weeks 9-12 Flashcards
(138 cards)
1
Q
What is the primary role of the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA)?
A
WADA aims to create a level playing field for all athletes by implementing the World Anti-Doping Code, ensuring consistent anti-doping standards across countries and sports.
2
Q
What does Sport Integrity Australia (SIA) do?
A
SIA ensures that Australian sport is clean, fair, and free from doping by enforcing anti-doping guidelines and promoting sports integrity.
3
Q
What is the ‘Strict Liability Principle’ in anti-doping?
A
Athletes are fully responsible for any substance found in their body, regardless of intent or knowledge.
4
Q
When can athletes be tested for doping?
A
At any time during the competition period.
5
Q
What must athletes do if they require medication containing a banned substance?
A
Apply for a Therapeutic Use Exemption (TUE).
6
Q
Why are supplements advised against by anti-doping authorities?
A
Because 1 in 5 supplements in Australia are found to contain banned substances, posing a high risk of unintentional doping.
7
Q
What is the ‘Substances of Abuse’ category in WADA’s documents?
A
It includes illegal drugs like cocaine. Sanctions may be reduced if athletes can prove the drug use was unrelated to performance enhancement.
8
Q
What are the three main categories of sports supplements?
A
Specialised sports foods, Vitamin and mineral supplements, Nutritional ergogenic aids.
9
Q
Who needs protein supplements?
A
Athletes who cannot meet protein needs through diet alone, especially those with higher training demands.
10
Q
What is the optimal dose to stimulate muscle protein synthesis?
A
2–3g leucine or 20–25g high biological value (HBV) protein per meal.
11
Q
How should protein be distributed throughout the day?
A
In 20–25g servings to spike muscle protein synthesis multiple times daily.
12
Q
What is HMB and what does it do?
A
A metabolite of leucine that may reduce muscle breakdown and soreness, and increase muscle mass.
13
Q
What is the typical HMB dose?
A
3g per day.
14
Q
Is HMB strongly supported by research?
A
No, evidence is limited; post-exercise protein is preferred.
15
Q
What is beta-alanine’s primary function in the body?
A
Increases carnosine levels, which buffers acid in muscles, reducing fatigue during high-intensity exercise.
16
Q
What types of activities benefit most from beta-alanine?
A
Activities lasting 1–7 minutes (e.g., swimming, rowing).
17
Q
What is the recommended dose of beta-alanine?
A
3–6g per day over 4–12 weeks, split to avoid side effects.
18
Q
Which amino acids make up BCAAs?
A
Leucine, isoleucine, and valine.
19
Q
How do BCAAs aid performance?
A
Stimulate muscle protein synthesis and prevent muscle fatigue and damage
Could act as a fuel source during exercise and reduce fatigue by interferrig with the tryptophan transport to the brain
20
Q
What is the recommended dose of BCAAs?
A
2–3g, especially useful for athletes with low energy intake.
21
Q
What does creatine do?
A
Enhances fatigue resistance during short, high-intensity activities.
22
Q
Describe the two creatine supplementation stages.
A
Loading: 20–25g/day in 4–5 doses for 5–7 days; Maintenance: 3–5g/day.
23
Q
What side effect is common with creatine?
A
Slight weight gain due to water retention.
24
Q
How does caffeine affect performance?
A
Reduces perceived effort and fatigue, may enhance fat utilisation, and improves performance in various sports types.
25
What is the recommended caffeine dosage?
1–3 mg/kg of body weight.
26
What are potential side effects of caffeine?
Sleep disruption, increased heart rate, gastrointestinal issues, and heightened anxiety.
27
How do nitrates improve exercise performance?
By vasodilation, improving oxygen delivery, lowering energy cost of exercise, and enhancing muscle contraction.
28
What is the optimal beetroot juice dose and timing?
300–600ml, consumed 2–3 hours before exercise.
29
What are common side effects of nitrate supplementation?
