Wings Flashcards
(147 cards)
1
Q
When can you operate SVFR, restrictions?
A
- Authorised by ATC
- only by day (or by NVG in military CTR/CTA)
- clear of cloud
- vis > 800m
- speed at which PIC can see obstructions and traffic
2
Q
VMC for a,b,c,e,g below 10,000
A
Vis: 5000m
Horizontal dist: 1500m
Vertical dist: 1000ft
3
Q
Vmc criteria D class
A
Vis: 5000m
Horizontal dist: 600m
Vertical dist: 1000ft above 500ft below
4
Q
Vmc criteria g class below 3000ft amsl or 1000ft agl whichever be higher
A
Vis: 5000m
Clear of cloud
ACFT Must be operated in sight of ground/water
5
Q
Vmc criteria g class below 700ft, requirements
A
Vis: 800m
Clear of cloud
Requirements:
- By day or NVG
- at a speed allowing pilot to see obstructions and other traffic
- if less than 10nm from an AD with an IAP, flight separation of at least 500ft vertical separation from aircraft that are within 10nm from AD, and IFR ACFT
6
Q
VMC Criteria: Class G below 700ft over water WITHOUT track guidance from nav system
A
Vis: 5000m
Cloud sep: 600m horiz, 500ft vert
Op Reqs:
- By day or NVIS
- Speed at which PIC can see obstructions and traffic and avoid
- If not more than 10NM, from AD with IAP, operate in a way that allows 500ft vert sep from another aircraft that is less than 10NM from AD and IFR.
7
Q
Cruising levels
A
WEEO
West = Even
East = Odd
IFR:
- East: odd 1000 ft (eg 3000, 7000)
- West: even 1000 ft (eg 4000, 8000)
VFR:
- East: odd 1000ft + 500ft (eg 3500, 5500)
- West: even 1000ft + 500ft (eg 2500, 6500)
8
Q
Holding Fuel/ Times for INTER and TEMPO
A
Inter:
30 min | 85 KG
Tempo
60 min | 170 KG
9
Q
ALT Min RAN Aircraft: DAY VFR
A
Nil
10
Q
ALT Min: DAY VFR other than class G
A
Cloud base: Greater than SCT below 1500ft
Vis: 8000m
11
Q
ALT Min: DAY VFR class G
A
Cloud base: Greater than SCT below 1000ft
Vis: 3000m
12
Q
ALT Min: Night VFR
A
Cloud base: 1500ft
Vis: 8000m
Lighting: qualified person at the AD to attend the LDG period (30 min before ETA to AC ls completion of LDG and taxi) snd manually switching on the lighting in the event of failure
If the AC has dual VHF/carries 30 min holding fuel - no req for qualified pers
13
Q
Sources of Acc QNH
A
AAIS
ATC
ATIS
AWIS
CA/GRS
WATIR
14
Q
When must you report loss of RAIM or GNSS integrity
A
- During an en route phase of flight – loss for more than 5 min
- During a terminal phase of flight – loss of integrity
- ATS requests the provision of GNSS derived information – RAIM or GNSS integrity is not available
- ATC grants a clearance or imposes a requirement based on GNSS-derived information - RAIM or GNSS integrity is not available
- The GNSS receiver is in dead-reckoning mode, or experiences loss of its navigational function, for more than 1 minute
15
Q
Radio communication system becomes inoperative in VFR in Class G or E airspace, the pilot in must:
A
- Select code 7600 on the aircraft transponder
- Remain outside controlled airspace
- Assume the radio communication system is broadcasting and broadcast position and intentions on the frequent appropriate to the area of operation ‘in the blind’
- As soon as practicable, descend below 5000ft to continue flight under VFR
16
Q
Radio communication system becomes inoperative in VFR in Class A,B,C or D airspace or IFR in any airspace, the pilot must
A
- Select code 7600 on transponder
- Continue broadcasting position and intentions
- If certain of remaining VMC, remain in VMC and land at most suitable aerodrome
- IF the aircraft is in IMC or uncertain of maintaining VMC
- Maintain the last assigned altitude or level (or LSALT if higher) for 3 minutes
- Maintain the last assigned vector for 2 min, or fly one more holding pattern
- After above 2, proceed in accordance with latest ATC route clearance acknowledged
- Commence descent in accordance with latest ATC route clearance
- Conduct the most suitable IAP
17
Q
Separation from populous areas and public gatherings
A
- 1000ft above the highest feature or obstacle within a radius of 300m of the point on the ground or water immediately below the aircraft
18
Q
When navigating by Visual reference to the ground or water the PIC must at intervals of no more than 30 minutes
A
- Positively fix the aircrafts position by visual reference to features
