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wefh] Flashcards

1
Q

What are the standard takeoff minimums for the A320?

A

Standard take off minimums for 2 engine aircraft are 1SM or 5,000’ RVR

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2
Q

Are we allowed to operate with lower than standard takeoff minimums?
What provides authorization to do so?

A

Yes
o Ops Spec C056: IFR takeoff minimums, Part 121 airplane operations

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3
Q

What are we allowed to reduce our takeoff minimums to?

A

Ops Spec C078: IFR lower than standard takeoff minima
o Lowest authorized takeoff RVR: TDZ RVR 5, MID RVR 5, ROLLOUT RVR 5

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4
Q

What is our lowest authorized takeoff minimum for takeoff on JFK RWY 31L?

A

TDZ RVR 5, MID RVR 5, ROLLOUT RVR 5

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5
Q

What are the runway requirements when operating at RVR 5/5/5?

A

o HIRL + CL

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6
Q

Is reported visibility or RVR for the takeoff runway controlling?

A

RVR reports, when available for a particular runway, shall be used for all takeoff operations on that runway.

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7
Q

When is a takeoff alternate required?

A

If the current departure airport weather is lower than the landing minimums published for the airport.

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8
Q

What is required to list an airport as a takeoff alternate?

A

Must be within 1 hour from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.
o Must meet the criteria in Ops Spec C055 for filing as an alternate.

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9
Q

What is the weather requirement at our destination airport to dispatch?

A

Weather must be at or above the authorized minimums at the ETA.

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10
Q

The main body of the TAF for our destination airport is reporting visibility at the ETA of ½ SM, however there is a TEMPO for ¼ SM. Can we depart?

A

Yes, Exemption 3585 can be applied
o Requires a second alternate

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11
Q

When is a destination alternate required (domestic)?

A

An alternate must be designated unless the appropriate weather reports or
forecasts, or any combination of them, indicates that the visibility will be at least three (3) miles with a ceiling of at least 2,000 feet for at least one (1) hour before and one (1) hour after the estimated time of arrival at the destination airport.

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12
Q

When is a second alternate required to be on the release?

A

When exemption 3585 is used
o When weather at the destination and first alternate is marginal

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13
Q

How is marginal weather defined?

A

A ceiling of less than 500’ above DA(H) or MDA(H) or
o A visibility of less than ½ mile above the lowest operational approach minimum

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14
Q

Which RVR report(s) is controlling for approach and landing?

A

Reference C052
o TDZ reports, when available for a particular runway, are controlling for all
approaches and landings for that specific runway. The MID RVR and ROLLOUT RVR reports (if available) provide advisory information to the pilots.
Note: The MID RVR report may be substituted for the TDZ RVR report in the event TDZ RVR report is not available.

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15
Q

What is cost index?

A

Cost index = 0 corresponds to maximum range and cost index = 999 corresponds to minimum time. Cost index is determined by the company and considers the
relationship between time and fuel related cost to minimize the trip cost

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16
Q

When is an RVSM check required? Fuel Check?

A

Per SOP enroute: RVSM and fuel awareness checks are required hourly.
o In addition to the hourly RVSM check, an altimeter check is required prior to entering RVSM airspace. This is accomplished at transition altitude.

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17
Q

Reference the (STRUC LIMIT) weights on the release. It is the Captain’s responsibility to ensure these numbers are correct. Where is this information found?

A

The adjusted BOW and cabin configuration report is located on the inside cover of the maintenance can.

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18
Q

When do we use summer weights? Winter weights?

A

Summer weights (MAY 1/OCT 31) 190LBS
o Winter weights (NOV 1/APR 30) 195LBS
o Passenger weights include an allowance for 16LBS of carry‐on bags.

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19
Q

What is TREF?

A

Lowest assumed temperature for which reduced thrust is allowed
o It is a requirement to reference TREF after any adjustments are made

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20
Q

Minimum landing distance is determined by assessed runway conditions. How is this information distributed?

A

FICON NOTAM

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21
Q

What information is included in the FICON NOTAM?

A

Runway condition code (RCC), contaminant type, depth, and percentage of
coverage

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22
Q

How is coverage reported?

A

Provided in 1/3 runway intervals when the runway is more than 25%
contamination level

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23
Q

Based on FICON NOTAM DATA how do we determine the impact the conditions will have on our landing performance?

