Wills Flashcards

1
Q

Discretionary Trust

A
  • Not included in either:
  • Taxable estate
  • Succession estate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Life interest trusts

A

Date to remember: 22 March 2006

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Spouse Rule to inherit

A

28 Day Survivorship rule; the Spouse needs to outlive the deceased spouse by 28 days for her to inherit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Spouse’s appropriation of the hot in full/ partial satisfaction of statutory entitlement

A

Election must:
- Within 12 m of the date grant was issued
- in writing
home is valued at the date of appropriation not the date of death.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Testamentary Capacity is presumed where

A

Will is rational + duly executed (in accordance w formalities of WA s 9)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Testamentary Capacity

A
  • understand the nature of the act of making a will and its effects
  • At the time of execution (But Parker v Felgate)

1) Nature of act + effects
2) Extend of property disposing of
3) moral claims
4) no disorder of the mind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Felgate 3 requirements

A

1) Instructions to the will was given when the T had capacity
2) The will was prepared in accordance with those instructions
3) at the time of execution the T understood they were signing a will they previously gave instruction to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Golden Rule (= best practice merely)

A

if client giving instructions is elderly or seriously ill: best to have a medical practitioner conduct a assessment of their mental state + provide a contemporaneous assessment record of assessment and conclusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Challenging the validity of the will

A

HARD; the Banks test is LOW threshold; even if sm needs help doing everyday tasks may still be held to have TC to execute a will;

  • The person challenging; must Show sufficient evidence to raise doubt (that the will is valid)
  • then burden shifts on the propounder of the will to demonstrate that the test is satisfied (this is where the contemporaneous assessment by a medical repartition er would be useful)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Duress/ UI

A
  • High Threshold to be met
  • Fairness is irrelevant ( what matters is whether T was acting as a ‘free agent’
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Unclear or ambiguous provisions

A

Court rules on construction:
- overriding principle is to give effect to T’s intention
- Extrinsic evidence may be submitted if…
1) Wills or any part of it is meaningless
2) Ambiguity in light of surrounding circumstances/ on its face.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Commorientes rule

A

Statutory presumption that the eldest died first (not abt hit)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What if the order of death is uncertain?

A

Include an EXPRESS SURVIVORSHIP CLAUSE;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Class Gift - when does the class close?

A

Best practice - to include an express classs closing provision to avoid administrative costs + also if T wants more than 1 B to inherit under the class gift clause;

Gift made to a group of people that comply with a general description;
A class gift can either be:
- Contingent: The Class closes when a B FIRST BECOMES ENTITLED TO POSSESSION OF THE GIFT
- No contingency: The Class closes when the T DIES + If there is at least 1 Beneficiary who satisfies THE DESCRIPTION under the class closing provision.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Vested vs Contingent gift

A

Vested: NO Condition to satisfy; Absolute gift, Outright made - only thing B needs to do is survive the T (maybe express survivorship clause to avoid confusion)

Contingent: if B NOT satisfy the condition before their death - the gift deems –> substitution clause?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Substitution gift clauses

A

Careful in how they are drafted;
- Not: “to my 3 nephews”
- but to “to such of my 3 nephews as survive me and if more than 1 in equal shares”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When are manuscript alterations appropriate

A

When:
- need to be made urgently (insufficient time to prepare a codicil/ new will)
- Amendments have no impact on the will’s interpretation/ meaning (eg to correct typos/ spelling mistakes, to change B’s address)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Generally: Manuscript alterations or new will?

A

NEW WILL unless 2 conditions *no time, not affect meaning of the will (interpretation).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Solution if Unattested alteration + presumption that is was made after execution

A

1) Re-execute the will
2) Execute a codicil that affirms the ill

Both - Must make express reference to the manuscript amendments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Obliterations

A

2 ingredients:
1) Not apparent
2) Not deciphered by natural means

–> Treated as having been made w INTENTION TO REVOKE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

when are obliterations NOT EFFECTIVE?

A

1) made by 3P
2) made by T w/o intention to revoke
3) conditional revocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Effects and uses of codicils

A

1) Republishes a will (affects construction)
2) Revives a will (but not if og will was destroyed)
3) Correcting problems (ie. s15 WA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Tc, K&A, s9 WA - mainly testamentary capacity

A
  • Will
  • alterations
  • Codicil
  • Amendments and revocations (destroy, damage)
24
Q

Revocation by later codicil

A

Note that revocation of a will by destruction DOES NOT necessarily revoke any codicils to it.