marked on topographical charts - If over sea, features may include rocks, reefs and fixed human-made
objects that are:
• Marked on topographical charts appropriate to the flight
• Readily identifiable from the land
19
Q
How long is QNH accurate
for after receiving it
A
15 mins
20
Q
For an IAP, using the
forecasted area QNH you
must do what to the minima
A
Add 50ft to the minima, unless the AD does not receive a regular TAF
service, in which case the 50’ is added to the approach plate by
default
21
Q
IAP speeds for Cat H aircraft
A
- Range of speeds Initial and intermediate approach: 70-120kts
- range of speeds for final approach: 60-90kts
- Max speed for visual manoeuvring: none
- Max speed for missed approach: 90kts
22
Q
IAP speeds for Cat A aircraft
A
- Range of speeds Initial and intermediate approach: 90-150kts
- range of speeds for final approach: 70-100kts
- Max speed for visual manoeuvring: 100kts
- Max speed for missed approach: 110kts
23
Q
IFR Take of minima
A
- A cloud ceiling not lower than the height at which the greater of the following can be achieved:
• Vy or Vmin IMC
• Obstacle clearance can be maintained until reaching LSALT (OEI) and the
aircrafts endurance allows of flight to a suitable destination should a return to
the departure point be unavailable after an OEI event. - Visibility of either:
• 800m;
• 550m, but only if
• The relevant runway has illuminated edge lighting at spacing intervals not exceeding 60m and centreline lighting
24
Q
IFR Missed approach criteria
A
- During final segment of the IAP – aircraft is flown outside the
navigational tolerance for the navigation aid being used - On IAP below MSA, the performance of the radio aid becomes suspect
or the aid fails - Visual reference is not established at the MAPT or DA/RA height at
which the missed approach procedure commences - A landing cannot be made from a runway approach, unless a circling
approach can be conducted in weather conditions at or better than
those specified for circling - Visual reference is lost whilst circling to land from an IAP
25
What must you do on radio
when IFR in class G airspace
and cannot contact ATS on
the ground
- Broadcasts are made in place of the required reports
- Contact with the air traffic service is established as soon as possible
after take-off
26
Emergency transponder
codes and their meaning
Unlawful interference: 7500
Loss of radiocommunications: 7600
In flight emergency: 7700
27
The risk of an adverse event
as a result of NVIS failure
below 500ft AGL is
controlled by
- The aircrafts capacity to revert immediately to a non-filtered search or
landing light; or
- The presence of 2 pilots, each of whom:
• Is NVIS qualified and NVIS equipped; and
• Has access to dual flight controls
28
What is Icing conditions for
EC-135 operations
- 2 degrees OAT in visible moisture or;
- When icing detector indicates icing conditions
29
What level of forecasted
turbulence is permitted for
flying operations
Flight is permitted in forecasted moderate/severe turbulence
30
Can flight continue if severe
turbulence is experienced
No, flight operations should be discontinued if actual severe
turbulence is experienced
31
For inspecting the rotor head
what safety limits/procedures
are there
- Working at heights and pre-flight inspection training conducted
- Aircrew helmet, flying clothing and supplementary lighting worn
- Three points of contact maintained during inspection
- Wind/rain/sea state assessed as suitable
- 110kg OEM step limit applied
- Sentry posted
32
To prevent a tail strike, at
10ft what is the nose up limit
Not above 10 degrees nose up
33
An ACMN is required for
CA’s where __ rotor diameter
clearance from obstructions
is not available
2 rotor diameter clearance
34
Minimum height for
overwater ops at night
No ops below 400ft at night, other than embarked Ops
35
Minimum descent altitude for
autorotation training
Aircraft autorotation to hover not below 15ft
36
When should High NR be on during flight
High NR selected on throughout the flight
37
What is our fixed fuel reserve and can it be used for taxiing
Fuel reserve is 70kg
Can be used for taxiing provided the aircraft remains over a suitable
landing surface at all times
38
