Wk 7: Neuraxial Anesthesia Flashcards

(236 cards)

1
Q

How many vertebra?
Cervical?
Thoracic?
Lumbar?
Sacral?
Coccyx?

A

33 vertebrae
Cervical: 7
Thoracic: 12
Lumbar: 5
Sacral: 5 (fused)
Coccyx: 4 (fused)

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2
Q

What structures/ligaments do you pass through with a midline approach for an EPIDURAL (6)

A

Skin
Subcutaneous fat
Supraspinous ligament
Interspinous ligament
Ligamentum flavum
Epidural space

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3
Q

What ligaments do you pass through with a paramedian approach?

A

Ligamentum flavum

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4
Q

What area in the vertebral column in the needle inserted?

Midline approach
Paramedian approach

A

Midline approach: Directly midline between the spinous processes (intervertebral space)

Paramedian approach: Intervertebral space, lateral to the spinous process

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5
Q

Where does the spinal cord and dural sac end in adults? In the infant?

A

Adult
Spinal cord: L1/L2
Dural sac: S2
Infant
Spinal cord: L3
Dural sac: S3

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6
Q

How much CSF is produced every day by the choroid plexus?

A

500 ml every day
(25ml/hour)

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7
Q

How much CSF is in circulation?

A

125-150 ml in circulation

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8
Q

How much CSF is in subarachnoid space? (T11 downward)

A

30-80ml

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9
Q

Where is CSF produced?

A

Choroid plexus in the lateral, third, and fourth ventricles

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10
Q

Trace the flow of CSF from production in choroid plexus in the lateral, third, and fourth ventricle

A
  1. Flows though the Foramina of Munro to the the third ventricle
  2. To the aqueduct of Sylvius to the fourth ventricle
  3. The fluid then passes through the foramina of Magendie and Luschka of the fourth ventricle to reach the subarachnoid space of the brain
  4. It then spreads through the subarachnoid space over the surface of the spinal cord
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11
Q

Area of skin that connects to a specific nerve root on your spine

A

Dermatome

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12
Q

What structures/ligaments do you pass through with a midline approach for a SPINAL

A

Skin
Subcutaneous tissue
Supraspinous ligament
Interspinous ligament
Ligamentum flavum
Epidural space
Dura mater
Subdural space
Arachnoid mater
Subarachnoid space

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13
Q

Sensory level required for:

Upper abdominal surgery
C- Section
Cystectomy

A

T4 (Nipple line)

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14
Q

Sensory level required for:

C-section

A

T4 (nipple line)

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15
Q

Sensory level required for:

Lower abdominal surgery
Appendectomy

A

T6-T7 (xiphoid process)

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16
Q

Sensory level required for:

Total hip arthroplasty

A

T10 (Umbilicus)

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17
Q

Sensory level required for:

Total hip arthroplasty
Vaginal delivery
TURP

A

T10 (Umbilicus)

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18
Q

Sensory level required for:

Lower extremity surgery

A

L1-L3 (Inguinal ligament)

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19
Q

Sensory level required for:

Foot surgery

A

L2-L3

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20
Q

Sensory level required for:

