Week 4 EENT Resp Flashcards

1
Q

Risk factors for hearing loss?

A
  • older age
  • male
  • lighter complexion

High frequency loss

  • low education
  • toxic noise exposure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Presbycusis

-what type of hearing loss? (sensorineural or conductive?)

A

SNHL

symmetric and insidious
high frequency tones first

“I can hear you but I can’t understand you”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When to screen for hearing loss in older adults?

A

-insufficient evidence to support asymptomatic screening in older adults

  • whisper test has good sensitivity and specificity in older adults
  • “do you feel you have any difficulty hearing?”
  • “has anyone told you you have difficulty hearing?”

screen especially if cognitive concerns OR depressive symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Indications for ENT referral?

A

*sudden acute or rapidly progressive hearing loss (<72 hours) is URGENT referral

  • unilateral or pulsatile tinnitus
  • hearing loss with hx of noise exposure, fam hx, TB, syphilis, HIV, Meniere, autoimmune, ototoxic med, otosclerosis
  • acute recurrent chronic dizziness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

conductive or sensorineural hearing loss?

  • cerumen
  • presbycusis
  • Meniere’s
  • otitis externa/media
  • diabetes
  • otosclerosis
A
  • cerumen: C
  • presbycusis: S
  • Meniere’s: S
  • otitis externa/media: C
  • diabetes: S
  • otosclerosis C
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Common ototoxic medications

“don’t loop and snag my plate Christine Quinn”

A

“Don’t Loop and SNAG My Plate Cristine Quinn”

• Loop diuretics: furosemide 
• Salicylates: high dose ASA
• NSAIDs: Ibuprofen, Indomethacin 
• Antibiotics: tetracyclines, macrolides
• aminoglycosides 
• vancomycin
• PDE5 inhibitors: tadalafil
• chemotherapeutic agent: such as cisplatin
Quinine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

red flags for red eye

A

-decreased VA (unless vision clears with blinking)
-pain
-photophobia
-coloured halos
-ciliary flush
-corneal opacification
corneal disruption (fluorescein uptake)
-abnormal pupils
-increased IOP
-proptosis

***same day access to ophthalmology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Blepharitis

  • signs and symptoms
  • management
A

red eye, no red flags
flaky deposits on eyelashes
worse in AM

Treatment:

  • warm compresses 3-5 min BID
  • eyelid scrub (2 drops baby shampoo in 2 oz water) BID if oily
  • lubricating eyedrops BID/TID
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Dry Eye Disease aka keratoconjunctivitis sicca

what is the most important treatment?

A
  • identify exacerbating factors

- minimize contributing meds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Dry eye disease (sicca)

risk factors?

A

Non modifiable risk factors

  • Female sex
  • Sjogrens
  • age
Modifiable
-dry enviro
-meds
-blepharitis
-smoking
-alcohol use
contact lens use 
-LASIK
pollution, 
activities with decreased blinking
-topical ocular meds
  • poorly fitting sleep apnea masks
  • Parkinson
  • peripheral neuropathy
  • lid abnormality
  • thyroid disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Treatment for dry eye disease?

A
  • hot compresses
  • artificial tears
  • nighttime lubrication ointments

**artificial tears with preservatives used >QID will worsen symptoms **

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are some medications that can cause dry eyes?

A
Medications that may impair aqueous production include the following:
	• Antihistamines
	• Beta blockers
	• Phenothiazines
	• Atropine
	• Oral contraceptives
	• Anxiolytics
	• Antiparkinsonian agents
	• Diuretics
	• Anticholinergics
	• Antiarrhythmics
	• Topical preservatives in eye drops (eg, benzalkonium chloride [BAK], thimerosal)
	• Topical anesthetics
	• Isotretinoin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

DDx for acute bilateral painless vision loss?

acute unilateral painless vision loss?

A

stroke
**needs urgent imaging

central retinal artery occlusion
stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the pattern of vision loss in age-related macular degeneration?

A

begins CENTRALLY, extends PERIPHERALLY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Risk factors for age-related macular degeneration?

A
  • age
  • european descent
  • genetics
  • female
  • SMOKING
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the pathognomonic sign of macular degeneration?

A

DRUSEN (yellow deposits of macula from death of retinal cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

symptoms of progression from early/intermediate AMD to late AMD?

