Western Lab All Quizes Flashcards
(43 cards)
1
Q
- High Density lipoproteins (HDL)…
Select one:
A. are found mainly in animal and vegetable fats that are solid at room temperature.
B. deliver cholesterol to cells throughout the body.
C. return cholesterol to the liver, where it is converted into bile salts for elimination.
D. regulates the body’s production of cholesterol based on the amount of saturated fat that is consumed.
A
- c
2
Q
2. What lab value should be monitored in a patient with thrombophlebitis who is undergoing treatment with oral anticoagulant therapy with warfarin (Coumadin)? Select one: A. PTT/aPTT B. Hemoglobin (Hgb) C. platelet count D. Hematocrit (Hct) E. PT/INR
A
- E
Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is a blood test that looks at how long it takes for blood to clot. It can help tell if you have a bleeding problem or if your blood does not clot properly. Aka: aPTT Activated partial thromboplastin time
Prothrombin time (PT) is a blood test that measures the time it takes for the liquid portion (plasma) of your blood to clot. Formal name: Prothrombin Time and International Normalized Ratio
3
Q
- The physician orders blood coagulation tests to evaluate a patient’s blood-clotting ability. Which test is used to determine a patient’s response to heparin therapy?
Select one:
A. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT/aPTT)
B. Platelet count
C. Bleeding time (BT)
D. Prothrombin time (PT)
A
- a
Heparin is used to prevent blood clots from forming in people who have certain medical conditions or who are undergoing certain medical procedures that increase the chance that clots will form.
Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is a blood test that looks at how long it takes for blood to clot. It can help tell if you have a bleeding problem or if your blood does not clot properly. Aka: aPTT Activated partial thromboplastin time
4
Q
- A 23-year-old female aeronautical engineer complains of a rash on her ankles and shins, and easy bruising for 10 days. The rash is not itchy or painful. She denies recent contact with new soaps or detergents. The bruises occur on her arms and sides, unrelated to trauma.
On further questioning, she reports nosebleeds, gum bleeding with flossing, and an unusually heavy menses two weeks ago. On physical exam, she has no lymphadenopathy or hepatosplenomegaly. Her stool is Guaiac positive. This is a close up of her rash:
The physician ordered CBC, Peripheral blood smear and PT, aPTT. The results are as following:
CBC:
Patient; Normal
WBC (x 103/ml): 6.0; 4.3-10
Hemoglobin (gm/dl): 13.1; 12-16
Hematocrit (%): 39; 38-50
RBC (x 106/ml): 4.7; 4.2-5.4
MCV (fL): 86; 78-96 (Mean Cell Volume) average RBC
Platelet Count (x 103/ml): 3; 150-450
MPV (fl): 14; 7.2-11.1 (Mean Platelet Volume)
Peripheral Blood Smear: Remarkable for low count of platelets, slightly increased in size indicating quick turnover in bone marrow. MPV is the average volume of platelets and is measured in fL (femtoliters).
PT = 11.6 seconds (normal 10.4 - 12.8 seconds)
aPTT = 32 seconds (normal 24 - 34 seconds)
What is the likely diagnosis?
Select one:
A. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE-autoimmune disorder of connective tissue)
B. Hepatitis (inflammation of liver)
C. Aplastic anemia (anemia due to bone marrow failure)
D. Acute leukemia (malignant increase of white blood cells)
E. Autoimmune thrombocytopenia
A
- e
Thrombocytopenia is any disorder in which there is an abnormally low amount of platelets. Platelets are parts of the blood that help blood to clot. This condition is sometimes associated with abnormal bleeding.
5
Q
5. This cell fights against infection and is a/an: Select one: A. Neutrophil B. Monocyte C. Lymphocyte D. Eosinophil E. Basophil
A
- a
6
Q
6. A person with a hematocrit of 66 and hemoglobin of 22 is most likely to have the condition named: Select one: A. Polycythemia B. Anemia C. Infectious mononucleosis D. Leukemia
A
- a
Polycythemia: Abnormal increase in RBC count
Anemia: 10% or more decrease in RBC count
Infectious mononucleosis, or “mono”, is an infection usually caused by the Epstein-Barr virus. The virus spreads through saliva, which is why it’s sometimes called “kissing disease.” Mono occurs most often in teens and young adults.
