Womens Health (Ben) Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of a Venous Thromboembolism (VTE) in Pregnancy?

A
  • A VTE involves blood clots (thrombosis) developing within the circulation.
  • When they form within the venous system this is known as a Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT).
  • The thrombosis can mobilise (embolisation) from the deep veins and travel to the lungs, where it becomes lodged in the pulmonary arteries, resulting in a pulmonary embolism (PE).
  • Thrombosis occurs as a result of stagnation of blood as well as in hyper-coagulable states, such as in pregnancy, making it much more likely.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the epidemiology of VTEs in pregnancy?

A
  • Pulmonary embolism is a significant cause of death in obstetrics.
  • The risk is significantly reduced with VTE prophylaxis.
  • The risk is highest in the postpartum period.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the risk factors for VTEs in Pregnancy?

A
  • Smoking
  • Parity ≥ 3
  • Age > 35 years
  • BMI > 30
  • Reduced mobility
  • Multiple pregnancy
  • Pre-eclampsia
  • Gross varicose veins
  • Immobility
  • Family history of VTE
  • Thrombophilia
  • IVF pregnancy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What medications are used for VTE prophylaxis?

A

Low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWH):
* Enoxaparin
* Dalteparin
* Tinzaparin.

If Heparin is contraindicated, Mechanical prophylaxis may be used:
* Intermittent pneumatic compression (with equipment that inflates and deflates to massage the legs)
* Anti-embolic compression stockings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When does the RCOG advise starting VTE prophylaxis in pregnant women?

A
  • 28 weeks if there are three risk factors
  • First trimester if there are four or more of these risk factors
  • It is stopped when the woman goes into labour but can be started again immediately after delivery (except with postpartum haemorrhage, spinal anaesthesia and epidurals)
  • It is continued for 6 weeks postnatally.

VTE prophylaxis should also be given in the following situations regardless of risk factors:
* Hospital admission
* Surgical procedures
* Previous VTE
* Medical conditions such as cancer or arthritis
* High-risk thrombophilias
* Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the clinical presentation of a Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)?

A
  • Calf or leg swelling
  • Dilated superficial veins
  • Tenderness to the calf (particularly over the deep veins)
  • Oedema
  • Colour changes to the leg

Deep vein thrombosis is almost always unilateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Pulmonary Embolism (PE)?

A
  • Shortness of breath
  • Cough with or without blood (haemoptysis)
  • Pleuritic chest pain
  • Hypoxia
  • Tachycardia (this can be difficult to distinguish from the normal physiological changes in pregnancy)
  • Raised respiratory rate
  • Low-grade fever
  • Haemodynamic instability causing hypotension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How are VTEs investigated?

A

DVTs:
* Diagnostic - Doppler Ultrasound
* The RCOG advices repeating negative ultrasound scans on day 3 and 7 in patients with a high index of suspicion for DVT.

PEs:
First Line - Chest XRay and ECG
Diagnostic - CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) or Ventilation-perfusion (VQ) scan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe what CT pulmonary angiogram is

A

CT pulmonary angiogram involves a chest CT scan with an intravenous contrast that highlights the pulmonary arteries to demonstrate any blood clots.

This is usually the first choice for diagnostic of a PE (as opposed to a VQ Scan). This is the case because:
* It tends to be more readily available
* It provides a more definitive assessment
* It gives information about alternative diagnoses such as pneumonia or malignancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe what a Ventilation perfusion (VQ) scan is

A
  • Ventilation-perfusion (VQ) scan involves using radioactive isotopes and a gamma camera, to compare the ventilation with the perfusion of the lungs.
  • First, the isotopes are inhaled to fill the lungs, and a picture is taken to demonstrate ventilation. Next, a contrast containing isotopes is injected, and a picture is taken to demonstrate perfusion. The two images are compared.
  • With a pulmonary embolism, there will be a deficit in perfusion, as the thrombus blocks blood flow to the lung tissue. This area of lung tissue will be ventilated but not perfused.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the possible complications of CTPAs and VQ Scans?

A
  • CTPA carries a higher risk of breast cancer for the mother
  • VQ scan carriers a higher risk of childhood cancer for the fetus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Why are D-Dimers not useful in pregnant women?

A

As pregnancy is a cause of a raised D-dimer. So it cannot be used to screen for DVTs and PEs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the management of VTE in pregnancy?

A

Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) (e.g. enoxaparin, dalteparin and tinzaparin).
* The dose is based on the woman’s weight at the booking clinic, or from early pregnancy.
* It should be started immediately, before confirming the diagnosis in patients where DVT or PE is suspected; as treatment can be stopped when the investigations exclude the diagnosis.
* LMWH is continued for the remainder of pregnancy, plus six weeks postnatally, or three months in total (whichever is longer).
* After giving birth, the mother can swap to oral anticoagulation (e.g. warfarin or a DOAC).

Massive PEs are a medical emergency, and treatment can involve:
* Unfractionated heparin
* Thrombolysis
* Surgical embolectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the definition of Gonorrhoea?

A

Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by the gram-negative diplococcus, Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the epidemiology of Gonorrhoea?

A
  • It’s most prevalent among young adults, specifically those aged 15–24 years.
  • Increased prevalence in men who have sex with men
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Gonorrhoea?

A

Women
* Vaginal discharge
* Dysuria
* Abnormal vaginal bleeding
* Discharge from the cervical os, Skene’s gland or Bartholin’s gland may be observed.

Extragenital complications can also be observed:
* Pharyngitis
* Rectal pain an discharge
* Disseminated infection.

Men
* Often asymptomatic
* Discharge
* Dysuria
* Tender inguinal nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are some differentials for Gonorrhoea?

A
  • Chlamydia trachomatis infection
    Presents with similar symptoms such as discharge and dysuria, often co-infected with gonorrhoea.
  • Trichomonas vaginalis infection
    May present with pruritus, dysuria, and malodorous discharge.
  • Bacterial vaginosis
    Characterised by a fishy-smelling discharge, increased vaginal pH and positive ‘whiff’ test.
  • Candidiasis
    Symptoms include pruritus, burning sensation and thick, white, ‘cottage cheese’ like discharge.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How is Gonorrhoea diagnosed?

A

Diagnostic modalities include:

  • Self-taken vulvovaginal swab in women
  • Self-obtained rectal swab
  • Clinician-obtained endocervical swab
  • Microscopy revealing monomorphic Gram-negative diplococci within polymorphonuclear leukocytes
  • Nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT)
  • Blood Culture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the management of Gonorrhoea?

A

First Line - Ceftriaxone

Following treatment, a test of cure is essential to monitor disease clearance and assess the effectiveness of the chosen antibiotic regimen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What complications can Gonnorhoea cause during pregnancy?

A
  • Increased risk of miscarriage and premature birth; due to pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).
  • There can also be vertical transmission of gonorrhea between the mother and newborn baby during vaginal delivery.
  • A neonatal gonorrhoea infection can cause severe eye infections.
  • It can also cause future infertility
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the definition of Chlamydia?

A

A genital chlamydia infection sexually transmitted infection caused by the obligate intracellular bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the epidemiology of Chlamydia?

A
  • It is the most common bacterial STI in the UK.
  • Highest prevalence among young sexually active adults, specifically those aged 15 to 24 years
  • Having multiple partners also increases the risk of catching the infection.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Chlamydia?

A

Chlamydia is very often asymptomatic (especially in women (75% of cases)). But it can cause:
* Abnormal (prurulent) vaginal discharge
* Pelvic pain
* Abnormal vaginal bleeding (intermenstrual or postcoital)
* Painful sex (dyspareunia)
* Painful urination (dysuria)
* Cervical motion tenderness (cervical excitation)
* Inflamed cervix (cervicitis)

Rectal chlamydia should be considered in patients with anorectal symptoms, such as:
* Discomfort
* Discharge
* Bleeding
* Change in bowel habits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are some differentials for Chlamydia?

A

The differentials mainly incude other STIs such as:

  • Gonorrhoea
    Often asymptomatic but may cause urethral discharge, dysuria, intermenstrual or postcoital bleeding, and lower abdominal pain.
  • Trichomoniasis
    May cause pruritus, dysuria, and discharge in both men and women.
  • Genital herpes
    Characterised by painful vesicular lesions, dysuria, and flu-like symptoms.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How is chlamydia diagnosed?

A

Nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT). Which can involve a:

  • Vulvovaginal swab
  • Endocervical swab
  • First-catch urine sample (in women or men)
  • Rectal swab (after anal sex)
  • Pharyngeal swab (after oral sex)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the management of uncomplicated Chlamydia (not in pregnancy)?

A

First Line - doxycycline 100mg twice a day for 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the management of Chlamydia during pregancy?

A

Doxycycline is contraindicated in pregnancy and breastfeeding. Alternatives include:

  • Azithromycin 1g stat then 500mg once a day for 2 days
  • Erythromycin 500mg four times daily for 7 days
  • Erythromycin 500mg twice daily for 14 days
  • Amoxicillin 500mg three times daily for 7 days
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Should a test of cure be done after Chlamydia treatment?

A

No

Apart from in cases of:
* Rectal Chlamydia
* Pregnancy
* when Symptoms persist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the possible complications of Chlamydia during pregnancy?

A
  • Preterm delivery
  • Premature rupture of membranes
  • Low birth weight
  • Postpartum endometritis
  • Ectopic pregnancy
  • Neonatal infection (conjunctivitis and pneumonia)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the possible non-pregnancy related complications of Chlamydia?

A
  • Pelvic inflammatory disease
  • Chronic pelvic pain
  • Infertility
  • Epididymo-orchitis
  • Conjunctivitis - is usually as a result of sexual activity, when genital fluid comes in contact with the eye.
  • Lymphogranuloma venereum
  • Reactive arthritis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the presentation of chlaydial conjunctivitis?

A

Symptoms last for longer than 2 weeks:
* Chronic erythema
* Irritation
* Discharge

Most cases are unilateral

It occurs more frequently in young adults. It can also affect neonates with mothers infected with chlamydia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is Lymphogranuloma venereum?

A

It is a condition affecting the lymphoid tissue around the site of infection with chlamydia. It most commonly occurs in men who have sex with men.

  • Primary stage - Painless ulcer (primary lesion) that typically occurs on the penis in men, vaginal wall in women or rectum after anal sex.
  • Secondary stage - lymphadenitis (swelling, inflammation and pain in the lymph nodes infected with the bacteria). The inguinal or femoral lymph nodes may be affected.
  • Tertiary stage - inflammation of the rectum (proctitis) and anus. This leads to anal pain, change in bowel habit, tenesmus and discharge.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the management of Lymphogranuloma venereum?

A

1st Line - Doxycycline 100mg twice daily for 21 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the definition of Syphilis?

A

Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the spirochete bacterium Treponema pallidum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What causes a Syphilis infection?

A

As stated, its caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. It can be transmitted by:

  • Through direct contact with syphilis sores during sexual activity.
  • Vertical transmission from an infected mother to her unborn child, resulting in congenital syphilis
  • Intravenous drug use
  • Blood transfusions and other transplants
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Syphilis?

A

There are three stages of Syphilis:

Primary Syphilis
* A painless genital ulcer (chancre). That spontaneously recovers within 3 – 8 weeks. The lesion is round, with an indurated base.
* Local lymphadenopathy

Secondary Syphilis - Typically starts after the chancre has healed. (Or 4-10 weeks post-primary infection). Presents with:
* Symmetrical maculopapular rash, often involving the palms, soles, and face.
* Condylomata lata (grey wart-like lesions around the genitals and anus)
* Low-grade fever
* Lymphadenopathy
* Alopecia (localised hair loss)
* Oral lesions

Tertiary Syphilis - Can occur 20-40 years after the primary infection (in untreated patients). Presents with:
* Gummatous lesions (gummas are granulomatous lesions that can affect the skin, organs and bones)
* Aortic aneurysms
* Neurosyphilis

Neurosyphilis - can occur at any stage if the infection reaches the central nervous system. Presents with:
* Headache
* Altered behaviour
* Dementia
* Tabes dorsalis (demyelination affecting the spinal cord posterior columns)
* Ocular syphilis (affecting the eyes)
* Paralysis
* Argyll-Robertson pupil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is an Argyll-Robertson pupil?

A
  • It is a specific finding in neurosyphilis.
  • It is a constricted pupil that accommodates when focusing on a near object but does not react to light.
  • They are often irregularly shaped.
  • It is commonly called a “prostitutes pupil” due to the relation to neurosyphilis and because “it accommodates but does not react“.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the presentation of Syphilis in Neonates?

A

It can present shortly after birth or later in infancy with:
* Rash on the palms/soles of feet
* Mucous patches/lesions in the mouth/nose/genitals
* Fever, hepatosplenomegaly
* Anaemia
* Bone developmental abnormalities (‘saber shins’)
* Neurological sequalae (seizures, developmental delay).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the investigations for Syphilis?

A

Different types of Serological testing is used for screening and monitoring, and then for confirmation of the diagnosis:

  • Screening and Monitorring - Non-treponemal tests (e.g., VDRL, RPR)
  • Diagnostic - treponemal tests (e.g., EIA, TPPA, FTA-ABS)
  • Dark-field microscopy: Can be used to directly observe T. pallidum in samples from primary lesions or secondary rash.
  • CSF examination: Should be considered in tertiary syphilis to evaluate for CNS involvement.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the management of Syphilis?

A

Primary, secondary, and early latent syphilis:
* A single dose of intramuscular penicillin G (benzathine benzylpenicillin) is the first-line therapy.

Tertiary and late latent syphilis or syphilis of unknown duration:
* Requires a longer course of intramuscular penicillin G for 2-3 weeks.

Neurosyphilis:
* Treated with intravenous penicillin G for 10-14 days
* Patients allergic to penicillin may be given doxycycline or tetracycline.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the definition of Bacterial Vaginosis?

A

Bacterial vaginosis is a bacterial imbalance of the vagina caused by an overgrowth of anaerobic bacteria and a loss of lactobacilli (the dominant bacterial species responsible for maintaining an acidic vaginal pH).

It is not a sexually transmitted infection but it increases the risk of developing an STI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Bacterial Vaginosis?

A
  • Lactobacilli are the main component of the healthy vaginal bacterial flora. These bacteria produce lactic acid that keeps the vaginal pH low (under 4.5).
  • The acidic environment prevents other bacteria from overgrowing.
  • When there are reduced numbers of lactobacilli in the vagina, the pH rises. This more alkaline environment enables anaerobic bacteria to multiply.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the most common anaerobic bacteria associated with bacterial vaginosis?

A
  • Gardnerella vaginalis (most common)
  • Mycoplasma hominis
  • Prevotella species

Bacterial vaginosis can occur alongside STIs like candidiasis, chlamydia and gonorrhoea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the epidemiology of Bacterial Vaginosis?

A

It is the most common cause of abnormal vaginal discharge in women of childbearing age.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the risk factors of Bacterial Vaginosis?

