Workbook1 Flashcards
1
Q
What are long chains made of many monomers chemically bonded together in a repeating pattern called?
A
Polymers
2
Q
Do lipids contain monomers?
A
No
3
Q
What is the reaction that creates a chemical bond between monomers by removing a molecule of water?
A
Condensation reaction
4
Q
What is the reaction that breaks a chemical bond between monomers by inserting a molecule of water called?
A
Hydrolysis reaction
5
Q
What term describes molecules with the same chemical formula but different molecular structures?
A
Isomers
6
Q
In carbohydrates, what is the difference between alpha and beta glucose?
A
Position of hydrogen/hydroxyl group on carbon 1
7
Q
What type of sugar is maltose?
A
Disaccharide
8
Q
What two monomers make up maltose?
A
Glucose and Glucose
9
Q
What two monomers make up sucrose?
A
Glucose and Fructose
10
Q
What two monomers make up lactose?
A
Glucose and Galactose
11
Q
What type of bond connects monosaccharides in carbohydrates?
A
Glycosidic bond
12
Q
What is the store of glucose in plants called?
A
Starch
13
Q
What is the store of glucose in animals called?
A
Glycogen
14
Q
What provides structural support in plant/algae cell walls?
A
Cellulose
15
Q
What is the structure of amylose?
A
Straight chain (but a helix)
16
Q
What is the structure of amylopectin?
A
Branched chain
17
Q
What test is used to detect starch?
A
Iodine test
18
Q
What color change indicates the presence of starch in the iodine test?
A
Brown to blue/black
19
Q
What test is used to detect reducing sugars?
A
Benedict’s test
20
Q
What is the color change observed in Benedict’s test for reducing sugars?
A
Blue to red
21
Q
Is sucrose a reducing sugar?
A
No
22
Q
What must be done to sucrose before it can be tested with Benedict’s reagent?
A
Hydrochloric acid treatment
23
Q
What is the result of Benedict’s test following acid treatment for reducing sugars?
A
Red
24
Q
What is the formula for calculating the concentration of glucose in mM?
A
0.2 = 0.7 mM, 0.5 = 1.7 mM, 0.8 = 2.8 mM, 1.3 = 5.4 mM
25
What is a lipid's main structural component?
Glycerol and fatty acids
26
What is the reaction that forms an ester bond in lipids?
Condensation reaction
27
What is the structure of a phospholipid?
Hydrophilic head and hydrophobic tail
28
What test is used to detect lipids?
Emulsion test
29
What color change indicates the presence of lipids in the emulsion test?
Milky emulsion forms
30
What type of proteins are soluble proteins with biochemical functions?
Globular proteins
31
What type of proteins are insoluble and have structural functions?
Fibrous proteins
32
What is the color change in the Biuret test for proteins?
Blue to purple/lilac
33
What type of bond is formed between amino acids?
Peptide bond
34
What type of reaction joins amino acids by forming peptide bonds?
Condensation reaction
35
What bonds stabilize the secondary structure of proteins?
Hydrogen bonds
36
What is the primary structure of proteins determined by?
Sequence of amino acids
37
What is the tertiary structure of proteins formed by?
Interactions between R groups
38
What defines the quaternary structure of proteins?
>1 polypeptide chains
39
What are the two functional groups present at the ends of a dipeptide?
Amine/NH2 and Carboxyl/COOH
## Footnote
Accept amino/NH3+ and carboxylic/COO−
40
What is a characteristic of all amino acids?
All contain C, H, N, and O
## Footnote
Accept examples of different R groups
41
What causes amino acids to move different distances during electrophoresis?
Different charge/mass of amino acids
## Footnote
Accept size for mass
42
What is the role of enzymes in biochemical reactions?
Lower activation energy and speed up reaction rates
43
What is the active site of an enzyme?
The region where substrate molecules bind
44
How do enzymes lower activation energy?
* Bending bonds in the substrate
* Bringing molecules close together
45
What is the induced fit model?