Hemorrhoidectomy

A

S2-S5

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21
Q

Cutaneous innervation of Nipple line is from spinal nerve root ___

A

T4

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22
Q

Cutaneous innervation of Xiphoid process is from spinal nerve root ___

A

T6

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23
Q

Cutaneous innervation of Umbilicus is from spinal nerve root ___

A

T10

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24
Q

Cutaneous innervation of Pubic symphysis is from spinal nerve root ___

A

T12

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25
Cutaneous innervation of Anterior knee is from spinal nerve root ___
L4
26
Dermatomes C3, 4, 5 significance
Phrenic nerve "C3, 4, and 5 keep the diaphragm alive"
27
Dermatomes C8 significance
All cardioaccelerators blocked (5th digit numb)
28
Dermatomes T1-4 significance
Some cardioaccelerators blocked
29
Dermatomes T4 significance
Nipple line
30
Dermatomes T6 signifiance
Xiphoid
31
Dermatomes T10 significance
Umbilicus
32
Order of blockade (spinal)
Autonomic Temperature Pain Touch Deep pressure Motor
33
Tests for sensation/sensory block (temperature) This is the ______ sensory modality blocked
Cold spray Ice cubes Alcohol pad First
34
Tests for sensation/sensory block (pain) This is the _____ sensory modality blocked
Tongue blade (broken off end) Stylet of epidural needle or blunt needle tip Nerve stimulator Second
35
A-alpha fibers function
Motor
36
A-beta fibers function
Touch and pressure
37
A-gamma fibers function
Proprioception
38
A-delta fibers function
Fast pain and temperature
39
B fibers function
Preganglionic, autonomic
40
C fibers function
Slow pain and temperature
41
Epidural vs. spinal dose
Epidural: High (10-20ml) Spinal: Low (1.5-2ml)
42
Epidural vs. spinal onset
Epidural: Slow (25-30 min) Spinal: Fast (5 min)
43
Epidural vs. spinal neuromuscular block
Epidural: Does not cause significant neuromuscular block Spinal: Does cause significant neuromuscular block
44
Epidural vs spinal multiple dosing possible?
Epidural: Multiple doses possible Spinal: Single dose only
45
Epidural vs spinal injection sites along backbone
Epidural: Can be given at various points along backbone Spinal: Can only be given at specific points along backbone to avoid damaging spinal cord (Below L3)
46
Epidural vs. Spinal needle
Epidural: Bigger needle (17 G Tuohy) Spinal: 25 G
47
Epidural injection site
Epidural space
48
Spinal injection site
Subarachnoid space
49
Epidural primary determinant of spread
Volume
50
Epidural requires ________ epidural catheter
Indwelling
51
Epidural is _____ dense than spinal
Less
52
Epidural site of action
Diffuse through the dural cuff migrating to nerve roots
53
Spinal site of action
Myelinated pre-ganglionic fibers of spinal nerve roots
54
Common complication of epidurals
PDPH (Post-Dural Puncture Headache)
55
Spinal primary determinant of spread (when using hyperbaric solution)
Baricity of LA
56
Spinal primary determinant of spread (when using hypo or isobaric solution)
Dose
57
Sensory level block in spinal anesthetic is ________ levels higher than motor block
2 levels
58
Sympathetic/autonomic level block in spinal anesthetic is _____ levels higher than sensory block
2-6 levels
59
Is there autonomic/sympathetic blockade in epidurals?
No Shouldn't cut off cardioaccelerators Unless you position patient flat and dose her too high for a C-Section
60
_______ is the main determinant of how LA is distributed when injected into the CSF (Spinal)
Baricity
61
Hyperbaric solutions have a ______ weight relative to CSF, and therefore are more _______. They will ______
Heavier Dense Fall/sink
62
Isobaric solutions have the ______ weight relative to CSF, and therefore an _____ density
Same Equal
63
Hypobaric solutions have a ______ weight relative to CSF, and therefore a ____ density. They will _____
Lighter Lesser Rise
64
Bupivacaine 0.75% in 8.25% dextrose Lidocaine 5% in 7.5% dextrose Tetracaine 0.5% in 5% dextrose Procaine 10% in water Types of solutions?
Hyperbaric
65
Bupivacaine 0.5% in saline Bupivacaine 0.75% in saline Lidocaine 2% in saline Tetracaine 0.5% in saline or water Types of solutions
Isotonic