GI discomfort and stool discolouration.
30
What is the purpose of the AIS supplement framework?
To categorise supplements based on scientific evidence and safety.
31
What are Group A supplements?
Well-supported and safe, e.g., caffeine, beetroot juice, gels.
32
What are Group B supplements?
Promising but need more research, e.g., carnitine, fish oils, glucosamine.
33
What are Group C supplements?
Not supported by evidence; not recommended.
34
What are Group D supplements?
Banned and high risk, e.g., pro-hormones, hormone boosters.
35
Are sports drinks, bars, and gels essential?
No, they are convenient but not essential.
36
When are vitamin/mineral supplements useful?
When dietary intake is insufficient, e.g., vegans may need iron.
37
How does the prevalence of mental health issues in elite female athletes compare to the general population?
Female athletes are twice as likely to experience mental health issues compared to age-matched non-athlete controls, with up to 53.4% of elite Australian female athletes likely to report one or more mental health concerns (e.g., psychological stress, depression, anxiety, eating disorders).
38
Why are female athletes less likely to seek support for mental health conditions?
Due to stigma, pressure to appear resilient, lack of access to appropriate resources, and less medical support in female sports compared to male counterparts.
39
What are some psychosocial stressors female athletes face after injury?
Loss of income, reduced performance, time away from work, pressure to return to play, long-term disability.
40
What additional stressors do semi-professional female athletes (e.g., NRLW players) experience?
Difficulty balancing rugby and other commitments (44%) and workplace stress from negotiating time off to attend training/matches (57%).
41
What commitments outside sport can add to a female athlete’s stress?
Education, maternal responsibilities, employment, media appearances, sponsorships, community engagements, and game day obligations—often exceeding 20 hours/week.
42
How much more likely are women to sustain an ACL injury than men?
Women are 3–6 times more likely.
43
What are the factors associated with higher injury in female ACL athletes:
Biological factors – increased femoral anteversion, increased femoral Q-angle, excessive tibial torsion, decreased intercondylar notch space, and increased subtalar pronation in females compared to males
Extrinsic environmental factors that relate specifically to female athletes and may contribute to an increased incidence of ACL injury.
* E.g female athletes less likely to perform rough or risky play in childhood years that naturally develop and strengthen joint tissues
Shorter training history than males = discrepancy between training environment
* Access to training facilities
* Level of coaching
* Game awareness between male and female teams
* = increased risk of injury
44
When might strength training be more effective during the menstrual cycle? Why?
In the first half (follicular phase) because the body adapts and recovers better.
45
What are the challenges in discussing menstrual health in sport settings?
Female athletes may be comfortable discussing it with other women but less so with male coaches; coaches often lack knowledge about its effect on training and performance.
46
What percentage of female athletes show disordered eating thoughts or behaviours?
60% (2 out of 3).
47
What are common triggers and contributing traits for disordered eating in female athletes?
Perfectionism, control-seeking behaviour, comparisons, stress, and life transitions (e.g., changing clubs, roles, or losing).
48
Why is early intervention critical in managing disordered eating?
To prevent nutrient deficiencies, low bone density, anxiety, impaired performance, and disordered body image.
49
What are the four major risk factors for disordered eating?
Psychological (perfectionism, stress), Sport type (leanness or weight-class based sports), Gender (more common in females), Sociocultural pressures (media, body image expectations).
50
How does disordered eating impact athletic performance?
It reduces energy availability, causes nutrient deficiencies, impairs recovery, increases injury risk, and negatively affects mood and cognition.
51
What multifaceted strategies can help address disordered eating in sport?
Education, Early detection, Access to treatment and support, Creating a stigma-free environment.
52
Which nutrients are essential for brain function and mood regulation?
