein

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67
Q

What is the CDK present abundantly in G1?

A

CDK46- cyclin D

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68
Q

What is the CDK most abundant in S?

A

CDK2- Cyclin E

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69
Q

What is the CDK most abundantly present in G2?

A

CDK2-Cyclin A

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70
Q

What is the CDK most abundant in the early stages of mitosis? What is its alternative name?

A

CDK1- cyclin B

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71
Q

What regulates CDK activity?

A

Cyclins
Whether they are themselves phosphorylated or not
CKIs

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72
Q

What are cyclins?

A

Activator proteins that are up or down regulated depdning on the phase of the cell cycle

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73
Q

How is a cyclin activated?

A

Associated with CDK

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74
Q

What is a CKI?

A

Cyclin dependent kinase inhibitor

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75
Q

What are the two main ways CKIs work?

A

Forming an inactive complex or acting as a competitive ligand

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76
Q

What are the 3 families of CKIs?

A

p21 CIP
p27 KIP
p16 INK

77
Q

Describe the role of CDK cyclins in the progression from G2 to M phase

A

Inactive form CDK1 is present in a net phosphorylated state
Cyclin B synthesis begins in G2 and Cyclin B is transcribed and translated in G2 until sufficient levels are reached
Formation of active kinase complex
Enough cyclin B associates with CDK1
Net loss phosphorylation state of CDK1 and it is now an active kinase

78
Q

What does CDK1/cyclin B phosphorylate that results in entry to M phase and beginning of mitosis?

A

Breakdown of nuclear envelope by phosphorylating lamins that results in the disassembly of intermediate filaments in nuclear lamina
Chromosome condensation by phosphorylating histones and condensins
Spindle formation by phosphorylating microtubule associated proteins

79
Q

What are checkpoints?

A

Points in the eukaryotic cell division cycle where progress through the cycle can be halted until conditions are suitable for the cell to proceed

80
Q

What do cell checkpoints check for?

A

Favourable external environment- presence of growth factors
Favourable internal environment- sufficient growth
DNA damage
Replication errors
Spindle attachment
Chromosome integrity

81
Q

What are the 4 main checkpoints?

A

Restriction checkpoint
Growth 1 checkpoint
Growth 2 checkpoint
Metaphase checkpoint

82
Q

What is the restriction point?

A

A checkpoint for cell cycle progression that is determined by the presence of growth factors. If there is sufficient signal, cell cycle progression. If there is insufficient signal, cell cycle arrest

83
Q

What occurs after restriction point?

A

The cell no longer requires growth factors to complete the cell cycle and commits to cell division

84
Q

What is the ‘gate keeper’ at the restriction point?

A

Retinoblastoma (RB) protein

85
Q

What is the progression through the restriction checkpoint dependent on?

A

Accumulation of cyclin D

86
Q

What occurs at the restriction point if there is no growth factor present?

A

Cell remains in G1
Nucleus of cell no genes necessary for S phase are transcribed
Occurs because: RB is associated with and inhibiting E2F which is a transcription factor that would normally transcribe for S phase

87
Q

What occurs at the restriction checkpoint when growth factor is present?

A

Growth factor detected
Cell starts making cyclin D and activates CDK4/6
CDK4/6 cyclin D complex phosphorylates the RB no longer binds to E2F transcription factor and now free to transcribe genes necessary for S phase

88
Q

Give 5 examples of growth factors

A

Platelet derived growth factor (PDGF)
Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)
Colony stimulating factor (CSFs)
Thrombopoietin
Erythropoietin

89
Q

What is the function of PDGF?

A

Matrix formation (increased numbers and activity of fibroblasts)
Remodelling (production of proteases)

90
Q

What is the function of VEGF?

A

Angiogenesis (endothelial cell proliferation and migration)

91
Q

What is the role of colony stimulating factor?

A

Myeloid lineage in haematopoiesis

92
Q

What is the role of thrombopoietin?

A

Production of platelets

93
Q

What is the role of erythropoietin?

A

Production of red blood cells

94
Q

What is the role of DNA damage checkpoints and where are they?

A

Check integrity of DNA
One before entering S phase, one before entering M phase

95
Q

What molecule is used in DNA damage checkpoints?