Minimum altitude AvWO can manipulate controls (except with QFI and authorised OR an emergency)
Not below 500ft by day or night, except in an emergency
39
If only one set of NVD’s is serviceable during a flight, what is your minimum altitude
Not below 500ft AO
40
When can you operate
overwater without aircrew
life rafts
Overwater within 5nm of coastline
Overwater within 5-10nm of coastline above VTOSS
Over enclosed waters
Overwater where FST is greater than ERT
41
When hover/taxing around
stationary aircraft, vehicles or
man made structures. What is
the minimum lateral
clearance required
- Minimum half rotor diameter 15ft (5m)
- May be reduced to 10ft (3m) with blade-walkers, marshallers or taxi
guidelines
42
Clearance required below the aircraft and rotor disk during IGE hover, taxi, lifting off, touching down and on the ground
- During IGE hover – 5ft (1.5m) vertically between disc and obstacles
- During hover, taxi, touching down or lifting off – 3ft (1m) horizontally between airframe and obstacles
- On the ground – 5ft (1.5m) vertically between disc and obstacles
43
Maximum flight hours in any daily period?
8 hours unless extended by an Operation order
44
When air temp forecast to be
greater than +30 deg Celsius.
Aircrew must carry ___?
Minimum of 1litre of water per 1.5 hour sortie, per person
45
NFP and FP scan arcs of responsibility
NFP – 8 o’clock to 1 o’clock
FP – 11 o’clock to 4 o’clock
46
Format for announcing hazards or traffic
- Caution – obstacle/traffic
- Left/right clock code
- Distance – range or close, middle, far
- Level – low, co-level, high
- Direction of movement
- Instructions if hazard is a conflict
- E.g. “bird, left 10 o’clock, 500m, low, right to left, no conflict
- Can be shortened if time critical “traffic, break right”
47
Patter for handover of controls
- FP “handing over”
- NFP “taking over”
- NFP now FP “I have control”
48
Mandatory I-C-S items – In flight only
- ENG Main switches
- ENG MODE SEL switches
- ENG EMERG OFF switches
- Twist grips
- Fuel transfer switches
49
If an ACMN calls “well clear” during a CA
what do they mean
No obstacles within 30ft of the aircraft extremities and rotor tips
50
Effects of controls
Control | Primary eff | Secondary eff
Cyclic | Attitude | IAS, Heading, roll, TRQ
Collective | Power | Altitude, roll, pitch
Pedals | Yaw | Balance, TRQ
51
EC-135 cruise power and speed
FLI 8
Approximately 120kts
52
EC-135 audible warnings
- Steady tone – NR equal to or above 112% NR
- Broken tone – NR equal to or below 97% NR
- Gong – Any Warning light to NR equal to or above 106% NR
53
Rate of closure for normal, steep and shallow profile approaches
Normal – apparent walking pace
Steep – slow walking pace
Shallow – fast walking pace
54
During a standard climb, what is the altitude to time ratio used for planning
• 2000ft per minute
55
What does DIAFARE stand for
Divert point
Information
Altitude
Fuel
AVRM
R/T
Execution
56
You are 20 seconds early at a base speed of 90kts IAS
Decelerate to 70kts for 90 seconds
57
OEI Fuel flow and effect on total fuel
• OEI Fuel flow: 140kgs
• Total fuel: minus 50kg (rounded up from 43 or 47) due to loss of supply tank
58
DH’s set during instrument flight
Right side – 200ft
Left side – 999ft
59
Instrument Line up checks
• HDG matches RWY HDG
• ALT. A
• Tac Radios – off if using ground based navaids
• RNAV/Procedural SID – activate departure end or runway
• SID (RADAR) – note assigned heading from ATC
60
Can you plan to fly IMC with freezing levels below LSALT
It is an immediate No Go
61
Top of descent calculation – FG Answer
Current conditions: cruise level = 8000ft, G/S = 120kts, IAF = 3000ft
• Current conditions: cruise level = 8000ft, G/S = 120kts, IAF = 3000ft
• Height to descend: 8000ft-3000ft = 5000ft
• Time for decent: 5000ft at 1000ft/min = 5min
• Distance to commence descent 10nm (120kts GS = 2nm per minute)
• Therefore TOD is 10nm from the IAF
62
Top of descent calculation - Gouge way
Current conditions: cruise level = 8000ft, G/S = 120kts, IAF = 3000ft
• Use RoD as 5x GS to get a 3° Glideslope
• cruise level = 8000ft, G/S = 120kts, IAF = 3000ft
• 5x 120 = 600fpm RoD
• 8000-3000 = 5000ft to descend = 8 and a bit mins at 600fpm
• 8 and a bit x 2nm a min = 16/17nm
• TOD = 8.5 mins or 17nm
63
What does ENALD stand for?
