Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Systems Pathology II Final > White Blood Cell Disorders 2 > Flashcards

White Blood Cell Disorders 2 Flashcards

(94 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What is the most common plasma cell cancer?

A

Multiply Myeloma (MM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What age group is more commonly affected by multiple myeloma?

A

Older adults (average diagnosis at 70 years)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What gender and race are more likely to have multiple myeloma?

A

Males of African descent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the 3 overall features of MM?

A

1 osteolytic lesions
2 neurological issues
3 renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What WBC condition presents with osteolytic “punched-out” lesions?

A

Multiple myeloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The osteolytic lesions associated with MM lead to elevated serum levels of which mineral?

A

Calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What neurological symptoms can be caused by multiple myeloma?

A

Headache, dizziness, tinnitus, confusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Detection of Bence-Jones proteins may be indicative of what condition?

A

Multiple myeloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How is MM diagnosed?

A

Multifocal lytic lesions, Bence-Jones proteins in urine, M-spike on protein electrophoresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What procedure confirms a MM diagnosis?

A

Marrow biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the prognosis for MM?

A

Poor: average survival = 4-6 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the treatment for MM?

A

Plasmapheresis and stem cell transplants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the most common site of an osteolytic lesions associated with multiple myeloma?

A

Vertebral column at 66% (can also be in ribs, skull, pelvis, femur, clavicle, or scapula)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

TINY “punched-out” bony lesions of the cranium can be indicative of what condition but possibly confused with MM?

A

Hyperparathyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the hallmark microscopic feature of Hodgkin lymphoma?

A

Reed-Sternberg cells (large cell with owl-eye nuclear appearance)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In what way is the lymphadenopathy of Hodgkin lymphoma similar to follicular lymphoma? How is it different?

A

Both are painless, but Hodgkin lymphoma presents with a single and isolated node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the symptoms of Hodgkin lymphoma?

A

Fever, night sweats, anemia, cachexia, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the risk factors for Hodgkin lymphoma?

A 
Males ages 15-40 and over 55
Family history
History of EBV infection (70%)
Exposure to Agent Orange pesticide
Immunosuppression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

If Reed-Sternberg cells are seen under microscopy, what condition can be assumed?

A

Hodgkin lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the prognosis for Hodgkin lymphoma?

A

Favorable with chemotherapy and radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Radiation of Hodgkin lymphoma increased the risk of what types of secondary cancers?

A

Lung, melanoma, breast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Myeloid neoplasms most commonly affect what age group?

A

Adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Myeloid neoplasms arise from transformed myeloblast which are what types of cells?

A

Neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, erythrocytes, platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the three categories of myeloid neoplasms?