A

Tumour suppressor gene- p53

96
Q

Describe process DNA checkpoint works

A

1) damage to DNA is detected by p53
2) production of cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor p21 CIP
3) p21 CIP binds to CDK2- Cylcin E/A in G1/s transition, and CDK1- cyclin A/B in G2/M transition
4) Halts progression into next stage

97
Q

What is p53?

A

A transcription factor that directly transcribes genes to halt the cell cycle

98
Q

What occurs in low levels of DNA damage?

A

p21 expression for DNA repair

99
Q

What occurs in high levels of DNA damage?

A

Transcribing genes leading to apoptosis

100
Q

What is the point of the metaphase checkpoint?

A

Spindle assembly checkpoint that delays the onset of anaphase until chromosomes are correctly attached to the mitotic spindle

101
Q

How does the metaphase checkpoint work?

A

Surveillance mechanism that delays anaphase- anaphase promoting complex is inhibited until all chromosomes are attached to it

102
Q

What are tumour suppressor genes?

A

Encode normal proteins whose role is to suppress cell proliferation to ensure that the cell can maintain integrity of its genome and only divide when necessary

103
Q

What occurs when a tumour suppressor gene finds abnormality?

A

Cell cycle arrest until appropriate conditions are met or repairs are made to the cell

104
Q

Give 3 examples of tumour suppressor genes and how they work

A

Rb-blocks entry to the cell cycle
p53- detects DNA damage
BRCA1- DNA repair

105
Q

What are 6 key examples of types of radiological investigation?

A

Xray
Ultrasound
Computed tomography (CT scan)
MRI
PET
Interventional radiology

106
Q

What are 3 benefits of ultrasound?

A

Cheap
Easy access
No radiation involved

107
Q

Give 4 key scenarios where ultrasound is used

A

Pregnancy
Kidneys
Gall bladder
Liver

108
Q

When are PET scans mainly used?

A

Cancer diagnosis

109
Q

Give 4 scenarios when interventional radiology can be used

A

Stop bleeding
Fix aneurysm
Tumours
Save limbs

110
Q

Define the term ‘neoplasm’

A

A tumour- a new and abnromal growth resulting from autonomous cell division

111
Q

Define the term ‘benign’

A

Of a neoplasm, to grow slowly and remain localised at the site of origin

112
Q

What does malignant mean?

A

Invade and spread to different sites- cancerous

113
Q

What does metastasis mean?

A

Multi-step process by which tumour cells move from a primary site to colonise a secondary site

114
Q

Define oncogene

A

A gene whose product is involved in inducing cancer

115
Q

Define proto-oncogene

A

A normal cellular gene that encode a protein usually involved in regulation of cell growth and proliferation, and when mutated, becomes a cancer promoting oncogene

116
Q

Define tumour suppressor gene

A

A gene whose encoded protein directly or indirectly inhibits progression through the cell cycle and in which a loss of function mutation is oncogenic

117
Q

What are 4 key features of cancer cell morphology?

A

Large variably shaped nuclei
Many dividing cells- disorganised arrangement
Varied in size and shape
Loss of normal features

118
Q

Why does a cancer cell stain bluer?

A

Divide faster
More rRNA and mRNA accumulates in the cytoplasm
More basophilic (acidic structures!)
Stains bluer with H&E

119
Q

What is anaplasia?

A

Tumour cells becoming less like their tissue of origin and losing many of their differentiated features

120
Q

What are 6 key features of cancer cells?

A

Uncontrolled cell proliferation
Increased growth capacity
Blocked differentiation
Increased cell motility
Acquired tissue invasion capability
Loss of genomic stability

121
Q

What is tumourgenesis?

A

A multi-step process where a normal cell accumulates a number of mutations over many years to acquire new characteristics

122
Q

Describe the process of tumourigenesis

A

Initiation- environmental carinogens such as chemicals or radiation initiate process
Accumulation- many more mutations accumulate, activate oncogenes, some genes lose tumor suppressor gene activity, further enhancing proliferative potential
Further mutations- malignancy

123
Q

What are the 6 key characteristics of cancer?

A
  1. Self-sufficency in growth signals; cancer cells acquire an autonomous drive to proliferate
  2. Insensitivity to growth-inhibitory signals; inactivation of tumour suppressor genes that normally inhibit growth
  3. Evasion of programmed cell death (apoptosis); suppress and inactivate genes and pathways that normally enable cells to die
  4. Limitless replication potential; activate specific gene pathways that render them immortal even after generations of growth
  5. Sustained angiogenesis; acquire the capacity to draw out their own supply of blood and blood vessels
  6. Tissue invasion and metastasis; acquire the capacity to migrate to other organs, invade other tissues and colonise these organs
124
Q

What is a tumour?