A
  • loss of far and near vision
  • sudden visual distortion
  • central vision loss
  • change in colour vision
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Cataracts

signs and symptoms

A
  • decreased VA/blurred/dim vision
  • decreased color perception
  • starbursts around lights
  • sensitivity to light and glare
  • difficulty with night driving
  • difficulty with vision at night

**cataracts are only clinical relevant if they impact ADLs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the pattern of vision loss with primary open angle glaucoma?

A

begins peripherally extends centrally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

risk factors for glaucoma?

A
high IOP (most important risk factor)
**IOP is relative
  • age
  • sub-Saharan African ethnicity
  • family hx
  • high myopia
  • male
  • low SES (late detection)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Symptoms of open angle glaucoma?

A
rare to have symptoms
bilateral
no ocular pain
loss of central vision is late sign
often unaware of peripheral vision loss
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Symptoms of closed angle glaucoma?

A
elevated IOP >50 mm Hg
mild to severe
unilateral
severe ocular pain
blurred/cloudy vision
halos
headache, nausea, vomiting
Signs:
ciliary flush
fixed dilated pupils
corneal edema
worse in evening

***needs same day assessment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what change in aging causes chronic rhinosinus drainage and postnasal drip?

what groups are at highest risk of rhinitis?

A

nasal passages narrowed, decreased collagen

Geriatric rhinitis: lengthening of the nose and drooping of the tip –> restriction of nasal airflow and narrowing of the nasal passages –> rhinitis.

high risk groups:

  • women
  • younger age
  • snoring
  • GERD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are the 3 components of standard PFTs?

