WK 1: Respiratory Flashcards

(114 cards)

1
Q

how do we obtain labs?

A

Blood: vein, finger stick, artery
urine
stool
sputum

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2
Q

pulse oximetry
What is it?
what is a normal value?

A

AMOUNT OF HEMOGLOBIN that is carrying oxygen
-non-invasive, intermittent or continuous
-commonly used to titrate O2 levels in hospitalized pt
NML is > or = 95

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3
Q

the relationship between RBC’s and oxygen
bus analogy

A

RBC= bus
HGB= the seats
RBC’s carry O2
iron= what seats are made of
O2= passenger
Hct= total volume of highway (blood) made up of busses

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4
Q

what does a decreased Pulse Ox indicate?

A

hypoventilation
atelectasis
PNX
other lung issues

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5
Q

three types of sputum studies

A

culture and sensitivity (C&S)
cytology -CA pt
Acid fast bacillus (AFB) -testing for active TB

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6
Q

when collecting sputum

A

needs to be sputum from gut, not saliva in mouth
-steriel container
-send to lab soon
-morning specimen best

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7
Q

expectorate

A

coughing up sputum

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8
Q

CXR

A

remove all metal between waist and neck
-Common views: PA and lateral

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9
Q

what does a CT scan show?

A

structures in a cross section

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10
Q

what does contrast do?

A

fills the hollow organs within the body to highlight their internal structure
-usually iodine based

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11
Q

if you have a patient that has a scheduled CT with contrast, what are some things you need to consider prior to administering the contrast?

A

-assess BUN/Creatinine (renal function)
contrast is nephrotoxic
-assess allergies to shellfish
-“feeling of warm flush”
-force fluids afterwards

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12
Q

why would an MRI be used over a CT scan?

A

it can assess lesions that are difficult to assess by CT scan
-distinguishes vascular from nonvascular

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13
Q

what is better for assessing the lungs? CT or MRI?

A

usually CT scans

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14
Q

what is an MRI?
considerations for it

A

magnetic resonance imaging
-uses contrast medium, but not iodine
-Pt may be claustrophobic, sedation
-remove ALL metal

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15
Q

PET scan

A

positive emission tomography
-use radioactive substance called “tracer” to look for lung Dz/CA

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16
Q

difference between CT/MRI versus a PET scan?

A

CT/MRI look at STRUCTURE while PET looks at FUNCTION such as blood flow, use of O2, uptake of sugar

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17
Q

what does PFT stand for?

A

pulmonary function test

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18
Q

TB skin test

A

injection intradermal (10-15 degree angle)
-“bleb” of med under skin

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19
Q

bronchoscopy

A

using a scope to look at the bronchi
-can obtain biopsy specimen
-can remove excretions
-can be naso or oropharyngeal (anesthetized)

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20
Q

nursing care PRIOR to a bronchoscopy

A

sign consent
NPO for 6-12 hours prior to test
give sedation

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21
Q

why would a patient be NPO prior to a bronchoscopy

A

so they do not get nauseated and vomit, causing risk for aspiration

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22
Q

nursing care POST bronscopy

A

keep NPO until gag reflex returns
blood tinged mucous is an expected finding (from trauma of experience)
monitor for hemorrhage or PNX

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23
Q

what are some different methods to obtaining a lung biopsy?

A

bronchoscope (endoscopic suite)
transthoracic needle aspiration (CT guided)
open lung biopsy (done in OR)
VATS /video assisted thoracic surgery (done in OR

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24
Q

thoracentesis

A

large bone needle into pleural space
-obtaining fluid for Diagnosis
-remove PLEURAL fluid (pleural effusion)
-instill medication