Enzyme active site changes shape to fit the substrate
46
What happens to the active site when an enzyme is denatured?
The active site changes shape and is no longer complementary to the substrate
47
What is a competitive inhibitor?
Binds to the active site and is similar in shape to the substrate
48
What is the effect of competitive inhibitors at high substrate concentrations?
Max rate of reaction is reached
49
What is a non-competitive inhibitor?
Binds to a site other than the active site (allosteric site)
50
How do non-competitive inhibitors affect enzyme activity?
Prevent max rate from ever being reached
51
True or False: All amino acids have the same R side chain.
False
52
True or False: The tertiary structure determines the function of the protein.
True
53
What happens to enzyme activity as temperature increases from 20 to 100°C?
Rate of reaction increases due to increased kinetic energy
54
What occurs to the rate of reaction above the optimum temperature?
Rate of reaction decreases due to denaturation of the enzyme
55
What is the function of mRNA?
Transfers genetic information from DNA to ribosomes for protein synthesis
56
What are the components of ribonucleic acid (RNA)?
* Adenine
* Uracil
* Guanine
* Cytosine
57
What type of bond forms between nucleotides in DNA?
Phosphodiester bond
58
What is the structure of DNA?
Double helix held by hydrogen bonds
59
What base pairs with adenine in DNA?
Thymine
60
What type of reaction joins monomers in nucleic acids?
Condensation reaction
61
What type of reaction breaks bonds between nucleotides?
Hydrolysis reaction
62
What is the significance of the base sequence in DNA?
Codes for amino acids and allows information storage
63
What is a characteristic of RNA compared to DNA?
RNA is single stranded whereas DNA is double stranded
64
What is the role of tRNA in protein synthesis?
Carries specific amino acids to the ribosome
65
Fill in the blank: The bond that holds the tertiary structure of proteins is primarily _____ bonds.
hydrogen and ionic bonds
66
What is the relationship between enzyme concentration and rate of reaction?
Rate increases as more enzyme-substrate complexes are formed
67
What happens to enzyme activity when all active sites are occupied?
Rate levels off
68
What is the difference between competitive and non-competitive inhibitors?
* Competitive: binds to active site
* Non-competitive: binds to allosteric site
69
True or False: DNA contains uracil.
False
70
What type of bonds are responsible for the stability of the double helix structure of DNA?
Hydrogen bonds
71
What is the role of condensation reactions in polymer formation?
Joins monomers together and forms a chemical bond while releasing water.
72
What is the role of hydrolysis reactions in polymer breakdown?
Breaks a chemical bond between monomers and uses water.
73
Give a suitable example of a polymer and its monomer.
* Amino acid and polypeptide, protein, enzyme, antibody
* Nucleotide and polynucleotide, DNA or RNA
* Alpha glucose and starch/glycogen
* Beta glucose and cellulose.
74
What is a key characteristic of polymers?
Polymers must contain many monomers.
75
What is the function of DNA helicase during DNA replication?
Breaks the hydrogen bonds between complementary bases.
76
What type of bond does DNA polymerase form during DNA replication?
Phosphodiester bond.
77
What is the semi-conservative model of DNA replication?
Each new molecule of DNA contains one original strand and one new strand.
78
What is meant by complementary base pairing in DNA?
Adenine pairs with Thymine, and Guanine pairs with Cytosine.
79
True or False: DNA replication is a process that does not require template strands.
False.
80
Fill in the blank: DNA replication occurs during ______ of the cell cycle.
interphase.
81
What happens to the strands of DNA during replication?
Strands separate and act as templates.
82
What is the significance of hydrogen bonds in DNA structure?
They hold the strands together and are easily broken to allow separation.
83
What are the roles of ATP Synthase and ATP Hydrolase?
* ATP Synthase catalyzes the synthesis of ATP
* ATP Hydrolase catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP.
84
What is the importance of water's high specific heat capacity?
It can gain or lose a lot of heat without changing temperature.