• Emergency No Aid Let Down
64
When do you have to match
BARALT/RADALT overwater
• Day – once established overwater at chosen altitude
• Night – prior to descent overwater, or aircraft can be levelled at 1000ft
overwater and then BARALT matched to RADALT before any further
descent
65
When overwater do you have to set both DH’s to the same value?
Yes
66
Rates of descent for an IMC letdown
• 1000fpm or less until 1000ft (Night/IMC)
• Then 500fpm or less (Night/IMC)
• VMC descent profile may vary as required
67
What checks need to be completed prior to a LLLFA?
BLAHSO checks
• Beach/landfall description
• Landing checks
• Approach track
• Height
• Speed
• Overshoot instructions
68
Missed approach point for LLLFA
• 1/4nm
69
What is the normal height of an overwater hover?
• 30ft over water
70
Once on scene for a SAR, what fuel flow is
permitted to be used for time on task
• 170kg/hr
71
Search patterns available in the EC-135
• Parallel track
• Track line
• Creeping line ahead
• Expanding square
• Sector
• Contour
72
Maximum occupants including flight crew
• Maximum of 8 occupants
73
Maximum gross mass
• 2950kg maximum gross mass
74
Maximum gross mass during hoist and
external load operations
• 2910kg
75
Maximum allowable floor loading
• 600kg/m2
76
Tie down ring limits
• 100kg
77
Vne for OEI operation
• 110kn or as per Vne tables if less
78
Vne for autorotation
• 90kn or as per Vne table if less
79
Vne for Hi NR failure to decrease above 55 knots
• Vne minus 25kn
80
Max speed for use of wiper system
• 80 knots
81
Best climb angle and best rate of climb
• 40kts (Vtoss) and 65kts (Vy) respectively
82
Vmin IFR
• 60kts
83
Max wind for stating and stopping the rotor (except rear)
• 50knot wind from all directions except rearwards where the IBF limit
applies
84
Maximum rearward wind limitation for IBF operation
30kts
85
Max angle of bank for slope operations
• Right or left skid up – 14 degrees
• Nose up – 12 degrees
• Nose down – 8 degrees (4 IAW FG)
• If MMI is inoperative – 6 degrees
86
Minimum LOC interception distance and
Maximum LOC interception angle
• Minimum distance – 4nm
• Maximum angle – 90 degrees
87
Maximum ROD IFR
• 1500 ft/min
88
Maximum hoist load above 0 degrees OAT
• 249kg/550lbs
89
Vne for hoist operations/flight with a fully or partly extended boom
• 60kts
90
Max AOB with on hoist and no load on hoist
• Load on hoist – 20 degrees
• No load on hoist – 30 degrees
91
Max people on hoist
2
92
Max weight on cargo hook
1300kg
93
Max airspeed and AOB for loaded cargo hook ops
100kts or as per Vne table
30 degrees
94
Emergency Floats max sea state
Sea state 6
95
Max airspeed during floats inflation or inflated
80kts
96
Max ROC with inflated floats and max
altitude with inflated/inflating floats
• 1500ft/min
• 5000ft
97
Wx radar safety distances
1. Personnel
2. Vehicles/aircraft
3. Refuelling operations and large metallic objects
• Personnel – 25ft (7.5m)
• Vehicles aircraft – 50ft (15m)
• Refuelling operations and large metallic objects – 100ft (30m)
98
What must an IFR aircraft consider if conducting a visual departure?
