Week 6- sbstance misuse Flashcards

(33 cards)

1
Q

what are some full agonists opioids?

A
Full agonists
▪ -Codeine
▪ -Diamorphine (Heroin)
▪ -Fentanyl
▪ -Methadone
▪ -Morphine
▪ -Pethidine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are some partial agonists?

A

▪ Buprenorphine

Subutex®

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are some antagonists?

A
Antagonists
▪ Naloxone (Injection) –
Narcan®
▪ Naltrexone (tablets)
▪ Nalmefene- (alcohol)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

why use methadone or buprenorphine?

A

-long lasting
-once daily BOTH
formulations not easily inject-able
-historical unpleasant formulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the effects of methadone on the CNS?

A
▪ Euphoria- not as pronounced as heroin
▪ Pleasant, warm feeling in the stomach
▪ Pain relief
▪ Drowsiness- not when tolerant
▪ Nausea/vomiting- stimulation of chemoreceptor trigger zone
▪ Respiratory depression
▪ Cough reflex depression
▪ Arms & legs feel heavy- ?increased blood flow to periphery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the effects on the peripheral NS?

A

▪ Dryness of the mouth, eyes, nose- reduction of secretion of
saliva tears & mucous
▪ 53% methadone users report dental problems
(methadone is acidic in nature)
▪ Constipation- opiates are good at slowing passage of food
(patients require high fibre & high fluid)
▪ Constricted pupils- reliable indicator of the level of opiates in
blood stream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are some histaminergic effects of methadone?

A
▪ Itching
▪ Sweating
▪ Blushing
▪ Flushing
▪ Constricting of the airways
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are some other effects of methadone?

A
▪ Reduced or absent
menstrual cycle- may still
become pregnant
▪ Sexual dysfunction
▪ Hallucinations
▪ Heart pounding transient effect
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

how is methadone metabolised?

A
• Methadone is soluble in lipids
• Extensive metabolism in the liver
• Binds to albumin
• Slow transfer between tissues
• Half life single dose 15 hours
• At steady state the half life has a
mean of 25 hours (once daily
dosing)
Missed dose: after 25 hours, level
drops to about half the peak level and
after 48 hours drops to 25% peak level
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the tolerance of methadone?

A

▪ Tolerance to opiates rises more quickly during second &
subsequent exposures to the drug
▪ Tolerance to miosis and constipation develops very slowly and
both are often present years after treatment
▪ Tolerance may go as quickly as it develops
Overdose risk for people
post detoxification and
intermittent users
particularly prisoners
released

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the effectiveness of methadone and buprenorphine?

A

• Both are effective & used in the
treatment of opioid
dependence & detoxification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the maintenance of methadone and buprenorphine?

A

• Methadone is considered the
gold standard 60-120mg
• Buprenorphine 12-32mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what assessment is needed for methadone and buprenorphine?

A

• Dependence confirmed by
history & examination. Urine or
oral toxicology screening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are some safety consideration of methadone?

A

• Low opioid tolerance
• Avoid additional drugs which may cause respiratory
depression such as benzodiazepines (be aware of self
med with alcohol)
• Avoid high initial dose (40mg may be fatal in an adult, 10mg in
children)
• Avoid rapid dose increases - methadone slow to clear
• Minimise side effects of constipation and sweating
• Potential interactions QT over 100mg/cardiac risk
• Minimise diversion, accidental ingestion and
overdose errors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how is methadone induction occurring dose wise?

A

-The first dose should not exceed
40mg. If uncertain then 10-20mg
-Where doses need to be increased
the increment should be no more
than 5-10mg in one day
-The total weekly increase should
not usually exceed 30mg above the
starting day’s dose
• Methadone-related deaths during MMT occur during the first
10 days of treatment and are more common with higher
induction doses
• There is no way of directly measuring tolerance to
methadone.
• Estimate of opioid tolerance is based on history and physical,
supported by toxicology tests.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the buprenorphine induction occurring dose wise?

A

Dose induction with buprenorphine may be carried out more rapidly
with less risk of overdose
▪ Timing is crucial
Buprenorphine can cause precipitated withdrawals when
transferring from heroin or other opioids.
▪ Start at least 8-12 hours post heroin, 24-36 hours post
methadone, 4mg is a good starting dose then escalate the dose
quickly
▪ Doses above 12mg block the effect of heroin and other opiates
on top

17
Q

what are the advantages of methadone?

A
▪ Established and familiar
▪ Good evidence base for
Methadone maintenance
treatment
▪ Trusted
▪ Sedating
▪ Cheap
▪ Full agonist
▪ Variety routes/forms
▪ 1
st choice in pregnancyalthough evidence points the other
way??
▪ Easier to supervise
18
Q

what is the advantages of buprenorphine?

A
▪ More difficult to use on top
(maintenance minimises drug
seeking behaviour, -ve
reinforcement)
▪ Good for clients at risk of
overdosing
▪ Safer in overdose
▪ Less stigmatised
▪ Easier to detox from, easier switch
to naltrexone
▪ Less sedating
▪ Better outcomes of newborns
▪ Can’t be adulterated
▪ Initial titration rapid
19
Q

what is the disadvantages of methadone?

A
▪ Easy to overdose
▪ Can use heroin on top
▪ Leakage onto the streets
(adulterated, injected)
▪ Stigmatised drug (older users,
deters new clients)
▪ Rots teeth??
▪ Stored in fatty tissue
▪ 3 days to steady state
▪ Long detoxification
▪ Avoids withdrawals but doesn’t
stop craving
▪ Sedating
20
Q

what is the disadvantages of buprenorphine?

A
▪ Expensive
▪ More difficult to supervise
(concealment)
▪ Poorer evidence base/less
experience
▪ Can be injected
▪ Unpleasant taste (S/L)
▪ Only one dosage form
▪ Less sedating
▪ Precipitated withdrawals
21
Q

what does NICE say?

A
-Higher fixed doses of methadone
maintenance treatment (MMT) are more
effective than lower fixed doses
-MMT reduces mortality, HIV risky behaviour and
levels of crime c/w no therapy
-Fixed dose MMT has higher levels of
retention in treatment & lower rates of
illicit opioid use c/w placebo or no
treatment
22
Q

what is the role of noradrenaline?

A

▪ The Locus Coeruleus (LC) is central to the symptoms
of opiate withdrawal. It produces 70% of brain
noradrenaline
▪ LC develops tolerance to opiates, abrupt cessation of
opiates then leads to enhanced LC activity with an
increase in NA release & turnover. This
‘noradrenaline storm’ leads to opiate withdrawals.
These withdrawals can be measured using subjective
and objective opiate withdrawal scales.

23
Q

how to remain free of opioids?

A

Naltrexone
• Competitive opioid antagonist with high affinity
• Blocks the euphoric and other effects of opioids and thereby
minimising the positive rewards associated with their use
• Is licensed for use as an adjunctive prophylactic treatment for
detoxified formerly opioid-dependent people
• Must be prescribed within a package of support including
relapse prevention
• Clients may be at risk of a fatal overdose caused by
respiratory depression if they relapse while taking
naltrexone.

24
Q

what should be done before using naloxone?

A

Administration of naltrexone must not be started before a naloxone
challenge test is performed and a negative result obtained.
• Naloxone test
• Subcutaneous: Administer 0.8 mg naloxone subcutaneously.
Observe the patient for 20 minutes for signs and symptoms of
withdrawal
• Confirmation of the test: If there is any doubt that the patient
is opioid-free, treatment with naltrexone should be delayed 24
hours. In this case, the test should be repeated with 1.6 mg
naloxone
• If there is no evidence of a reaction, naltrexone administration
may be initiated with 25 mg by mouth.

25
what is naloxone?
• Naloxone is the emergency antidote for overdoses caused by heroin and other opiates or opioids (such as methadone, morphine and fentanyl). • The main life-threatening effect of heroin and other opiates is to slow down and stop breathing. Naloxone blocks this effect and reverses the breathing difficulties. • Naloxone is a prescription-only medicine, so pharmacies cannot sell it over the counter. But drug services can supply it without a prescription. And anyone can use it to save a life in an emergency.
26
what mental health issues can occur from alcohol misuse?
Depression • There is a close link between alcohol misuse and depression. Between 15-25% of all suicides in England & Wales are associated with alcohol misuse Anxiety • Alcohol is used as a means of coping with social and other anxieties Personality disorder • Alcohol misuse may produce a pattern of behaviour which mimics that found in long term personality disorder Amnesia • Alcoholic amnesias are experienced by a quarter of young men and 10% young women
27
what is cognitive impairment due to alcohol and mental health?
Cognitive impairment • Alcohol is neurotoxic and when taken to excess causes cognitive impairment – alcohol dementia & long term neuropathy • There may be evidence of cerebral atrophy
28
what are the effects on the CNS of alcohol and mental health?
Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome • A neuropsychiatric disorder of acute onset associated with thiamine deficiency. • Encephalopathy is characterised by confusion, apathy, disorientation and disturbed memory • Post mortem analysis has demonstrated that Wernickes may occur in as many as 12.5% of chronic alcohol misusers • Encephalopathy resolves but reversal of psychosis less predictable
29
what can Chronic alcohol consumption can result in?
thiamine deficiency • Decreased absorption of thiamine from the gastrointestinal tract, and impaired thiamine utilisation in the cells • Poor dietary intake/nutrition • Low vitamin content in alcoholic drinks • Impaired storage in the liver • Increased requirement due to alcohol metabolism
30
what thiamine supplementation can be given ?
* Oral thiamine * 100mg three times daily but poor absorption orally is poor * Pabrinex * One pair of ampoules I/M daily * for 3-5 days
31
why should structured reduction of alcohol occur?
• Prolonged heavy drinkers should not stop abruptly, as may cause alcohol withdrawal seizures. Compensatory adaptation of GABAA receptors to prolonged ethanol exposure plays a critical role in alcohol dependence • Do NOT suggest structured reduction if history is complicated (e.g. seizures, hallucinations) • Use an alcohol diary • Stick to same type and strength of alcohol • Gradual monitored reduction as tolerated
32
what can occur due to using canabis when driving and to memory?
``` • Loss of co-ordination • Driving under the influence of cannabis almost doubles the risk of a fatal road crash • Legal limit for driving is so low that labs have difficulty detecting it to that level ``` ``` • Problems with memory and learning • Distorted perception • Difficulty in thinking and problem solving ```
33
what is the ink between cannabis and schizophrenia?
• If you start smoking cannabis before 15, (especially heavy consumption) you are 4 times more likely to develop a psychotic illness. Early positive response to cannabis can predict later dependence • The more cannabis you use, the more likely you are to develop psychosis, especially in people predisposed or with a genetic vulnerability to psychosis • It isn't clear why cannabis use in adolescence seems to have such an effect, but it may be because the brain is still developing • Can make relapse more likely • However, no increase in schizophrenia despite increase in cannabis use?