66
Bupivacaine 0.3% in water Lidocaine 0.5% in water Tetracaine 0.2% in water Types of solutions
Hypobaric
67
Procaine 10% in water is an exception to the rule but is a _______ solution
Hyperbaric
68
Baricity is the ratio of the density of the __________solution to the density of ________
Local anesthetic CSF
69
______ is added to solutions to make them hypobaric
Water
70
_______ is added to solutions to make them hyperbaric
Dextrose
71
_______ is added to solutions to make them isotonic
Saline
72
Spinal for hemorrhoidectomy Baricity Hyperbaric: _____ x 15 minutes, then turn ______
Sitting Prone
73
Spinal for hemorrhoidectomy Baricity Hypobaric: ______, prone (more difficult)
Jacknife
74
Factors that significantly affect spread of spinal anesthesia
CONTROLLABLE Baricity Patient positioning before and after block placement Dose Site of injection NON-CONTROLLABLE Volume of CSF Density of CSF
75
The aspiration of the injected volume back into the syringe followed by reinjection twice, with 0.5ml increases in each aspirated volume
Barbotage
76
Absolute contraindications (7)
Patient refusal Coagulopathy or bleeding diathesis Increased ICP Severe aortic or mitral stenosis Ischemic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis Severe hypovolemia Infection at the site of injection
77
Relative contraindications (7)
Preexisting neurological complications Peripheral neuropathies Demyelinating lesions Severe spinal deformity Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy Sepsis Uncooperative patient
78
Controversial contraindications (5)
Prior back surgery Prolonged operation Major blood loss Complicated surgery Maneuvers that compromise respiration
79
What is the risk of anticoagulation in neuraxial anesthesia?
Spinal hematoma
80
Avoid neuraxial anesthesia if platelets < ____________
100,000
81
Avoid neuraxial anesthesia if PT, aPTT, and bleeding time > ____ times normal value Normal PT: ____ -_____ seconds (extrinsic pathway) Normal aPTT: ____ -____ seconds (intrinsic pathway) Normal Bleeding Time: ____ -____ min
2 8.9-11.3 sec 25-38 sec 3-7 min
82
Alone, _______ _______ appear NOT to increase the risk of spinal hematoma
Herbal supplements
83
When combined with anticoagulants, herbal supplements _________ risk of spinal hematoma
increase
84
Gingko, stop _____ hrs Garlic, stop ____ days Ginseng, stop _____ hrs
36 hrs 7 days 34 hrs
85
Incidence of spinal hematoma d/t traumatic insertion is 1: _________ for epidural anesthesia and 1: ________ for spinal anesthesia
1:20,000 epidural 1: 29,000 spinal (higher in epidural d/t bigger needle)
86
Warfarin should be held _____ days before block placement Can remove catheter if INR < ______
5 1.5
87
Thrombolytic agents such as T-PA, streptokinase, alteplase, and urokinase are __________ _________ to neuraxial anesthesia
absolute contraindications
88
Is it ok to proceed with neuraxial anesthesia if patient is taking Ginko, Ginseng, or Garlic (inhibit platelet aggregation), but are not on any other blood thinning drugs?
Yes, ok to proceed with neuraxial anesthesia
89
COX-1 inhibitos (NSAIDS, Aspirin), ok to proceed with neuraxial anesthesia?
Yes, if patient has normal clotting mechanism and not on any other blood thinning agents
90
The primary function of the cauda equina is to send and receive messages between the lower limbs and the ______ ______, which consist of the ______, the _______, and the _______ _______ _______
pelvic organs bladder rectum internal genital organs
91
The cauda equina begins at _____ -_____ (conus medullaris, where spinal cord ends) and continues down as nerve roots
L1-L2
92
Serious neurological condition that occurs when the bundle of spinal nerves at lower end of spinal cord is compressed/exposed to high concentrations of LA
Cauda Equina Syndrome
93
Risk factors of Cauda Equina Syndrome
-5% lidocaine, spinal microcatheters -Lithotomy, knee arthroscopy -Inflammation d/t herniated disc
94
Treatment for Cauda Equina Syndrome
Supportive
95
S/S of Cauda Equina Syndrome
Severe back and butt pain that radiates to legs
96
Cauda Equina Syndrome develops within ____ -____ hours and persists ___-____ days
6-36 hours 1-7 days
97
The needle for neuraxial anesthesia goes through the ____________ between spinous processes