85
What happens to ATP during hydrolysis?
It releases energy and converts to ADP and inorganic phosphate.
86
What is the role of phosphate ions in cellular processes?
They become phosphorylated and are more reactive.
87
What defines a polar molecule?
It has regions with partial positive and negative charges.
88
What is the function of ATP in the cell?
Releases energy in small, manageable amounts.
89
What is the significance of DNA replication being semi-conservative?
It ensures that each new DNA molecule contains one old strand and one new strand.
90
What type of bond is formed between adjacent DNA nucleotides?
Phosphodiester bond.
91
What is the function of hydrogen ions in biological systems?
They are involved in pH regulation and energy transfer.
92
How does water serve as a universal solvent?
It dissolves many substances, facilitating metabolic reactions.
93
What is the effect of increased ATP concentration on muscle contraction?
As ATP increases, muscle contraction length increases.
94
What are the consequences of uncontrolled cell division?
It may result in mutation in a tumor suppressor gene or oncogene.
95
What is A in the provided context?
β glucose
## Footnote
It is a specific form of glucose.
96
What does B represent?
Adenosine triphosphate
## Footnote
Commonly abbreviated as ATP.
97
Define saturated in the context of fatty acids.
A fatty acid with no double bonds between carbon atoms.
98
What is a peptide bond?
A bond formed between two amino acids.
99
What role does water play in biological systems?
Solvent for metabolic reactions.
100
What does the enzyme do with adjacent DNA nucleotides?
Joins adjacent DNA nucleotides.
101
What type of reaction does the enzyme catalyze?
Condensation reactions.
102
What bonds does the enzyme catalyze the formation of?
Phosphodiester bonds.
103
What is the range for the final answer with 2sf or 3sf?
31.8 to 34.7% or other specified ranges.
104
What happens during the hydrolysis of ATP?
Releases inorganic phosphate.
105
What is the effect of shortening interphase on cell division?
Cells begin DNA replication earlier.
106
What can result from faster cell division?
Uncontrolled cell division.
107
What is a metabolite in the context of biological processes?
A substance involved in metabolic reactions.
108
What property of water helps resist temperature changes?
High heat capacity.
109
What is the cooling effect provided by water due to its latent heat?
Provides cooling through evaporation.
110
What does cohesion between water molecules support in plants?
Columns of water in the transpiration stream.
111
What test can be used to identify lipids?
Add ethanol and then water.
112
What color indicates a positive result in the lipid test?
White/milky emulsion.
113
What is the first step in testing for non-reducing sugars?
Do Benedict’s test and stays blue.
114
What is the result of adding biuret reagent to a protein?
Turns purple/violet.
115
Fill in the blank: A ______ reaction joins monomers together and releases water.
condensation
116
Fill in the blank: A ______ reaction breaks a bond between monomers and uses water.
hydrolysis
117
Provide an example of a polymer and its monomer.
Starch and alpha glucose.
118
What bond is formed within a polymer?
Peptide bond.
119
What are the main components of eukaryotic cell structure?
* Golgi
* Mitochondria
* Cell wall
* Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
* Nucleus
* Chloroplast
* Lysosome
* Vacuole
* Ribosomes / rough endoplasmic reticulum
* Vesicles / Golgi
## Footnote
These components are essential for various cellular functions.
120
Fill in the blanks: Cells form ______, which form ______, which form ______, which form ______.
* tissue
* organs
* organ systems
## Footnote
This sequence illustrates the hierarchical organization of biological structures.
121
What is the function of the vacuole in plant cells?
* Storage of water
* Storage of amino acids
* Storage of pigments
* Maintaining turgidity
## Footnote
The vacuole plays a critical role in maintaining cell structure and storage.
122
Identify the structure labeled as B in the cell diagram.
Nucleolus
## Footnote
The nucleolus is involved in the synthesis of ribosomal RNA.
123
What is the primary function of mitochondria?