A
  • Multiple sexual partners (although it is not sexually transmitted)
  • Excessive vaginal cleaning (douching, use of cleaning products and vaginal washes)
  • Recent antibiotics
  • Smoking
  • Copper coil
  • Pregnant women are at increased risk of bacterial vaginosis due to hormonal changes.

Bacterial vaginosis occurs less frequently in women taking the combined pill or using condoms effectively.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the presentation of Bacterial Vaginosis?

A
  • fishy-smelling watery grey or white vaginal discharge (fishy smelling particularly after intercourse)
  • Increased vaginal discharge
  • Vaginal itching or irritation may be present but is less common

Half of women are asymptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are some differentials for Bacterial Vaginosis?

A
  • Vulvovaginal Candidiasis
    Characterised by itching, burning, dyspareunia, and white, curd-like discharge.
  • Trichomonas Vaginalis Infection
    Presents with purulent, frothy, greenish discharge, pruritus, dyspareunia, and dysuria.
  • Chlamydia or Gonorrhoea infection
    May present with increased vaginal discharge and possibly lower abdominal pain, but are often asymptomatic.
  • Atrophic Vaginitis
    Most commonly seen in postmenopausal women, presenting with dryness, burning, dyspareunia, and thin, watery discharge.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How is Bacterial Vaginosis diagnosed?

A

The Amsel Criteria - Three out of the following 4 features need to be present:
* Vaginal pH >4.5 (Vaginal swab with pH paper)
* Homogenous grey or milky discharge
* Positive whiff test (addition of 10% potassium hydroxide produces a fishy odour)
* Clue cells present on wet mount (Microsopy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the management of Bacterial Vaginosis?

A
  • First line treatement - Metronidazole is given either orally or intravaginally.
  • Second line management - Clindamycin
  • Asymptomatic BV does not usually require treatment

You should also assess for the risk of STIs, as well as providing education about how to reduce the risk of recurrence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What do patients on Metronidazole need to avoid?

A

Alcohol

This is because alcohol and metronidazole can cause a “disulfiram-like reaction”, with nausea and vomiting, flushing and sometimes severe symptoms of shock and angioedema.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the possible complications of Bacterial Vaginosis?

A

Increase the risk of catching sexually transmitted infections, including chlamydia, gonorrhoea and HIV.

During Pregnancy:
* Miscarriage
* Preterm delivery
* Premature rupture of membranes
* Chorioamnionitis
* Low birth weight
* Postpartum endometritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the definition of Trichomoniasis?

A

Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by the flagellated protozoan parasite, Trichomonas vaginalis.

It primarily infects the urogenital tract, and has an incubation period of around 7 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the epidemiology of Trichomoniasis?

A

It is the most common non-viral STI globally.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Trichomoniasis?

A

Women:
* Profuse, frothy, yellow-green vaginal discharge
* Vulval irritation
* Dyspareunia (painful sex)
* Asymptomatic presentation is also common (up to 50%)
* Strawberry Cervix sign may be seen on examination
* The vaginal pH will be raised (above 4.5) similar to bacterial vaginosis

Men
* Non-gonococcal urethritis
* Balanitis (inflammation to the glans penis)
* Also commonly asymptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What can Trichomonas increase the risk of?

A
  • Contracting HIV by damaging the vaginal mucosa
  • Bacterial vaginosis
  • Cervical cancer
  • Pelvic inflammatory disease
  • Pregnancy-related complications such as preterm delivery or low birth weight baby.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are some differentials for Trichomonas?

A
  • Bacterial vaginosis
    Characterized by a fishy-smelling, grayish-white vaginal discharge and vaginal pH > 4.5
  • Candidiasis
    Presenting with a thick, white, “cottage cheese” like vaginal discharge and vulval itching
  • Gonorrhea or Chlamydia
    These STIs may present with mucopurulent cervical discharge, cervical motion tenderness, and may also be asymptomatic.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What investigations are done for Trichomonas?

A
  • Diagnostic - Charcoal swab with microscopy
    This should be taken from the posterior fornix of the vagina (behind the cervix)
  • Urethral swab or first catch urine is used in men
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the management of Trichomonas?

A

Oral metronidazole
Either 400–500mg twice a day for 5–7 days, or a single dose of 2g orally.

Its advised to abstain from sexual activity for at least one week, or until the patient and all partners have completed treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the definition of a Urinary Tract Infection?

A

Lower Urinary Tract Infection - Involves infection of the bladder, causing cystitis.
Upper Urinary Tract Infection - Involves infection up to the kidneys, called pyelonephritis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the relationship between Pregancy and UTIs?

A

Pregnant women are at higher risk of developing both lower and upper UTIs

UTIs during pregnancy increase the risk of:
* Preterm delivery
* As well as other adverse pregnancy outcomes, like low birth weight and pre-eclampsia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is Asymptomatic Bacteriuria?

A
  • Asymptomatic bacteriuria refers to bacteria present in the urine, without symptoms of infection.
  • Pregnant women with asymptomatic bacteriuria are at a higher risk of developing UTIs, and subsequently at risk of preterm birth.
  • As a result, pregnant women are tested at booking and routinely throughout pregnancy (urine sample testing for microscopy, culture & sensitivity).
  • Urine testing of asymptomatic patients is not usually done (as it can lead to unescesary antibiotic use) but pregnant women are the exception due to the adverse outcomes associated with infection.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the presentation of a lower UTI?

A
  • Dysuria (pain, stinging or burning when passing urine)
  • Suprapubic pain or discomfort
  • Increased frequency of urination
  • Urgency
  • Incontinence
  • Haematuria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the presentation of an upper UTI (Pylonephritis)?

A
  • Fever (more prominent than in lower urinary tract infections)
  • Loin, suprapubic or back pain (this may be bilateral or unilateral)
  • Looking and feeling generally unwell
  • Vomiting
  • Loss of appetite
  • Haematuria
  • Renal angle tenderness on examination
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What investigation is routinely done in pregnant women to diagnose UTIs?

A
  • Mid-stream urine samples are sent off for cultures and sensitivity testing.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What other investigations can be useful for investigating a UTI?

A
  • Mid-stream urine (as stated above) - In children, men and pregnant women
  • Urine Dipstick will be positive for nitrates and leukocytes (although this is unreliable in women older than 65 and those who are catheterised)
  • Blood tests if there are signs of systemic upset (FBC, U+E, and CRP, etc…)
  • Ultrasound scan of bladder/kidney (if there is concern about antecedents/complications (e.g.urinary retention/obstruction)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are the most common causative organisms of UTIs?

A
  • Escherichia coli (E. coli) (Most common)
  • Klebsiella pneumoniae (gram-negative anaerobic rod)
  • Enterococcus
  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • Staphylococcus saprophyticus
  • Candida albicans (fungal)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the management of UTIs in pregnancy?

A

Urinary tract infection in pregnancy requires 7 days of antibiotics

  • First Line - Nitrofuratoin for 7 days (although this needs to be avoided in the 3rd trimester)
  • Second Line - If nitrofuratoin is unsuitable then use Amoxicillin or Cefelexin for 7 days
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Why does Nitrofuratoin need to be avoided during the 3rd trimester of pregnancy?

A

As it is associated with an increased a risk of neonatal haemolysis (destruction of the neonatal red blood cells).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Trimethoprim is a common alternative first line antibiotic for treatment of UTIs. Why can it not be given in pregnant women (especially in the first trimester)?

A

This is because it works as a folate antagonist. Folate is important in early pregnancy for the normal development of the fetus.

Trimethoprim in early pregnancy can cause congenital malformations, particularly neural tube defects (i.e. spina bifida). It is not known to be harmful later in pregnancy, but is generally avoided unless necessary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What can occur if a pregnant woman becomes infected with the Varicella zoster virus (VZV)?

A

If a non-immune woman contracts the varicella zoster virus (VZV) during the first trimester of her pregnancy, it can cause Congenital varicella syndrome in the foetus (as the virus can have teratogenic effects).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the management of VZV during pregancy?

A
  • If a non-immune pregnant woman comes into contact with a person infected with the VZV; immunoglobulin can be given as a preventive measure.
  • If maternal infection by VZV occurs, Acyclovir is the treatment of choice and should be administered within 24 hours of the onset of the rash.
  • Pregnant women who lack immunity to the VZV should be counseled to avoid exposure to the virus.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the definition of Premature ovarian insufficiency (POI)?

A

Premature ovarian insufficiency (POI) is a medical condition characterized by the onset of menopause in a woman aged below 40 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What can cause premature ovarian insufficiency?

A

The causes can either be idiopathic or iatrogenic e.g.:
* ovarian surgery
* radiotherapy or chemotherapy that directly impact the ovaries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Premature ovarian insufficiency?

A

Women with POI typically develop the same symptoms as those undergoing natural menopause, including:
* Vasomotor symptoms:
Hot flushes, night sweats
* Sexual dysfunction:
Vaginal dryness, reduced libido, problems with orgasm, dyspareunia
* Psychological symptoms:
Depression, anxiety, mood swings, lethargy, reduced concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What are some differentials for Premature ovarian insufficiency?

A
  • Hypothyroidism:
    Fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, depression, hair loss
  • Hyperprolactinemia:
    Irregular menstrual cycles, infertility, breast milk production not related to childbirth or nursing
  • Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS):
    Irregular periods, hirsutism, obesity, infertility
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

How is premature ovarian insufficiency diagnosed?

A
  • Blood test for raised FSH levels; indicative of the menopause (repeated on at least 2 separate occasions)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is the management of Premature ovarian insufficiency?

A

Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) until at least the age of normal menopause.

  • HRT is done, unless the risks of HRT outweigh the benefits
  • Psychological support should also be provided due to the potential mental health impacts of early menopause.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the definition of Oligohydramnios?

A

Oligohydramnios is defined as the presence of a lower than normal volume of amniotic fluid within the uterus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What can cause Oligohydramnios?

A

There are various different causes:
* Uteroplacental insufficiency
This can lead to intrauterine growth restriction. Its usually due to maternal conditions like hypertension, pre-eclampsia, maternal smoking and placental abruption.
* Fetal urinary system abnormalities
The amniotic fluid is derived mainly from fetal urine, abnormalities in this system (such as renal agenesis, polycystic kidneys or urethral obstruction) can therefore lead to oligohydramnios.
* Premature rupture of membranes
* Post-term gestation
* Chromosomal anomalies
* Maternal use of certain drugs including prostaglandin inhibitors and ACE-inhibitors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Was is the presentation of Oligohydramnios in the neonate?

A

Potter Syndrome which includes:
* Clubbed feet, facial deformity, congenital hip dysplasia (Due to foetal compression)
* Pulmonary hypoplasia (Due to lack of amniotic fluid)

Potter syndrome is largely the result of reduced ““space”” surrounding the fetus as well as the lack of amniotic fluid for fetal lung growth and development.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is the main differential for Oligohydramnios?

A

Polyhydramnios - which is an overabundance of amniotic fluid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

How is Olighohydramnios diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis is made via ultrasound:
* This will show a reduced amniotic fluid index (AFI) or single deepest pocket (SDP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is the management of Oligohydramnios?

A

Management depends on the underlying aetiology; but options include:

  • Maternal rehydration
    This may help to increase the amniotic fluid volume in mild cases of oligohydramnios.
  • Amnioinfusion
    This is the infusion of saline into the amniotic cavity to increase the volume of amniotic fluid.
  • Delivery
    In severe cases, or if the fetus is in distress, delivery may be the best option. This may be via induction of labour or caesarean section, depending on the clinical scenario.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is the definition of Polyhydramnios?

A

Polyhydramnios is the presence of too much amniotic fluid within the uterus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the aetiology of polyhydramnios?

A

The causes of polyhydramnios can be split into causes due to excessive production of amniotic fluid or insufficient removal of amniotic fluid:

Execessive production is caused by increased foetal urination which can be due to:
* Maternal diabetes mellitus
* Foetal renal disorders
* Foetal anaemia
* Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome

Insufficient removal is caused by reduced foetal swallowing which can be due to:
* Oesophageal or duodenal atresia
* Diaphragmatic hernia
* Anencephaly
* Chromosomal disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is the clinical presentation of polyhydramnios?

A
  • A uterus that feels tense or is large for the date of gestation
  • Difficulty of feeling foetal parts upon palpation of the abdomen.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What possible maternal complications can polyhydramnios cause?

A

Maternal complications:

  • Maternal respiratory compromise due to increased pressure on the diaphragm
  • Increased risk of urinary tract infections due to increased pressure on the urinary system
  • Worsening of other symptoms associated with pregnancy such as gastro-oesophageal reflux, constipation, peripheral oedema and stretch marks
  • Increased incidence of caesarean section delivery
  • Increased risk of amniotic fluid embolism (although this is rare)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What possible foetal complications can polyhydramnios cause?

A

Foetal complications:

  • Pre-term labour and delivery
  • Premature rupture of membranes
  • Placental abruption
  • Malpresentation of the foetus (the foetus has more space to “move” within the uterus)
  • Umbilical cord prolapse (polyhydramnios can prevent the foetus from engaging with the pelvis, thus leaving room for the cord to prolapse out of the uterus before the presenting part)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is the management of polyhydramnios?

A
  • Management of the underlying cause (e.g. maternal diabetes)
  • Amnio-reduction in severe cases of polyhydramnios
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is the definition of foetal presentation?

A

Fetal presentation is the orientation of the fetus in the womb that determines which part of the fetus presents first at the pelvic inlet during childbirth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is the most common (and safest) foetal presentation?

A

Cephalic Vertex presentation

Makes up 95% of pregnancies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is the definition of Malpresentation?

A

This is when the foetus is in a different orientation other than facing head-first down the pelvic inlet as birth approaches.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is the most common type of malpresentation?

A

Breech Presentation - Refers to the positioning of the fetus in a longitudinal lie with the buttocks or feet proximal to the cervix and the head near the fundus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is the epidemiology of malpresentations?

A

Around 20% of babies are in breech presentation at 28 weeks gestation. But the vast majority of these revert to a cephalic presentation spontaneously, and only 3% are breech at term.

Other types of malpresentation (e.g. shoulder) are much rarer than breech presentations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What are the 3 different types of Breech presentation?

A
  • Complete (flexed) breech – both legs are flexed at the hips and knees (fetus appears to be sitting ‘crossed-legged’).
  • Frank (extended) breech – both legs are flexed at the hip and extended at the knee. This is the most common type of breech presentation.
  • Footling breech – one or both legs extended at the hip, so that the foot is the presenting part.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What are the risk factors for a Breech presentation?

A

Uterine:
* Multiparity
* Uterine malformations (e.g. septate uterus)
* Fibroids
* Placenta praevia

Foetal:
* Prematurity
* Macrosomia
* Polyhydramnios (raised amniotic fluid index)
* Twin pregnancy (or higher order)
* Abnormality (e.g. anencephaly)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is the clinical presentation of a Breech presentation?

A

It is usually identified upon clinical examination:
* Upon palpation of the abdomen the round fetal head will be felt in the upper part of the uterus, and an irregular mass (fetal buttocks and legs) in the pelvis.
* The foetal heart may be auscultated higher on the maternal abdomen than usual
* Sometimes it’s not diagnosed until labour, where it can present with signs of foetal distress such as meconium-stained liquor.