A

o Reference the runway condition assessment matrix
o Refer to RCAM minimum landing distance in the TLR for planning prior to
departure.
o Enter the field condition and expected braking action into the ATSU or use Inflight Performance in the QRH when enroute

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24
Q

What landing requirements must be met in order dispatch?

A

Must be able to land and stop within 60% of the effective length of the runway to be used.
o An additional 15% is added for a wet runway

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25
It is possible to meet dispatch requirements yet have a minimum landing distance (based on expected braking action) greater than the landing distance available. Can you depart?
o Dispatch is permitted if: ▪ There is reasonable expectation that the braking action will improve to the point that the minimum landing distance required will be less than the landing distance available at ETA ▪ The PIC and dispatcher conduct a briefing and agree what braking action will be required before landing ▪ A performance alternate is added to the dispatch release
26
What are the functions of the ELAC?
o Control of the elevators, ailerons, and the trimmable horizontal stabilizer (THS). o The ELACs compute the need for roll spoiler movement (which is sent to the SECs), and rudder yaw movement (which is sent to the FACs).
27
What is the primary responsibility of the SECs?
o Spoiler Control. Each SEC controls one or two pairs of spoilers.
28
What is lost with SEC when there is a fault light?
The spoiler panels associated with the failed SEC are inoperative.
29
Both ELACs fail, can any of the SECs provide backup and of what functions?
SECs 1 and 2 can provide backup pitch control of the elevators and THS. Aileron control is lost and the ailerons streamline. Roll is accomplished with just the spoilers.
30
What happens if you select a FAC pb to OFF?
Deactivates the corresponding yaw dampening and rudder trim functions to that FAC. If the FAC is still operable, it continues to compute all flight envelope functions
31
Where is oxygen stored for the crew?
In a single high‐pressure cylinder
32
What happens during the preflight when you push to extinguish the CREW SUPPLY OFF pb?
It opens a valve in the avionics bay to supply low‐pressure crew oxygen.
33
Where do you find the minimum flight crew O2 values?
FCOM LIM‐OXY
34
How do you call the forward flight attendant?
o Press the FWD button o Two lights come on in pink on the related area of the CALLS panel o CAPT CALL appears on the FWD F/A indication panel o A green light illuminates o A high‐low chime sounds through the forward cabin loudspeaker
35
What happens when you press the EMER pb?
o Pink light flashes at all area Call Panels o EMERGENCY CALL appears on all attendant indication panels o High‐low chime (repeated 3 times) sounds throughout the cabin loudspeakers
36
What happens when the F/A’s initiate an emergency call?
o On the EMER pb‐sw: The amber CALL light flashes o The amber ATT lights flash on the ACPs o 3 long buzzers sound in the cockpit. o System resets when the attendant hangs up the relevant system
37
What is the logic of the EMER EXIT lights in the ARM position?
The overhead emergency lights automatically illuminate with a loss of normal aircraft electrical power.
38
How many auto pressure controllers?
o 2, only one controller operates at a time and automatic transfer occurs: ▪ 70s after each landing ▪ If the operating system fails
39
What part of the wing is heated?
o Outboard 3 slats
40
Can you use the APU bleed for wing anti‐ice?
no
41
Which exterior aircraft components utilize electrical heating?
o Cockpit windshields and sliding side windows o AOA, TAT, pitot probes, and static ports. o Waste water drain masts
42
What computers monitor and control the pneumatic system?
2 Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMC)
43
How does the system optimize the temperature in each of the three zones?
Trim Air Valves ▪ To maintain the selected zone temperature, the trim air valves under control of the zone regulator, add hot air, if necessary, to the air flowing from the mixing unit. ▪ This allows for air temperatures to be controlled independently in each zone.
44
What effect will the engine start sequence have on the pack flow control valves?
The pack flow control valve will close automatically.
45
What is the function of the BUS TIE in the AUTO position?
Allows the BUS TIE CONTACTORS to open and close automatically to maintain power to both AC BUS 1 & 2 in the preferential order of respective engine, EXT power, APU GEN, opposing engine GEN.
46
What cools IDG oil?
Fuel/Oil cooler that utilizes fuel flow from the associated engine fuel supply line.
47