• Climb to MSA/LSALT must be conducted in VMC
• If the intended cruising level is lower than route LSALT, cloud base must permit VMC at that level
• Visually maintain obstacle clearance
99
Departure Report for Class D Aerodromes that also provide Approach service
• Tracking information + last assigned altitude
• Not required if VFR and departing to Class G airspace
• Not required if aircraft has been instructed to contact CEN/APP/DEP once airborne, then above report must be passed to relevant agency
100
When must you be established on track departing from an aerodrome?
• Established on Track within 5NM from the departure aerodrome
101
Can an IFR Flight climb/descend VFR?
Yes
• Must be operating in VMC
• Only in Class D & E airspace
102
What criteria must be met for ATC Authorisation for Vis App
IFR Flights:
• Within 30NM of the aerodrome
• Can continue flight to aerodrome with continuous vis. ref. to the ground or water
• Visibility along the flight path not less than 5000m (800m for helos) or the aerodrome is constantly in sight
By night:
• As above (except 800m vis) + if being vectored the flight has been assigned the MVA and given the HDG/TRK to intercept final or to position within circling area
VFR Flights:
• Within 30NM of the aerodrome
103
Navigation requirements for VFR flights
• Visual reference can be maintained with the ground or water
• Must positively fix the aircraft position at intervals not exceeding 30mins
• Must notify if track diverges more than 1NM if operating in controlled airspace
104
VFR Flight on top of more than SCT cloud
• VMC can be maintained during the entire flight including climb, cruise and descent
• Visual position fixing can be met
• Current forecasts and observations indicate that conditions in the area of and period of the planned descent below the cloud layer will permit descent in VMC
• Position at which descent below cloud is planned to occur will ensure VMC flight to be maintained to the destination aerodrome or an alternate aerodrome has been planned for
105
Advice to ATC on aircraft deviations in controlled airspace (nav aids)
• VOR/TACAN – half scale deflection
• NDB - +/- 5 degrees
• DME - +/- 2NM of the required arc
• Area navigation system – can’t comply with specified RNP value
• Visual reference to ground or water – more than 1NM from the cleared route
• If outside of these tolerances, must notify ATC
106
When must you notify ATC of a RAIM outage?
(Think about the different phases of flight)
• Enroute – More than 5 min
• Terminal – Any loss of RAIM or GNSS integrity
• Where ATS requests the provision of GNS-derived info – must notify if unavailable
• Where ATS gives a clearance requiring GNSS derived info
• The GNSS receiever is in dead-reckoning mode, or experiences loss of its navigation function for more than 1 min
107
How long can you lose RAIM before it is considered
unreliable
5 minutes
• Aircraft must use another means of navigation until RAIM can be re-established however the ATS unit should be advised of the restoration before returning to the use of GNSS
108
When is an aircraft considered within the vicinity
of an aerodrome
Within 10 NM of the aerodrome
• And at a height above the aerodrome that could result in a conflict
109
What info must you include in your taxi report?
(IFR)
• Aircraft type
• POB
• IFR
• Taxiing ‘Location’
• For ‘Destination’
• Runway to be used
110
Departure information reporting requirements
Non-surveillance & surveillance
NON-SURVEILLANCE
Departure location and time
Outbound TRK in degrees magnetic
Intended cruising level
Est. for the first en route reporting point
SURVEILLANCE
Current position reference departed AD
Present level
Intended cruising level
Est. for the first en route reporting point
111
What weather conditions will require an alternate?
Except when operating VFR within 50NM of the point of departure
Cloud - more than SCT below alternate minimum
Visibility - less than the alternate minimum
Visibility - greater than alternate minimum but there’s at least a PROB30 of fog, mist, dust or other that will reduce it below alt. min.
A thunderstorm or SEV TURB or forecast of PROB30 of such event
112
If mean conditions are forecast to be suitable but there are intermittent/temporary deteriorations below alternate criteria what must you do?
Hold the fuel for the forecast deterioration
• INTER – 30min
• TEMP – 60min
• Or hold an alternate that is suitable for the weather conditions
• Note: you must hold the more limiting fuel, ie. If there is an INTER and a TEMPO below alternate conditions you must hold for the TEMPO
113
What buffer periods apply for FM or BECMG weather forecasts?