Produce ATP for aerobic respiration
## Footnote
Mitochondria are known as the powerhouse of the cell.
124
List the structures found in the diagram from top to bottom.
* Cytoplasm
* Vacuole
* Starch grain
* Chloroplast
* Mitochondrion
* Cell wall
* Nucleolus
* Nuclear envelope
* Rough endoplasmic reticulum
* Cell membrane
## Footnote
This list represents various organelles and structures within a plant cell.
125
What is the function of the Golgi body?
* Modifies proteins
* Packages proteins into vesicles
* Produces lysosomes
## Footnote
The Golgi body is crucial for processing and sorting proteins within the cell.
126
True or False: Ribosomes are only found attached to the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
False
## Footnote
Ribosomes can also be found freely floating in the cytoplasm.
127
What is the difference between prokaryotic cells and viruses?
* Prokaryotic cells are living organisms while viruses are acellular
* Prokaryotic cells have a cell wall; viruses do not
* Prokaryotic cells contain ribosomes; viruses do not
## Footnote
Understanding the basic differences is important for microbiology.
128
What are the characteristics of viruses?
* Acellular
* Non-living
* Composed of genetic material
* Have a capsid
* Use host cells for replication
## Footnote
These characteristics define viruses and differentiate them from living cells.
129
Fill in the blank: The process of preparing a sample for microscopy involves ______, ______, and ______.
* isolating
* homogenizing
* filtering
## Footnote
These steps are crucial for obtaining clear images under a microscope.
130
What is the magnification formula?
Magnification = size of image / actual size
## Footnote
This formula is fundamental for calculating the magnification in microscopy.
131
List the advantages of using a Transmission Electron Microscope (TEM).
* High resolution
* Ability to view internal structures
* Can observe very small objects
## Footnote
TEMs are powerful tools for studying cellular structures at the molecular level.
132
What is the main disadvantage of using a light microscope?
Low resolution
## Footnote
Light microscopes cannot resolve structures smaller than the wavelength of light.
133
What does the term 'isotonic' refer to in cell biology?
A solution with the same solute concentration as the cell's cytoplasm
## Footnote
Isotonic solutions are important for maintaining cell integrity.
134
What structures are unique to prokaryotic cells?
* Circular DNA
* Plasmids
* Capsule
* Flagella
* Pili
## Footnote
These structures help in the identification and classification of prokaryotic organisms.
135
What is the role of ribosomes in the cell?
Synthesize proteins
## Footnote
Ribosomes can be found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
136
True or False: Chloroplasts are found in all types of cells.
False
## Footnote
Chloroplasts are primarily found in plant cells and some algae.
137
What is the purpose of using a buffer in cell preparation?
Maintain pH
## Footnote
Buffers are essential for protecting cellular components during isolation procedures.
138
Fill in the blank: The ______ is responsible for the synthesis of ribosomal RNA.
Nucleolus
## Footnote
The nucleolus plays a central role in ribosome biogenesis.
139
Describe the structure of the cell wall in prokaryotic cells.
Composed of peptidoglycan
## Footnote
The cell wall provides structural support and protection to prokaryotic cells.
140
What is the formula to calculate actual size from magnification?
Image / magnification = actual
## Footnote
This formula is used to determine the actual size of an object when given its magnified image size and the magnification factor.
141
If an image measures 72 mm at a magnification of 10,400x, what is the actual size in micrometers?
6.9 μm
## Footnote
Actual size is calculated by converting 72 mm to μm and dividing by 10,400.
142
What is the significance of mitochondria in cell biology?
Mitochondria are known as the powerhouse of the cell, producing ATP through cellular respiration.
143
What does the term 'Transmission electron microscope (TEM)' refer to?
A type of electron microscope that transmits a beam of electrons through a specimen to form an image.
144
How do you calculate the magnification using a scale bar of 0.1 μm?
Image / actual = magnification
## Footnote
This requires measuring the scale bar and converting it into micrometers.
145
What occurs during the phase of anaphase in mitosis?