A

1 acute myelogenous leukemia (AML)
2 myelodysplastic syndromes
3 chronic myeloproliferative disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the average age of diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia?
50
26
What is displaced by immature myeloblasts during acute myeloid leukemia?
Marrow
27
What important process is suppressed with acute myeloid leukemia?
Hematopoiesis
28
Acute myeloid leukemia may resemble which other condition?
Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
29
Auer rods upon microscopy are associated with what condition?
Acute myeloid leukemia
30
What is a major feature of AML?
Pancytopenia
31
What is the prognosis for AML and what makes it worse?
Poor: 15-30% long term survival; worse with history of myelodysplastic syndromes
32
What conditions were previously known as "pre-leukemias"?
Myelodysplastic syndromes
33
What is the most common age range of diagnosis for myelodysplastic syndromes?
50-70 years
34
What happens with myelodysplstic syndromes?
Marrow fills with myeloblasts and the ability to differentiate cells is disordered
35
Why were myelodysplastic syndromes previously known as pre-leukemia?
40% of MDS will transform into AML
36
Megaloblasts (hypercellular marrow) seen in what condition will resemble megaloblastic anemia?
Myelodysplastic syndromes
37
What are risk factors for MDS?
Chemotherapy, irradiation, monosomy and trisomy
38
What is the prognosis for MDS?
Poor: median of 1-2 years and poor response to treatment of chemo and blood transfusions
39
What are the categories of chronic myeloproliferative disorders?
1 chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) 2 polycythemia vera 3 primary myelofibrosis
40
In what kind of myeloid conditions is the ability to differentiate myeloid stem cells retained but the ratios become disproportionate?
Chronic myeloproliferative disorders
41
What is the age range for chronic myelogenous leukemia?
25-60 years old
42
Which specific cells are involved with the leukocytosis of chronic myelogenous leukemia?
Granulocytes and platelets
43
Extreme splenomegaly is associated with which myeloid condition?
Chronic myelogenous leukemia
44
Philadelphia (Ph) chromosome is associated with which condition in 95% of cases?
Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)
45
What is the medication for chronic myelogenous leukemia?
Tyrosine kinase inhibitors
46
What is the accelerated phase of CML called that 50% of all cases reach?
"Spent phase" or "blast crisis"
47
What is the result of the Philadelphia chromosome?
Decreased myeloblast dependence on GFs
48
The red pulp of the spleen presents as a more beefy and massive appearance in which condition?
CML
49
What mutation is associated with polycythemia vera?
Point mutations: JAK2 - downstream signal of EPO
50
What is the average age of diagnosis of PCV?
60 years (older adults)
51
How is PCV diagnosed?
Polycythemia and decreased erythropoietin
52
What is the major concern with PCV?
Blood viscosity due to increase of whole blood volume
53
What organs are involved with the multiple organ congestion of PCV that can lead to infarction?
Heart, spleen, kidneys
54
What is the prognosis for PCV with and without treatment?
``` With = 10-20 years post diagnosis Without = 3 years ```
55
What condition presents as diffuse marrow fibrosis?
Primary myelofibrosis
56
What organ primary enlarges with primary myelofibrosis?
Spleen (infarctions are common)
57
What is the appearance of the RBCs in the peripheral blood with primary myelofibrosis?
Dacrocytes
58
What are histiocytes?
Macrophages or dendritic cells
59
What are the dendritic cells of the skin/mucosa?
Langerhans cells
60
Birbeck granules making organelles look like "tennis-rackets" are associated with what condition?
Histolytic neoplasms
61
What is the location for unisystem Langerhans cell histiocytosis?
Calvary, ribs, femur
62
All forms of unisystem Langerhans cell histiocytosis are associated with what protein abnormality and issue?
Abnormal Ras and increased signal transduction
63
Multisystem Langerhans cell histiocytosis is more common among what gender, age group, and race?
Males, children under 2 years, and Caucasians
64
What are the signs of Langerhans cell histiocytosis?
Fever, multifocal skin lesions
65
What is the prognosis of Langerhans cell histiocytosis?
Without treatment, fatal | With chemo, 5 years survival (50%)
66
What are signs of bleeding disorders?
Petechiae, ecchymosis
67
What is the stimulus for disseminated intravascular coagulation?
Widespread injury (examples = MVA, crush injuries)
68
What kinds of conditions can cause endothelial injury that could progress into DIC?
Sepsis, SLE, heat stroke, cancer, birth
69
Thrombocytopenia is common amount what kind of patients?
HIV/AIDS
70
What is purpura?
Red/purple skin discolorations
71
What causes immune thrombocytopenic purpura?
IgG antibodies attack platelets
72
Which form of immune thrombocytopenic purpura affects children? Females 20-40 years of age?
Children = acute ITP | Females 20-40 years of age = Chronic
73
What are signs of chronic immune thrombocytopenic purpura?
Petechiae, epistaxis, gum bleeding, easy bruising
74
What is the treatment for immune thrombocytopenic purpura that leads to 65% remission?
Splenctomy
75
What is the inheritance pattern for von Willebrand Disease?
Autosomal dominant
76
What is the result of decreased von Willebrand factor?
Dysfunctional platelet adherence to vessel wall
77
What is the most common inherited bleeding disorder?
Von Willebrand Disease (1% of the population)
78
Von Willebrand Disease mimics what condition?
Thrombocytopenia
79
What is the treatment for von Willebrand Disease?
Transfusions or medication to increase vWF (also avoid blood thinners like aspirin and Coumadin)
80
What is the inheritance pattern for hemophilia A?
X-linked recessive
81
What gender is most likely to have hemophilia A?
Males
82
Which coagulation factor is mutated with hemophilia A? B?
Hemophilia A = VIII | Hemophilia B = IX
83
Which is more common: hemophilia A or B?
Hemophilia A
84
What condition is also known as Christmas disease?
Hemophilia B
85
Which affects soft tissues and joints: hemophilia A or B?
A
86
Which blood disorder has the unique feature of absent petechiae?
Hemophilia A
87
What is the treatment for hemophilia A and B?
Infusion of corresponding coagulation factor
88
What is the inheritance pattern for hemophilia B?
X-linked (males more affected)
89
What is unique about the symptomalogy of hemophilia A and B?
Clinically identical
90
Thymic hyperplasia is seen in what conditions?
Myasthenia gravis, SLE, RA
91
What is an early treatment option for thyme hyperplasia?
Thymectomy
92
What causes thymic hyperplasia?
Reactive B cells in thymus
93
A thymoma most commonly affects what populations?
Adults or myasthenia gravis patients
94
What are the risk factors for developing a thymoma?
Asian or EBV infection

Systems Pathology II Final (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions