WEEK 8 - Economic Models of Crises Flashcards
What are some of the crises that inspired theoretical and empirical discussions?
- > EMS Crisis (1992-93)
- > Asian Crisis (late 1990s)
- > Russian debt default (1999)
Why was the crisis models originally developed?
provide an understanding of currency crisis in Latin America in the 1970s and
1980s. (Which used fixed rates)
What is the basic argument behind the first gen model?
Krugman (1979) and Flood and Garber (1984) -> Relationship between fixed exchange and inconsistent econ fundamentals (fiscal and monetary policy)
-> Fixed exchange and excessive MS growth pushes crisis -> Then exploited by private sector trying to profit from inconsistent policies
What are the assumptions behind the first gen model?
1.Perfect competition
2 Domestic and foreign goods are perfect substitutes,
3 perfect capital mobility, i.e. uncovered interest parity holds at all times,
and
4 PPP holds.
What shows that the Money Market is kept in equilibrium at all times? (1st GEN)
Mdt = Mbar st
Where:
Mbar = exogenous
What is assumed of the demand of real money balances? (1st GEN)
Assumed to be negatively related to domestic interest:
mdt - pt = - σRt
What is domestic money supply made of? (1st GEN)
m = D + R
D = Domestic Credit R = International Reserves
How does the 1st gen model represent PPP?
p = p* + s
or
s = p - p*
Where:
p = National P lvl
p* = Foreign P lvl
s = Spot rate
What is the representation showing that perf capital mobility suggest UIP holding continuously (1st GEN)
r = r* + Es dot
Where:
r = domestic interest
r* = foreign interest
Es dot = expected change in interest
How does the first gen model represent the relationship between Reserves and Domestic Credit?
R dot = - μ
Showing that as reserves increase, domestic credit falls and vice versa
Since Md constant
How do we represent a fixed exchange rate in the 1st gen model?
Es dot = o
Thus making foreign interest:
r* = r
Using all the previous equations what is the exchange rate equation? (1ST GEN)
Subbing in Money Mkt equilibrium, Md equation and Ms equation into PPP equation gives:
S bar = R +D - p* + σR*
What can we interpret from the relationship between domestic credit and reserves?
Shows that as domestic credit increases, reserves decrease showing that eventually a country exhausts its reserves and has to abandon fixed rate
What is a shadow exchange rate?
The floating rate the country would have had if the country did not have a fixed rate
When would a speculative attack occur in the 1st gen model?
When the shadow exchange rate = fixed exchange rate
Fall in Money Demand by dm dt = σµ.
SEE GRAPHS EXPLAINING THIS IN NOTES
1ST GEN RESULTS OF A SPECULATIVE ATK?
As reserves exhausted, falling by Dr, Ms falls by same amount dms
-> We see a rise in domestic interest (μ) so becomes:
r+ μ
Implying fall in Md, since money mkt in continuous equilibrium Ms falls and so does Md
How do we determine the time at which an attack can occur? (1ST GEN)
If R1 (Initial reserves) and T (time before atk, we see:
R1 - μT = -dR
If we rearrange for T gives us:
T = R1 - σμ/μ
What factors determine when a speculative attack occurs? (1ST GEN)
Using the equation for the timing of atk we see attack is dependant on:
Initial stock of reserves
Rate of credit expansion
As reserves higher or credit expansion low, the longer the time for a collapse of fixed system
Why have the 1st gen model been criticised? (PT 1)
- Not clear why the level of reserves is critical to the timing of the speculative attack since authorities can use other means to resist the attack, e.g. raising domestic interest rate.
2 Why would government that operates fixed exchange rate will resort to
monitisation of its debt?
Why have the 1st gen model been criticised? (PT 2)
3 Could not explain the Mexican peso crisis
in the 1990s and the ERM crisis in 1992-3. In the latter, countries such
as France and the UK had pursued a sound monetary fiscal mix but experienced crisis.
4 The models also failed to explain the East Asian crises, which was as a
result of sudden stop of capital in flows and speedy capital outflows
What does the 2nd gen model assume?
- > Created by Obstfeld (94) and Flood & Marion (1997,2000)
- > assuming that the second-period monetary policy depends on the government decision on whether or not to devalue in the first period.
What are the distinguishing features of the 2nd gen model?
- More spec of what is a fundamental and can involve any variable which influences policy-makers decision to defend a peg: ->hard fundamentals, such as unemployment, and
>soft fundamentals, such as the beliefs of foreign exchange market
participants.
2 they provide a new theory of self-fulfilling speculation and multiple equilibria.
What does the model in the 2nd gen show?
SEE GRAPH IN NOTES
S0 = Shows hard fundamentals and shadow exchange -> Shows atk only after Da
S1 = Shows soft fundamentals, showing that Atk can occur anytime after dB -> When fixed rate dropped equlibrium goes from C to B -> Anywhere from there mkt profit
Where does the 2nd gen model fail?
Fails to explain Latin American and Asian Crises of 95 and 97