The centromere splits and sister chromatids are pulled to opposite poles of the cell.
146
What is the function of a buffer in a biological context?
Prevents damage to enzymes/proteins by maintaining pH levels.
147
Fill in the blank: Prokaryotes divide by _______.
Binary fission.
148
What is the mitotic index, and how is it calculated?
Mitotic index = (Number of cells in mitosis / Total number of cells) x 100.
149
What happens to chromosomes during prophase?
Chromosomes coil, condense, shorten, thicken, and become visible.
150
What is the role of cholesterol in cell membranes?
Provides strength and rigidity to the membrane.
151
True or False: Glycoproteins act as recognition sites on the cell surface.
True.
152
What is the function of carrier proteins in cell membranes?
Facilitated diffusion of large or charged particles.
153
What is the fluid mosaic model?
A model that describes the structure of cell membranes as a mosaic of various proteins floating in or on the fluid lipid bilayer.
154
During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?
S-phase.
155
What is the result of cytokinesis?
Division of the cytoplasm to form two separate daughter cells.
156
Fill in the blank: The hydrophilic region of a phospholipid is _______.
Phosphate head.
157
What characterizes the anaphase stage of mitosis?
Sister chromatids are pulled apart to opposite ends of the cell.
158
What is the significance of the G1 phase in the cell cycle?
Cell growth and preparation for DNA synthesis.
159
What does isotonic solution do to cells?
Stops osmotic effects on organelles.
160
How do glycolipids contribute to cell function?
Cell attachment to other cells and cell recognition.
161
What happens during telophase?
Nuclear membrane reforms and chromosomes de-condense.
162
What is the primary purpose of mitosis?
Repair, growth, and asexual reproduction.
163
When measuring cells, what does supernatant refer to?
The liquid above the pellet after centrifugation.
164
Fill in the blank: The _______ are the structures that form the spindle apparatus during mitosis.
Centrioles.
165
What is a characteristic of the metaphase stage in mitosis?
Chromosomes line up at the equator of the cell.
166
What effect does MiTMAB have on cytokinesis?
Inhibits cytokinesis by binding to dynamin.
167
What is the consequence of preventing cytokinesis?
Cells may have two nuclei or fail to divide properly.
168
What type of protein is needed alongside phospholipids in the cell membrane?
Channel / intrinsic protein
## Footnote
Both are necessary for membrane function.
169
What types of molecules can pass through the phospholipid bilayer?
Small AND nonpolar / uncharged
## Footnote
Large AND polar molecules cannot pass through.
170
Complete the sequence: Diffusion involves movement from _______ to _______ concentration.
high to low
171
What is the process by which water moves through a semi-permeable membrane?
Osmosis
172
Define isotonic solution.
A solution with the same water potential as cell cytoplasm
173
True or False: Active transport requires ATP.
True
174
What happens to an animal cell when placed in pure water?
It swells and may burst
175
What is the term for plant cells that have absorbed water and become firm?
Turgid
176
What is facilitated diffusion?
Movement down a concentration gradient via protein carriers or channels
177
What does the term 'net movement' refer to?
Overall direction of movement of molecules across a membrane
178
Fill in the blank: The _______ potential is a measure of the tendency of water to move.
water
179
What causes the shape change in carrier proteins during active transport?
Hydrolysis of ATP
180
What is co-transport?
The simultaneous transport of two different substances using a carrier protein
181
True or False: Passive diffusion requires energy.
False
182
What is the effect of temperature on the rate of diffusion?
Higher temperature increases the rate of diffusion
183
What are microvilli and their function?
Folded cell membrane that increases surface area for faster diffusion
184
What is the main function of lysozymes in phagocytosis?
To digest the pathogen through hydrolysis reactions
185
What is the role of antigen-presenting cells?
To present antigens on their surface after digesting pathogens
186
Fill in the blank: The process of engulfing a pathogen by a phagocyte is called _______.
Phagocytosis
187
What is the significance of memory B cells?