Diagnosis of Breech presentation is of limited clinical significance before 32-35 weeks gestation; as most likely the foetus will revert to cephalic presentation by birth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

How is Breech presentation diagnosed?

A

Ultrasound Scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What are some differentials for a breech presentation?

A
  • Oblique lie
    The fetus is positioned diagonally in the uterus, with the head or buttocks in one iliac fossa.
  • Transverse lie
    The fetus is positioned across the uterus, with the head on one side of the pelvis and the buttocks on the other. The shoulder is usually the presenting part.
  • Unstable lie
    This is where the presentation of the fetus changes from day-to-day.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is the management of a breech presentation?

A
  • External Cephalic Version (ECV)
    This is the is the manipulation of the fetus to a cephalic presentation through the maternal abdomen. It is offered to primiparous women at 36 weeks, and to multiparous women at 37 weeks. There is a 50% success rate (40% in primiparous, 60% in multiparous); and if successful, it can enable an attempt at vaginal delivery.
  • Caesarean Section
    If ECV is unsuccessful, contraindicated, or declined by the woman, current UK guidelines advise an elective Caesarean delivery.
  • Vaginal Breech Birth
    Some women may still choose to aim for a vaginal breech delivery. A footling breech is contraindicated however as the feet and legs can slip through a non-fully dilated cervix, and the shoulders or head can then become trapped.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What are the possible complications for an ECV?

A
  • Transient fetal heart abnormalities (which revert to normal),
  • Persistent heart rate abnormalities (e.g fetal bradycardia)
  • Placental abruption.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What are the complications of a breech presentation?

A
  • Cord prolapse - where the umbilical cord drops down below the presenting part of the baby, and becomes compressed. This occurs in 1% of breech presentations (Compared to 0.5% in cephalic presentations)

Less common:
* Fetal head entrapment
* Premature rupture of membranes
* Birth asphyxia – usually secondary to a delay in delivery.
* Intracranial haemorrhage – as a result of rapid compression of the head during delivery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What is the definition of Cephalopelvic disproportion?

A

Cephalopelvic disproportion occurs when there is mismatch between the size of the fetal head and size of the maternal pelvis, resulting in “failure to progress” in labor for mechanical reasons.

This is a significant risk factor for post term pregnancies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What is the definition of a Uterine Rupture?

A
  • Uterine rupture is a complication of labour, where the muscle layer of the uterus (myometrium) ruptures.
  • Uterine rupture leads to significant bleeding. The baby may be released from the uterus into the peritoneal cavity. It has a high morbidity and mortality for both the baby and mother.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What are the types of Uterine Rupture?

A

There are two types:
* Incomplete (or uterine dehiscence) rupture - The uterine serosa (perimetrium) surrounding the uterus remains intact.
* Complete rupture - The serosa ruptures along with the myometrium, and the contents of the uterus are released into the peritoneal cavity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What are the risk factors for uterine rupture?

A
  • Previous Caesarean section (The most significant)
  • Vaginal birth after caesarean (VBAC)
  • Previous uterine surgery
  • Increased BMI
  • High parity
  • Increased age
  • Induction of labour
  • Use of oxytocin to stimulate contractions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Why does a previous caesarian section increase the risk of a uterine rupture?

A
  • The scar on the uterus becomes a point of weakness, and may rupture with excessive pressure (e.g. excessive stimulation by oxytocin).
  • It is extremely rare for uterine rupture to occur in a patient that is giving birth for the first time.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What is the clinical presentation of uterine rupture?

A

It presents with an acutely unwell mother. It may occur with induction or augmentation of labour with:

  • Abdominal pain
  • Vaginal bleeding
  • Ceasing of uterine contractions
  • Hypotension
  • Tachycardia
  • Collapse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What are some differentials of uterine rupture?

A
  • Placental abruption
    Presents with abdominal pain +/- vaginal bleeding. The uterus is often described ‘woody’ and tense on palpation.
  • Placenta praevia
    Typically causes a painless vaginal bleeding.
  • Vasa praevia
    Characterised by a triad of ruptured membranes, painless vaginal bleeding, and fetal bradycardia.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What investigations are done to diagnose a uterine rupture?

A
  • Intrapartum Cardiotocography (first line) - It is continuous recording of the fetal heart rate obtained via an ultrasound transducer placed on the mother’s abdomen. Changes in fetal heart rate pattern and prolonged fetal bradycardia are early indicators for uterine rupture.
  • Ultrasound - Is diagnostic; features include abnormal fetal lie or presentation, haemoperitoneum and absent uterine wall.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What is the management of a uterine rupture?

A
  • Uterine rupture is an obstetric emergency.
  • Resuscitation and transfusion may be required.
  • Emergency caesarean section is necessary to remove the baby, stop any bleeding and repair or remove the uterus (hysterectomy).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What is the definition of Preterm (or Premature) Labour?

A
  • Preterm Labour - The onset of regular uterine contractions accompanied by cervical changes occurring before 37 weeks gestation.
  • Preterm Birth - The delivery of a baby after 20 weeks gestation but before 37 weeks gestation.

Prematurity is classed as:
* Under 28 weeks: extreme preterm
* 28 – 32 weeks: very preterm
* 32 – 37 weeks: moderate to late preterm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Preterm labour?

A

Regular uterine contractions, changes in cervical effacement or dilation (before 37 weeks gestation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What are some conditions associated with Preterm labour and delivery?

A
  • Overstretching of the uterus
    Multiple pregnancy (commonly due to assisted conception) and polyhydramnios.
  • Foetal risk conditions
    Pre-eclampsia, intrauterine growth restriction, placental abruption.
  • Uterus or cervical problems
    Fibroids, congenital uterine malformation, short or weak cervix, previous uterine or cervical surgery.
  • Infections
    Chorioamnionitis, maternal or neonatal sepsis, bacterial vaginosis, trichomoniasis, Group B Streptococcus, sexually transmitted infections (e.g., Chlamydia), and recurrent urinary tract infections.
  • Maternal co-morbidity
    Hypertension, diabetes, renal failure, thyroid disease, etc.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What are some differentials for Preterm lecture?

A
  • Braxton Hicks contractions
    Characterized by irregular, non-painful contractions that do not cause cervical dilation or effacement.
  • Urinary tract infection
    Presents with dysuria, frequency, suprapubic pain, and possibly preterm labour symptoms.
  • Placental abruption
    Presents with vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, and hypertonic uterus.
  • Uterine rupture
    Signs include severe abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, abnormal fetal heart rate, and cessation of contractions.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What investigations can be done when Preterm labour starts?

A

Foetal fibronectin test (fFN test) - is a screening test used to assess the risk of preterm delivery after the onset of pre-term labour.

A negative fFN test indicates a low risk of delivery occurring within the next 7-14 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What does the management of a Preterm labour involve?

A
  • Corticosteroids - (betamethasone or dexamethasone) should be administered to accelerate foetal lung maturation.
  • Intravenous antibiotics - if there is an increased risk of infection (evidence of Group B Streptococcus (GBS) in current or previous pregnancy, presence of maternal fever). (Penicillin is the antibiotic of choice if there is no allergy).
  • Tocolytic agents may be considered to delay labour, .
    (Nifedipine is the first-line tocolytic agent).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What is the definition of Premature Rupture of the membranes (PROM)?

A
  • PROM is a condition characterized by the rupture of the amniotic membranes (or sac) before the onset of labour.
  • If this occurs after 37 weeks gestation, it is know as premature rupture of the membranes at term.
  • If this occurs before 37 weeks however, it’s known as Preterm prelabour rupture of membranes (P‑PROM).
  • Most women with PROM at term will spontaneously start labour within 24 hours.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What causes Premature Rupture of the membranes?

A

Exact cause isn’t well understood; but can be due to a combination of:
* Infection
* Inflammation
* Stress
* Mechanical forces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Premature rupture of the membranes?

A
  • Foul-smelling or greenish amniotic fluid
  • Maternal fever
  • Reduced foetal movements

A digital vaginal examination should be avoided in the absence of labour. But the foetal heart should be monitored.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What are some differentials for premature rupture of the membranes?

A
  • Urinary incontinence
    This can be distinguished by the absence of amniotic fluid and the presence of urinary symptoms.
  • Vaginal discharge or infection
    This can be ruled out by the absence of foul-smelling or greenish discharge and the absence of other infection symptoms.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What investigations are done for premature rupture of the membranes?

A

Investigations for PROM should focus on assessing signs of infection and foetal distress, including:

  • Monitoring maternal temperature
  • Assessing foetal movements
  • Monitoring foetal heart rate
  • Observing vaginal discharge
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What is the management of premature rupture of the membranes?

A
  • If labour does not commence within 24 hours, induction of labour should be offered.
  • If there are any signs of infection, immediate induction of labour should be commenced under consultant guidance and a broad spectrum antibiotic should be given.
  • If there are any signs of foetal compromise, senior review is required to make a decision about whether immediate caesarean section is required.
  • Following delivery, even if both baby and mother are asymptomatic, they should be closely observed in hospital for 12 hours post-birth.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What are some complications of premature rupture of the membranes?

A
  • Chorioamnionitis - due to ascending infection
  • Preterm birth - (and the associated complications) e.g. respiratory distress syndrome, necrotising enterocolitis, and foetal death
  • Developmental problems - E.g. pulmonary hypoplasia, facial and limb deformities due to compression in the uterus, and cord prolapse due to low levels of amniotic fluid.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What is the definition of Umbilical cord prolapse?

A
  • Cord prolapse is when the umbilical cord descends below the presenting part of the foetus and through the cervix into the vagina, after rupture of the fetal membranes.
  • There is a significant danger of the presenting part compressing the umbilical cord, resulting in fetal hypoxia.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What are the risk factors of Cord Prolapse?

A
  • Abnormal lie (Malpresentations) (e.g. transverse, breech)
  • Multiple pregnancy
  • Polyhydramnios
  • High fetal head at delivery
  • Multiparity
  • Low birth weight
  • Prematurity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Cord Prolapse?

A
  • Sudden change in the fetal heart rate pattern, particularly variable or prolonged decelerations.
  • Feeling of the cord in the vagina or visible cord after rupture of membranes
  • Abnormal fetal heart rate detected on cardiotocography
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

How is a Cord prolapse diagnosed?

A
  • Cardiotocography - Umbilical cord prolapse should be suspected when there are signs of foetal distress on CTG.
  • Vaginal examination - Can then be used to diagnose a prolapsed cord (by confirming the presence of the umbilical cord in the birth canal)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What is the management of a Cord prolapse?

A

When cord prolapse is diagnosed, swift action is vital to prevent fetal hypoxia and death:

  • Immediate delivery of the foetus is required (by Emergency Cesaerean section). A vaginal delivery has a high risk of cord compression and significant hypoxia to the baby.
  • Use of the left lateral position (with a pillow under the hip) or the knee-chest position (on all fours) to prevent further prolapse. This uses gravity to draw the fetus away from the pelvis and reduce compression on the cord.
  • Filling the bladder with 500ml warmed saline to aid in preventing further prolapse
  • Avoidance of exposure and handling of the cord (as handling causes vasospasm)
  • Use of tocolytics, (e.g.terbutaline), to stop uterine contractions.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What is the definition of an Instrumental Delivery?

A

Instrumental delivery refers to a vaginal delivery assisted by either a ventouse suction cup or forceps.

These tools are used to help in the delivery of the baby’s head.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What percentage of births are done by Instrumental Delivery?

A

10% of UK Births

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What are the indications to perform an instrumental delivery?

A
  • Failure to progress
  • Foetal distress
  • Maternal exhaustion
  • Control of the head in various fetal positions
  • The use of an epidural for analgaesia, increases the risk that an instrumental delivery may be nescesary.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What are the maternal risks of an instrumental delivery?

A
  • Postpartum haemorrhage
  • Episiotomy
  • Perineal tears
  • Injury to the anal sphincter
  • Incontinence of the bladder or bowel
  • Nerve injury (obturator or femoral nerve)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

What are the foetal risks of an instrumental delivery?

A
  • Cephalohaematoma with ventouse
  • Facial nerve palsy with forceps

Rarer (more serious complications):
* Subgaleal haemorrhage (most dangerous)
* Intracranial haemorrhage
* Skull fracture
* Spinal cord injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What is a Ventouse?

A
  • It is essentially a suction cup on a cord.
  • It goes on the baby’s head, and the doctor or midwife applies careful traction to the cord to help pull the baby out of the vagina.
  • Its main complication is a cephalohaematoma - Which involves a collection of blood between the skull and the periosteum.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

How are forceps used in an instrumental delivery?

A
  • The forceps come as two pieces of curved metal that attach together, go either side of the baby’s head and grip the head in a way that allows the doctor or midwife to apply careful traction and pull the head from the vagina.
  • Main complication is facial nerve palsy, with facial paralysis on one side.
  • The forceps can also cause bruises on the baby’s face
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What are the 2 nerves in the mother most commonly injured in an instrumental delivery?

A
  • Femoral nerve
  • Obturator nerve

The nerve injury tends to recover over 6 – 8 weeks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

How can the femoral nerve be injured during instrumental delivery?

A

The Femoral nerve can be compressed against the inguinal canal during a forceps delivery resulting in nerve injury.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

What is the clinical presentation of a Femoral Nerve injury?

A
  • Weakness of knee extension
  • Loss of the patella reflex
  • Numbness of the anterior thigh and medial lower leg.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

How can the Obturator nerve be injured during instrumental delivery?

A

The obturator nerve may be compressed by forceps during instrumental delivery or by the fetal head during normal delivery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What is the clinical presentation of a Obturator Nerve injury?

A
  • Weakness of hip adduction and rotation
  • Numbness of the medial thigh
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

What is the definition of Shoulder Dystocia?

A
  • Shoulder dystocia is a specific type of obstructed labour where the anterior shoulder of the baby becomes stuck behind the pubic symphysis of the pelvis, after the head has been delivered.
  • This is an obstectric emergency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What are the risk factors for Shoulder Dystocia?

A
  • Maternal gestational diabetes
  • Macrosomia
  • Birthweight >4kg
  • Advanced maternal age
  • Maternal short stature or small pelvis
  • Maternal obesity
  • Post-dates pregnancy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Shoulder Dystocia?

A
  • Difficult delivery of the foetal face or chin
  • Retraction of the foetal head back into the vagina, after its been delivered (turtle-neck sign)
  • Failure of restitution - where the head remains face downwards (occipito-anterior) and does not turn sideways as expected after delivery of the head.
  • Failure of descent of the foetal shoulders following delivery of the head.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What is the management of Shoulder Dystocia?

A

Its an Obstetric emergency that needs prompt intervention to deliver the baby. There are various manouvres to help with this:

  • McRoberts manoeuvre
  • Rubins manoeuvre
  • Wood’s screw manoeuvre
  • Zavanelli manoeuver

An episiotomy can be used to enlarge the vaginal opening and reduce the risk of perineal tears. But this isn’t always nescesary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

What’s involved in a McRoberts manoeuvre?