What precautions must you take when disconnecting an IDG?
To avoid damage to the disconnect mechanism: ▪ Do not disconnect unless the engine is at or above idle RPM and ▪ IDG pb should not be pressed for more than 3 seconds.
48
What does a BAT FAULT light indicate?
Battery charging current is outside limits (BAT contactor opens).
49
When would you expect to see the batteries connected to the BATTERY BUS?
APU start o Battery charging o AC BUS 1 and 2 unpowered (>100KTS), and emergency generator not supplying power.
50
When the Center Tank Pump MODE Select pushbutton is in the AUTO mode (lights out), what is the logic for center tank pump operation?
With fuel in the center tank the pumps will: ▪ Perform a momentary self‐test after engine start. ▪ The pumps stop operating after slat extension and resume operation after slat retraction. ▪ The pumps are automatically shut off a few minutes after the center tank empties. ▪ They will also shut off momentarily to make room in the wing tanks for IDG cooling return fuel.
51
When do the main tank outer cells drain into the inner tanks?
When the inner tank quantity reaches a predetermined low level (approx. 1650LBS)
52
What does an amber boxed ECAM FOB indicate?
o Some fuel is unusable.
53
When does the PTU operate with pb in AUTO?
with a difference of 500 PSI between GREEN and YELLOW pressure o Self‐test between first and second engine start
54
When is the PTU inhibited?
o PTU pb OFF o First Engine start o Parking brake is ON and only one ENG MASTER switch is ON o NWS in towing position and parking brake ON o Cargo door operation
55
List the actions that occur when an ENGINE FIRE pb is pressed.
o Silences the aural fire warning o Arms the fire extinguisher squibs o Closes the hydraulic fire valve o Closes the LP fuel and engine fuel return valves o Deactivates the engine generator o Closes the pack flow control and engine bleed valves
56
List the actions that occur when the APU FIRE pb is pressed.
o Silences the aural fire warning o Arms the APU fire extinguisher squib o Closes the LP fuel valve and shuts OFF the APU fuel pump o Deactivates the APU generator o Closes the APU bleed valve and the crossfeed valve
57
What does the red SMOKE light in the FWD or AFT pb indicate?
o Both channels detect smoke or o One channel faulty and the other detects smoke
58
How long does the agent provide fire suppression?
45‐60 minutes
59
With BLOWER and EXTRACT PBs in AUTO how does the system typically operate?
Ground – system is in OPEN configuration o Flight – system is in CLOSED configuration o Intermediate – Closed, except Extract Valve is partially open
60
What are the primary differences between a manual and a normal automatic start?
The FADEC provides passive survey during a manual start and will provide appropriate ECAM cautions and procedures to follow in the event of a start fault. o Automatic start interruption and auto‐crank are not available, except when on ground, and the start EGT limit is exceeded before 50 % N2
61
What is denoted by the Blue Triangle? Magenta Dagger? Green Diamond? Yellow Line?
Blue Triangle – Selected heading/track o Magenta Dagger – Localizer selection o Green Diamond – Aircraft Track o Yellow Line – Aircraft actual heading
62
How is the crew made aware of mode changes on the FMA?
A white box is temporarily displayed around the new indication.
63
What is the function of the 2 Landing Gear Control and Interface Units (LGCIU)?
Provide sequencing, operation, monitoring, and indications for the landing gear
64
What hydraulic system powers the landing gear and doors?
Green
65
What controls and manages all braking functions?
The Brake and Steering Control Unit (BSCU)
66
What happens when you switch the A/SKID & N/W STRG to OFF?
o Lose NWS o Braking is powered by the Yellow system o Anti‐skid is deactivated
67
Which hydraulic systems provide pressure to the brakes?
o Normal brakes – Green o Alternate brakes – Yellow backed up by a hydraulic accumulator
68
What will cause the MAX AUTO BRK to activate on a RTO?
o Airspeed > 72KTS o Thrust Levers at IDLE o Ground spoiler extension
69
What does the BRAKES & ACCU PRESS triple indicator indicate?
Yellow hydraulic pressure delivered to the left and right brakes o Yellow system brake accumulator pressure
70
How do you perform the brake check during initial taxi?
Press the brake pedals to ensure the aircraft slows and check the brake pressure on the triple indicator is zero, indicating the Green hydraulic system has taken over.
71
What computers feed data to the six display units?
3 Display Management Computers (DMC)
72
What does each of the DMCs normally supply?
DMC 1 – Captain PFD, ND, upper ECAM DU o DMC 2 – F/O PFD, ND, lower ECAM DU o DMC 3 – Backup
73
How can you tell if a DMC has failed?