BAC MAP
B – Brain needs nutrients to function
O – Omega-3s (from Ocean fish, flaxseeds, walnuts) = memory + mood
C – Complex carbs = Calms mood by stabilising blood sugar
M – Mood regulation depends on stable blood sugar + neurotransmitters
A – Amino acids (from Animal/plant protein) = serotonin, dopamine, norepinephrine
P – B vitamins (Produce neurotransmitters) – B6, B12, folate – linked to mood + cognition
53
How do complex carbohydrates help mood?
They stabilize blood sugar levels, which helps prevent mood swings, irritability, and anxiety.
54
What is the role of the gut-brain axis in mental health?
A healthy gut microbiome (supported by fibre and probiotics) can improve mood and anxiety levels via the gut-brain communication network.
55
What foods are anti-inflammatory and benefit mental health?
Berries, leafy greens, nuts, and turmeric help reduce inflammation, which is linked to mental health disorders like depression.
56
Should nutrition be the only focus for mental health in athletes?
No—nutrition must complement other interventions like therapy, medication, and physical activity.
57
What effects do higher oestrogen levels have on physiology and performance?
Greater use of fats over carbohydrates for fuel, Water retention, Emotional fluctuations.
58
Why is fasted training discouraged in female athletes?
It increases cortisol and sympathetic nervous system activity, which can negatively impact health and performance.
59
How many Australians experience foodborne illness each year, and what are the consequences?
About 5.4 million Australians experience foodborne illness annually, resulting in 120 deaths, 1.2 million doctor visits, 300,000 requiring antibiotics, and over $1.25 billion in economic losses (including over 2 million lost workdays).
60
Who is most at risk of foodborne illnesses?
Young children, pregnant individuals, the elderly, and people with weakened immune systems, such as cancer patients.
61
What modern system is used to ensure food safety from production to consumption?
The Hazard Analysis Critical Control Points (HACCP) system.
62
What are the four most common microorganisms that cause food poisoning?
Salmonella – found in raw chicken and eggs.
E. coli – found in contaminated meat products.
Listeria – grows even in refrigerated foods.
Norovirus – spreads through contaminated food, water, or surfaces.
63
What are the four main types of microorganisms that affect food safety?
Algae, Fungi, Viruses, Bacteria.
64
What are the two main routes by which microorganisms cause illness?
Direct infection: Microorganisms affect the gastrointestinal tract or other organs.
Food intoxication: Toxins produced by microorganisms remain in food even after they’re gone.
65
How does food commonly become contaminated?
Fecal-oral route (e.g., poor hygiene, contaminated water).
Cross-contamination (e.g., using the same utensils for raw and cooked foods).
Contact with infected humans or animals.
66
How can algae affect food safety?
Toxic blue-green algae can contaminate freshwater sources. Fish and shellfish that absorb these toxins can cause poisoning when consumed.
67
What dangers can moulds and fungi present?
Some produce mycotoxins (e.g., aflatoxins on peanuts, corn), which can cause serious health issues like liver damage or cancer.
68
Why are viruses particularly tricky in food safety?
They can only reproduce in living cells and have long incubation periods, making them hard to detect early.
69
Name two viruses associated with foodborne illness and their symptoms.
Hepatitis A: Vomiting, fever, jaundice, liver damage (incubation: 15–50 days).
Norovirus: Vomiting, fever, diarrhoea (onset: 12–48 hours).
70
What types of bacteria are particularly harmful and where are they found?
Harmful bacteria like Salmonella and Listeria are found in undercooked meat, eggs, unpasteurised dairy, and can thrive in the 'danger zone' (5–60°C).
71
What are parasites and prions?
Parasites are organisms that live on/in hosts (e.g., tapeworms, protozoa).
Prions are infectious proteins linked to diseases like mad cow disease (BSE).
72
What is the 'danger zone' in food safety, and why is it risky?
5–60°C – temperatures in this range allow bacteria to multiply rapidly.
73
What practices help keep food safe from contamination?
Keep food below 5°C or above 60°C.
Wash hands frequently.
Avoid cross-contamination (e.g., keep raw meat separate).