A

It involves hyperflexion of the mother at the hip (bringing her knees to her abdomen). This provides a posterior pelvic tilt, lifting the pubic symphysis up and out of the way.

147
Q

What’s involved in a Rubins manoeuvre?

A

It involves reaching into the vagina to put pressure on the posterior aspect of the baby’s anterior shoulder to help it move under the pubic symphysis.

148
Q

What’s involved in a Wood’s Screw Manouvre?

A

It is performed during a Rubins manoeuvre. The other hand is used to reach in the vagina and put pressure on the anterior aspect of the posterior shoulder. The top shoulder is pushed forwards, and the bottom shoulder is pushed backwards, rotating the baby and helping delivery.

149
Q

What’s involved in a Zavanelli Manouvre?

A

It involves pushing the baby’s head back into the vagina so that the baby can be delivered by emergency caesarean section.

150
Q

What is the definition of Placenta accreta?

A
  • Placenta accreta refers to when the placenta implants deeper than usual, (through and past the endometrium), making it difficult to separate the placenta after delivery of the baby.
  • It is referred to as placenta accreta spectrum, as there is a spectrum of severity in how deep and broad the abnormal implantation extends.
151
Q

What are the 3 severities of the Placenta Accreta Spectrum?

A
  • Superficial placenta accreta - is where the placenta implants in the surface of the myometrium, but not beyond
  • Placenta increta - is where the placenta attaches deeply into the myometrium
  • Placenta percreta - is where the placenta invades past the myometrium and perimetrium, potentially reaching other organs such as the bladder.
152
Q

What are the risk factors for the placenta accreta spectrum?

A
  • Previous placenta accreta
  • Previous termination of pregnancy
  • Dilatation and curettage
  • Previous caesarean section
  • Advanced maternal age
  • Low lying placenta or placenta praevia
  • Uterine structural defects
153
Q

What is the pathophysiology of placenta accreta?

A
  • Usually the placenta attaches to the endometrium. This allows the placenta to separate cleanly during the third stage of labour, after delivery of the baby.
  • With placenta accreta, the placenta embeds past the endometrium, into the myometrium and beyond.
  • This may happen due to a defect in the endometrium. Imperfections may occur due to previous uterine surgery, such as a caesarean section.
  • This deep implantation makes it very difficult for the placenta to separate during delivery, leading to extensive bleeding (postpartum haemorrhage).
154
Q

What is the presentation of placenta accreta?

A
  • It typically doesn’t cause any symptoms during pregnancy.
  • It can present with bleeding (antepartum haemorrhage) in the third trimester.
  • It may be diagnosed at birth, when it becomes difficult to deliver the placenta. It can cause significant postpartum haemorrhage.
155
Q

How is placenta accreta diagnosed?

A

Ideally it is diagnosed before birth with an Antenatal Ultrasound

156
Q

What are the possible complications of placenta accreta?

A
  • Severe Postpartum Haemorrhage
  • Preterm delivery
  • Uterine rupture.
157
Q

What is the management of placenta accreta?

A
  • Elective Ceesarian Section with hysterectomy is the safest management option.

If preserving the patient’s fertility is important to them, then the following can be attempted alongside the C-Section:
* Uterus preserving surgery, with resection of part of the myometrium along with the placenta
* Expectant management, leaving the placenta in place to be reabsorbed over time. But this comes with a significant risk of bleeding and infection.

158
Q

What is the definition of Placenta Praevia?

A
  • It’s defined as the placenta overlying the cervical os.
  • This means that the placenta is attached in the lower portion of the uterus; lower than the presenting part of the fetus.
159
Q

What is the difference between a Low lying placenta and Placenta Praevia?

A
  • Low-lying placenta - Is used when the placenta is within 20mm of the internal cervical os
  • Placenta praevia - Is used only when the placenta is over the internal cervical os

NOTE
A 4 stage grading system used to be used, but it’s now considered outdated.

160
Q

What are the complications of Placenta Praevia?

A

It’s associated with increased morbidity and mortality for both the mother and fetus. Risks include:
* Antepartum haemorrhage
* Emergency caesarean section
* Emergency hysterectomy
* Maternal anaemia and transfusions
* Preterm birth and low birth weight
* Stillbirth

161
Q

What are the 3 causes of Antepartum Haemorrhage?

A
  • Placenta praevia
  • Placental abruption
  • Vasa praevia
162
Q

What are the risk factors for Placenta Praevia?

A
  • Previous caesarean sections
  • Previous placenta praevia
  • Older maternal age
  • Maternal smoking
  • Structural uterine abnormalities (e.g. fibroids)
  • Assisted reproduction (e.g. IVF)
163
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Placenta Praevia?

A
  • Bright red painless vaginal bleeding. Placenta praevia should be suspected if there’s vaginal bleeding that occurs after 24 weeks of pregnancy.
  • Malpresentation of the foetus may be found on examination as a result of the abnormal placental position
  • Mothers may present with signs of shock if there is severe blood loss.
  • Many women are asymptomatic
164
Q

How is Placenta Praevia diagnosed?

A
  • If there is painless bleeding after 13 weeks or previous history of uterine incision, then transvaginal ultrasound is used to diagnose or exclude placenta praevia.
  • In known cases of Placenta Praevia, further ultrasounds should be taken at 32 and 36 weeks gestation; to reassess the placental position.
165
Q

What is the management of Placenta Praevia?

A
  • Give Corticosteroids between 24-34 weeks of gestation (to mature the foetal lungs, given the increased risk of preterm labour)
  • Planned cesarean section is adviced between 36 and 37 weeks gestation. (Its planned early to reduce the risk of spontaneous labour and bleeding).
  • In cases were premature labour or where antenatal bleeding occurs; an emergency Cesarean section will be required.
166
Q

What would the management of bleeding as a result of Placenta Praevia involve?

A
  • Emergency caesarean section
  • Blood transfusions
  • Intrauterine balloon tamponade
  • Uterine artery occlusion
  • Emergency hysterectomy
167
Q

What is the definition of Placental Abruption?

A
  • Placental abruption is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall during pregnancy.
  • The site of attachment can bleed extensively after the placenta separates. Resulting in significant Maternal Antepartum Haemorrhage.
168
Q

What are the risk factors for Placental Abruption?

A
  • Previous placental abruption
  • Pre-eclampsia
  • Bleeding early in pregnancy
  • Trauma (consider domestic violence)
  • Multiple pregnancy
  • Fetal growth restriction
  • Multigravida
  • Increased maternal age
  • Smoking
  • Cocaine or amphetamine use
169
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Placental Abruption?

A
  • Sudden onset severe abdominal pain that is continuous
  • Vaginal bleeding (However in concealed abruptions; the cervical os remains closed, and any bleeding that occurs remains within the uterine cavity. So the severity of the bleeding would be largely underestimated.)
  • Characteristic ‘Woody’ hard abdomen (Uterus) - suggests a large haemorrhage
  • Hypovolaemic shock which is often disproportionate to the amount of vaginal bleeding visible
  • Abnormalities on the CTG indicating foetal distress
170
Q

How is the severity of Antepartum Haemorrhage graded?

A
  • Spotting - spots of blood noticed on underwear
  • Minor haemorrhage - less than 50ml blood loss
  • Major haemorrhage - 50 – 1000ml blood loss
  • Massive haemorrhage - more than 1000 ml blood loss, or signs of shock
171
Q

What is the initial management of a major or massive haemorrhage?

A
  • Urgent involvement of a senior obstetrician, midwife and anaesthetist
  • 2 x grey cannula
  • Bloods include FBC, UE, LFT and coagulation studies
  • Crossmatch 4 units of blood
  • Fluid and blood resuscitation as required
  • CTG monitoring of the fetus
  • Close monitoring of the mother
172
Q

How is a Placental Abruption diagnosed?

A
  • There are no reliable tests for diagnosing placental abruption.
  • It is a clinical diagnosis based on the presentation
  • Ultrasound can be useful in excluding placenta praevia as a cause for antepartum haemorrhage, but is not very good at diagnosing or assessing abruption.
173
Q

What is the management of a Placental Abruption?

A
  • Emergency delivery
    Is indicated in the presence of maternal and/or foetal compromise and is usually by caesarean section unless spontaneous delivery is imminent or operative vaginal birth is achievable.
  • Even if an in-utero foetal death has been diagnosed, a caesarean section may still be indicated if there is maternal compromise.
  • Induction of labour
    For haemorrhage at term without maternal or foetal compromise, induction of labour is usually recommended to avoid further bleeding.
  • Conservative management
    For some partial or marginal abruptions not associated with maternal or foetal compromise.
  • Anti-D Prophylaxis
    Is given to all Rhesus D Negative women within 72 hours of bleeding starting.
174
Q

What is the definition of Vasa Praevia?

A
  • Vasa praevia is a condition seen in obstetrics where the foetal vessels, (unprotected by the umbilical cord or placental tissue), run dangerously close to or across the internal cervical os.
  • These vessels are prone to rupture during the rupture of membranes, which can result in foetal haemorrhage and potentially foetal death.
175
Q

In what instances can the foetal vessels be exposed outside of the the protection of the umbilical cord or placenta?

A
  • Velamentous umbilical cord (Type 1 Vasa Praevia)
    Is where the umbilical cord inserts into the chorioamniotic membranes, and the fetal vessels travel unprotected through the membranes before joining the placenta.
  • An accessory lobe of the placenta (Type 2 Vasa Praevia)
    (Also known as a succenturiate lobe) is connected by fetal vessels that travel through the chorioamniotic membranes between the placental lobes.
176
Q

What are the risk factors for Vasa Praevia?

A
  • Low lying placenta
  • IVF pregnancy
  • Multiple pregnancy
177
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Vasa Praevia?

A

Classic Triad of:
* Painless vaginal bleeding
* Rupture of membranes
* Foetal bradycardia (or resulting foetal death)

178
Q

What are some differentials for Vasa Praevia?

A
  • Placenta praevia
    Characterized by painless vaginal bleeding, but without the accompanying foetal bradycardia or death seen in vasa praevia.
  • Abruptio placentae
    Typically presents with painful vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, and uterine tenderness and rigidity. Foetal distress is common.
179
Q

How is Vasa Praevia diagnosed?

A
  • Transabdominal or Transvaginal Ultrasound
  • The majority of cases are diagnosed antenataly.
  • Although, it may only be diagnosed during labour, when pulsating fetal vessels are seen in the membranes through the dilated cervix.
  • The later this is diagnosed, the greater the risk of foetal mortality.
180
Q

What is the management of Vasa Praevia?

A
  • Corticosteroids, given from 32 weeks gestation to mature the fetal lungs
  • Elective caesarean section, planned for 34 – 36 weeks gestation

When antepartum haemorrhage occurs:
* Emergency caesarean section is required to deliver the fetus before death occurs.

181
Q

What is the definition of Postpartum Haemorrhage?

A

Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) refers to bleeding after delivery of the baby and placenta (within 24 hours).

To be classed as a PPH, there need to be a loss of:
* 500ml after a vaginal delivery
* 1000ml after a caesarean section

182
Q

What is the epidemiology of Postpartum Haemorrhage?

A

It is the most common cause of significant obstetric haemorrhage.

183
Q

How can Postpartum Haemorrhage be Classified?

A

Minor Vs Major:
* Minor PPH – under 1000ml blood loss
* Major PPH – over 1000ml blood loss

Major PPH further classification:
* Moderate PPH – 1000 – 2000ml blood loss
* Severe PPH – over 2000ml blood loss

Primary Vs Secondary:
* Primary PPH - bleeding within 24 hours of birth
* Secondary PPH - from 24 hours to 12 weeks after birth

184
Q

What are the causes of Postpartum Haemorrhage?

A

The 4 Ts:

  • Tone: Uterine atony is the most common cause of PPH - which is the failure of the uterus to contract after delivery.
  • Trauma: PPH can result from a birth canal injury or tear, with risk increased in instrumented deliveries.
  • Tissue: Retained placental or foetal tissue can cause continued bleeding.
  • Thrombin: Coagulopathies can lead to continued bleeding due to a failure of clotting.
185
Q

What are the risk factors for Postpartum Haemorrhage?

A
  • PPH in previous pregnancy
  • BMI >35
  • Multiple pregnancy
  • Parity >4
  • Conditions such as placenta praevia or accreta, placental abruption, pre-eclampsia, gestational hypertension or anaemia
  • Delivery via Caesarean section
  • Induction of labour
  • Instrumented delivery (forceps or ventouse) and episiotomy
  • Prolonged labour (greater than 12 hours)
  • Macrosomia (>4kg baby)
  • Advanced maternal age
186
Q

What investigations need to be done for a Postpartum Haemorrhage?

A

In Primary PPH:
* Blood tests for Group/Save and Crossmatch

In Secondary PPH:
* Ultrasound looking for retained products
* Endocervical/high vaginal swabs looking for infection

187
Q

What is the initial management to stabilise a Postpartum Haemorrage?

A
  • Resuscitation with an ABCDE approach
  • Lie the woman flat, keep her warm and communicate with her and the partner
  • Insert two large-bore cannulas
  • Bloods for FBC, U&E and clotting screen
  • Group and cross match 4 units
  • Warmed IV fluid and blood resuscitation as required
  • Oxygen (regardless of saturations)
  • Fresh frozen plasma is used where there are clotting abnormalities or after 4 units of blood transfusion.
188
Q

How can the bleeding be stopped in a Postpartum Haemorrhage?

A

Mechanical:
* Rubbing the uterus through the abdomen to stimulates a uterine contraction (referred to as “rubbing up the fundus”)
* Catheterisation (bladder distention prevents uterus contractions)

Medical:
* Oxytocin (slow injection followed by continuous infusion) - 40mg in 500mls
* Ergometrine (intravenous or intramuscular) stimulates smooth muscle contraction (contraindicated in hypertension)
* Carboprost(intramuscular) is a prostaglandin analogue and stimulates uterine contraction (caution in asthma)
* Misoprostol (sublingual) is also a prostaglandin analogue and stimulates uterine contraction
* Tranexamic acid (intravenous) is an antifibrinolytic that reduces bleeding

Surgical:
* Intrauterine balloon tamponade – inserting an inflatable balloon into the uterus to press against the bleeding
* B-Lynch suture – putting a suture around the uterus to compress it
* Uterine artery ligation – ligation of one or more of the arteries supplying the uterus to reduce the blood flow
* Hysterectomy is the “last resort” but will stop the bleeding and may save the woman’s life

189
Q

What is the management of a Secondary Postpartum Haemorrhage?

A

It depends on the cause:
* Surgical evaluation of retained products of conception
* Antibiotics for infection

190
Q

How can a Rhesus Negative woman become sensitised to Rhesus-D antigens?