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25
what is the issue with having a pleural effusion and the reasoning behind needing to do a thoracentisis ?
it impacts the surface area for oxygenation delivery and can cause respiratory problems
26
third spacing
fluid is in an area where it serves no purpose
27
nursing care prior to a thoracentesis
-obtain signed consent -Pt is upright with elbows on overhead table in room -instruct them to not talk during procedure
28
nursing care after a thoracentesis
CXR assess for hypoxia or PNX
29
pulmonary function test (PFT)
measures lung function with respect to time (seconds) -usually done with RT -measuring lung volumes
30
forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1)
deep inhale and push it out as fast as possible to see how much they can get out
31
Peak flow meter what is it?
-usually for asthma patients -at home use -used to check FEV1, if personal best is going down then they may be having signs of an early asthma attack
32
what are some causes of epistaxis ?
irritation trauma infection FB tumor systemic Dz: HTN, blood dyscrasias (complications) systemic Trx: chemo, anticoagulants
33
care for an anterior epistaxis
position upright, lean forward reassure/calm lateral pressure and ice (vasoconstriction) nasal tampons
34
what to teach a patient when they have an anterior nosebleed
avoid blowing nose
35
posterior epistaxis care
emergency, hospitalization posterior packing (ballon catheters) assess respiratory status humidification, O2, bedrest, pain control, oral care
36
teaching for patient with a posterior epistaxis
salien spray, humidification avoid aspirin or NSAIDS avoid strenuous activity
37
where to pinch the nose with an anterior nosebleed
below to nasal bone while leaning forward and breathing through mouth
38
OSA (obstructive sleep apnea)
respiratory effort related arousals caused by repetitive collapse of upper airway durning sleep
39
risk factors for OSA
increased age, males, obesity, nasopharyngeal structural abnormalities, smoking
40
S/Sx of OSA
daytime sleepiness snoring, choking, gasping during sleep morning HA -talk with significant other to see what they have noticed
41
PE of a patient with OSA
obesity large neck or waist other signs: MVAs, neuropsychiatric dysfunction, HTN, HF, metabolic syndrome
42
what is the best diagnostic test for OSA?
polysomnography (sleep test)
43
CPAP
CPAP= continuous positive airway pressure -used most often for OSA - no add. O2 used, does not augment ventilation -20-40% of Pts dont use their CPAP, time to educate
44
CPAP versus BiPAP what are they? how are they different? what kind of patient would each one be used for?
CPAP: for spontaneously breathing pt to improve oxygenation. to prevent upper airway obstruction in OSA noninvasive BiPAP: uses two pressures, one during inhalation, one during exhalation. -for nocturnal ventilation in Pt with neuromuscular Dz, CW deformity, OSA and COPD -to prevent intubation
45
OSA Trx
weight reduction avoid alcohol and smoking sleep on side (prevent mandible dropping) improve sleep hygiene (sleep routine) oral appliances (mild to moderate) surgery (tissue removal, reposition jaw, implant, tracheostomy)
46
trach parts
tie strings flange (plate) outer cannula cuff inner cannula inflation tube/pilot ballon obturator
47
shiley vs jackson
shiley= plastic, disposable inner cannula, cuff jackson= longterm, metal, no cuff, reusable inner cannula
48
steps for tube dislodgment and accidental decannulation
keep obturator taped at bedside insert obturator into outer cannula extend neck/ open tissue, insert obturator / outer cannula remove obturator check bilateral breath sounds secure trach
49
acute pharyngitis what is it? what are the different types ?
inflammation of pharynx or tonsils viral pharyngitis: most common bacterial pharyngitis: 1/10 cases (strep throat) fungal pharyngitis: caused by candida albicans streptococcal pharyngitis: sudden onset ST with tonsillar hypertrophy and erythema. tender lymphadenopathy and fever
50
what kind of pharyngitis receives antibiotics?
bacterial pharyngitis
51
what kind of treatment is used for candida infections (fungal pharyngitis)
nystatin swish and swallow
52
T/F: it is easy to distinguish between bacterial and viral pharyngitis based on symptoms alone?
FALSE -need antigen testing
53
symptomatic care of pharyngitis
local soothing treatment (warm/cool fluids) and analgesics or antipyretics
54
1. what causes 85% of head and neck cancers ? 2. who is more at risk for head and neck cancers?
1. tobacco 2. men, >50 y/o, HPV infection
55
treatments for head and neck cancer
1. surgery (first line) 2. radiation 3. chemotherapy
56
different kinds of surgical therapies for head and neck cancer
vocal cord stripping laryngectomy (cant speak) tracheostomy (always get with laryngectomy) lymph mode removal (with metastasis) neck dissection
57
what are some different ways to restore oral communication after loosing the larynx ? (voice box)