They provide long-term immunity by remembering past infections
188
Define active immunity.
Immunity that develops after exposure to antigens
189
What happens to sodium ions during glucose absorption in the small intestine?
They are actively transported out of the cell
190
What is the function of ATP in active transport?
To provide the energy needed to move substances against their concentration gradient
191
What is an antigen?
A substance that stimulates an immune response
## Footnote
Antigens are often proteins or glycoproteins found on the surface of pathogens.
192
What is a phagocyte?
A type of immune cell that engulfs and digests foreign particles
## Footnote
Phagocytes include macrophages and neutrophils.
193
What are helper T cells?
A type of T cell that activates B cells and cytotoxic T cells
## Footnote
Also known as TH cells.
194
What do cytotoxic T cells do?
They kill infected or cancerous cells
## Footnote
Also referred to as killer T cells.
195
What is the role of B cells?
They produce antibodies as part of the humoral immune response.
196
What is the variable region in antibodies?
The part of the antibody that binds to the specific antigen.
197
What is the antigen-antibody complex?
The formation when an antibody binds to its corresponding antigen.
198
What is agglutination?
The clumping of pathogens caused by antibodies.
199
What are memory B cells?
B cells that provide long-term immunity by quickly producing antibodies upon re-exposure to an antigen.
200
What is vaccination?
The introduction of antigens to stimulate an immune response.
201
Fill in the blank: Passive immunity involves _______ antibodies.
antibodies from another organism.
202
Fill in the blank: Active immunity is generated when _______ are introduced to the immune system.
antigens.
203
True or False: T and B cells are types of lymphocytes.
True.
204
True or False: Helper T cells are not required to activate B cells.
False.
205
What is the humoral response?
The immune response that involves B lymphocytes and the production of antibodies.
206
What is the function of plasma cells?
To produce and secrete antibodies.
207
How do memory cells contribute to the immune response?
They ensure a faster secondary response to reinfection.
208
What happens during phagocytosis?
Phagocytes engulf and digest pathogens.
209
What is the significance of the shape of antibodies?
Antibodies have a specific shape that fits a specific antigen.
210
What is the role of HIV in immune response?
HIV attacks and destroys helper T cells, impairing the immune system.
211
What is reverse transcriptase?
An enzyme used by HIV to convert its RNA into DNA.
212
What are monoclonal antibodies?
Antibodies produced by identical immune cells that are clones of a unique parent cell.
213
What is the function of direct ELISA testing?
It measures the concentration of antigens.
214
Why is washing important in ELISA tests?
It prevents false positives by removing unbound antibodies.
215
Fill in the blank: HIV cannot be treated with _______ because it is acellular.
antibiotics.
216
What happens to T cells during HIV infection?
They are destroyed, leading to a weakened immune response.
217
What is herd immunity?
When a large portion of a population becomes immune to a disease, providing indirect protection to those who are not immune.
218
What is the primary role of antibodies?
To bind to antigens and neutralize or destroy pathogens.
219
What is the function of the lipid envelope in viruses?
It helps the virus to enter host cells.
220
What does the term 'provirus' refer to?
Viral DNA that is integrated into the host's DNA.
221
What is a secondary immune response?
The immune response upon re-exposure to the same antigen, which is faster and stronger due to memory cells.
222
What is the role of T cells in the immune response?
To recognize and respond to specific antigens.
223
Fill in the blank: Antigens are recognized by the immune system as being _______.
unique.
224
What is the significance of the surface area to volume ratio in organisms?
A higher surface area to volume ratio facilitates efficient exchange of gases and heat loss.
225
Name a specialized structure in organisms that enhances gas exchange.
Lungs and gills.
226
How does a large volume of body cells affect heat loss?
It increases the surface area available for heat loss.
227
Give an example of an organism with a high metabolic rate.
A mouse.
228
What happens to the metabolic rate as the surface area to volume ratio decreases?
The metabolic rate decreases.