A diagonal line will be displayed in the respective DUs (CRT Aircraft) or o “INVALID DATA” message is displayed on respective DUs (LCD aircraft)
74
What happens when the upper ECAM display fails?
The E/WD automatically replaces the SD on the lower ECAM display.
75
If both the E/WD and SD display units fail, how can you display E/WD information?
Select the ECAM/ND switch to CAPT or F/O to transfer the SD to either ND.
76
If the UPPER DISPLAY knob was switched to OFF what would occur?
o The E/WD display would automatically transfer to the lower display.
77
With the E/WD displayed on the lower screen, how else can you view SD information?
Press and hold the appropriate system button on the ECAM CONTROL panel you wish to view.
78
What controls the engines in all operating regimes?
FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Controls)
79
What redundancy does the FADEC have?
Dual channel redundancy – one channel is active while the other is standby
80
What is the power source for the FADEC?
o The system has its own alternator making it independent of the aircraft electrical system when N2 is above a set value. o If this alternator fails, the FADEC automatically switches to aircraft electrical power.
81
When will the FADEC abort a start?
o Hot start, Hung start o Stalled start o No light up
82
When does the FADEC command a higher engine idle speed?
o Bleed demands o Approach Configuration o High engine or IDG temperatures
83
When does continuous ignition automatically operate?
Engine flameout detection
84
What is the active range of the A/THR?
o Just above IDLE to the CL detent (2 engines) o Just above IDLE to the MCT detent (1 engine)
85
How many igniters fire on Manual or In‐flight starts?
o Both A and B
86
How many igniters fire during a Normal automatic ground start sequence?
One igniter with the other serving as a backup o The FADEC automatically alternates the igniters (A and B) at each start.
87
Will you be able to restore A/THR if you pushed disconnect button for 15 seconds?
No, on ground only after both FMGC power up
88
What else will you lose if you don't have a/thr?
Alpha Floor Protection
89
When would Thrust Lock occur
o Thrust levers in CL detent and A/THR pb on the FCU is pushed (OR) o A/THR disconnects due to a failure
90
What does a fault light on the ENG panel indicate?
o Auto Start Abort o Position of FUEL HP shutoff valve abnormal o Malfunction of the thrust control
91
What system prevents Flap or Slat asymmetry?
Wing Tip Brakes (WTB)
92
How many Slat/Flap Control Computers (SFCC) are installed?
2
93
What would occur if one SFCC failed?
The slats and flaps would continue to operate, but at half speed.
94
What flap/slat configurations correspond to position 1 on the FLAPS lever and how do they differ?
o CONF 1+F is used for takeoff and provides both slats (position 1) + flaps. o CONF 1 is used in‐flight and is slats only.
95
What happens to the ailerons when the flaps are extended?
The ailerons droop 5°
96
In flight, what happens if a spoiler fault is detected or electrical power is lost?
The spoiler automatically retracts.
97
How are the communications radios controlled?
From any one of the 3 RMPs
98
If the NAV key is selected on either RMP, can the FMGC still auto tune NAVAIDs?
No ‐ RMP now controls the VOR/ILS receivers. o Normal radio communication is still available
99
When hand flying the aircraft can we trim the rudder?
Yes, by using the RUDDER TRIM rotary switch
100
What 3 things occur when you turn the Manual Gear Extension Handle?
o Removes Green hydraulic pressure o Opens gear doors o Releases the uplocks
101
What does the rudder PEDAL DISC button on the steering hand wheel do?
Pressing the button removes control of nose wheel steering from the rudder pedals until released.
102
What would occur if the A/SKID & N/W STRG switch were selected to OFF?
Nose wheel steering is lost o Anti‐skid is deactivated o Yellow hydraulic system would supply the brakes
103
What protections do you have in Normal Law?
o High Speed o High Angle of Attack (AOA alpha protection) o Load Factor Limitation (+2.5 / ‐1.0) o Pitch Attitude (30° UP/15° DN) o Bank Angle (67°)
104
How does the High Speed Protection operate?
If VMO/MMO plus a predetermined factor is exceeded, the system induces a pitch up input to limit aircraft speed.
105
How does the High Speed Protection operate?
If VMO/MMO plus a predetermined factor is exceeded, the system induces a pitch up input to limit aircraft speed.
106
What is Alpha Max?
The maximum angle of attack allowed in Normal Law, indicated by the top of the red strip on the airspeed scale
107
How does High Angle of Attack Protection operate?
When the angle of attack exceeds α PROT, pitch trim ceases and angle of attack is now proportional to sidestick deflection, not to exceed α max even with full aft sidestick deflection.