A
  • spirometry
  • lung volume assessment
  • diffusion capacity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Chronic rhinosinusitis in older adults what is a major risk factor? most common organism?
SMOKING is major risk factor S. Aureus most common
26
4 main symptoms of sinusitis? PODS
- pain and pressure (facial) - obstruction - discharge (mucopurulent) - smell loss (anosmia)
27
Chronic rhinosinusitis in older adults frequent co-morbidities?
- nasal polyps - asthma (especially severe eosinophilia asthma) - elevated IgE levels - otitis media
28
Chronic rhinosinusitis in older adults pt counselling re: decongestants?
Decongestants: to correct underlying mucosal edema *must limit use to 3 days to prevent rebound congestion and rhinitis medicamentosa *overuse of oxymetazoline can lead to body being dependent on its vasoconstricting properties *caution with HTN or cardiac disorder • Oxymetazoline (Afrin) 0.05% 1-2 sprays each nare 1-2x/day • Phenylephrine 1% spray/drops 1-2 each nare q4h *Use with caution in older adults! Especially with HTN or enlarged prostate
29
Chronic rhinosinusitis in older adults pt counselling re: nasal corticosteroid sprays?
Nasal corticosteroid sprays: to reduce nasal inflammation *lean forward, angle spray towards cheek, minimal sniffing *never use with head back (in sniffing position) or pointing to septum • Fluticasone propionate (Flonase) 50 mcg/spray • Mometasone (Nasonex) 50 mcg/spray • Beclomethasone (Beconase) 42 mcg/spray or Qnasl) 80 mcg/spray • Budesonide (Rhinocort) 32 mcg/spray Safe for older adults, but can cause epistaxis
30
What is the spirometry finding that confirms diagnosis of asthma?
FEV1 > 12% after bronchodilator *this is demonstration of reversibility* * need to use age-adjusted spirometry value * greater variability = greater confidence in asthma
31
Asthma What are some common triggers? which medications?
``` viral infections (common in older adults) allergens smoke exercise stress ``` Medications: beta-blockers, ACE-I, ASA, NSAIDs, COX-2
32
4 questions to ask to determine level of asthma control
in the last 4 weeks - daytime symptoms > 2 x/week - any night wakening due to symptoms - SABA use > 2 x/week - any exercise limitation due to symptoms partly controlled = 1 to 2 poor control = 3 to 4
33
signs and symptoms of interstitial lung disease?
Dyspnea Cough Dry inspiratory bibasilar crackles Clubbing (40-70%)
34
risk factors for interstitial lung disease?
Risk factors: - environmental/occupational exposure: silica, asbestos, mold - autoimmune - drug-induced - family hx
35
Findings on CXR and high res CT for interstitial lung disease?
CXR: reticular opacities in mid and lower lobes CT: reticulation and honeycombing
36
Risk factors for PE
- cancer (strongest risk factor) - surgery - traumatic fractures - prolonged bed rest/sedentary factors - hx of DVT or PE - meds: tamoxifen, HRT, oral contraceptives **many are unprovoked
37
What is D-dimer? age-related changes associated with D-dimer?
fibrin degradation product --> small protein fragment after a blood clots is degraded by fibrinolysis D-dimer can exclude VTE if low clinical probability of PE D-dimer INCREASES with age so older patients have higher change of false-positives
38
Components of Wells score for PE
- clinical suspicion for DVT - tachycardia (HR >100 bpm) - immobilization (3+ days) or surgery in last 4 weeks - hx of DVT/PE - hemoptysis - cancer treatment or palliative - alternative diagnosis less likely
39
Findings on physical exam for PE: - vitals - resp - CV - DVT
- Vitals: tachycardia (often absent), tachypnea (57-90%), hypotension, hypoxemia, low grade fever (40%) - Resp: decreased air entry, rales, (50-58%) wheezing - CVS: parasternal heave, increased JVP, loud P2 (from R ventricular overload), pleural chest rub, cyanosis - DVT symptoms: asymmetrical swelling, tenderness, pain
40
Signs and symptoms of PE
``` PE's are frequently asymptomatic ******Dyspnea at rest or with exertion (73% of symptomatic pts) • Palpitations *******Pleuritic chest pain (66%) • Hemoptysis (only in 13%) • Anxiety/apprehension • Syncope (not common) Signs of DVT (asymmetric lower extremity swelling, pain, erythema) ```
41
Imaging workup for suspected PE?
- US for DVT | - CT pulmonary angiogram or V/Q scan
42
risk factors for aspiration pneumonia?
poor oral care -esp gram negative organisms
43
What are the 5 A's of smoking cessation?
- ask - advise to quit - assess willingness to quit - assist in quit attempt - arrange follow up
44
CT chest should be done for lung cancer screening in high risk patients what are the risk factors?
- age 55-74, and - at least 30 pack year history of tobacco, and - smoking within the last 15 years.
45
OSA is a risk factor for what 2 conditions?
strokes | cardiovascular diseases
46
OSA | symptoms?
Daytime: sleepiness, fatigue (mental and physical), falling asleep while watching TV/reading, morning headaches, dry mouth Nighttime: restless sleep, loud snoring/gasping/snorting
47
OSA | STOP-BANG
- snoring - tired during the day - observed apnea - pressure (HTN) - BMI > 35 - Age > 50 - Neck circumference > 16 inches (40 cm) - Gender: male
48
What is the difference between obstructive and restrictive lung disease?
obstructive: PROXIMAL - difficulty exhaling air all the way out (hyperinflation) restrictive: DISTAL lung parenchyma - difficulty filling lungs
49
3 types of respiratory infections in the elderly?
1. community-acquired pneumonia 2. acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease 3. non pneumonic respiratory tract infection.
50
CURB-65 for CAP | -what does CURB stand for?