A

A tumour is formed by an excessive, uncontrolled proliferation of cells as a result of an irreversible genetic change which is passed from one tumour cell to its progeny

125
Q

What is neoplasia?

A

Neoplasia is the new growth of these abnormal cells

126
Q

What is a monoclonal tumour?

A

A tumour derives from one cell only

127
Q

What do tumour pathologists look at?

A

Cell proliferation: normal vs abnormal
Tumours: benign vs malignant
Naming of tumours by tissue of origin
Modes of spread of malignant tumours
Clinical effects of tumours
Pathological diagnosis of cancer

128
Q

What are the three ways tissue are classified?

A

Labile
Stable
Permanent

129
Q

What is a labile tissue?

A

A very quick turnover and replacement of cells within a tissue

130
Q

Give an example of a labile tissue

A

Epidermal cells on the surface of the skin
Blood cells

131
Q

What are stable tissues?

A

Tissues with a slower turnover rate

132
Q

Give an example of a stable tissue

A

Bone cells

133
Q

What is a permanent tissue?

A

Cells that have no turnover and we have to live with for the rest of our lives

134
Q

Give an example of a permanent tissue

A

Nerve cells

135
Q

What is hyperplasia?

A

An increase in the size of an organ as a result of cell proliferation eg. uterus in pregnancy

136
Q

What is hypertrophy?

A

An increase in the size of an organ due to an increase in the size of the constituent cells eg. left ventricle of heart in hypertension

137
Q

What is apoptosis?

A

Programmed cell death

138
Q

What is necrosis?

A

Death of cells in living tissue caused by external factors such as infection trauma or toxins

139
Q

Describe the differences in growth patterns between benign and malignant tumours

A

Benign- expansion, remain localised
Malignant- infiltrate locally, spread to distant sites

140
Q

Describe the differences in growth rate between benign and malignant tumours

A

Benign- generally slow
Malignant- faster

141
Q

Describe the mitotic pattern of benign and malignant tumours

A

Benign- few, normal
Malignant- numerous including atypical forms

142
Q

Describe the nuclei of benign and malignant tumours

A

Benign- small, regular and uniform
Maligant- larger, pleomorphic (increased DNA content)

143
Q

Describe the differences in histology between benign and malignant tumours

A

Benign- resembles tissue of origin
Malignant- may differ from tissue of origin, disconnected from basement membrane

144
Q

Describe the differences in clinical effects between benign and malignant tumours

A

Benign- local pressure effects, hormone secretion
Malignant- local pressure and destruction, distant metastases, inappropriate hormone secretion

145
Q

Describe the differences between benign and malignant tumour treatment

A

Benign- local excision
Malignant- local excision and perhaps radiotherapy and/or chemotherapy

146
Q

What is metaplasia?

A

Change from one type of differentiated tissue to another, with the resulting tissue often better adapted to the environment

147
Q

Give an example of normal metaplasia

A

Oesophagus from squamous epithelium to glandular epithelium which is more protective after acid reflux

147
Q

What are two key characteristics of dysplasia?

A

Loss of architectural orientation
Development of cellular atypia

148
Q

What is dysplasia?

A

A tumour growing that is confined to the epithelium

149
Q

Give 4 major modes of tumour spreading

A

Local invasion
Lymphatic spread
Blood spread
Transcoelomic spread

150
Q

What is local invasion?

A

Nearby cells invade by bashing their ways through other normal cells, collagen and fibrous tissue

151
Q

What are the drawbacks to local invasion?

A

Slow and difficult for neoplastic cells to invade

152
Q

What is lymphatic spread?

A

Neoplastic cells that invade the lymphatic system will travel towards the nearest lymph node and therby the thoracic duct and systemic circulation

153
Q

Which cancers commonly used lymphatic system to spread?

A

Breast cancer and melanomas

154
Q

What is transcoelomic spread?

A

Spread of tumours across the peritoneum and the peritoneal cavity

155
Q

Give examples of transcoelomic spread

A

Ovaries and stomach where the cancer spreads on external surface of the stomach

156
Q

For carcinomas what is the likelihood of lymphatic, blood and transcoelomic spread?