interspaces
98
A landmark to determine the midline is the _______ _________
Spinous process
99
A lumbar procedure is easier than a thoracic procedure because the spinous processes in the lumbar vertebra project __________, while the spinous processes in the thoracic vertebra project ________
posteriorly inferiorly
100
A landmark for neuraxial placement is _____ ______, which corresponds to the ____ vertebra. You feel for the top of the _____ ______
Tuffier's line L4 iliac crest
101
What ligaments do you pass through in a midline approach?
Supraspinous ligament Interspinous ligament Ligamentum flavum
102
What ligaments do you pass through in a paramedian approach? Needle angled at ____ degrees off midline, or ____cm lateral, ____cm inferior to the interspace
Ligamentum flavum 15 1cm 1cm
103
The sacrum has ____ fused vertebrae
5
104
Bony nodules that flank the sacral hiatus Result from the incomplete development of the facets
Sacral cornuea
105
The sacral hiatus coincides with ____, and results from the incomplete fusion of the laminae at ____
S5 S5
106
The sacral hiatus is covered by what?
Sacrococcygeal ligament
107
What provides a distal entry point into the epidural space?
Sacral hiatus
108
Position for caudal anesthesia
Lateral or prone
109
Caudal anesthesia Palpate the _____ _____ and ____- ____
Sacral hiatus Sacral cornua
110
Caudal anesthesia Needle advanced at ___ degrees until "pop" felt (__________ _________)
45 degrees sacrococcygeal ligament
111
Absolute contraindications for Caudal anesthesia (3)
Spina bifida Meningomyelocele of the sacrum Meningitits
112
Relative contraindications for Caudal anesthesia (5)
Pilonidal cyst Abnormal superficial landmarks Hydrocephalus Intracranial tumor Progressive degenerative neuropathy
113
Caudal anesthesia A dosage of ____ - ____mL/kg or 0.125-0.25% ___________ or ________ with or without ________ can be used
0.5-1.0mL/kg bupivacaine or ropivacaine epinephrine
114
Caudal anesthesia Opioids may also be added (e.g. ____-____ mcg/kg of _________), although they are not recommended for outpatients b/c of risk of delayed respiratory depression
50-70mcg/kg morphine
115
Caudal anesthesia Addition of ___________ will tend to increase the degree of motor block
epinephrine
116
Caudal anesthesia complications Incidence of _______ _______ - ________ _________ occurs more frequently following caudal epidural block
local anesthetic-induced seizures
117
Frequency of seizures in adults: ________ > _________ > __________
caudal > brachial plexus block > lumbar or thoracic epidural block
118
____ - fold increased incidence (0.69%) of local anesthetic toxic reactions with caudal epidural anesthesia than with lumbar or thoracic epidural anesthesia in adults
70
119
Neuraxial infection, complications (3)
Aseptic/septic meningitis Epidural abscess Arachnoiditis
120
Factors that increase risk of infection (6)
Breaking aseptic technique Psoriasis DM HIV/immunosuppression Herpes Steroid therapy
121
For aspetic technique, how long wash hands?
20 seconds
122
For aseptic technique, surgical cap for _______ and _______
provider and patient
123
For aseptic technique, mask which covers both ____ and _____ Sterile _____ and _____ No ____ ____ in the field
nose and mouth prep and drape ID tags
124
Systemic effects of neuraxial anesthesia (6)
Vasodilates arterial and venous vessels (hypotension, bradycardia) Accessory muscle function is decreased Impairment of intercostal muscle (impairs ability to cough) Loss of proprioceptive input from chest (dyspnea) Reduces sensory input from reticular activating system (drowsiness) Inhibits afferent pathways (decreases stress response)
125
Tuffier's line/Jacoby's line/intercostal line
Straight line drawn between the iliac crests; usually crosses at level of L4 spinous process
126
How many times clean back with antiseptic solution?
3 times
127
Intraoperative risks (8)
Inability to obtain adequate anesthesia Paresthesia Hypotension Dyspnea High or total spinal N + V Use of additional sedation Allergic reactions
128
Unexpected cardiac arrest Patient population
Usually young, health patients (increased baseline vagal tone)
129
