Weekly Quizzes Flashcards
(132 cards)
1
Q
What is the surface landmark to locate the third thoracic vertebrae?
A
Spine of scapula
2
Q
What is the principle eccentric role of the erector spinae muscles?
A
Limit/control flexion of the back
3
Q
What muscle fails to hold the scapula flat against the back when its innervation is lost, hence the term ‘winged scapula’?
A
Serratus anterior muscle
4
Q
How is pre-eclampsia diagnosed?
A
Hypertension and proteinuria after 20 weeks gestation
5
Q
In the action potential of the sino-atrial node, what causes the initial depolarisation?
A
Calcium entry into the cell via voltage gated calcium channels
6
Q
Although calcium entry initiates depolarisation of the SA node, what is the main cause of depolarisation?
A
Opening of sodium channels
7
Q
In which phase of the cardiac cycle do the pulmonary and aortic valves open?
A
Ventricular ejection
8
Q
In which part of the cardiac cycle are all of the heart valves closed?
A
- Early ventricular systole
2. Early ventricular diastole
9
Q
What type of cell junction allows the electrical signal to pass between cells in cardiac muscle?
A
Gap junctions
10
Q
On auscultation, what would be the physiological reason for splitting of the second heart sound?
A
During inspiration the pulmonary valve closes later and the aortic valve closes earlier.
11
Q
What is happening to the valves causing the first heart sound?
A
Mitral and tricuspid valves are closing
12
Q
Which vein can act as an alternative route for blood to the heart if either superior or inferior vena cava are occluded?
A
Azygous vein
13
Q
What class of molecules will recognise the conserved molecules found on pathogens?
A
Toll like receptors - found on macrophages and recognise conserved patterns in PAMPs.
14
Q
How does the Gram stain identify gram positive bacteria?
A
Gram positive have a thick proteoglycan layer in the cell wall that stains blue by crystal violet.
15
Q
Which objectives on a microscope require oil for a clear image?
A
X60 and x100
16
Q
What is the name of the process whereby DNA is naturally transferred between bacteria?
A
Conjugation
17
Q
Which immunoglobulin is highly effective at activating mast cells?
A
IgE
18
Q
Which cardinal sign of inflammation is caused by fluid in the ECM?
A
Swelling
19
Q
Which cardinal signs of inflammation are caused by vasodilation?
A
Redness and heat
20
Q
What is the classification of neisseria meningiditis?
A
Gram negative cocci
21
Q
What is the classification of Escherichia coli?
A
Gram negative bacci/rod
22
Q
What is the classification of staphylococcus aureus?
A
Gram positive cocci
23
Q
What is the classification of listeria monocytogenes?
A
Gram positive bacii/rod
24
Q
Which muscle is primarily responsible for external/lateral rotation of the glenohumeral joint?
A
Infraspinatus
25
Which part of the scapula lies closest to the ribs?
Subscapular fossa
26
Which cords of the brachial plexus contribute to the median nerve?
Medial and lateral cords
27
What is the main type of collagen present in articular cartilage?
Type 2
28
What is the main type of collagen present in a normal tendon?
Type 1
29
Which parts of the brachial plexus give off the long thoracic nerve?
Roots of C5, C6 and C7
30
Propranolol may have side effects of cold fingers and toes. Blocking of which receptor type is responsible for these symptoms?
B2
31
Resistance to flow is directly proportional to…
Blood vessel length and viscosity of blood
32
Which lipoprotein contains the highest proportion of triglyceride?
Chylomicron
33
Which equation can be used to measure mea arterial blood pressure?
MAP = DBP + 1/3(SBP-DBP)
34
Nifedipine can be used to treat hypertension. How does it work?
Blocks L-type calcium channels in blood vessels
35
What is a side effect of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors such as enalapril?
A persistent, irritant cough
36
What is a common side effect of a1-adrenoceptor blockers like prazosin?
Postural hypotension
37
Where is angiotensinogen made?
Liver
38
What are the likely clinical results of blood electrolyte and blood pressure measurements of someone with Conn’s syndrome? (Aldosterone producing tumour)
1. Hypokalaemia
2. Hypernatraemia
3. Hypertension
39
What vaccinations would an infant receive at one year of age?
1. Men B
2. PCV
3. HIB/Men C
4. MMR
40
Describe bacterial endotoxins.
Their toxic effects are caused by immune responses triggered in the host. (Interact with receptors which leads to cytokine release)
41
Where is the majority of erythropoietin produced?
Kidney
42
Why is sodium citrate added to blood sample tubes?