A

Lymphatic- common
Blood- common
Transcoelomic- stomach and ovary

157
Q

For melanomas, what is the likelihood of lymphatic, blood and transcoelomic spread?

A

Lymphatic- common, early
Blood- common, late
Transcoelomic-rare

158
Q

For sarcomas, what is the likelihood of lymphatic, blood and transcoelomic spread?

A

Lymphatic- rare
Blood- common, early
Transcoelomic- rare

159
Q

What are the clinical effects of a benign tumour?

A

Presence of a lump which may or may not cause pain, could apply pressure to adjacent tissue if in confined space, may be substances produced by tumour

160
Q

What are the local effects of malignant tumours?

A

Palpable mass that is often associated with pain
Tumour may ulcerate (lose its surface and bleed to cause anaemia)
Tumour may obstruct a hollow organ

161
Q

Give common metastatic effects of a liver tumour

A

Hepatomegaly, jaundice, liver failure

162
Q

Give common metastatic effects of lung cancer

A

Haemoptysis, pneumonia, pleural effusion

163
Q

Give common metastatic effects of brain cancer

A

Seizures, stroke, raised intracranial pressure

164
Q

Give common metastatic effects of bone cancer

A

Pain, fracture, spinal cord compression

165
Q

Give common metastatic effects of bone marrow cancer

A

Anaemia, leukopaenia, thrmbocytopaenia

166
Q

Give 4 non-metastatic effects of cancer

A

Loss of appetite, weight loss and wasting (cachexia)
Generally unwell
Anaemia
Fever

167
Q

Give the common effects of lung cancer

A

Cough, haemoptysis, chest pain, pneumonia

168
Q

Give the common effects of colon cancer

A

Altered bowel habit
Obstruction
Anaemia
Liver metastases

169
Q

Give the common effects of prostate cancer

A

Urinary symptoms
Bony metastases

170
Q

Give the common effects of pancreatic cancer

A

Jaundice and back pain

171
Q

Give the common effects of lymphoma

A

Enlarged lymph nodes
Infection

172
Q

Give the common effects of leukaemia

A

Infection
Bleeding
Anaemia

173
Q

Why do we have a skeleton?

A

Support
Protection
Locomotion
Mineral reserve- 99% bodies calcum
Haematopoiesis

174
Q

What is the functional unit that makes up bone called?

A

Osteon- layers of bone laid in rings

175
Q

What is an osteon composed of? Give percentages

A

Organic component- 30%- made of type 1 collagen- giving tensile strength and allow for bending
Inorganic component- 70%- calcium and phosphate salts- hard mineral components making bone sturdy and giving it compressive strength

176
Q

Why do osteons contain blood vessels

A

Provide nutrients to the cells

177
Q

What are the two cells that mainly make up bone?

A

Osteoblasts- lay down new bone
Osteoclasts- break down old bone

178
Q

What are the 6 key features of most bones?

A

Long tube like diaphysis
Two epiphyses
Medullary cavity
Epiphyseal growth plate
Periosteum
Endosteum

179
Q

What is the role of the diaphysis and what is it made of?

A

Gives strength, provides limited flexibility
Mostly compact bone

180
Q

What is the role of the epiphyses?

A

Acts as an articular surface for joints

181
Q

What is the structure of the epiphyses?

A

Spongy bone (honeycomb structure- struts which sit in the direction of the force through the bone)
Appears compact on the surace
Some cartilage present to protect surface of the bone forming the joints

182
Q

What is the medullary space and what is its role?

A

Empty space that is common in longer bones, find bone marrow here

183
Q

What is the role of the epiphyseal growth plate?

A

Separates diaphysis from epiphysis and is the site of growth during development

184
Q

What happens to the epiphyseal growth plate after development?

A

Plate ossifies and forms the epiphyseal line

185
Q

What is the role of the periosteum?

A

Connective tissue layer that covers the outside of the bone
Attachment site for tendons

186
Q

What is the endosteum?

A

Similar structure to periosteum
Lines internal surfaces of cavities within bones

187
Q

Describe the structure of a flat bone

A

No medullary cavity
Two sheets of compact bone that sandwich the spongy bone marrow in the middle (diploe)
Diploe filled with red bone marrow

188
Q
A

Medicine Year 1 (5 decks)

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