Leukemia: Bone marrow is replaced by neoplastic tissue. Leukemia is cancer of the white blood cells. White blood cells help your body fight infection. Your blood cells form in your bone marrow. In leukemia, the bone marrow produces abnormal white blood cells. These cells crowd out the healthy blood cells, making it hard for blood to do its work (too many leucocytes accumulated in the body)
Hematocrit Hct: % of RBC in total volume of blood. Example: Normal 45%, Anemia 30%, Polycythemia 70%
Dehydration: plasma & Erythrocytes total is not full and; hematocrit is at 70% of 3/4 full test sample
7
Q
- A 50-year-old white female seeks medical attention for easy fatigability that developed during the last 2 months. She also feels mildly short of breath with exertion such as walking up a flight of stairs, but she has no chest pain with exertion or at rest. She gives no history of bright red blood per rectum or black, tarry stools (melena), but she has had heavy menstrual periods for about a year. Her past medical history is relevant for anemia following her second pregnancy 8 years ago. She is on no prescribed medications. Family history is noncontributory.
Relevant physical examination was remarkable for pale conjunctiva. Rectal examination revealed no masses and heme negative brown stool was present.
Interpret her labs and select the right answer:
CBC; Patient Result; Normal Range
WBC: 8.2 X 103/μL; (4.8-10.8 X 103/μL)
Hgb: 8.0 g/dL; (12-15.6 g/dL)
Hct: 24%; (35-46%)
RBC: 4.0 X 106/μL; (3.8-5 X 106/μL)
MCV: 60 fL; (80-96.1 fL) Mean corpuscular volume
MCH: 20 pg; (27.5-33.2 pg) Mean corpuscular hemoglobin
MCHC: 33 g/L; (33.4-35.5 g/L) Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration
RDW: 16.5; (11.5-14.5) Red cell distribution width
Platelets: 500,000/μL; (150-400,000/μL)
Reticulocyte count: 3%; (0.5-1.7%). Reticulocytes are slightly immature red blood cells.
A. Hemolytic anemia (short life span of RBCs)
B. Megaloblastic anemia (RBCs are large)
C. The platelet count is suggestive of a myeloproliferative disorder (overactive bone marrow).
D. Hypochromic, microcytic anemia with anisocytosis.
A
- d
Decrease in MCHC is known as hypochromic (think “less color” because of less hemoglobin) anemia. This is seen in iron-deficiency anemia and thalassemia.
Thalassemia: inherited blood disorders. If you have one, your body makes fewer healthy red blood cells and less hemoglobin. Hemoglobin is a protein that carries oxygen to the body. That leads to anemia. Thalassemias occur most often among people of Italian, Greek, Middle Eastern, Southern Asian, and African descent.
8
Q
A hematocrit value is normally about \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ the value of the hemoglobin. Select one: A. Three times B. One-third C. 700 times D. The same
A
- a
Hematocrit is the % of RBC in total volume of blood. Male 42-52%, Female 37-47%
Test tube is composed of (Plasma, leukocytes, platelets, erythrocytes). 45% (plasma), 55% (erythrocytes 44%, leukocytes, platelets 1%)
9
Q
9. Analysis of the arterial blood gave the following analysis: Pco216 mm of Hg (N=35-45 mm of Hg), HCO3 5mEq/L (N= 21-28 mEq/L) and pH of 7.1. What is the basic underlying acid-base disorder?Select one: A. Respiratory acidosis B. Respiratory alkalosis C. Metabolic alkalosis D. Metabolic acidosis
A
- D
10
Q
<p>2. Estrogen/progesterone assays were done in a female patient with precious pregnancy. A declining level of above hormones was observed. This indicates:Select one: A. Failing pregnancy B. Menopause C. Normal pregnancy D. Ovarian tumor </p>
A
- A
11
Q
- A 54-year-old executive reported with vague complaints of fatigue, loss of appetite and some pain towards the right side of the abdomen. Physical examination revealed borderline enlargement of liver and important lab findings were:Serum AST 320 units/L (N=0-35 units/L)Serum ALT 120 units/L (N=0-40 units/L)Serum ALP 78 units/L (N= 30-140 units/L)Total bilirubin 23µmol/L (N=0-24 µmol/L)CBC and urinalysis were normal.Interpret the above findings:Select one:
A. Hepatocellular damage
B. Prehepatic jaundice Bilirubin levels are near the upper border of normal range so hemolytic or prehepatic jaundice is ruled out.