Allows blood to be stored for some time without clotting.
43
Which vitamin does Warfarin antagonise to inhibit carboxylation?
Vitamin K
44
What does a functional haemoglobin molecule contain?
4 haem groups and 4 polypeptide chains
45
What is the general name for a malignant tumour of epithelial cells?
Carcinoma
46
Which characteristic of p53 protein accounts for the ability of mutant p53 to function in a ‘dominant negative’ manner?
It functions as a tetramer - bad alleles function over good alleles.
47
Which structure prevents end to end fusion of chromosomes?
Telomeres
48
What adjective is used to describe the undifferentiated appearance of malignant cells?
Anaplastic
49
What group of enzymes are largely responsible for breaching the basement membrane?
Matrix metalloproteinases (MMPs)
50
List some molecules that would be found in ground substance.
1. Water
2. Proteoglycans e.g. aggrecan, perlecan
3. Glycosaminoglycans e.g. hyaluronic acids, heparan sulphate
4. Glycoproteins e.g. fibrillin, laminin
51
What type of collagen is predominantly found in the basement membrane?
Collagen IV
52
What is the primary change in the hip joint that results in osteoarthritis?
Reduced hyaline cartilage in the joint
53
When a muscle length is shortened, which sarcomere feature would not shorten?
A band - myosin
54
Describe T-tubules.
1. Extensions of the sarcolemma
| 2. Invaginate in to the muscle fibre so that release of Ca from sarcoplasmic reticulum reaches all myofibrils
55
At the neuromuscular junction what is the result of acetylcholine binding to the acetylcholine receptor?
Na+ moves in to cell and K+ moves out of cell
56
What is the function of titin?
It maintains the alignment of the thick filament (myosin) in the middle of each sarcomere
57
What kind of virus is influenza?
Myxovirus
58
Which cell type is adversely affected in multiple sclerosis?
Oligodendrocyte
59
Which area of the brain is primarily associated with emotion?
Amygdala
60
Through what mechanism does Vancomycin kill bacteria?
Inhibition of cell wall formation
61
In the autonomic nervous system, the pre-ganglionic neurones synapse with post-ganglionic neurones in the…
Autonomic ganglia
62
They sympathetic nervous system uses which neurotransmitter at the preganglionic synapse?
Acetylcholine
63
In a typical ECG, what is represented by the QRS complex?
Ventricular depolarisation
64
Which epithelial lining is typical of the respiratory system?
Pseudostratified columnar (ciliated or non ciliated)
65
Where are the main arterial baroreceptors situated in the body?
Carotid sinus and aortic arch
66
Where does the bulk of lipid emulsification occur?
Duodenum of small intestine
67
Name a molecule which is part of the endocrine function of the pancreas.
Glucagon
68
What is steatorrhoea?
The presence of excess fat in stool.
69
What does the activity of lactase produce in the ileum?
Glucose and galactose
70
Where is the enzyme required for lactose digestion found?
Brush border
71
What is hypokalaemia?
Low potassium in the blood
72
What can hypokalaemia lead to?
Muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmia
73
What is the most likely sight of structural abnormality in benign prostatic hyperplasia?
Transitional zone of prostate gland
74
Innervation of which structure contributes to voluntary control of micturition?
The external sphincter by the pudendal nerve
75
How frequently are people screened for cervical cancer in Scotland?
Every 5 years from 25-64 years
76
Why is a screening programme for ovarian cancer not currently recommended?
A diagnostic marker for ovarian cancer, CA125, is found in other conditions such as endometriosis, pelvic inflammatory disease and pancreatitis.
77
Where does glucose reabsorption take place?
In the proximal convoluted tubule
78
What structure is involved in determining pitch?
The basilar membrane
79
Which molecule might reset the hypothalamic thermostat during fever?
IL-1
80
Why can NSAIDs irritate the gastric mucosa?
Because they inhibit production of prostaglandins and prostaglandins have a protective role in the gastric mucosa.
81
What structure in the cochlea is responsible for endolymph production?
Stria vascularis
82
A core stabilised by muscles rather than by external devices may be useful because it may prevent which common problem?
IV disc herniation
83
A muscle activity lasting a few seconds (2-7 seconds) is generated by?
Creatine phosphate
84
Cardiac muscle cells are derived from the region of mesoderm called?
Splanchnic mesoderm
85
Tennis elbow is most likely the result of which sort of action of the extensor muscles of the forearm at the common extensor origin?
Eccentric contraction
86
Which nerve passes posterior to the medial epicondyle of the humerus?