A

This can occur when a rhesus-D negative woman has a Rhesus-D positive baby. (Rhesus incompatability)

It is likely at some point in the pregnancy (i.e. childbirth) that the blood from the baby will find a way into the mother’s bloodstream. When this happens, the baby’s red blood cells display the rhesus-D antigen. The mother’s immune system will recognise this rhesus-D antigen as foreign, and produce antibodies to the rhesus-D antigen. The mother has then become sensitised to rhesus-D antigens.

191
Q

What are some examples of sensitisation events where foetal and maternal blood may mix?

A

Examples of these sensitisation events include:

  • Antepartum haemorrhage
  • Placental abruption
  • Abdominal trauma
  • External cephalic version
  • Invasive uterine procedures such as amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling
  • Rhesus positive blood transfusion to a rhesus negative woman
  • Intrauterine death, miscarriage or termination
  • Ectopic pregnancy
  • Delivery (normal, instrumental or caesarean section)
192
Q

What issues can maternal sensitisation to rhesus-D antigens cause in the foetus?

A
  • Usually, the sensitisation process does not cause problems during the first pregnancy.
  • During subsequent pregnancies, the mother’s anti-rhesus-D antibodies can cross the placenta into the fetus. If that fetus is rhesus-D positive, these antibodies attach themselves to the red blood cells of the fetus and causes the immune system of the fetus to attack them, causing the destruction of the red blood cells (haemolysis).
  • The red blood cell destruction caused by antibodies from the mother is called haemolytic disease of the newborn.
193
Q

What is the management of Rhesus Incompatibility between the mother and foetus?

A

All mothers should be tested for rhesus status and anti-D antibodies at booking

Prevention of sensitisation - is the mainstay of management. This involves giving intramuscular anti-D injections to rhesus-D negative women.
* Note that anti-D has no effect once sensitisation has already occurred.

Anti-D injections are given routinely on two occasions:
* 28 weeks gestation
* Birth (if the baby’s blood group is found to be rhesus-positive)

Anti-D injections should also be given at any time where sensitisation may occur, such as:
* Antepartum haemorrhage
* Amniocentesis procedures
* Abdominal trauma

Anti-D is given within 72 hours of a sensitisation event..

194
Q

What is the Kleihauer Test?

A
  • The Kleihauer test checks how much fetal blood has passed into the mother’s blood during a sensitisation event.
  • This test is used after any sensitising event past 20 weeks gestation, to assess whether further doses of anti-D is required.
195
Q

What is the definition of a Puerperal Infection?

A

A Puerperal infection is defined as an infection of the genital tract occurring at labour or within 42 days of the postpartum period.

196
Q

What is the definition of Postpartum Endometritis?

A
  • Endometritis refers to inflammation of the endometrium, usually caused by infection.
  • It can occur in the postpartum period, as infection is introduced during or after labour and delivery.
  • The process of delivery opens the uterus to allow bacteria from the vagina to travel upwards and infect the endometrium.
197
Q

What can increase the risk of postpartum endometritis?

A
  • More common after caesarean sections compared with vaginal deliveries.
  • Prophylactic antibiotics are given during a caesarean to reduce the risk
198
Q

What bacteria can cause Postpartum Endometritis?

A
  • It can be caused by a large variety of gram-negative, gram-positive and anaerobic bacteria.
  • It can also be caused by sexually transmitted infections such as chlamydia and gonorrhoea.
199
Q

What is the presentation of Postpartum Endometritis?

A

It can present from shortly after birth to several weeks postpartum, with:
* Foul-smelling discharge or lochia
* Bleeding that gets heavier or does not improve with time
* Lower abdominal or pelvic pain
* Fever
* Sepsis

200
Q

What investigations are done for Postpartum Endometritis?

A
  • Vaginal swabs (including chlamydia and gonorrhoea if there are risk factors)
  • Urine culture and sensitivities
  • Ultrasound may be considered to rule out retained products of conception (although it is not used to diagnose endometritis).
201
Q

What is the management of Postpartum Endometritis?

A

Septic patients:
* Require hospital admission and the septic six
* This includes blood cultures and broad-spectrum IV antibiotics
* A combination of clindamycin and gentamicin is often recommended.
* Blood tests will show signs of infection (e.g. raised WBC and CRP).

Milder Infections:
* Can be treated in the community with oral antibiotics.
* A typical choice of broad-spectrum oral antibiotic might be co-amoxiclav, depending on the risk of chlamydia and gonorrhoea.

202
Q

What is the definition of Beingn Breast Disease?

A
  • Benign breast diseases are a group of non-cancerous conditions affecting the breast.
  • They often manifest as breast lumps, nipple discharge, or other abnormalities.
203
Q

What are the various different types of Benign Breast Disease?

A
  • Fibroadenomas - arise from the breast lobule stroma.
  • Breast cysts - occur due to the overgrowth of glandular and connective tissue, leading to blocked breast ducts and subsequent fluid accumulation.
  • Mastitis - is typically caused by bacterial infections, often related to breaks in the skin around the nipple.
  • Intraductal papilloma - is a benign tumour of the breast ducts.
  • Radial scar is a benign sclerosing breast lesion.
  • Fat necrosis is a response to adipose tissue damage.
  • Fibrocystic breast disease is due to an exaggerated hormonal response causing inflammation, fibrosis, cyst formation, or adenosis.
  • Mammary duct ectasia is due to inflammation and dilation of the large breast ducts.
204
Q

What is the presentation of the various different types of benign breast disease?

A
  • Fibroadenoma - Highly mobile, encapsulated breast masses.
  • Breast cysts - Presence of breast lumps, potentially with distension.
  • Mastitis - Breast redness, mastalgia, malaise, and fever.
  • Intraductal papilloma - Bloody discharge from the nipple without a palpable mass.
  • Radial scar - Presents on mammogram as a stellate pattern of central scarring surrounded by proliferating glandular tissue.
  • Fat necrosis - Painless breast mass, skin thickening, or radiographic changes on mammography.
  • Fibrocystic breast disease - Breast lumps, pain, and tenderness.
  • Mammary duct ectasia - Palpable peri-areolar breast mass, thick nipple discharge, and potential mammographic similarities to cancer.
205
Q

What are some differentials for benign breast disease?

A
  • Breast cancer
    Characterised by hard, immobile lumps, nipple retraction, skin changes (like peau d’orange), or bloody nipple discharge.
  • Gynecomastia
    Enlargement of male breast tissue, which may be tender or painful.
  • Abscess
    A collection of pus in the breast tissue, often painful and associated with redness, warmth, and fever.
  • Lipoma
    Soft, mobile, non-tender fatty lumps beneath the skin.
206
Q

What investigations are often done for benign breast disease?

A
  • Clinical breast examination: To identify any palpable abnormalities.
  • Mammography and ultrasound: To visualize the internal structures and evaluate any identified lumps or abnormalities.
  • Fine-needle aspiration or biopsy: To confirm the diagnosis of identified lumps or suspicious areas.
  • Blood tests: To identify signs of infection or hormonal imbalances in certain cases.
207
Q

How is Benign Breast Disease managed?

A
  • Reassurance: Often, benign breast diseases require only monitoring and reassurance, especially when symptoms are minimal and there is no sign of complications.
  • Antibiotics: Used in case of infections such as mastitis.
  • Analgesics: To manage pain or discomfort associated with various conditions.
  • Surgical intervention: In some cases, like large fibroadenomas, persistent cysts, or symptomatic intraductal papillomas.
  • Hormonal therapy: May be considered in cases of fibrocystic breast disease.
208
Q

What is the definition of Mastitis?

A
  • Mastitis is the inflammation of the breast tissue, which can be with or without an infection.
  • When associated with lactation in postpartum women, the condition is specified as puerperal mastitis.
209
Q
A
210
Q

What is the epidemiology of Mastitis?

A
  • Mastitis, (particularly puerperal mastitis), is a common condition among postpartum women
  • It typically occurs within the first six weeks postpartum, particularly in the second and third weeks.
  • It usually affects first-time mothers and those with a history of mastitis in previous pregnancies.
211
Q

What causes Mastitis?

A
  • Mastitis often results from milk stasis, which can lead to an inflammatory response and potential secondary infection.
  • Milk stasis may occur due to inadequate milk removal, either from poor breastfeeding techniques, infrequent feeding. Which can result in blockage of the ducts.
  • Cracked or sore nipples can provide a point of entry for bacteria, leading to infective mastitis.
  • Staph Aureus is the most common causative organism
212
Q

What is the definition of Ductal Ectasia?

A
  • Is a breast condition that occurs when a milk duct in the breast widens and its walls thicken.
  • This can cause the duct to become blocked and lead to fluid build-up.
  • This is a non-lactational cause of blockage of the ducts (which leads to non-infective mastitis).
  • It is a normal part of aging and is more common in perimenopausal women.
213
Q

What are the risk factors for developing Mastitis?

A
  • Poor breastfeeding technique
  • Nipple damage
  • Maternal stress
  • Previous history of mastitis
  • First time pregnancy
  • Smoking
214
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Mastitis?

A
  • Localised symptoms:
    Painful, tender, red, and hot breast.
  • Systemic symptoms:
    Fever, rigors, myalgia, fatigue, nausea, and headache.
  • The condition is usually unilateral and tends to present within the first week postpartum.
  • In some cases, mastitis may develop into a breast abscess, manifesting as a fluctuant, tender mass with overlying erythema.
215
Q

What are some differentials for Mastitis?

A
  • Breast abscess
    Fluctuant mass, tenderness, overlying erythema, systemic signs of infection.
  • Inflammatory breast cancer
    Swelling, skin changes resembling orange peel, nipple inversion, axillary lymphadenopathy.
  • Breast engorgement
    Typically bilateral and associated with milk stasis, painful, and tense breasts.
216
Q

How is Mastitis investigated?

A
  • Diagnosis of mastitis is primarily clinical
  • An ultrasound may be useful in identifying an abcess if that is suspected
217
Q

What is the management of Mastitis?

A

No infection (and is simply caused by duct blockage (duct Ectasia):
* Management is conservative involving
* Continued breastfeeding
* Expressing milk
* Breast massage.
* Heat packs, warm showers and simple analgesia can help symptoms.

Infection (or when conservative management fails):
* Antibiotics
* Flucloxacillin is first line, or erythromycin if allergic to penicillin.
* A sample of milk can be sent to the lab for culture and sensitivities.

Women should be encouraged to continue breastfeeding, even when infection is suspected. It will not harm the baby and will help to clear the mastitis by encouraging flow.

218
Q

What complications can arise as a result of Mastitis?

A
  • Candida infection of the nipple (often after a course of antibiotics). This can lead to Recurrent mastitis
  • Breast Abcess
219
Q

What is the presentation of Candida of the nipple?

A
  • Sore nipples bilaterally, particularly after feeding
  • Nipple tenderness and itching
  • Cracked, flaky or shiny areola

Its associated with oral thrush and candidal nappy rash in the infant.

220
Q

What is the management of Candida of the nipple?

A

Both the mother and baby need treatment, or it will reoccur. Treatment is with:

  • Topical miconazole 2% after each breastfeed
  • Treatment for the baby (e.g. miconazole gel or nystatin)
221
Q

What is the definition of a breast abscess?

A

A breast abscess is a collection of pus within an area of the breast, usually caused by a bacterial infection. This may be a:

  • Lactational abscess (associated with breastfeeding)
  • Non-lactational abscess (unrelated to breastfeeding)

It often occurs as a result of infectious mastitis.

222
Q

What are the most common causative organisms of Mastitis / Breast Abscesses?

A
  • Staphylococcus aureus (the most common)
  • Streptococcal species
  • Enterococcal species
  • Anaerobic bacteria (such as Bacteroides species and anaerobic streptococci)
223
Q

What is the presentation of a Breast Abscess?

A
  • Alongside the features of Mastitis
  • The key feature that suggests a breast abscess is a swollen, fluctuant, tender lump within the breast.
  • As well as more generalised symptoms of infection like; Muscle aches, Fatigue, Fever, Signs of sepsis (e.g., tachycardia, raised respiratory rate and confusion).
224
Q

How is a Breast Abscess diagnosed?

A

Breast Ultrasound

225
Q

What is the management of a Breast Abscess?

A
  • Referral to the on-call surgical team in the hospital for management
  • Antibiotics
  • Drainage (needle aspiration or surgical incision and drainage)
  • Microscopy, culture and sensitivities of the drained fluid

Women are advised to continue breastfeeding. They should regularly express breast milk if feeding is too painful, then resume feeding when possible.

226
Q

What is the definition of a Fibroadenoma?

A
  • Fibroadenomas are common benign tumours of stromal and epithelial breast duct tissue.
  • They originate from the lobules (the milk-producing glands of the breast)
227
Q

What is the epidemiology of Fibroadenomas?

A
  • More common in younger women (aged between 20 and 40)
  • They’re particularly common in periods of reproductive hormonal change such as puberty, pregnancy, and perimenopause.
228
Q

What causes a fibroadenoma?

A
  • Exact cause is unclear
  • They respond to the increased levels of female reproductive hormones (oestrogen and progesterone). As they often grow in size during pregnancy, and shrink during menopause.
229
Q

What is the clinical presentation of a Fibroadenoma?

A
  • A firm, non-tender breast mass
  • The mass is rounded and has smooth edges
  • The mass is highly mobile upon palpation, sometimes called a “breast mouse”, as they move around within the breast tissue.
  • Often referred to as having a “rubbery” consistency
  • The mass typically does not grow beyond 3cm in diameter
230
Q

What are some differentials for a Fibroadenoma?

A
  • Breast cysts
    These can be soft to firm, mobile, and round with distinct edges, similar to fibroadenomas. However, they may be tender and can fluctuate in size with the menstrual cycle.
  • Invasive breast cancer
    Typically presents with a hard, irregularly shaped, immobile mass. There may be associated nipple discharge, retraction or skin changes.
  • Intraductal papilloma
    Generally presents with nipple discharge, occasionally blood-stained, but may also have an associated palpable mass.
  • Lipoma
    Presents as a soft, mobile mass. Unlike fibroadenomas, lipomas can grow beyond 3cm and are typically painless.
231
Q

What investigations are done for a fibroadenoma?

A

While fibroadenomas are benign, patients usually undergo a triple assessment to exclude more serious pathology. This includes:

  • Clinical examination
  • Imaging (usually ultrasound and/or mammogram)
  • Needle biopsy (fine needle aspiration or core biopsy)
232
Q

What is the management of a fibroadenoma?

A
  • Conservative management
    Many fibroadenomas do not require treatment and will regress naturally after menopause.
  • Surgical excision
    This may be required if the fibroadenoma is large, growing, causing significant symptoms, or if there is diagnostic uncertainty after triple assessment.
233
Q

Are fibroadenomas associated with an increased risk of breast cancer?

A

No
* They are not usually associated with an increased risk of developing breast cancer.

  • Complex fibroadenomas and a positive family history of breast cancer may indicate a higher risk.
234
Q

What is the definition of a Breast Cyst?

A

Breast cysts are benign, individual, fluid-filled lumps of the breast.

235
Q

What is the epidemiology of breast cysts?