C. Bilirary obstruction
A
- A
12
Q
- Male aged 28 years. His semen analysis report:Volume 2-5 mLLiquefaction time: 30 minutes after collection. pH: 8.00Sperm count or density: 26 million/LSperm motility: 12% excellent at 1 hour, 60% immotile, 15% sluggishSperm morphology: 5% normally shaped.Select one:
A. All other features of his semen analysis are within normal limits.
B. A satisfactory number of sperms have normal shape. C. It is unlikely for this man to make his partner pregnant.
D. Sperm count is normal. Sperm motility is acceptable.
A
- C
13
Q
13. All professionals entering healthcare profession in Alberta are subjected to Mantoux/tuberculin skin test. A negative test is indicated by a wheal size:Select one: A. None of the above applies. B. less than 5 mm wheal C. greater than 10 mm wheal D. less than 15 mm wheal
A
- B
14
Q
- Patient A is 19 years of age who presents to her physician’s office with mild jaundice. The patient reports being in good health until a week before, at which time she began having “flu” symptoms of headache, low-grade fever, nausea, loss of appetite, and malaise. She self-treated the fever with Tylenol. The symptoms persisted. Upon awakening this morning, she noticed that her sclera were icteric. She therefore contacted her physician’s office. In response to her physician’s questions, she indicated that her urine has been darker than usual.Other significant history includes that she was immunized against hepatitis B at 12 years of age and she recently visited Central America. Patient A returned to Canada 5 weeks ago. Results of laboratory tests are indicated in the following table:Test; Patient’s Results; Normal Value or RangeHematocrit (Hct); 40%; 37% to 47%Hemoglobin (Hgb); 13.3 mg/dL; 12.0–16.0 mg/dLWhite blood cell count; 6200 cell/microliter; 4300–10,800 cells/microliterAspartate aminotransferase (AST); 323 Units/L; 0-35 Units/LAlanine aminotransferase (ALT); 358 Units/L; 1-40 Units/LTotal bilirubin; 72 µmol/L; 0-24 µmol/LHBsAg; Negative; NegativeHBsAb; Positive; Positive indicates previous disease or immunization; negative indicates no exposureAnti-HAV IgM; Positive; NegativeAnti-HCV antibody; Negative; NegativeAlkaline phosphatase (ALP); 85 Units/mL; 30-140 Units/mLProthrombin time (PT); 11.6 seconds; Control 10.4 seconds (normal is ±2.0 seconds from control)Albumin; 3.8 mg/dL; 3.5–5.5 mg/dLGlucose; 84 mg/dL; 70–110 mg/dLSodium; 142 mEq/L; 135–150 mEq/LChloride; 102 mEq/L; 100–108 mEq/LPotassium; 3.8 mEq/L; 3.6–4.8 mEq/LSelect one:
A. Acute hepatitis C infection.
B. Previous exposure or immunity to hepatitis A virus. A previous exposure or immunity is indicated by presence ofHAV-Ab/IgG.
C. Acute hepatitis B infection
D. Acute viral hepatitis A infection
A
- D
15
Q
- A quantitative hCG test(beta hCG) measures the exact amount of hCG in your blood. Along with ultrasound it is invaluable in the diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy.Select one:
True
False
A
- True
16
Q
- In prehepatic jaundice urobilinogen is detected in urine.Select one:
True
False
A
- True
17
Q
- Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is measured in blood of men to rule out prostate cancer and monitor the disease after treatment.Select one:True False
A
- True
18
Q
- What is the most common type of diabetes mellitus?Select one:
A. Type 2
B. Gestational diabetes
C. Type 1
A
- a
19
Q
19. Epstein-Barr virus titre is done to establish diagnosis of:Select one: A. AIDS B. Gout C. Infectious mononucleosis D. Multiple myeloma
A
- c
20
Q
20. Labs for a 59-year-old women reported TSH level of 22 mIU/L (Ref range 0.6 - 6.0 mIU/L). What type of thyroid disorder is likely?Select one: A. Euthyroid B. Hypothyroid C. Hyperthyroid D. None of the above.