1. artificial larynx (electrolarynx) : provides vibratio, easy to use 2. tracheoesophageal (TE) voice restoration: hands-free valve 3. esophageal speech: hand-free, no extra devices, hard to learn low quality of speech. air into esophagus "burping words up"
58
when a patient undergoes a radial neck dissection, what kind of tissues are removed from the body?
all tissues on one side of the neck from the mandible to the clavicle (muscles, nerves, salivary glands, major blood vessels) -usually NG feeding tube and trach in place
59
post op care for a radical neck dissection
airway maintenance trach collar with O2 humidification pulmonary toilet oral and trach secretion suctioning (blood tinged sputum 1-2 days) stoma care pain management nutrition (feeding tube usually) PT speech therapy
60
PNA definition
acute infection of the lung parenchyma (functional unit of an organ)
61
RF for PNA
older (>65) AMS weakened cough (cant expectorate excretions) bedrest / prolonged immobility debilitating illness malnutrition smoker tracheal intubation
62
describe a patient that would be at risk for PNA
an elderly gentleman with a h/o smoking who recently had a stroke and was admitted from the nursing home that he lives at.
63
what are the two classifications of PNA?
1. CAP (community acquired PNA) -have not been hospitalized or been in a long term care facility within the last 14 days of symptoms 2. HAP (hospital acquired PNA) -PNA in non-intubated pt that started within 48 hrs (or longer) after admission that was not present prior to admission. 3. VAP (Ventilator associated PNA) - type of HAP
64
viral PNA
most common - can be mild/ self limiting or life threatening -usually resolves in 3-4 days
65
bacterial PNA
may require hospitalization -can be more intense than viral
66
aspiration and opportunistic PNA
1. aspiration: abnormal entry of material from mouth or stomach into trachea/ lungs
67
what are some RF for aspiration PNA?
Loss of consciousness dysphagia NG tube may be "silent": no significant event lead to it
68
opportunistic PNA happens in what kind of patients?
immunocompromised
69
PNA clinical manifestations
-preceded with a URI -F, chills, cough, malaise, CP with inspiration & cough, dyspnea, fatigue, myalgia, confusion in elderly
70
bacterial PNA cough characteristic
productive purulent (green or rusty red)
71
viral PNA cough characteristics
non-productive scanty coughs
72
what you see on a CXR with PNA
infiltrates (haziness)
73
WBC with differential in regards to PNA
you will see ... 1. leukocytosis with bacterial 2. shift to the left indicates bacterial (increase immature neutrophils)
74
positive sputum for C&S with PNA identifies what ?
specific bacteria and antibiotics that will kill the bacteria -if it is a viral infection then nothing will come back
75
illness prevention with PNA patient education and what to do during hospitalization
1. patient education: pneumococcal vaccine stope smoking adequate rest/sleep balanced diet 2. during hospitalization know who is at risk pulmonary toilet, early ambulation standard precautions and hand hygiene
76
acute nursing interventions with a patient who has PNA
VS/ pulse ox lung auscultation (compare to baseline) supplemental O2 as needed pulmonary toilet, chest physiotherapy IS increase fluid intake if able to ambulation energy conservation drug therapy (analgesics, antibiotics antipyretics) teaching needs
77
what is OPD (obstructive pulmonary Dz) ?
it is an umbrella term -can mean asthma (Peds), emphysema or chronic bronchitis
78
difference between emphysema and chronic bronchitis
emphysema= alveolar damage (over inflated/stretched) chronic bronchitis = excessive secretion production COPD is preventable and treatable
79
what is the most common cause of a COPDE?
respiratory infections
80
Dx of COPD is based on ?
Hx, Sx, spirometry results
81
do patients with COPD has issues with getting air into the body or getting air out of the body?
getting air out of the body
82
key characteristics with COPD
-increased AP diameter d/t hyperinflation -breath sounds: decreased sounds with wheezing, rales, or rhonchi -prolonged expiration
83
signed of advanced COPD include
pursed lip breathing neck vein distention peripheral edema cachexia (extremely thin)
84
nursing problems related to COPD
activity intolerance ineffective breathing pattern ineffective airway clearance impaired gas exchange anxiety poor nutritional status
85
COPD related nursing implications
smoking cessation (most effective) teach influenza and PNA vaccine teach early detection of resp. infections inhaler therapy O2 administration teach tripod position & pursed lip breathing review cough techniques teach energy conservation and relaxation exercises will need extra calories d/t increased work of breathing psychosocial support
86
what are the different medications used in inhaler therapy for COPD?
long acting beta agonist (bronchdilate) long acting muscarinic antagonist (bronchodilate) inhaled corticosteroids (anti-inflammatory)
87
what is the SPO2 target number for COPD patients