A
  • They are the most common cause of breast lumps
  • Occur most often between ages 30 and 50, more so in the perimenopausal period.
236
Q

What is the clinical presentation of breast cysts?

A

The Lumps can be:
* Possibly painful
* Smooth
* Well-circumscribed
* Mobile
* Possibly fluctuant

They can also fluctuate in size over the menstrual cycle

237
Q

How are breast cysts investigated?

A

Same as a Fibroadenoma.
Triple Assessment of (to exclude cancer):
* Clinical examination
* Imaging (usually ultrasound and/or mammogram)
* Needle biopsy (fine needle aspiration or core biopsy)

238
Q

What is the management of breast cysts?

A
  • Aspiration of the breast cyst is the recommended treatment in symptomatic cases.
  • Repeat aspiration or excision may be required in cases of recurrent cysts
  • Non-symptomatic (non-painful) breast cysts do not need to be drained unless they bother the patient or cause concerns.
239
Q

Do breast cysts increase the risk of cancer?

A

Yes
Having a breast cyst may slightly increase someone’s cancer risk

240
Q

What is the definition of an Intraductal Papilloma?

A
  • An intraductal papilloma is a warty lesion that grows within one of the ducts in the breast.
  • It is the result of the proliferation of epithelial cells.
  • They are benign tumours; however, they can be associated with atypical hyperplasia or breast cancer.
241
Q

What is the epidemiology of an Intraductal Papilloma?

A

Most common between 35-55 years

242
Q

What is the clinical presentation of an Intraductal Papilloma?

A

They may present with:

  • Nipple discharge (clear or blood-stained)
  • Breast tenderness or pain
  • A palpable lump

They are often asymptomatic and can be picked up incidentally on mammograms or ultrasound.

243
Q

How is an Intraductal Papilloma diagnosed?

A

Patients require triple assessment with:
* Clinical assessment (history and examination)
* Imaging (ultrasound, mammography and MRI)
* Histology (usually by core biopsy or vacuum-assisted biopsy)

Ductography may also be used. This involves injecting contrast into the abnormal duct and performing mammograms to visualise that duct. The papilloma will be seen as an area that does not fill with contrast (a “filling defect”).

244
Q

What is the management of an Intraductal Papilloma?

A
  • Intraductal papillomas require complete surgical excision.
  • After removal, the tissue is examined for atypical hyperplasia or cancer that may not have been picked up on the biopsy.
245
Q

What is the definition of Breast Cancer?

A
  • Breast cancer or carcinoma refers to a malignant tumor originating from the cells of the breast tissue.
  • The carcinomas can be invasive, indicating they have broken through the basement membrane of the tissue of origin and have the potential to metastasize, or non-invasive (in situ), suggesting they are confined to the initial location.
246
Q

What is the epidemiology of Breast Cancer?

A
  • Breast cancer is the most common form of cancer in the UK.
  • It mostly affects women and is rare in men (about 1% of UK cases).
  • Around 1 in 8 women will develop breast cancer in their lifetime.
247
Q

What are the risk factors for Breast Cancer?

A
  • Female (99% of breast cancers)
  • Increased oestrogen exposure (earlier onset of periods and later menopause)
  • More dense breast tissue (more glandular tissue)
  • Obesity
  • Smoking
  • Family history (first-degree relatives)
  • BRCA Gene Mutations

The combined contraceptive pill gives a small increase in the risk of breast cancer, but the risk returns to normal ten years after stopping the pill.

Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) increases the risk of breast cancer, particularly combined HRT (containing both oestrogen and progesterone).

248
Q

How are BRCA genes?

A
  • BRCA refers to the BReast CAncer gene. The BRCA genes are tumour suppressor genes.
  • Mutations in these genes lead to an increased risk of breast cancer (as well as ovarian and other cancers).
249
Q

What chromosomes are the genes BRCA 1 and 2 on?

A

BRCA1 gene is on chromosome 17
* 70% will develop breast cancer by aged 80
* 50% will develop ovarian cancer
* Also increased risk of bowel and prostate cancer

BRCA2 gene is on chromosome 13
* 60% will develop breast cancer by aged 80
* 20% will develop ovarian cancer

250
Q

What are the different types of Breast Cancer?

A

Ductal Carcinoma In Situ (DCIS)
* Pre-cancerous or cancerous epithelial cells of the breast ducts
* Localised to a single area
* Often picked up by mammogram screening
* Potential to spread locally over years
* Potential to become an invasive breast cancer (around 30%)
* Good prognosis if full excised and adjuvant treatment is used

Lobular Carcinoma In Situ (LCIS)
* A pre-cancerous condition occurring typically in pre-menopausal women
* Usually asymptomatic and undetectable on a mammogram
* Usually diagnosed incidentally on a breast biopsy
* Represents an increased risk of invasive breast cancer in the future (around 30%)
* Often managed with close monitoring (e.g., 6 monthly examination and yearly mammograms)

Invasive Ductal Carcinoma – NST
* Most common type of breast cancer
* NST means no special/specific type, where it is not more specifically classified (e.g., medullary or mucinous)
* Also known as invasive breast carcinoma of no special/specific type (NST)
* Originate in cells from the breast ducts
* 80% of invasive breast cancers fall into this category
* Can be seen on mammograms

Invasive Lobular Carcinomas (ILC)
* Around 10% of invasive breast cancers
* Originate in cells from the breast lobules
* Not always visible on mammograms

Inflammatory Breast Cancer
* 1-3% of breast cancers
* Presents similarly to a breast abscess or mastitis
* Swollen, warm, tender breast with pitting skin (peau d’orange)
* Does not respond to antibiotics
* Worse prognosis than other breast cancers

Paget’s Disease of the Nipple
* Looks like eczema of the nipple/areolar
* Erythematous, scaly rash
* Indicates breast cancer involving the nipple
* May represent DCIS or invasive breast cancer
* Requires biopsy, staging and treatment, as with any other invasive breast cancer

Rarer Types of Breast Cancer
* Medullary breast cancer
* Mucinous breast cancer
* Tubular breast cancer
* Multiple others

251
Q

Describe the NHS Breast Cancer Screening program

A

Mammogram is offered every 3 years to women aged 50-70 years

The screening aims to detect breast cancer early, which improves outcomes.

252
Q

What are some potential downsides to Breast Cancer Screening?

A
  • Anxiety and stress
  • Exposure to radiation, with a very small risk of causing breast cancer
  • Missing cancer, leading to false reassurance
  • Unnecessary further tests or treatment where findings would not have otherwise caused harm
253
Q

Who is classed as a high risk patient for Breast Cancer?

A

People who have:
* A first-degree relative with breast cancer under 40 years
* A first-degree male relative with breast cancer
* A first-degree relative with bilateral breast cancer, first diagnosed under 50 years
* Two first-degree relatives with breast cancer

Annual mammogram screening is offered to women with increased risk. Potentially starting from aged 30, if high risk.

254
Q

How can high risk patients decrease their risk of developing Breast Cancer?

A

Chemoprevention may be offered:
* Tamoxifen if premenopausal
* Anastrozole if postmenopausal (except with severe osteoporosis)

Risk-reducing bilateral mastectomy or bilateral oophorectomy (removing the ovaries) is also an option for women at high risk; but this is only suitable for a small subset of women.

255
Q

What is the presentation of Breast Cancer?

A
  • Lumps that are hard, irregular, painless or fixed in place
  • Lumps may be tethered to the skin or the chest wall
  • Nipple retraction
  • Skin dimpling or oedema (peau d’orange)
  • Lymphadenopathy, particularly in the axilla
256
Q

What is the NICE Referral criteria for Breast Cancer?

A

Two week wait referral for:
* An unexplained breast lump in patients aged 30 or above
* Unilateral nipple changes in patients aged 50 or above (discharge, retraction or other changes)
* An unexplained lump in the axilla in patients aged 30 or above
* Skin changes suggestive of breast cancer

257
Q

What are the differentials for Breast Cancer?

A
  • Fibroadenoma
    Typically presents as a solitary, painless, and well-circumscribed breast lump in young women
  • Cyst
    Characterized by a round or oval, well-defined, and movable mass. It may be painful and size may vary with the menstrual cycle.
  • Mastitis
    Typically presents in breastfeeding women, characterized by a painful, warm, red breast often accompanied by systemic symptoms like fever.
  • Lipoma
    Presents as a soft, mobile, and painless lump.
258
Q

What investigations are used when diagnosing suspected Breast Cancer?

A

Initial Investigations are with a Triple Diagnostic Assesment:
* Clinical assessment (history and examination)
* Imaging (ultrasound or mammography)
* Biopsy (fine needle aspiration or core biopsy)

Then once the woman has been diagnosed with breast cancer, then an assesment of the Lymph nodes is required:
* Ultrasound of the axilla (armpit)
* Ultrasound-guided biopsy of any abnormal nodes
* A sentinel lymph node biopsy may be used during breast cancer surgery where the initial ultrasound does not show any abnormal nodes.

259
Q

What are the advantages of different imaging modalities when investigating Breast Cancer?

A

Ultrasound scans:
* Are used to assess lumps in younger women (e.g., under 30 years).
* They are helpful in distinguishing solid lumps (e.g., fibroadenoma or cancer) from cystic (fluid-filled) lumps.

Mammograms:
* Are generally more effective in older women.
* They can pick up calcifications missed by ultrasound.

MRI Scans may be used:
* For screening in women at higher risk of developing breast cancer (e.g., strong family history)
* To further assess the size and features of a tumour

260
Q

What investigations are required in order to stage the cancer?

A

The TNM System is used to stage breast cancer (Tumor, Nodes, Metastases).

The following investigations are required to stage the cancer:

  • Triple Assesment
  • Lymph node assessment and biopsy
  • MRI of the breast and axilla
  • Liver ultrasound for liver metastasis
  • CT of the thorax, abdomen and pelvis for lung, abdominal or pelvic metastasis
  • Isotope bone scan for bony metastasis
261
Q

Where does Breast Cancer tend to metastasis to?

A

Breast cancer can spread to anywhere in the body, whoever the most common locations are:
2Ls and 2Bs

  • L – Lungs
  • L – Liver
  • B – Bones
  • B – Brain
262
Q

What are the 3 types of receptor that may be present on breast cancer?

A
  • Oestrogen receptors (ER)
  • Progesterone receptors (PR)
  • Human epidermal growth factor (HER2)

These receptors can be targeted with breast cancer treatments

263
Q

What is a triple negative breast cancer?

A

Triple-negative breast cancer is where the breast cancer cells do not express any of the three typical receptors. (ER, PR or HER2)

This carries a worse prognosis, as it limits the treatment options for targeting the cancer.

264
Q

What is Gene Expression Profiling and when is it done?

A
  • Gene expression profiling involves assessing which genes are present within the breast cancer on a histology sample.
  • This helps predict the probability that the breast cancer will reoccur as a distal metastasis (away from the original cancer site) within 10 years.
  • The NICE guidelines recommend this for women with early breast cancers that are ER positive but HER2 and lymph node negative.
  • It helps guide whether to give additional chemotherapy.
265
Q

What does the management of Breast Cancer Involve?

A

Surgical (The aim is removal of the tumour). There are 2 main types:
* Breast-conserving surgery (e.g. wide local excision), usually coupled with radiotherapy.
* Mastectomy (removal of the whole breast), potentially with immediate or delayed breast reconstruction.
* Axillary Clearance - Removal of the axillary lymph nodes is offered to patients where cancer cells are found in the nodes. (although this increases the risk of lymphoedema)

Radiotherapy
* Adjuvant Radiotherapy is given to patients following breast-conserving surgery to reduce the risk of recurrence.

Chemotherapy
* Suggested in patients with hormone receptor-negative and HER2 over-expressing patients. Its used in 1 of 3 scenarios:
* Neoadjuvant therapy – intended to shrink the tumour before surgery
* Adjuvant chemotherapy – given after surgery to reduce recurrence
* Treatment of metastatic or recurrent breast cancer

Hormone Treatment:
* Is used in patients with oestrogen-receptor positive breast cancer. There are 2 main first line options:
* Tamoxifen for premenopausal women
* Aromatase inhibitors for postmenopausal women (e.g., letrozole, anastrozole or exemestane)
* Tamoxifen or an aromatase inhibitor are given for 5 – 10 years to women with oestrogen-receptor positive breast cancer.

Biological Therapy
* Trastuzumab (Herceptin) is a monoclonal antibody that targets the HER2 receptor. So is used in HER2 positive cancers.
* Trastuzumab can be used in conjunction with Pertuzumab.
* Neratinib (Nerlynx) is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor and is another option for HER2 positive cancers.

266
Q

What are the side effects of Radiotherapy?

A
  • General fatigue from the radiation
  • Local skin and tissue irritation and swelling
  • Fibrosis of breast tissue
  • Shrinking of breast tissue
  • Long term skin colour changes (usually darker)
267
Q

What are the side effects of Chemotherapy?

A
  • Fatigue
  • Hair loss
  • Easy bruising and bleeding
  • Infection
  • Anaemia
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Appetite changes
  • Problems with concentration or memory.
268
Q

What are the side effects of Hormone therapy drugs?

A
  • Hot flashes
  • Vaginal dryness or discharge
  • Menstrual changes
  • Fatigue
  • Mood changes
  • Osteoporosis.

In rare cases, tamoxifen can increase the risk of serious conditions like endometrial cancer and blood clots.

269
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Tamoxifen?

A
  • Tamoxifen is a selective oestrogen receptor modulator (SERM).
  • It either blocks or stimulates oestrogen receptors, depending on the site of action.
  • It blocks oestrogen receptors in breast tissue, and stimulates oestrogen receptors in the uterus and bones.
  • This means it helps prevent osteoporosis, but it does increase the risk of endometrial cancer.
270
Q

What is the mechanism of Aromatase Inhibitors?

A
  • Aromatase is an enzyme found in fat (adipose) tissue that converts androgens to oestrogen.
  • After menopause, the action of aromatase in fat tissue is the primary source of oestrogen.
  • Aromatase inhibitors work by blocking the creation of oestrogen in fat tissue.
  • Examples include: letrozole, anastrozole or exemestane
271
Q

When is Breast Reconstruction done?

A

Breast reconstructive surgery is offered to all patients having a mastectomy. There are two options:

  • Immediate reconstruction - done at the time of the mastectomy
  • Delayed reconstruction - which can be delayed for months or years after the initial mastectomy
272
Q

What are the 2 options of Breast Reconstruction after Breast conserving surgery?

A

After breast-conserving surgery, reconstruction may not be required. The standard options, if needed, are:

  • Partial reconstruction (using a flap or fat tissue to fill the gap)
  • Reduction and reshaping (removing tissue and reshaping both breasts to match.
273
Q

What are the 2 options of Breast Reconstruction after a Mastectomy?

A
  • Breast implants (inserting a synthetic implant)
  • Flap reconstruction (using tissue from another part of the body to reconstruct the breast)
274
Q

What are the advantages/disadvantages of implants instead of Flap Reconstruction?