- confusion - uremia (BUN) - resp rate >30 - BP: SBP <90, DBP <60 Age: 65 and older (can omit U for CRB-65) **score of 0 = <2% mortality, ok to treat as outpatient, any score above 0 consider hospital assessment
51
Pulmonary TB common lymph nodes involved:
anterior or posterior cervical and supraclavicular nodes Less commonly involved: submandibular, axillary, and inguinal lymph nodes.
52
What is the gold standard diagnostic test for pulmonary TB?
Sputum culture with acid-fast smear (AFB) x 3 samples: gold standard for detection of active pulmonary TB *ideally in the morning, can be collected same day at least 1 hour apart
53
What is the diagnostic finding on spirometry for ASTHMA?
Spirometry showing reversible airflow | 12% or greater improvement in FEV1 and >200 mL from baseline after bronchodilator
54
Signs and symptoms of pulmonary fibrosis?
Typically age 60+ with hx of smoking Symptoms: gradual onset of SOBOE and several months of non-productive cough Exam: bibasilar crackles -finger clubbing is advanced sign
55
How often should hearing screening be done?
for all adults 60+: every 2 years annually if hearing loss detected *not covered by MSP
56
Infective endocarditis prophylaxis antibiotics are recommended in prior to dental cleaning and extractions in these following conditions
- prosthetic cardiac valve - hx of IE - congenital heart disease - cardiac transplant recipients who develop cardiac valvulopathy
57
Infective endocarditis prophylaxis first line med? dose (for adults)?
amoxicillin 2 g po single dose 30-60 min before procedure
58
Acronym RULE for oral cancer lesions?
red or red/white lesion ulcer lump especially if in combination OR indurated **these need to be biopsied
59
Risk factors to consider for oral cancer?
- smoking - smokeless (chewing) tobacco - alcohol consumption - sores in mouth - hx of childhood cancer - feeding via G/J-tube - inhaled corticosteroids
60
Management of dry mouth (xerostomia)?
- stimulate saliva flow with sugar-free candies and lozenges or chewing gum - artificial saliva if insufficient benefit
61
Common auto-immune cause of xerostomia?
Sjogren's syndrome
62
Xerostomia increases risk of ______
candidiasis -• Saliva is part of the natural defense system with anti-viral, anti-fungal, antibacterial properties. As salivary flow decreases (due to many causes), Candida count increases thus patients have a higher prevalence of Candida infections symptoms: burning, mouth pain, or sensitivity and may exhibit apparent resistance to treatment for symptoms of oral dryness.
63
definition of sinusitis timeline acute: subacute: chronic:
- acute: up to 4 weeks - subacute: 4-12 weeks -chronic: 12+ weeks acute viral usually is <10 days, then usually clears or transforms into bacterial sinusitis
64
Presentation of pneumonia in older adults:
- low grade temp (oral >37.8) * fever can be absent in 30-50%!* - increased O2 requirements - CONFUSION! - falling - anorexia
65
True or false: the colour of nasal discharge indicates bacterial vs viral sinusitis first line tx for bacterial sinusitis?
FALSE -colour of discharge indicates inflammation but not of bacteria first line: amoxil 500 mg TID x 5 days high dose amox (1 g TID) OR amox-clav 875 mg if antibiotic use in the last month, age >65, close contact with child in daycare, immunocompromised, comorbidities (DM, heart), smoker
66
risk factors for cataracts
diabetes long term use of topical, systemic intravitreal, inhaled, or oral corticosteroids prior intraocular surgery
67
cataracts finding on eye exam
darkening of the red reflex opacities within the red reflex or  obscuration of ocular fundus detail when red reflex is lost --> this is a mature cataract
68
nuclear cataracts affect distance or near vision?
distance is affected far more most common in old age progresses very slowly
69
which two types of cataract are more common with diabetes?
cortical posterior subscapular (very quick progression, usually changes in night vision first)
70
signs and symptoms of cataracts
Decreased visual acuity, blurred or dim vision, decrease color perception Increasing difficulty with vision at night Sensitivity to light and glare
71
signs and symptoms of closed angle glaucoma
``` ocular pain redness blurry vision headache nausea visual halos ``` **ciliary flush
72
what medications increase risk for closed angle glaucoma?
``` Sympathomimetics&anticholinergic drops TCA MAOIs antihistamine antipsychotic antiparkinson antispasmodics sulpha ```
73
infective endocarditis prophylaxis med? indication?
amoxil 2 g po 30-60 min prior to procedure - prosthetic valves - hx infective endocarditis - cardiac transplants that end up with valve issues - congenital cardiac conditions ONLY CERTAIN
74
symptoms venous insufficiency
pain/aching worst at end of day edema to ankle and calf, relieved by elevation stasis dermatitis hemosiderin deposit and fibrosis shallow ulcers above medial malloelus, wet, weeping, painless, irregular
75
BP targets for adults 60+
BP AOBP <145/85
76
corneal abrasion: treatment if contact wearer?
must cover for pseudomonas: cipro, genta or tobramycin
77
what is difference between presyncope, vertigo and disequilibrium?
presyncope: lightheaded, feeling of falling from decreased blood flow, "almost fainting" vertigo: room spinning (labyrinthe/vestibular) disequilibrium: unsteadiness only when standing/walking * disappears with sitting/lying* (MSK/cerebellar/neuropathy)
78
what makes vertigo worse? what makes disequilibrium worse?
vertigo: head movement disequilibrium: walking, standing
79
what is the most common cause of hearing loss in older adults?
presbycusis * symmetrical * SNHL * high frequency first