Thaw frozen food in the fridge or microwave (not on the bench).
Cook food thoroughly and reheat only once.
Store cooked food above raw food in the fridge.
74
What should you do if you get food poisoning?
Rehydrate with water and electrolytes.
Rest and eat slowly when nausea subsides.
Seek medical help if symptoms last >3 days, involve blood, severe dehydration, or fever.
75
What are food additives and why are they used?
Substances added to food in small amounts to improve shelf life, flavour, texture, appearance, or nutritional value.
76
What’s the difference between intentional and incidental additives?
Intentional: Deliberately added (e.g., preservatives, emulsifiers).
Incidental: Present in trace amounts from manufacturing or packaging processes.
77
Who regulates the use of food additives in Australia and New Zealand?
Food Standards Australia New Zealand (FSANZ).
78
What are potential concerns associated with food additives?
Allergic reactions, intolerances, and possible negative effects on physical or mental health.
79
What are the three main categories of colouring agents?
Natural colours (plant/animal-based).
Synthetic colours (chemically identical to natural).
Synthetic colours not found in nature.
80
How do preservatives differ from general food additives?
Preservatives specifically slow bacterial, mould, and yeast growth to extend shelf life and often act as antioxidants.
81
Name five major types of preservatives.
Sorbates, Benzoates, Sulphur dioxides/sulphites, Nitrates, Propionates.
82
How can food be preserved without chemical preservatives?
Use freezing, canning, or pasteurisation.
Natural methods: sugar (jam), salt (cheese, salami), vinegar (pickles).
83
How can you reduce intake of preservatives and additives?
Avoid highly processed/packaged foods.
Cook from scratch using whole ingredients.
Read labels and compare products.
Choose unflavoured, classic versions with fewer additives.
84
When should food handlers wash their hands?
After going to the toilet, blowing nose, handling raw foods, breaking eggs, handling rubbish, or touching wounds/body parts.
85
What are key responsibilities of food handlers?
Report illnesses like diarrhoea and vomiting.
Wear clean clothing and headgear.
Discard chipped plates/glasses.
Clean all utensils properly.
86
What are the best practices for food thawing and reheating?
Thaw in fridge/microwave, not bench.
Reheat food rapidly to over 60°C.
Do not reheat more than once.
87
Define a food allergy.
A food allergy is an immune-mediated reaction to a specific food protein that produces rapid (minutes) signs ranging from hives to life-threatening anaphylaxis.
88
What proportion of Australians are affected by food allergies?
≈ 1 in 20 children and 1 in 100 adults; ~60 % of cases emerge in the first year of life.
89
Define a food intolerance and name three common symptoms.
A non-immune digestive reaction (bloating, gas, diarrhoea) that manifests hours after ingestion; uncomfortable but not life-threatening.
90
List six hallmark symptoms of anaphylaxis.
Wheeze/airway obstruction, lip–tongue–throat swelling, hypotension/faintness, tachycardia, generalised urticaria/itch, GI distress ± loss of consciousness.
91
Name the nine most common food allergens in Australia.
Eggs, cow’s milk, peanuts, tree nuts, fish, seafood (crustaceans/molluscs), sesame, soy, wheat (gluten).
92
What cereals contain gluten?
Wheat, rye, barley (and hybrids such as triticale).
93
Differentiate between a gluten allergy and coeliac disease.
Gluten allergy: IgE-mediated, immediate symptoms, cured only by avoidance. Coeliac disease: Auto-immune attack on small-intestinal villi, lifelong gluten exclusion required to prevent malabsorption, osteoporosis, infertility, intestinal cancers.
94
Explain non-coeliac gluten sensitivity (NCGS).
Individuals without serological/biopsy evidence of coeliac disease report GI or extra-intestinal relief when gluten is removed; no intestinal damage occurs.
95
Is gluten inherently 'bad'?
No—only pathogenic in susceptible individuals; for most people it is a harmless component of balanced grain intake.
96
What are the key long-term risks of gluten allergy?
Repeat anaphylaxis, restricted diet nutrient gaps.
97
What are the key long-term risks of coeliac disease?
Iron/B-12/Ca deficits, osteoporosis, growth delay, ↑ intestinal cancer risk.
98
Biochemical cause of lactose intolerance.
Deficiency of lactase enzyme ⇒ unhydrolysed lactose ferments in colon.
99
Global prevalence differences in lactose intolerance.
≈ 5 % in Caucasians vs ~75 % in many non-Caucasian populations.
100
Three management strategies for lactose intolerance.
Small dairy portions with meals, lactose-free alternatives, exogenous lactase tablets.
101
What does FODMAP stand for?
Fermentable Oligo-, Di-, Mono-saccharides And Polyols.
102
List five high-FODMAP foods.
Wheat, onions, garlic, apples/pears, many dairy products.
103
Describe the Low-FODMAP protocol.
Eliminate high-FODMAP items → systematic re-introduction to identify individual triggers, then personalise tolerance levels.
104
Define a fad diet.
A short-lived eating pattern promising rapid weight loss/health fixes with minimal scientific backing and extreme rules.
105
Name the four archetypes of fad diets with examples.
1️⃣ Single-food (Lemon Detox) 2️⃣ Food-exclusion (Blood Type Diet) 3️⃣ Macronutrient-elimination (zero-carb) 4️⃣ Liquid-only regimens.
106
Give five common claims made by fad diets.
“Body cleansing”, rapid weight loss, improved libido, slower ageing, “alkalising” the body.
107
List four health dangers of chronic fad dieting.
Micronutrient deficiencies, dehydration, fatigue/brain fog, constipation/headaches; perpetuation of yo-yo weight cycling and disordered eating.
108
Why is the Alkaline Diet physiologically flawed?
Blood pH is tightly regulated by homeostatic mechanisms; dietary acid/base load cannot meaningfully shift systemic pH, and stomach acidity is essential for digestion.
109
Critique the 'Eat Right for Your Blood Type' diet.
No evidence linking ABO blood type with food tolerance; unnecessarily excludes whole food groups, ignores shared primate diets.
110
When can a 'fad' graduate to an evidence-based strategy?
Once robust research demonstrates clinical efficacy (e.g., ketogenic diet for epilepsy, intermittent fasting for metabolic control).
111
Three primary motivations for adopting plant-based eating.
Environmental sustainability, animal welfare, health benefits.
112
List five disease-risk reductions linked to plant-based patterns.
↓ CVD, type 2 diabetes, obesity, certain cancers, improved lipid and gut profiles.
113
Which nutrients require special attention in strict vegans?
Vitamin B-12, iron (non-heme), omega-3 (ALA/EPA/DHA), calcium, vitamin D, zinc.
114
Give two strategies to enhance non-heme iron absorption.
Combine plant iron with vitamin-C-rich fruit/veg; avoid tea/coffee at iron-rich meals.
115
Why can plant-based diets suit elite athletes?
High carbohydrate, fibre and antioxidant intake supports glycogen replenishment, reduces inflammation, and accelerates recovery.
116
Name two ways plant-based athletes can achieve a complete amino-acid profile.
Mix complementary proteins through the day (e.g., grains + legumes) and/or use soy-based or blended vegan protein powders.
117
Describe the classic macronutrient split of a therapeutic keto diet.
~70–80 % fat, 15–20 % protein, ≤ 5 % carbohydrate (< 20 g/day).
118
Timeline to achieve nutritional ketosis.
~3–4 days once liver/muscle glycogen depletes; full fat-adaptation 3–7 days.
119
Define gluconeogenesis in keto adaptation.
Conversion of amino acids (e.g., alanine) to glucose to protect blood-glucose-dependent tissues; declines as ketone use increases.
120
List four evidence-based benefits of ketogenic diets.