229
Fill in the blank: A _______ shape can increase surface area for gas exchange.
flattened
230
List two structures that have a large surface area to volume ratio.
* Gill filaments
* Lungs with numerous alveoli
231
What is the relationship between body mass and oxygen uptake?
As body mass increases, oxygen uptake per kilogram decreases.
232
What is the role of spiracles in insects?
They allow air to enter the tracheal system for gas exchange.
233
How does increased lactic acid in insect cells affect gas exchange?
It decreases water potential, allowing more air to move into tracheoles.
234
True or False: The blood and water flow in the same direction in fish gills.
False.
235
What is the advantage of the countercurrent flow system in fish gills?
It maintains a concentration gradient for oxygen diffusion.
236
Fill in the blank: Guard cells control the opening and closing of _______.
stomata
237
What adaptation do xerophytes have to reduce water loss?
Thick waxy cuticle.
238
How does light affect the rate of transpiration in plants?
Brighter light causes stomata to open wider, increasing transpiration.
239
What is the function of palisade mesophyll cells in leaves?
They maximize light absorption for photosynthesis.
240
What is the role of the diaphragm during inhalation?
It contracts and flattens, increasing the thoracic volume.
241
Fill in the blank: The _______ is responsible for maintaining the concentration gradient in the lungs.
ventilation
242
What happens to the pressure in the thoracic cavity during inhalation?
It decreases, allowing air to flow in.
243
True or False: Capillary endothelial cells are thick to facilitate diffusion.
False.
244
What happens to the tidal volume during physical activity?
It increases.
245
List three factors that affect the rate of transpiration in plants.
* Light
* Humidity
* Temperature
246
What is the primary function of the trachea in humans?
To conduct air to the lungs.
247
How do guard cells regulate water loss?
By opening and closing the stomata.
248
What is the effect of a thick waxy cuticle on plant transpiration?
It reduces water loss by evaporation.
249
Fill in the blank: The _______ system in fish allows for efficient oxygen uptake.
countercurrent
250
What is the relationship between the number of stomata and gas exchange efficiency?
More stomata increase the efficiency of gas exchange.
251
What is the effect of age on FEV in non-smokers and smokers?
Age decreases FEV in both non-smokers and smokers. Non-smokers do not develop emphysema by age 75.
252
How does long-term smoking affect FEV compared to non-smoking?
Long-term smoking decreases FEV more at all ages compared to non-smoking.
253
At what age do emphysema symptoms typically develop?
Emphysema symptoms develop at age 55.
254
When does severe disability due to emphysema typically develop?
Severe disability due to emphysema develops between ages 60 and 62.
255
True or False: The differences in results for groups 2 and 3 are due to chance.
False. The differences are real and significant.
256
What can be concluded about CO concentrations with closed windows?
There are significantly higher concentrations of CO with closed windows compared to no smoking.
257
What could any increase in CO potentially cause?
CO causes less oxygen to be carried, which could be deadly in children.
258
What is the effect of the husband's smoking on the risk of dying from lung cancer?
If the husband smokes, there’s a greater risk of dying from lung cancer, emphysema, or cervical cancer.
259
What is the significance of a sample size of 540 women in a study?
A sample size of 540 women is large enough to be representative and provide reliable results.
260
What is the relationship between asthma and vehicle exhaust concentrations?
Correlation does not mean causation; there may be other factors associated with vehicles and asthma.
261
What is diffusion?
Diffusion is the movement of particles from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.
262
What happens to the diaphragm during inhalation?
The diaphragm contracts and moves down, increasing the volume of the thorax.
263
Fill in the blank: The ______ is responsible for bringing air into the lungs.
trachea
264
What is the primary function of alveoli in the lungs?
Alveoli provide a large surface area for gas exchange.
265
What is the biochemical test for lipids?
Emulsion test – add ethanol, then water, cloudy white emulsion indicates lipid presence.
266
What type of bond is formed in primary protein structure?
Peptide bonds.
267
What is the role of amylase in digestion?