25
Valid will and Valid codicil are to be read together
A codicil should contain an express clause confirming/ revoking the previous will; If not --> The will is going to be given effect to to extent possible and will be revoked to the extent that the later codicil is inconsistent with it.
26
what if physical act of destruction is done by 3P?
- Ineffective UNELSS done at T's direction + at T's presence.
27
Letters of wishes
- Not form part of the will - Not binding - Mere guidance on PRs/ Trustees.
28
Incorporation of documents
1) Document must be clearly identified in the will 2) Document must exist when the will is executed 3) Will must clearly refer to the document as being in existence at the time the will is executed.
29
Mutual vs Mirror wills
Mutual: Need consent of the other to amend In attempt to revoke will w/o other's. consent - Equity may: - Impose Constructive trust - limit the effect of any new will Mirror: NO constructive trust/ Survivors free to revoke their will.
30
Appointment of executors
Qualified appointment is possible as to; TIme Assets Type of assets Location
31
K&A
The T must intend to give effect to the particular will; have read the contents of the will and understand the choices they have made
32
A presumption of TC ... VS presumption raised by Attestation clause
When the will is rational + Validly executed That the will has been executed in accordance with the requirements of s9 WA
33
Presumptions
Will is missing: T presumed to have destroyed the will with intention to revoke Will is damaged: T premised to have carried out the act of damage with intention to revoke UNLESS; Those administering the estate show that: - The act of damage was carried out by someone other than T - The act of damage/ destruction took place after the death - the T had no intention to revoke the will
34
To make a will 'in contemplation of marriage'
Must include: - Name of future spouse - Identify the marriage ceremony - Set out express clause stating that not T's intention that this will be revoked after specific marraiage.
35
Divorce (focus on the when?)
Treats the divorced spouse as having predeceased the T at the date of the divorce order (sort of partial revocation)
36
Step 1 in assessing claims for IPFDA (Step 2: assessing what award the court should make)
Did D fail to make reasonable financial provision for A (either via will or intestacy)? 2 standards - Objective + based on statutory criteria: For spouse: Such provision as would be reasonable - regardless of whether that provision is required for maintenance For others: Such provision as would be reasonable FOR the applicant to receive for maintenance.
37
Statutory grounds for Spouse/ Cohabitee;
1) Age of Spouse/ Cohabitee + Duration of marriage/ cohabitation (min 2 years immediately before death) 2) Contribution made by A to the welfare of D's family; take care of home/ family
38
Statutory grounds for Not A's Child/ Other A: (2 Additional for child)
SS1) Basis, Time, Extend of contribution by D to A 2) Extent to which D had assumed responsibility for A's maintenance + additional for child: - Extent to which D knew A was not their child - Liability of oany other person to amintain A
39
Statutory Grounds for Child
- Way A might expect to be educated/ trained.
40
IPFDA claim
Must be made within 6 months of the DATE OF THE GRANT
41
Variation
Each asset may only be varried once
42
Precatory trusts
Not a formal trust; Where D passes on property to Beneficiary + expresses how wishes B pass those assets on to others; - Bcs not formal trust; B not have to do that - he can keep the assets Why this a thing? bcs IHT advantage (only; ie. no CGT advantage) --> IHT advantage; Original Beneficiary if makes distribution as per wishes of D within 2 years of D's death NOT taxed as making PET - As if the gifts were made by the D directly by D's will. But Distributions are treated as chargeable disposals made by OG Beneficiary.
43
Variation vs Disclaimer;
3 points; - When make? - Regarding what? - Towards whom? - Variation: Even after accepting the inheritance/ whole or part of the inheritance/ can chose the destination. Disclaimer: Only before accepting inheritance/ only whole of the inheritance/ cannot Chose the designation - either acc to will or intestacy.
44
Do PRs need to approve the variation?
No they dont need to approve - but they will need to sign the deed of variation if it alters the IHT payable; and then they have to provide a copy of it to the HMRC and also pay the hit (can only refuse to sing if there aren't enough funds to pay the IHT)
45
Conditions for variation
1) Must be made by OG beneficiary + in writing (not a need necessarily but usually) 2) Must be made within 2 years of the Date of Death 3) Must state that IHTA and CGTA apply 4) Must not be made for consideration of money or money's worth (each asset may only be varied once)
46
How does the court determine what award to make to A under IPFDA?
Request a schedule of that A's Assets& liabilities.
47
Best practice if client wants to incorporate unexecuted document
Instead of referring to it (incorporation by reference) --> best to make it part of the will by - bcs usually will be lists of assets - including the will in the will in the form of a schedule.
48
What happens in the absence of an express revocation clause
The former will is given effect to the the extent it is possible and only revoked to extent it is inconsistent with the later will/ codicil
49
Republishing of a will
As if the will executed at the Date of Execution of the Codicil.
50
Attested alterations
An alteration post execution needs to be attested to be valid (otherwise is unenforceable and invalid); Solutins to if unattested alteration; - Re-execute the will - Execute a codicil after it to affirm the will Both cases - make EXPRESS REFFERENCE to the manuscript amendments
51
Distinguish Amendments (and revocations) vs Alterations
One is abt burning, tearing, otherwise destroying the will and revoking it (if intent is also present) The other is abt alterations ie. Strike out, obliterations etc.
52
Note BE SPECIFIC when saying that obliterations are valid:
What obliterations - The ones with INTENT TO REVOKE - not the ones made by 3P - not the ones made w/o intent to revoke (ie. conditional revocation on the new gift taking effect)
53
General Rule
Amendments after execution are invalid and unenforceable Amendments before execution are valid and enforceable AS LONG AS T also has TC + K&A Rebbutable presumption: Alterations were made after execution: But there are 2 points to this: 1) the presumption can be rebutted by an Affidavit of plight and condition (W testifying as to the condition of the will before and after execution what is the difference there) 2) The exceptions to this rule; Blank spaces fill out, Re-execution, obliterations, Attested alterations.
54
Obliteration
- Not apparent - Not decipher w natural means
55
K&A presumed when
- T has TC - and the will was Duly executed
56
TC presumed when
- Will is rational - Duly executed
57
Attestation clause
Can raise a presumption of due execution in accordance w s9 WA.