Superior seizure control (epilepsy), improved glycaemic management, weight loss via appetite reduction, potential neuro-protective effects (Alzheimer’s, Parkinson’s).
121
Identify five common adverse effects or limitations of keto.
Keto flu/fatigue, constipation/diarrhoea, social restrictiveness, risk of re-feeding syndrome, low fibre/micronutrient intake.
122
Explain why high-intensity athletes often 'carb-cycle' off keto near competition.
Anaerobic glycolysis demands rapid carbohydrate; brief carb re-feeds restore glycogen for maximal power while retaining some fat-adaptation.
123
What foods comprise a carnivore diet?
Primarily meat, organs, fish, eggs; excludes plant foods—making it an extreme keto variant.
124
Proposed gut health rationale for carnivore followers.
Elimination of fermentable plant fibres can relieve Crohn’s, IBS, ulcerative colitis symptoms in some anecdotal reports.
125
State two scientific caveats for the carnivore diet.
Lack of long-term outcome data; concerns over fibre absence, though organ meats may offset some micronutrient gaps.
126
How do advocates rebut the 'vitamin C deficiency' criticism?
Liver and fish roe contain higher vitamin C density than some fruits; low-carb milieu increases vitamin C utilisation efficiency due to reduced glucose competition for absorption.
127
Define carbohydrate cycling.
Planned alternation of high, moderate and low carbohydrate days to align fuel availability with training demands, aiming to blend glycogen support with fat-adaptation benefits.
128
Write a sample weekly split for a strength athlete.
High-carb (200–400 g): heavy lifting days → Moderate (100–200 g): accessory/tempo sessions → Low (< 100 g): rest/recovery days.
129
Three physiological advantages claimed for carb cycling.
Optimised performance on intense days, enhanced insulin sensitivity/fat loss on low-carb days, muscle preservation by periodic glycogen restoration.
130
Two key disadvantages of carbohydrate cycling.
Complexity/planning burden; energy and concentration dips on low-carb days (especially in non-fat-adapted individuals).
131
How might an endurance athlete periodise carbs with this method?
Low-carb blocks to stimulate fat-adaptation, then high-carb 24–48 h pre-race to super-compensate glycogen and delay bonking.
132
Why can blanket elimination of food groups (fad dieting) be uniquely harmful to athletes?
It jeopardises the higher micronutrient, protein and caloric requirements of training, impairs recovery, risks RED-S, and may cause performance-limiting deficiencies.
133
Contrast management of coeliac disease vs lactose intolerance.
Coeliac: absolute lifelong gluten avoidance to prevent autoimmune damage. Lactose intolerance: dose-dependent management (enzyme supplements, portion control); not life-threatening.
134
Describe how combining plant-based eating with carb cycling could theoretically benefit an endurance cyclist.
Plant diet supplies abundant complex carbs/antioxidants for recovery; cycling carbs tailors glycogen super-compensation before events while low-carb days boost mitochondrial fat-oxidation efficiency.
135
Provide two reasons the ketogenic diet originated as a medical therapy and not a weight-loss fad.
Discovery that ketone production during starvation suppressed epileptic seizures; clinical aim to mimic starvation’s neuro-protective effects safely.
136
Explain the phrase 'correlation ≠ causation' using the meat-consumption vs life-expectancy example.
Nations with high meat intake also enjoy better healthcare and socioeconomic status; their longevity cannot be attributed to meat alone—confounding variables cloud causal inference.
137
List three indicators that a 'special diet' has matured from fad to evidence-based intervention.
Peer-reviewed RCTs confirming efficacy; mechanistic plausibility; professional bodies issuing guidelines or therapeutic indications (e.g., keto for paediatric epilepsy).
138
What single behaviour underpins safe adoption of any special diet?
Individualised, evidence-informed planning with professional supervision (dietitian/physician) to meet all macro- and micronutrient needs and monitor health markers.