Unexpected cardiac arrest __________ response to neuraxial blocks
Physiologic
130
Unexpected cardiac arrest Gradual downtrend in ________ followed by severe _________ and/or _______
Heartrate bradycardia and/or asystole
131
Unexpected cardiac arrest SAB cardiac arrest can occur _____-____ minutes after insertion
20-60
132
Unexpected cardiac arrest Frequently associated with ___________ and __________
intraop blood loss orthopedic cement placement
133
Strategies to prevent and treat spinal induced hypotension (SIH) (4)
-Crystalloid/colloid solution (15ml/kg, 15 min before procedure). 0.5-1 L -Vasopressors -Positioning -5-HT3 antagonists (Zofran)
134
Postoperative risks (5)
Wet tap: PDPH Sepsis Neurological problems Backache Hematoma
135
High spinal = spread of LA block affecting the spinal nerves above _____. The effects will depend upon the nerves involved.
T4
136
High spinal s/s
Bradycardia and SOB
137
Total spinal = intracranial spread of LA resulting in ______________
loss of consciousness (need to intubate)
138
Cardiovascular effects (5)
-Decreased SV (Peripheral fibers, T1-L2) -Decreased HR (Cardioaccelerator fibers, T1-T4) -Venous pooling -Decrease in venous return -Bezold-Jarisch reflex
139
Important tips for SAB Only use _______________ solutions Use __________ when drawing up solutions
preservative free filter needle
140
Important tips for SAB ____________ "wash", ___ -____mg prolong duration of block Additions of opioids enhance quality of block. (Duramorph____ -_____ mg or fentanyl ___ - ___mcg
Epinephrine, 0.1-0.2 mg 0.1-0.25mg 10-25mcg
141
Important tips for SAB If block doesn't spread cephalad to level adequate for C-section, may ask patient to _________
cough (However, the assumption that transient increases in CSF pressure or straining increase the spread of LA in the CSF is not supported by data)
142
Auditory, ocular, and facial complications (3)
Transient hearing loss Retinal hemorrhage Horner syndrome
143
Transient hearing loss and retinal hemorrhage cause by
changes in CSF pressure -postdural puncture leaks or large volumes of epidural injection
144
Horner syndrome (4)
ptosis miosis anhydrosis enophthalmos
145
Horner syndrome is caused by:
high spread of LA to sympathetic fibers to the head and neck (cranial nerve V)
146
LA for SAB hyperbaric
Bupivacaine 0.75% with 8.25% Dextrose (2ml vial)
147
Primary site of action for spinal anesthesia
myelinated preganglionic nerve roots within the spinal cord
148
Primary site of action for epidural anesthesia
LA diffuses through dural cuff
149
Epidural dose of morphine
2-5 mg
150
How long dose morphine last?
6-24 h
151
Additives
-Vasoconstrictors (epinephrine, phenylephrine) = prolongs DOA -Alpha-2 adrenergic agonists (clonidine) = Enhances pain relief and prolongs sensory and motor block
152
Distance from skin to epidural space: Average adult: ______ Obese adult: ______ Thin adult:_____
4-6 cm 8 cm 3 cm
153
Distance from skin to epidural space midline approach average:
5 cm
154
Largest epidural space
Mid-lumbar: 5-6 cm
155
Venous plexus within the epidural space
Batson's Plexus
156
_______ and _______ make Batson's Plexus more engorged, increasing risk of blood in needle or catheter
Obesity and pregnancy
157
Checking lumbar landmarks, 2 landmarks
Iliac crest Spinous process
158
Paramedial appraoch is ____ degrees off midline ___cm lateral and ___cm inferior
15 1 1
159
Taylor approach to paramedian technique is performed at ____ -____ interspace Spinal needle is inserted in a cephalo-medial direction through a skin wheal raised 1cm _______ and 1cm ________
L5-S1 medial, caudal
160
Thoracic epidural for thoracotomy
T4-T8
161
Thoracic epidural for Upper abdominal
T6-T9
162
Thoracic epidural for Renal
T7-T10
163
Thoracic epidural for Colorectal
T8-T10
164
Most common needle for spinal is: Most common needle for epidural is:
25 G Whitacre 17G Tuohy
165
Skin wheal is: ___ml of ___% _________
3 ml of 1% lidocaine
166
Epidural test dose
3ml 1.5% lidocaine with 1:200,000 epinephrine
167
Skin prep Betadine, leave on minimum ___ minute. Wipe with gause
1
168
Skin prep Chloraprep 0.5% (dry for ___ min). has _________ + ________
3 min chlorhexidine and alcohol
169
Skin prep Most effective agent