(Both for creating and operational requirements and removing them)
Create an operational requirement:
• 30min before the start of the FM or BECMG period
Remove an operational requirement:
• 30 min after the FM or BECMG period
114
When an aerodrome is receiving a TAF3 service, what requirements can you waive
Only during the first 3 hours of the TAF3
vailidity:
• 30 min buffer periods for FM or BECMG forecasts
• Alternate holding fuel required by:
• 30% prob of reduction in visibility
• PROB30/PROB40 of TS or SEV TURB
115
IFR alternate minima
* Cloud – more than SCT below HAA/HAT + 500ft
* Visibility – less than the distance on the approach + 2000m
116
Do ADF aircraft require to hold alternates due RWY lighting if using NVD/NVG
No
117
Obstacle Clearance for aircraft categories
• A & B – 300ft
• C & D – 400ft
118
When can an aircraft change performance categories?
Must fit into and be operated IAW only one
category:
• An aircraft may not reduce category because of reduced operating weight
• Must increase category when actual handling speeds are in excess of those determined by Vat
• ADF – if able to operate at a lower category IAW speed restrictions, may decrease their category, subject to MAO (COMFAA) approval
119
What criteria apply to helicopter specific IAP
• Where helicopters are operated similarly to fixed wing they may be classified as CAT A
• Procedures specific to helicopters are:
• Designated CAT H
• Promulgated on separate charts
120
When may you deviate from using a minimum route altitude during IAP?
May not descend below LSALT or MSA until the IAF unless:
• Conducting a visual approach
• Conforming to a published DME/GNSS arrival
• Or when assigned an altitude by ATC
121
How much clearance does a RTCC provide from obstacles?
1000ft
3nm
122
Can you circle in No Circling areas
No
123
During visual circling, when can you descend below the circling approach minima?
a. required visual reference has been established and can be maintained throughout the manoeuvre;
b. the pilot has the landing threshold in sight; and
c. the required obstacle clearance can be maintained and the aircraft is in a position to carry out a
landing using normal rates of descent and angles of bank.
124
When can you descend below the Straight-in MDA?
• visual reference can be maintained;
• all elements of the meteorological minima are equal to or greater than those published for the aircraft performance category and
• the aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal flight manoeuvres that will allow touchdown to occur within the touchdown zone of the runway of intended landing.
125
How far offset can a NPA be to a RWY centreline? (Cat)
• CAT A & B – up to 30 degrees offset
• CAT C & D – up to 15 degrees offset
126
When can you manoeuvre to align with the RWY centreline
• within the circling area;
• visual reference can be maintained; and
• continuously in sight of ground or water.
127
What does ‘visual reference’ refer to for descent below MDA
* the runway threshold, or approach lights or other markings identifiable with the landing runway clearly visible to the pilot and a flight visibility not less than that specified for the procedure
128
When must you execute a missed approach?
a. during the final segment of an instrument approach, the aircraft is not maintained within the
applicable navigation tolerance for the aid in use; or
b. during an instrument approach and below MSA (as specified on the IAL chart) the performance of
the radio aid becomes suspect, or the radio aid fails; or
c. visual reference is not established at or before reaching the MAPT or DA/RA Height from which the
missed approach procedure commences; or
d. a landing cannot be effected from a runway approach, unless a circling approach can be
conducted in weather conditions equal to or better than those specified for circling; or
e. visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach.
129
What minimum obstacle clearance is provided on a missed approach procedure?
100ft
• 2.5% gradient (152ft/NM)
130
What must you do if executing a MAP from within the circling area?
Track for the MAPT and follow the MAP
• This involves an initial climbing turn towards the landing RWY and overhead the aerodrome, establishing the aircraft at the MAPT and climbing along the published MAP
131
MAP requirements for GNSS procedures
(RAIM)
• If a loss of RAIM or RAIM warning is indicated at any time after passing the Initial Approach Fix,
• Provided the RAIM warning ceases when the missed approach is selected on the GNSS equipment, it may be used for missed approach guidance.