A

Advantages
* Inserting an implant is a relatively simple procedure (compared with a flap) with minimal scarring.
* It gives an acceptable appearance

Disadvantages
* Implants can feel less natural (e.g., cold, less mobile and static size and shape).
* There can also be long-term problems, such as hardening, leakage and shape change.

275
Q

What are the 3 different types of Flap reconstruction?

A
  • Latissimus Dorsi Flap
  • Transverse Rectus Abdominis Flap (TRAM Flap)
  • Deep Inferior Epigastric Perforator Flap (DIEP Flap)
276
Q

What are the possible surgical complications of Breast surgery?

A
  • Pain: Persistent or worsening pain at the surgical site.
  • Bleeding: Increased wound drainage, decreased blood pressure, increased heart rate.
  • Infection: Wound redness, swelling, pain, pus discharge, and fever.
  • Seroma: Swelling at the surgical site, fluid-filled lump.
  • Displeasure with cosmetic outcome: Patient dissatisfaction with the appearance of the breast after surgery.
277
Q

What are the possible anaesthetic complications of Breast Surgery?

A
  • Stroke: Sudden onset of neurological deficits such as weakness, speech impairment, visual changes.
  • Venous thromboembolism: Swelling, pain, and redness in the leg (deep vein thrombosis); shortness of breath, chest pain, and rapid heart rate (pulmonary embolism).
  • Myocardial infarction: Chest pain, shortness of breath, sweating, nausea, and lightheadedness.
  • Aspiration: Sudden onset of coughing, wheezing, and difficulty breathing.
278
Q

What are the possible Axillary node clearance related complications of Breast Surgery?

A
  • Lymphoedema: Swelling of the arm, feeling of heaviness or tightness, restricted range of motion.
  • Damage to brachial plexus: Numbness, tingling, or weakness in the arm.
  • Axillary artery/vein injury: Swelling, pain, pallor, and decreased pulse in the arm.
279
Q

What is Chronic Lymphoedema?

A
  • Lymphoedema is a chronic condition caused by impaired lymphatic drainage of an area.
  • Lymphoedema can occur in an entire arm after breast cancer surgery on that side, with removal of the axillary lymph nodes in the armpit.
  • lymphatic system is responsible for draining excess fluid from the tissues. The tissues in areas affected by an impaired lymphatic system become swollen with excess, protein-rich fluid (lymphoedema).
  • Areas of lymphoedema are prone to infection
280
Q

What are the treatment options for Chronic Lymphoedema?

A
  • Massage techniques to manually drain the lymphatic system (manual lymphatic drainage)
  • Compression bandages
  • Specific lymphoedema exercises to improve lymph drainage
  • Weight loss if overweight
  • Good skin care
281
Q

What is the definition of Paget’s disease of the nipple?

A
  • Paget’s disease of the nipple, also known as Paget’s disease of the breast, is a rare condition characterised by the presence of cancer cells in the skin of the nipple.
  • This disease often suggests an underlying ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) or invasive breast cancer.
282
Q

What is the epidemiology of Paget’s Disease of the nipple?

A
  • Most common in Postmenopausal women
  • Only accounts for around 5% of breast cancers
283
Q

What are the 2 theories for how Paget’s disease of the nipple occurs?

A
  • Epidermotropic theory - suggests that cancer cells from an underlying breast tumour migrate to the nipple.
  • Intraepidermal origin theory - which proposes the disease originates in the nipple itself.
284
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Paget’s disease of the nipple?

A
  • Eczema-like rash on the skin of the nipple and areola that is often itchy, red, crusty, and inflamed
  • Bloody nipple discharge
  • Burning sensation, increased sensitivity, or pain in the nipple
  • Changes to the nipple, such as retraction or inversion
  • Palpable breast lump (in some cases)
  • Non-healing skin ulcer (in some cases)
285
Q

What are the differentials for Paget’s disease of the Nipple?

A
  • Atopic dermatitis (eczema)
    Characterised by itchy, red, and inflamed skin, usually occurring in patches
  • Contact dermatitis
    Caused by irritants or allergens, presents with a red rash, itching, and possibly blisters
  • Intraductal papilloma
    Produces bloody nipple discharge but typically does not involve skin changes
  • Mastitis or breast abscess
    Presents with breast redness, swelling, pain, and possible fever; often related to breastfeeding
  • Psoriasis
    Presents with silvery scales on red, raised patches, often with itching or burning
286
Q

How is Paget’s disease of the nipple diagnosed?

A
  • Physical examination of the breasts and lymph nodes
  • Mammography or breast ultrasound
  • Biopsy of the affected skin and nipple discharge cytology
  • MRI may be used in certain circumstances to better assess the extent of disease
287
Q

What does management of Paget’s disease of the nipple involve?

A

Management of Paget’s disease of the nipple primarily involves surgical intervention. Approaches can include:

  • Simple mastectomy: Removal of the entire breast, including the nipple and areola
  • Modified radical mastectomy: Removal of the entire breast along with some of the axillary (underarm) lymph nodes
  • Breast-conserving surgery (lumpectomy): If the underlying cancer is small and limited

Additionally, adjunctive treatments such as radiation therapy, chemotherapy, or hormonal therapy may be used depending on the characteristics of the underlying breast cancer.

288
Q

What is the definition of Vulvovaginal Candidiasis?

A
  • Vulvovaginal candidiasis, often referred to as a yeast infection, is an inflammation of the vagina and the vulva due to an overgrowth of the yeast fungus, primarily Candida Albicans.
  • Recurrent vulvovaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more symptomatic episodes in one year, with at least two episodes confirmed by microscopy or culture when symptomatic.
289
Q

What causes Vulvovaginal Candidiasis?

A
  • Candida Albicans is the main causative organism (causing 85-90% of cases)
  • Transmission is usually non-sexual
290
Q

What are the risk factors for developing vulvovaginal candidiasis?

A
  • Pregnancy
  • Antibiotic use
  • Immunosuppression
291
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Vulvovaginal Candidiasis?

A

Symptoms:
* Itching
* white curdy or lumpy discharge
* sour milk odour
* dysuria
* superficial dyspareunia
* pruritus
* tenderness
* burning sensation.

Signs:
* Redness
* fissuring
* swelling
* intertrigo
* thick white discharge.

In Men:
Symptoms: Soreness, pruritus, redness.
Examination findings: Dry, dull, red glazed plaques and papules.

292
Q

What are some differentials for Vulvovaginal Candidiasis?

A
  • Bacterial vaginosis
    Characterised by greyish-white discharge, fishy odour, and absence of significant inflammation.
  • Trichomoniasis
    Presents with yellow-green, frothy discharge, dysuria, and itching.
  • Chlamydia or Gonorrhoea
    These sexually transmitted infections can cause similar symptoms such as discharge, but often also present with pelvic pain or bleeding.
  • Genital herpes
    Characterised by painful blisters or open sores in the genital area.
293
Q

What investigations are done for vulvovaginal candidiasis?

A

Routine investigations are not typically required for acute, uncomplicated vulvovaginal candidiasis cases.

However, in instances where the clinical presentation is unclear or recurrent episodes occur, the following investigations may be necessary:

  • Microscopy - Detection of blastospores, pseudohyphae and neutrophils suggests Candida infection.
  • Culture - Recommended for recurrent vulvovaginal candidiasis cases to identify the Candida species.
294
Q

What is the management of Vulvovaginal Candidiasis?

A

1st Line management is Antifungal treatment:
* Oral (-azoles) e.g., fluconazole, itraconazole
* Intravaginal e.g., clotrimazole pessary
* Vulval e.g., topical clotrimazole cream

Common regimens include:
* Fluconazole oral capsule 150mg as a single dose.
* Clotrimazole intravaginal pessary 500mg as a single dose.
* Clotrimazole intravaginal cream (10%) 5g as a single dose.
* Clotrimazole intravaginal pessary 200mg at night for 3 consecutive nights.

295
Q

What is the management of Recurrent vulvovaginal candidiasis?

A

Is managed with a Induction and Maintainence regimen:

  • Induction with Fluconazole oral capsule 150mg every 72 hours for a total of three doses
  • Maintainence with Fluconazole oral capsule 150mg once weekly for six months
296
Q

What is the definition of Balanitis?

A
  • Balanitis is inflammation of the glans penis.
  • If the foreskin is also inflamed, the correct term is balanoposthitis, although balanitis is commonly used to refer to both.
297
Q

What is the epidemiology of Balanitis?

A
  • More common in Men than boys
  • It’s uncommon in circumcised boys and men (circumcision reduces the risk of inflammatory skin conditions which may cause balanitis).
298
Q

What are the risk factors for Balanitis?

A
  • Diabetes mellitus.
  • Use of oral antibiotics.
  • Poor hygiene in uncircumcised males.
  • Immunosuppression.
  • Chemical or physical irritation of glans.
299
Q

What are the possible causes of Balanitis?

A

Infectious Causes:
* Candida infection
* Staph Aureus
* Anaerobic Bacteria

Dermatological Causes
* Circinate balanitis (Associated with reactive arthritis)
* Psoriasis
* Fixed drug eruption (especially with sulfonamides and tetracycline)

Other causes
* Intertrigo (alot of cases)
* Irritation or contact dermatitis: wet nappies, poor hygiene, smegma, soap, condoms.
* Trauma
* Severe oedema due to right heart failure.
* Morbid obesity

300
Q

ts

What is Intertrigo?

A

Intertrigo is a common inflammatory skin condition that is caused by skin-to-skin friction (rubbing) that is intensified by heat and moisture.

301
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Balanitis?

A
  • Sore, inflamed and swollen glans/foreskin
  • Non-retractile foreskin (phimosis).
  • Penile ulceration.
  • Penile plaques.
  • Satellite lesions.
  • May be purulent and/or foul-smelling discharge (most common with streptococcal/anaerobic infection).
  • Dysuria.
  • Interference with urinary flow in severe cases.
  • Obscuration of glans/external urethral meatus.
  • Impotence or pain during coitus.
  • Regional lymphadenopathy.
302
Q

What investigations are done for Balanitis?

A
  • Blood/urine testing for glucose if diabetes mellitus is possible.
  • Swab of discharge for microscopy, Gram staining, culture and sensitivity.
303
Q

What is the management of Balanitis?

A

Caused by contact dermatitis:
* Avoid Triggers
* Topical hydrocortisone 1% once daily (consider adding an imidazole cream), for up to 14 days.

Caused by Candidal infection
* Clotrimazole cream 1% or miconazole cream 2%; apply twice daily until symptoms have settled.
* Alternative regimens: fluconazole 150 mg stat orally
* Topical imidazole with 1% hydrocortisone if there is marked inflammation

Caused by Bacterial infection
* Common bacterial infection - flucloxacillin (or erythromycin in penicillin-allergic patients).
* Anaerobic infection - metronidazole 400 mg twice-daily for one week

Surgery
* Is not often done, but surgical referral for consideration of circumcision if balanitis is recurrent or pathological phimosis is present.

304
Q

What is the definition of Chancroid?

A
  • Chancroid is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) of the genital skin.
  • It is primarily caused by the gram-negative bacillus Haemophilus ducreyi.
305
Q

What is the epidemiology of Chancroid?

A
  • Most common in tropical and subtropical regions as well as Greenland
  • Sexual behaviour, poor living conditions, and a lack of public health infrastructure contribute to the increased incidence in these areas
306
Q

What causes Chancroid?

A
  • Chancroid is caused by an infection with the gram-negative bacillus Haemophilus ducreyi.
  • The bacterium is sexually transmitted and can cause a genital ulcer and inflammation of the inguinal lymph nodes.
  • Given its higher prevalence in other parts of the world, its important to ask patients about recent travel.
307
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Chancroid?

A
  • Presents as a painful, potentially necrotic genital lesion; that may bleed on contact.
  • Painful lymphadenopathy, commonly known as “bubo,” which may rupture and discharge pus.

Symptoms often develop within 4-10 days after exposure to the bacterium.

308
Q

What are some differentials for Chancroid?

A
  • Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)
    Presents with multiple, small, vesicular lesions that become ulcers, accompanied by systemic symptoms such as fever and malaise.
  • Syphilis
    Presents with a painless ulcer (chancre) and generalized non-tender lymphadenopathy.
  • Lymphogranuloma Venereum (LGV)
    Presents with a small painless ulcer or papule that often goes unnoticed, followed by painful inguinal lymphadenopathy (“bubo”) similar to chancroid.
309
Q

What investigations are done for Chancroid?

A

Diagnosis is usually based upon the clinical picture. But the following can confirm the diagnosis:

  • Culture - H. ducreyi is a fastidious organism and culture is often difficult and time-consuming.
  • PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) - PCR for H. ducreyi can be performed on genital ulcer specimens, providing a more rapid diagnosis.
310
Q

What is the management of Chancroid?

A

The infection is typically managed using antibiotics, including:
* Ceftriaxone
* Azithromycin
* Ciprofloxacin

Adjunctive therapy can include:
* Analgesics for pain control
* Incision and drainage of buboes

311
Q

What is the definition of Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)?

A
  • Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is a sexually transmitted infection.
  • Predominantly caused by the L1, L2, or L3 serovars of Chlamydia trachomatis.
312
Q

What is the epidemiology of LGV?

A

More common in Men who have sex with Men

313
Q

What causes LGV?

A

Its caused by infection with the L1, L2, or L3 serovars of Chlamydia trachomatis, typically through sexual contact.

314
Q

What is the clinical presentation LGV?

A
  • Painless genital ulcer - Typically appears 3-12 days after infection. It might go unnoticed, particularly if it occurs inside the vagina
  • Inguinal lymphadenopathy, often noticeable
  • Proctitis, associated with rectal pain and discharge (in case of rectal infections)
  • Systemic symptoms can include fever and malaise
315
Q

What are the differentials of LGV?

A
  • Primary syphilis
    Presents with a solitary, painless genital ulcer (chancre) and regional lymphadenopathy
  • Herpes simplex virus infection
    Characterised by multiple painful vesicles or ulcers, systemic symptoms, and occasional inguinal lymphadenopathy
  • Chancroid
    Caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, it presents with painful genital ulcers and painful inguinal lymphadenopathy
316
Q

How is LGV diagnosed?

A

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR), are employed to detect C. trachomatis from a swab of the genital ulcer.

317
Q

What is the management of LGV?

A

Its managed by anitibiotics. Common regimes include:
* Oral doxycycline - 100 mg administered twice daily for 21 days
* Oral tetracycline - 2 g administered daily for 21 days
* Oral erythromycin - 500 mg given four times daily for 21 days

318
Q

What is the definition of Genital Herpes?

A
  • Genital herpes is an infectious disease characterized by the appearance of painful sores or ulcers on the genitals.
  • It is caused by infection with the herpes simplex viruses, either HSV-1 or HSV-2.
319
Q

What is the epidemiology Genital Herpes?

A

More common in 15 - 24 year olds

320
Q

What is the cause of Genital Herpes?