Chlorhexidine prep 0.5% not FDA approved
170
Needle direction for local infiltration Bevel orientation
15-30 degree angle Bevel up
171
If a catheter must be withdrawn while the needle remains in situ, both must be carefully withdrawn _____
together
172
If catheter breaks off within the epidural space, many experts suggest
leaving it in and observing the patient
173
If the catheter breaks off in superficial tissues, the catheter should
be surgically removed
174
Catheter insertion beyond needle tip should be ___ -___ cm
3-5 cm
175
"Funny bone sensation" down one or both legs signifies what
catheter brushing by a nerve root as it is passing into epidural space
176
Ultrasound epidural placement indications
Scoliosis Obesity Difficult insertion
177
Ultrasound epidural placement Probe
Curved linear Low frequency (2-5 MHz)
178
Ultrasound epidural placement Spinous process will appear __________ (hypoechoic, hyperechoic, anhoic)
hyperechoic
179
Ultrasound epidural placement Identifies epidural space_________ and ______
depth and position
180
Ultrasound epidural placement con
Limited data on spinal sonography and how to interpret images
181
Epidural drugs, spread, block levels Dose = _______ x ________
volume x concentration
182
Epidural drugs, spread, block levels Site of injection ( ______ to ______mL per segment)
1.25 to 1.5 mL
183
Epidural drugs, spread, block levels Height (_________ or _______)
extremely short or tall
184
Epidural drugs, spread, block levels Age (spread 3-4 x greater in _______) Limits LA to ____ to ____ mL per segment
Elderly 0.5 to 1 mL
185
Epidural drugs, spread, block levels Weight ( _______ _______)
Morbidly obese
186
Epidural drugs, spread, block levels Patient _________ during injection
position
187
Epidural drugs, spread, block levels Pregnancy (spread _____ in pregnancy) Limit LA to ____ to ___mL per segment
increases 0.5 to 1.0 mL
188
Epidural drugs, spread, block levels Speed of injection (rapid speed _______ spread)
does NOT
189
Epidural LA dosing All solutions should be injected in increments of ___ to ____ mL every ____ minutes and titrated to the desired anesthetic level
3 to 5 mL 3 minutes
190
Epidural drugs, spread, block levels ___________ of the catheter should occur before any injection ___________ dosing or a continuous infusion
Aspiration Intermittent
191
Epidural drugs, spread, block levels Continuous infusions typically use a ______ concentration of LA solution (______% to ______ bupivacaine or ____% to ____% ropivacaine)
lower 0.0625% to 0.125% 0.1% to 0.2%
192
Epidural opioids Crosses from the epidural space through the dura (via diffusion) to reach the opioid receptors located in the __________ __________ in the spinal cord
substantia gelatinosa
193
Epidural opioids To achieve adequate analgesia from epidurally administered opioids, the dose is increased by approximately ____ times the opioid dose administered intrathecally
10
194
Epidural opioids Rate of absorption is dependent on individual pharmacokinetics and ______ ______ of the opioid
lipid solubility
195
Epidural opioids A faster onset and analgesic peak effect is achieved when a more _______ opioid is used versus an opioid that is more ________
lipophilic lipophobic
196
Epidural opioids can be administered by either a single bolus dose or a __________ infusion
continuous infusion
197
Epidural test dose If intrathecal s/s
Immediate warmness of feet Leg weakness
198
Epidural test dose If intrathecal, what do you do?
STOP injection Restart at another level
199
Epidural test dose If intravascular s/s
HR increase 20% (or > 30 bpm above baseline within 30 secs) Ringing in ears Metallic taste in mouth Numbness of lips/face
200
Epidural test dose If intravascular, actions you would take
STOP injection Restart at another level
201
SE from neuraxial opioids (4)
Pruritus (most common) Respiratory depression Urinary retention (most common in young males) N/V
202
Treatment for opioid induced pruritus
Narcan Benadryl Nubain
203
Management of epidural anesthesia, inadequate block Resposition patient with _______ side down (dependent) or by administering ________________
unblocked more LA
204