88-92% bodies have adapted to less high oxygenation levels d/y obstructive nature of Dz process
88
Sx of ACOPDE management of ACOPDE
Sx: worsening dyspnea, C, or sputum beyond baseline management: Keep SPO2 > 90% in hospital -never withhold O2 -positive pressure ventilation (non-invasive) when hypercapnic -bronchodilators (MDI or wet neb) -CPT -sometimes Abx (if bacterial in nature)
89
CO2 narcosis
Pt with CO2 retention (COPD Pt) -stimulus to breath becomes low oxygenation -normal Pt's stimulus to breath is a normal CO2 concern: if you are a CO2 retainer and are given high levels of O2, in theory they can stop breathing b/c the drive to breath (low O2) is taken. This is CO2 narcosis
90
what is the ONLY way to test if a patient is a CO2 retainer?
Obtain arterial blood gas
91
do you hold supplemental oxygen for a COPD patient? out of concern for CO2 narcosis
no. never hold O2 for a patient that has hypoxemia present b/c they can die without it. if they do start to get CO2 narcosis, you intubate and place in the ICU
92
TB is caused by what microorganism?
micobacterium tuberculosis
93
TB that is resistant to INH and rifampin is called what?
MDR-TB Multidrug-resistant tuberculosis
94
RF for TB
poor/underserved/ minorities IVDA poor sanitation, crowded living conditions immunosuppressed
95
classifications of TB
1. Primary TB -bacteria inhaled, starting inflammatory reaction -encapsulate organisms for rest of lives -usually asymptomatic 2. latent TB -persistant state of immune response to bacterium w/ no clinical manifestations of active TB -asymptomatic/ non-contagious -positive skin test w/o Sx -cannot transmit TB but cal develop active TB 3. reactivated TB -develops after latent TB 5-10% of Pts -risks much higher in elders/immunosuppressed -transmissible
96
clinical manifestations of latent TB
+ TB test possible "ghon nodule" on CXR asymptomatic
97
clinical manifestations of active TB
+ sputum fever, night sweats, weight loss, productive cough w/purulent or bloody sputum >3 weeks
98
diagnostic tests for TB
1. tuberculin skin test (TST), also called Mantoux test -measure area of induration 2. Interferon-gamma release assay blood test (IGRA) *do one or the other *one is not better than the other 3. CXR (ghon nodule) 4. sputum for AFB (acid fast bacillus)
99
TST readings: an induration of 15 or more millimeters is considered a positive reading for which group of people?
this is for any healthy normal patient w/o known RF
100
TST readings: an induration of 10 or more millimeters is considered positive for which group of people
-recent immigrants (<5 years) -IVD users -residents/employees of high risk congregate settings -mycrobacteriology lab works -clinical conditions with high risk -children <4 y/o -infants, children, adolescents exposed to adults that are high risk
101
TST readings: an induration of 5 or more millimeters is positive in which groups of people ?
-HIV + -recent contact with TB person -fibrotic changes on chest radiograph consistant with prior TB -organ transplant -immunosuppressed
102
what do you do if your patient has a new positive TST result for TB?
obtain CXR -if CXR is negative= latent TB -if CXR is positive = further testing to confirm or r/o active pulmonary TB
103
nursing management of TB
ultimat goal: eradicate TB interpret diagnostic study results identify recent contacts drug therapy (strict adherence, DOT prn, assess adverse effects)
104
DOT for tuberculosis patients
direct observation therapy -they go somewhere and are observed taking the pills needed to trx TB
105
notable side effects of antimicrobials
1. isoniazid (INH): hepatotoxicity, peripheral neuropathy 2. rifampin: red/orange discoloration of excretions 3. ethambutol: decreased visual acuity, red/green colorblind
106
what are the two main drugs that are hard on the liver and have concerns with hepatotoxicity ?
tylenol and isoniazid
107
what kind of precautions are in place with a patient that has TB
airborne negative pressure room hepa mask (fit testing) monitor annual TB status
108
home care of TB patient
-prevention drug therapy to high risk contacts -cover mouth / nose -wear mask in crowds -sputum for ARB q2weeks ***3 negative cultures=no longer infectious)
109
clinical manifestations of lung cancer
CXR clinically silent for majority of course often masked by chronic underlying cough or Sx of smoking most common symptom: productive cough
110
XR readings: consolidation= infiltrates =
consolidation= mass infiltrates= haziness
111
diagnostic studies for lung cancer
CXR: mass/infiltrates CT/MRI: assess for metastasis sputum for cytology: only 20-30% specimens are + biopsy: definitive diagnostic test -fine needle, bronchoscopy, VAT
112
lung cancer nursing problems
ineffective airway clearance ineffective breathing pattern anxiety poor nutritional status fatigue knowledge deficit (plan of care)
113
collaborative care for lung cancer Pt
smoking cessation anxiety reduction surgical therapy (pneumonectomy, lobectomy, segmental or wedge resection) radiation chemotherapy
114
pneumonectomy
removal of entire lung