• Should the RAIM warning remain when the missed approach is selected, or should there be any doubt about the accuracy of the GNSS, then an alternative means of guidance or dead reckoning must be used to fly the missed approach
132
When may you discontinue an IAP?
(Day)
Within 30NM of that aerodrome at an altitude not below the LSALT/MSA for the route segment, the appropriate step of the DME or GNSS Arrival Procedure, or the MDA for the
procedure being flown, the aircraft is established;
1) clear of cloud;
2) in sight of ground or water;
3) with a flight visibility not less than 5,000M or, in the case of a helicopter, is able to proceed under helicopter VMC, or the aerodrome is in sight; and
4) subsequently can maintain (1), (2) and (3) at an altitude not less than:
i) if in controlled airspace – 500FT above the lower limit of the CTA unless a clearance is received from ATC to depart and re-enter controlled airspace during the descent; and
ii) the minimum height prescribed by CASR 91.265 or 91.267 as relevant to the location of the aircraft.
133
Handling Speeds for IAP procedures
(CAT A)
Vat
<91
Range of Speeds for Initial and intermediate Approach
90-150 (110 for reversals)
Range of Final Approach Speeds
70-100
Max Speeds for Visual Manoeuvring (Circling)
100
Max Speeds for Missed Approach
110
134
Handling Speeds for IAP procedures
(CAT H)
Vat
N/A
Range of Speeds for Initial and intermediate Approach
70-120
Range of Final Approach Speeds
60-90
Max Speeds for Visual Manoeuvring (Circling)
N/A
Max Speeds for Missed Approach
90
135
Visibility amendment required for a partial RWY lighting failure?
Published minima x 1.5
• Only in conditions less than VMC
136
What does “established” mean?
• Within half full scale deflection of the ILS, VOR and GNSS
• Within 5 degrees of the required NDB bearing
• Within 2NM of the DME arc
137
When can you descend on an approach which incorporates a reversal procedure? (NDB, VOR, etc)
Outbound: after the aircraft has crossed the fix or facility and is
established on the specified track or has turned to a heading to intercept the specified outbound track
Inbound: established on the inbound track
138
Should corrections be made for wind in the hold?
Allowance should be made in heading and timing to compensate for the effects of wind.
139
What obstacle clearance does an MSA provide?
1000ft
140
When can you commence an IAP without entering the hold?
a. in controlled airspace, ATC has cleared the aircraft for the approach;
b. in any airspace, for procedures using radio navaids:
1) the reversal procedure entry requirements of are satisfied; of
2) the DME arc entry requirements of are satisfied; or
3) the en route track to the procedure’s commencement fix or facility is within 30° either side of the first track of the procedure.
c. for procedures using GNSS:
1) in any airspace, the aircraft is tracking to an initial approach waypoint from within the capture region for that waypoint; or
2) in controlled airspace, the aircraft is being vectored to intercept the initial approach segment or is tracking direct to the intermediate fix.
141
Capture regions for 3 IAWP RNP approaches?
Side IAWPs: Parallel to finals track
Centre IAWP: 70 degrees either side of finals track
142
Capture regions for 2 IAWP RNP approaches?
Straight-in IAWP: 70 degrees off finals track TOWARDS side IAWP, 110 degrees off finals track AWAY from side IAWP
Side IAWP: Parallel to finals track
143
Reversal Procedures
(Types and geometry)
1) 45 / 180 Procedure Turn
2) 80 / 260 Procedure Turn
3) Base turns (1/2/3 min or DME distance)
144
Direct entry limitation for entering a reversal procedure
Within +/- 30 degrees of the outbound track
145
Limitations in Holding Patterns?
- Outbound timing commencement
- Time/distance outbound
- Turns
• Timing. Starts overhead or abeam the fix (whatever is later) for the published time or DME limit (to a max of 1.5mins in sector 2), starts abeam or wings level (whatever is later) for sector 3.
• Turns. All turns in nil wind should be at a bank angle of 25° or Rate One, whichever requires the lesser bank.
146
IFR Altimeter setting limits
• Should read within 60ft of aerodrome elevation
• If one altimeter has discrepancy of between 60-75ft then can fly IFR until the first point of landing then be reassessed
• If more than 75ft then considered U/S
147
VFR Altimeter setting limits
* Should read to site elevation within 100ft