Management of epidural anesthesia, inadequate block Single-sensory dermatome failed (Studies have shown that using __________ during the loss-of-resistance technique may be a contributing factor in missed dermatomal spread of the LA)
Air
205
Would you do an epidural in someone with a recent tattoo?
No
206
________, _________, or __________ at a desired epidural site is a contraindication to placement
Redness, irritation, or infection
207
Restlessness, dizziness, tinnitus, perioral paresthesia, difficulty speaking, seizures, LOC
Intravascular injection (1:5000)
208
Agitation, profound hypotension, bradycardia, dyspnea, the inability to speak, and loss of consciousness. T1-T4 blockade.
Intrathecal injection (1:2900)
209
What do you document in chart after epidural catheter is removed?
That tip is intact on removal
210
What happens if epidural catheter tip breaks off, and patient is asymptomatic?
Inform patient Document in chart Leave it in
211
What happens if epidural catheter tip breaks off, and patient is symptomatic
Order an MRI Consult neurosurgery
212
CSE two-level technique Each component is performed _______ at ____ different interspaces
separately two
213
CSE two-level technique An _________ _______ is inserted first, followed by a ___________ anesthesia needle placed one or two interspaces lower
epidural catheter spinal
214
CSE two-level technique Primary advantage
Ability to insert and test the epidural catheter first, then place the spinal anesthetic needle
215
CSE two-level technique cons Inability to differentiate the _______ ____ ____ from the CSF An increased risk of _____ _______ by the epidural catheter
epidural test dose dural puncture
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CSE: Single level technique A small (25, 27, or 29 G) ______ -point spinal needle is inserted through the epidural needle into the subarachnoid space, and LA is injected The spinal needle is removed, and an ________ catheter is threaded into the epidural space. The epidural needle is removed and the catheter is secured
pencil epidural
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Incidence of PDPH
0.2%-24%
218
PDPH Decreased ______ volume/pressure in subarachnoid space, meninges stretch
CSF
219
PDPH factors that increase incidence (5)
Large, non-pencil point needle Cutting needle bevel direction (perpendicular) Multiple punctures Female Age <40
220
PDPH occur within ________ hours to ____-____ postop day
several hours to 1st-2nd
221
PDPH HA is positional: relieved when patient __________
lying down
222
PDPH conservative treatment (7)
-Horizontal position -Oral analgesics -Adequate hydration -IV caffeine (500mg): shown to eliminate HA in 70% -Oral caffeine (300mg) -Theophylline: 150mg q12h -Sphenopalatine ganglion (SPG) block
223
SPG block Soak a long cotton tipped applicator in ___ - ____% __________ or ____% bupivacaine solution
1-4% lidocaine 0.5% bupivacaine
224
SPG block Patient in ___________ position Insert applicator into each nare, toward _______ __________ Leave applicator in for ___ -____ minutes
sniffing middle turbinate 5-10
225
Definitive treatment for PDPH
Epidural blood patch
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When should you consider an epidural blood patch?
Conservative treatment first, then after 24 h
227
Epidural blood patch works by _____ formation that seals the dura and _____ CSF pressure
clot increases
228
How long does it take for relief after epidural blood patch?
Usually intantaneous
229
The success rate of an epidural blood patch is increased if performed _____ hours after dural puncture
24
230
If epidural blood patch failed, when can you repeat?
in 24 h
231
If epidural blood patch failed x 2?
Seek alternative diagnosis
232
Epidural blood patch Insertion site
At same level or 1 level below level of the lowest initial needle insertion
233
Epidural blood patch Draw _____ mL patient's venous blood from IV or 1 time AC blood draw
20
234
Epidural blood patch After ______, inject blood into space
LOR
235
Epidural blood patch Injection proceeds until patient senses pressure in _____, ______, or ________ _____ - _____ mL
back, buttocks, or legs 12-15 mL
236
Epidural blood patch Patient to remain supine ___ mins to ____ hour after procedure
30 mins to 1 hour