Ulnar nerve
87
Which nerve passes through the supinator muscle and is at risk of impingement?
Radial nerve
88
Which muscle provides powerful supination of the forearm?
Bicep brachii
89
Which nerve is affected in ‘wrist drop’, hence the inability to extend the wrist?
Radial nerve
90
Which structure forms the medial border of the anatomical snuffbox of the wrist?
Tendon of extensor pollicis longus muscle
91
Which carpal bone is most frequently fractured?
Scaphoid
92
The ulnar tunnel (of Guyon) transmits which structures?
The ulnar nerve and artery
93
What is innervation of lumbrical muscles in hand?
Half median and half ulnar nerve
94
Which structure is palpable proximally in the anatomical snuffbox of the hand?
Radial styloid process
95
What is the most common cause of x-linked SCID?
Mutations in the IL-2 receptor gamma chain
96
What do the antibodies in Guillain Barre syndrome bind to?
Gangliosides
97
Which bone is likely to have problem with union or necrosis after a fracture?
Intracapsular fracture of neck of femur
98
During development of muscle groups in the limb bud, dorsal mass develops mainly in to?
Extensors, supinators and adductors
99
The anterior compartment of the thigh predominantly receives motor innervation from which nerve?
Femoral nerve
100
Which muscle is most effective when lifting the body up a step?
Gluteus maximus
101
Which fibrous tissue structure is stretched between the anterior superior iliac spine and pubic tubercle?
Inguinal ligament
102
Glyceryl trinitrate can be used to treat coronary artery disease. What is a defining property of the drug?
It is a pro-drug that requires bioconversion to the active principle, nitric oxide
103
What is the main type of lipid present in an atheromatous plaque?
Low density lipoprotein
104
Which part of the cardiac conducting system is usually responsible for transmitting electrical signals from the atria to the ventricles?
SA node
105
Diltiazem can be used to manage angina pectoris. How does it work to reduce symptoms?
Blocks L-type calcium channels
106
How does Warfarin work?
Inhibits synthesis of vitamin K dependent clotting factors
107
Which anticoagulant works by directly inhibiting thrombin (factor IIa)?
Dabigatran exilate
108
Which epidemiological parameter best describes the incidence of a disease in a given population?
Absolute risk
109
Which part of the brain receives signals from mechanoreceptors and chemoreceptors involved in the control of respiration?
Nucleus tractus solitarius
110
What would cause a shift in the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve to the left?
Fetal haemoglobin
111
What is the lowest vertebral level reached by the pleura?
T12
112
How is carbon dioxide mainly transported around the body?
As bicarbonate
113
What causes a shift of the oxygen-haemoglobin curve to the right?
Raised hydrogen ion levels in the blood
114
To which class of drugs does fluticasone propionate belong?
Corticosteroids
115
Which receptor type is the target for the action of Montelukast?
Leukotriene receptor
116
Describe typical features of compensated respiratory acidosis.
```
CO2: increased
O2: decreased
H+: normal
Ph: normal
HCO3-: high
```
117
What is the acid-base status of a patient with low O2, high CO2 and low pH?
Mixed respiratory and metabolic acidosis
118
What might be indicated by a significantly reduced FEV1, a lower than normal FVC and a decreased FEV1/FVC ratio?
Decreased lung elastic recoil
119
Which spirometry pattern would be consistent with emphysema?
FEV1 decreased, FVC decreased, FEV1/FVC ratio decreased
120
How and where in the kidney nephron does the drug Furosemide work?
It decreases sodium transport out of the thick ascending limb of loop of Henle
121
What is vital capacity?
The amount of air exhaled with maximal effort following a maximal inspiration
122
Name a short acting beta agonist.
Salbutamol
123
Name a long acting beta 2 agonist.
Salmeterol
124
What can be used to diagnose neural tube defects?
Ultrasound and alpha-felt protein
125
How is free beta hCG used to screen for Down’s syndrome
Blood sample shows higher levels in affected babies
126
By which two methods does a subdermal implant work?
Prevents ovulation, alters cervical mucus
127
Which STI is typically a symptomatic?
Chlamydia
128
What are some harmful components of cigarettes?
CO2, ammonia, cyanide
129
What is a mode of action of nicotine in the body?
Stimulates adrenal gland to release adrenaline
130
How long do symptoms of nicotine withdrawal normally last?
Four weeks
131
What pathway is responsible for fixing DNA damage during replication?
Mismatch repair
132
What cancer type is associated with inherited mutations in the mismatch repair pathway?
Non-polyposis colon cancer