A
- b
21
Q
- H. pylori is implicated in many serious disorder like peptic ulcer disease, gastritis and gastric carcinoma. Its presence in the mucosa of the stomach can be confirmed by:Select one:
A. Urea breath test (UBT)
B. Assay of antibodies against H. pylori
C. Both of the above tests
D. None of the above
A
- c
22
Q
22. HIV antibodies are detected in the serum of the patient by which lab tests?Select one: A. Western blot test B. ELISA C. Both ELISA and Western blot D. None of the above
A
- c
23
Q
23. What is the best overall index of renal function?Select one: A. BUN B. Creatinine clearance C. Serum creatinine D. Osmolality
A
- b
24
Q
24. What promotes water retention in the body? Select one: A. Albumin B. Sodium C. Calcium D. Potassium
A
- b
25
25. A patient being treated for hypokalemia is receiving education on food sources of potassium. He understands the food sources better if it is stated that food lowest in potassium is: Select one:
A. Carrots
B. Avocados
C. Spinach D. Apples
25. d
26
26. A patient has steadily rising levels of CEA. It is also detected in his peritoneal fluid. It is most likely that patient has: Select one:
A. Pancreatic cancer with metastases
B. Colorectal cancer with metastases to peritoneum.
C. Hepatobiliary cancer
26. b
27
```
27. pH normal range in the urine is:Select one:
A. 4.1 - 6.0
B. 7.3 - 8.6
C. 4.6 - 8.0 (avg 6.0)
D. 8.0-8.5
```
27. c
28
```
28. An 18-year-old teen decided to go on Atkins diet. After 1 week of starving herself, what substance would most likely be found in her urine?Select one:
A. Ketones
B. Proteins
C. Glucose
D. Blood
```
28. a
29
```
29. Which of the following casts indicate proteins being leaked into urine by glomeruli? Select one:
A. Hyaline casts
B. Epithelial casts
C. RBC casts
D. Waxy casts
```
29. a
30
30. Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease. Select one:
True
False
30. True
31
31. A urine sample in an undiagnosed diabetic may show glucose and ketones. Select one:
True
False
31. True
32
32. Gout is a type of arthritis characterized by elevated levels of uric acid in blood (hyperuricemia). Select one:
True
False
32. True
33
33. In patients suffering from multiple myeloma, Bence-Jones protein is found in the serum:Select one:
True
False
33. False
34
34. Serum sodium concentration varies from 135-145 mmol/L. Most of the sodium is located in the intracellular compartment. Select one:
True
False
34. False
35
35. CA 19-9 is a tumor marker to establish diagnosis of pancreatic cancer. Select one:
True
False
35. False
36
36.
Process of visualization of uterine cavity Answer 1 Process of visualization of anus and rectum Answer 2 Process of visualization of large intestine Answer 3 Process of visualization of a joint cavity Answer 4
Process of visualization of abdominal cavity Answer 5
36.
Answer 1: Hysteroscopy
Answer 2: Proctoscopy
Answer 3: Colonoscopy
Answer 4: Arthroscopy
Answer 5: Laparoscopy
The correct answer is:
Process of visualization of uterine cavity: hysteroscopy,
Process of visualization of anus n rectum: proctoscopy
Process of visualization of large intestine: colonoscopy, Process of visualization of a joint cavity – arthroscopy, Process of visualiza'n of abdominal cavity: laparoscopy
37
```
37. Placement of a percutaneous gastrostomy tube (a tube used for tube feeding into the stomach) is carried out with the following procedure: Select one:
A. EGD
B. ERCP
C. colonoscopy
D. proctoscopy
E. none of the above
```
37. A
38
38. The most common complication after ERCP are all of the following EXCEPT: Select one:
A. Perforation of the esophagus, stomach or duodenum
B. Cholecystitis (inflammation of the gallbladder)
C. Gram-negative sepsis
D. Pancreatitis
E. Aspiration of gastric contents into the lungs
38. B
39
```
39. ______ is a bladder infection.Select one:
A. pyelonephritis
B. prostatitis
C. urethritis
D. cystitis
```
39. D
40
```
40. Profuse, frothy vaginal discharge with a foul odor and strawberry cervix on speculum examination is characteristic of:Select one:
A. Trichomoniasis
B. Gonorrhea
C. Chlamydia
D. Syphilis
E. None of the above
```
40. A
41
```
41. The most reliable and rapid method of diagnosis of TB:Select one:
A. AFB smear
B. BACTEC
C. PCR
D. Conventional C and S
```
41. B
42
```
42. Microbiology includes which of the following groups of microorganisms?Select one:
A. bacteria
B. fungi
C. viruses
D. protozoa
E. all of the above
```
42. E
43
43. Chickenpox, measles, and common cold are examples of self-limiting diseases:Select one:
True
False
43. True