A
  • HSV-1 - Is traditionally associated with oral herpes, but it is now the most common cause of genital herpes in the UK.
  • HSV-2 - Was reviously the most common cause of genital herpes in the UK, it is more likely to cause recurrent anogenital symptoms.
321
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Genital Herpes?

A
  • Asymptomatic presentation in some individuals
  • Multiple painful genital ulcers
  • Dysuria
  • Vaginal or urethral discharge
  • Crusting and healing of lesions, marking the end of viral shedding
  • Fever, malaise, headache, and urinary retention in some cases

Recurrent episodes are usually less severe and may not have an identifiable trigger. They may be preceded by a prodromal phase characterized by tingling.

322
Q

How is Genital Herpes Diagnosed?

A
  • Clinical history and examination
  • Swab from the base of the ulcer analysed using nucleic acid amplification tests (NAATs), the most effective method
323
Q

What is the management of Genital Herpes?

A

Oral antivirals are the mainstay of treatment. Ideally initiated within 5 days of symptom onset or while new lesions are forming:
* Aciclovir 400 mg three times daily for 5 days
* Valaciclovir 500 mg twice daily for 5 days
* Aciclovir 200 mg five times daily for 5 days
* Famciclovir 250 mg three times daily for 5 days

For symptomatic relief, analgesia such as topical lidocaine may be beneficial.

324
Q

What is the management of Genital Herpes?

A
  • Referral to a GUM clinic
  • Immediate treatment initiation (400 mg Aciclovir three times daily for 5 days) for a first-time HSV episode
  • Inform the mother that neonatal risk is low even with lesions present at delivery.
  • If lesions are short lasting and resolve within 7-10 days, supportive treatment with saline bathing and paracetamol may suffice.
325
Q

What is the definition of Genital Warts?

A
  • Genital warts, or anogenital warts, are a type of sexually transmitted infection characterised by small, skin-colored or grey growths in the genital area.
  • They are typically painless and present in regions traumatised during sexual intercourse.
326
Q

What are some risk factors for Genital Warts?

A
  • Unprotected sex
  • Multiple sexual partners
  • Immunosuppression
  • Starting sexual activity at a young age.
327
Q

What causes Genital Warts?

A
  • They are caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV)
  • 90% of cases are attributed to attributed to serotypes 6 and 11
  • Transmission primarily occurs through direct skin-to-skin contact during sexual activity.
328
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Genital Warts?

A
  • Painless lumps on the genitals or anal area
  • The lumps are either skin coloured or grey
  • Lumps that are either keratinised (hard) or non-keratinised (soft)
  • Areas of the body that are traumatised during sexual intercourse are commonly affected
329
Q

What are some differentials of Genital Warts?

A
  • Molluscum contagiosum
    Characterised by small, firm, round bumps with a central indentation.
  • Condyloma lata (secondary syphilis)
    Presents as large, flat, grey-white lesions, often with a moist surface.
  • Genital herpes
    Presents with painful blisters or open sores in the genital area.
  • Skin tags
    Small, soft, skin-colored growths that hang off the skin and can appear anywhere.
330
Q

How is Genital Warts Diagnosed?

A
  • Diagnosis is primarily clinical made through a detailed history and visual inspection of the warts.
  • But in uncertain cases the diagnosis can be confirmed through biopsy and histopathological investigation.
331
Q

What does the management of Genital Warts involve?

A

Management depends on the patient’s wishes and concerns about their appearance. If the patient is not concerned about the aesthetic aspect, a conservative approach can be adopted.

But active treatment options include:
* Podophyllotoxin - a plant-based antiviral that can destroy wart tissue
* Imiquimod - an immune response modifier that stimulates the body’s immune system to fight the virus
* Cryotherapy (a process that freezes the wart using liquid nitrogen) or ablative therapy can be used to treat keratinised warts
* Trichloroacetic acid - a chemical treatment that burns off warts.

There is a high chance of reccurrence regardless of treatment.

332
Q

What is the definition of a Primary HIV Infection?

A
  • Primary HIV infection, or acute retroviral syndrome, is the phase that commences immediately after the initial exposure to the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV).
  • This phase is characterised by a surge in viral replication and often coincides with the onset of clinical symptoms.
333
Q

What causes a HIV infection?

A
  • HIV, specifically HIV-1 and HIV-2, are RNA retroviruses that cause primary HIV infection.
  • The virus enters and destroys the CD4 T-helper cells of the immune system.

They are transmitted through:
* Unprotected anal, vaginal or oral sexual activity
* Mother to child at any stage of pregnancy, birth or breastfeeding (called vertical transmission)
* Mucous membrane, blood or open wound exposure to infected blood or bodily fluids (e.g., sharing needles, needle-stick injuries or blood splashed in an eye)

334
Q

What is the clinical presentation of a primary HIV infection?

A

Typically presents experience as a mild flu-like illness 2-6 weeks post-exposure. But it can widely range in the serverity of symptoms. Classic presentation includes:

  • Fever
  • Lymphadenopathy
  • Maculopapular rash (commonly found on the upper chest)
  • Mucosal ulcers
  • Myalgia
  • Arthralgia
  • Fatigue
  • Some people can remain asymptomatic

After this initial flu-like illness within the first few weeks of infection. The infection is then asymptomatic until the condition progresses to immunodeficiency. Disease progression may occur years after the initial infection.

335
Q

What are the indications in a primary HIV infection, that the patient may rapidly progress to AIDS?

A
  • Symptom onset within 3 weeks of infection
  • Symptoms lasting longer than 2 weeks
  • Symptoms involving the central nervous system (CNS)
336
Q

What are some differentials for Primary HIV?

A
  • Influenza
    Characterised by sudden onset fever, cough, headache, muscle and joint pain, severe malaise, sore throat, and a runny nose.
  • Mononucleosis (Epstein-Barr virus or cytomegalovirus)
    Typically presents with fever, pharyngitis, lymphadenopathy, and fatigue.
  • Acute streptococcal pharyngitis
    Symptoms include sore throat, fever, headache, abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting.
  • Viral hepatitis
    May present with jaundice, fatigue, nausea, fever, and muscle aches.
337
Q

How is a primary HIV infection diagnosed?

A

Serum HIV enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)

A positive result must be confirmed using a second test.

338
Q

What additional tests can be done when investigating a primary HIV infection?

A
  • HIV viral load
  • Full blood count
  • Lymphocyte subset panel (including CD4 count)
  • Screening for other sexually transmitted infections such as chlamydia, gonorrhoea, and syphilis
  • Screening for viral hepatitis
  • Kidney function tests
  • Liver function tests
  • Glucose
  • Lipids
339
Q

What are the 2 types of HIV Screening test?

A

Fourth-generation laboratory test for HIV
* Checks antibodies to HIV and the p24 antigen
* It has a window period of 45 days, meaning it can take up to 45 days after exposure to the virus for the test to turn positive.
* A negative result within 45 days of exposure is therefore unreliable

Point of care tests for HIV
* Only checks for HIV antibodies
* Has a window period of 90 days

340
Q

How is a HIV infection monitored?

A

CD4 Count - gives the number of CD4 cells in the blood. These are the cells destroyed by the virus. The lower the count, the higher the risk of opportunistic infection (and the development of an AIDs defining illness).
* 500-1200 cells/mm3 is the normal range
* Under 200 cells/mm3 puts the patient at high risk of opportunistic infections

HIV RNA per ml of blood indicates the viral load. And is another way to monitor how well controlled a HIV infection is. An undetectable viral load means the level is below the recordable range (usually 20 copies/ml)

341
Q

What is the management of a HIV infection?

A

Every patient is offered ** Combination Antiretroviral Therapy** regardless of their viral load or CD4 count.

There are several classes of ART drugs:
* Protease inhibitors (PI)
* Integrase inhibitors (II)
* Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI)
* Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI)
* Entry inhibitors (EI)

The usual starting regime is:
* Two NRTIs (e.g. tenofovir plus emtricitabine)
* Plus a third agent (e.g. bictegravir).

The aim of treatement achieve a normal CD4 count and undetectable viral load.

342
Q

What treatment should be given to all HIV patients with a CD4 count below 200/mm3?

A

Prophylactic co-trimoxazole is given to protect against pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PCP)

343
Q

What is the definition of AIDS (Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome)?

A
  • AIDS is the terminal stage of HIV infection where combination antiretroviral therapy (cART) has not halted the spread of the virus.
  • It is defined by the presence of an AIDS-defining illness alongside a CD4 count of less than 200 cells/mm³.
344
Q

What is the epidemiology of AIDs?

A

Most common in Sub-Saharan Africa

345
Q

What are some examples of AIDS defining illnesses?

A
  • Kaposi’s sarcoma
  • Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PCP)
  • Cytomegalovirus infection
  • Candidiasis (oesophageal or bronchial)
  • Lymphomas
  • Tuberculosis
346
Q

What is the clinical presentation of AIDS?

A

It depends on the specific AIDS defining illness that is present, which can include:
* Gastrointestinal symptoms
Such as dysphagia or odynophagia in oesophageal candidiasis
* Respiratory symptoms
In cases of Pneumocystis pneumonia or recurrent pneumonia
* Neurological symptoms
In cases of HIV encephalopathy, toxoplasmosis, or progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
* Skin lesions
In cases of Kaposi’s sarcoma or lymphoma
* Visual symptoms
In cases of cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis.

347
Q

What investigations are done for AIDS?

A
  • HIV testing: Primary diagnosis of HIV infection
  • CD4 cell count: To determine the progression of the disease
  • Tests specific to AIDS-defining illnesses: For example, bronchoscopy for suspected Pneumocystis pneumonia or biopsy for Kaposi’s sarcoma
348
Q

What does the management of AIDS involve?

A
  • Combination antiretroviral therapy (cART)
    To suppress HIV replication and slow disease progression
  • Prophylaxis against opportunistic infections
    Including Pneumocystis pneumonia and toxoplasmosis
  • Treatment of AIDS-defining illnesses
    Specific to the illness, for example, antifungal therapy for candidiasis or chemotherapy for lymphoma
349
Q

How can the spread of HIV be prevented (or the risk reduced)?

A
  • Correct use of condoms
  • Effective treatment combined with an undetectable viral load appears to prevent the spread of HIV, even during unprotected sex.
  • Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP) - Can be used after exposure to reduce the risk of transmission. Its not 100% effective however and must be commenced within a short window of opportunity (less than 72 hours).
  • Pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) is also available to take before exposure to reduce the risk of transmission.
350
Q

What is the recommended regime for PEP?

A
  • It involves a combination of Anti-retroviral therapy
  • emtricitabine/tenofovir (Truvada) and raltegravir for 28 days.
  • The sooner PEP is started after exposure, the greater the chance it will work.
351
Q

What is the most common form of PrEP?

A

Emtricitabine or tenofovir (Truvada).

352
Q

How can a HIV infection affect a pregnancy?

A

The HIV virus can transfer from mother to child at any stage of the pregnancy; however the greatest risk is during delivery (particularly a vaginal delivery)

The mother’s viral load affects what delivery type is reccomended:
* Under 50 copies/ml - Normal vaginal delivery
* Over 50 copies/ml - Pre-labour Cesaerean section is recommended

IV zidovudine is given as an infusion during labour and delivery if the viral load is unknown or above 1000 copies/ml.

353
Q

After birth, what prophlaxis can be given to the baby with a HIV positive mother?

A

Post Exposure Prophylaxis

  • Low-risk babies (mother’s viral load is under 50 copies per ml) are given zidovudine for 2-4 weeks
  • High-risk babies are given zidovudine, lamivudine and nevirapine for four weeks
354
Q

Can HIV positive mothers breastfeed?

A
  • HIV can be transmitted during breastfeeding.
  • Therefore the safest option is to avoid breastfeeding alltogether and to use formula milk (even if the mother’s viral load is undetectable).
355
Q

What is the definition of Erectile Dysfunction?

A

Erectile dysfunction (ED) is defined as the consistent or recurrent inability to attain and/or maintain penile erection sufficient for satisfactory sexual performance.

356
Q

What is the epidemiology of Erectile Dysfunction?

A
  • It is more common in older men
  • It affects more than 50% of men aged over 60
357
Q

What causes erectile dysfunction?

A
  • Vascular disease
    Atherosclerosis can lead to impaired blood flow to the penis, leading to ED.
  • Autonomic neuropathy
    This can cause penile denervation, most commonly seen in conditions like diabetes or with excessive alcohol intake.
  • Medications
    Certain drugs, such as antihypertensive agents, can cause ED.
  • Psychogenic
    Anxiety, depression, and other psychological factors can contribute to ED.
  • Endocrine causes
    Conditions like prolactinoma and hypogonadism can cause hormonal imbalances leading to ED.
  • Pelvic surgery
    Procedures involving the bladder, prostate, or other pelvic structures can damage nerves and blood vessels, leading to ED.
  • Anatomical abnormalities
    Conditions like Peyronie’s disease, characterized by fibrous scar tissue inside the penis, can cause ED.
358
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Erectile Dysfunction?

A

Primary symptom of erectile dysfunction is the inability to achieve or maintain an erection sufficient for sexual intercourse. This can also lead to:

  • Reduced sexual desire
  • Difficulty in ejaculation
  • Anxiety or depression related to sexual performance

Signs which suggest an organic cause:
* lack tumescence
* slow-onset
* normal libido.

Signs which suggest a psychogenic cause
* If situational
* Acute onset
* High levels of stress
* Still having early morning erections.

359
Q

What are some differentials for Erectile Dysfunction?

A
  • Premature ejaculation
    Characterized by uncontrolled ejaculation either before or shortly after sexual penetration.
  • Hypogonadism
    Characterized by low testosterone levels, resulting in low sex drive, fatigue, and mood changes.
  • Peyronie’s disease
    Presents with a significant bend in the penis during erection, which can interfere with sexual function.
360
Q

How is Erectile Dysfunction investigated?

A
  • Detailed sexual and psychological history to identify potential contributing factors.
  • Blood tests - Full blood count, urea and electrolytes, thyroid function tests, lipid profile, testosterone, and prolactin to evaluate overall health and hormonal status.
  • It can sometimes be the first presentation of sequalae of cardiovascular disease and so presentation should prompt investigation of cardiovascular health.
361
Q

What is the management of Erectile Dysfunction?

A
  • Psychosexual therapy
    To address any underlying psychological factors.
  • Oral phosphodiesterase inhibitors (e.g. Sildenafil)
    To enhance the effect of nitric oxide, increasing blood flow to the penis.
  • Vacuum erection devices
    To draw blood into the penis by applying negative pressure.
  • Intra-cavernosal injections
    To directly increase blood flow.
  • Penile prostheses
    For cases resistant to other treatments.
362
Q

What are the side effects of Phosphodiesterase inhibitors (Sildenafil)?

A
  • Headache
  • Flushing
  • Hypotension
  • Blue tinge to vision (little blue pill).
363
Q

In what patients is Sildenafil contraindicated in?

A
  • Individuals taking nitrates
  • Hypertension/hypotension
  • Arrhythmias
  • Unstable angina
  • Stroke
  • Recent myocardial infarction.