108
What is Alpha Floor Protection?
o When the AOA exceeds a specific threshold (somewhere between Vα PROT and Vα MAX) the A/THR is automatically activated and commands TOGA thrust, regardless of TL position.
109
Alpha Floor Protection is a function of what system?
A/THR o Requires operative A/THR system to operate.
110
What happens to thrust and what annunciates on the FMA when you reach Alpha Floor?
Thrust – TOGA o FMA – A. FLOOR
111
What occurs during Alpha Floor Protection after speed increases above VLS?
FMA changes to TOGA LK
112
When is Alpha Floor Protection active?
From lift‐off through 100FT RA on approach.
113
Can you override the high or low stabilities in Alternate Law?
Yes
114
If you are in Alternate Law, what law would Roll be?
Direct Law
115
Can you stall the aircraft in Normal Law?
Not in Normal Law, but the aircraft can be stalled in all other laws
116
What PFD indications indicate Normal Law?
o Green = for pitch, bank, and overspeed limits o Amber/black (alpha PROT) airspeed tape
117
What is indicated if the PFD pitch and bank limits are amber Xs?
You are not in Normal Law
118
What would cause you to revert to alternate law?
o Multiple failures of redundant systems.
119
What law are you in when you perform the flight control check on the ground?
Normal Law, Ground Mode
120
Can the aircraft be flown with a loss of all flight control computers?
o Yes, with mechaniccal
121
Max altitude for APU to assist an engine start
20,000
122
Max altitude for a/c and pressurization single pack with APU
20,500
123
Max altitude for a/c and pressurization dual pack with APU
15,000
124
Summary of 20118
An exemption that allows for a conditional forecast at our destination to be not less than half the required visibility by adding a second alternate
125
20118 with marginal weather
Our destination and first alternate can have marginal weather 500' above DA/MDA and 1/2sm above required vis but we'll need a second alternate with weather above even with conditional
126
PMRLW
Planned Maximum runway landing weight
127
PLDW
Planned landing weight
128
C
Climb
129
B
Brakes
130
T
Tires
131
F
Field
132
A
Maximum AFM chart weight
133
ZD/ZT
Segment distance and time from previous point
134
CD/CT
Cumulative Distance/time
135
ACTF
Actual fuel at waypoint for crew
136
DR/TR
Distance Remaining/Time Remaining
137
PLNF
Planned Fuel
138
MINF
Minimum fuel remaining at waypoint
139
Max flap speeds
230,215,200,185,177
140
Limitation for AP use in OP DES/DES
The AP or FD in OP DES or DES mode can be used in approach, however, its use is only permitted if the FCU selected altitude is set to, or above the higher of the two: MDA/MDH or 500' AGL
141
Non Precision approach limitation (319 only)
If one engine is inoperative, it is not permitted to use the AP to perform NPA's in the following modes: FINAL APP, NAV V/S, NAV/FPA Only FD use is permitted
142
Icing Conditions
Top one completed already Icing conditions also exist when the OAT on the ground and for takeoff is at or below 10 degrees C and operating ramps, taxiways or runways where surface snow, standing water or slush may be ingested by the engines, or freeze on engines, nacelles or engine sensor probes
143
Repetitive maintenance (M) items:
a. Repetitive MEL items associated with a Maintenance (M) action require an M300 logbook entry documenting the accomplishment of the required procedure, check, or inspection at the prescribed interval b. The requirement for a repetitive MEL maintenance action will be denoted by an orange M352 logbook placard c. Crew Placardable (CP) Repetitive MEL Maintenance actions may be accomplished by the flight crew at the direction of the MOC. In these cases, the PIC will document the accomplishment of the repetitive maintenance action in M300 as directed by MOC
144
Repetitive Operations (O) Items
a. Repetitive MEL items associated with Operations (O) action do not require a M300 logbook entry b. MELs requiring Repetitive Operations (O) actions will utilize the standard yellow logbook placard
145
NonEssentiail Furnishing
Cat D 120 Days unless stated otherwise
146
15 degrees celsius
I have to do preflight inspection for contamination
147
6 degrees celsius
I have to initiate DAPM
148
Flaps for Type 1 and Type 4
Flaps down = type 1 Flaps up = type 4
149
Can you still takeoff if you exceed HOT
Yes, as long as you do a contamination check
150
Clean Aircraft Concept
1/8 inch or less cold soaked fuel frost on the underside of the wing direction beneath the fuel tank/cells is permissible for takeoff A thin layer of hoar frost is permissible as long as its clear and does not cover any vents or ports

a320 (1 decks)

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