Amylase hydrolyses starch into maltose.
268
What is the significance of microvilli in the ileum?
Microvilli increase the surface area for absorption.
269
What does the term 'emphysema' refer to?
Emphysema refers to a lung condition that causes shortness of breath due to damage to the alveoli.
270
What is the process of hydrolysis in digestion?
Hydrolysis is the chemical breakdown of a compound due to reaction with water.
271
True or False: The Bohr Effect shifts the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve to the left.
False. The Bohr Effect shifts it to the right.
272
What does a higher partial pressure of oxygen indicate?
A higher partial pressure indicates a greater likelihood of oxygen binding to hemoglobin.
273
What is the function of endopeptidases in protein digestion?
Endopeptidases hydrolyse internal peptide bonds to form shorter peptides.
274
What occurs during exocytosis in the context of digestion?
Exocytosis allows larger molecules to exit cells, as they are too large to leave by other methods.
275
What is the role of bile in lipid digestion?
Bile emulsifies lipids to form small droplets, increasing the surface area for hydrolysis by lipase.
276
Fill in the blank: The ______ test indicates the presence of starch.
iodine
277
What effect does increased surface area have on absorption?
Increased surface area enhances the efficiency of absorption.
278
What is the total number of oxygen molecules carried by each red blood cell (RBC)?
1.12 x 10^9
## Footnote
This is calculated by multiplying the number of haemoglobin molecules by the number of oxygen molecules each can carry.
279
How many red blood cells (RBCs) are there in 1 µl of blood?
5 million
## Footnote
This is a typical value for red blood cell concentration in human blood.
280
What is the total number of oxygen molecules carried in 1 µl of blood?
5.6 x 10^15
## Footnote
This is calculated by multiplying the number of oxygen molecules carried by each RBC by the total number of RBCs in 1 µl.
281
How many µl are there in a litre?
1,000,000
## Footnote
This is a standard conversion in volume measurement.
282
What is the total number of oxygen molecules carried in the human body?
2.8 x 10^22
## Footnote
This is derived from multiplying the total number of oxygen molecules in 1 µl by the total volume of blood in the body.
283
What is the role of haemoglobin in oxygen transport?
Carries oxygen / has a high affinity for oxygen / forms oxyhaemoglobin
## Footnote
These phrases are essential for describing haemoglobin's function in the body.
284
Where is the partial pressure of oxygen highest?
In the lungs
## Footnote
This is where oxygen loading occurs.
285
What happens to haemoglobin at low partial pressure of oxygen?
Unloads / dissociates / releases oxygen to respiring cells/tissues
## Footnote
This process is crucial for delivering oxygen to cells that need it.
286
What is the relationship between oxygen unloading and carbon dioxide concentration?
Unloading linked to higher carbon dioxide concentration
## Footnote
This is important for understanding how haemoglobin functions in different environments.
287
What is the significance of the shape of the oxygen dissociation curve for larger mammals?
The larger the mammal, the more to the left / steeper / 'higher' is the curve
## Footnote
This indicates a higher affinity for oxygen.
288
What is a characteristic of smaller mammals regarding oxygen transport?
Smaller mammal has greater surface area to volume ratio
## Footnote
This affects their metabolism and oxygen requirements.
289
What does a greater surface area to volume ratio in smaller mammals lead to?
More heat lost (per unit body mass)
## Footnote
This influences their respiratory and metabolic rates.
290
How does haemoglobin's affinity for oxygen differ between smaller and larger mammals?
Smaller mammals have lower affinity for oxygen
## Footnote
This allows for easier oxygen release to meet higher metabolic demands.
291
What is cooperative binding in terms of oxygen and haemoglobin?
First oxygen binds causing change in tertiary/quaternary structure
## Footnote
This increases the affinity of haemoglobin for additional oxygen.
292
What is fetal haemoglobin's key characteristic?
Greater affinity for oxygen
## Footnote
This allows it to effectively extract oxygen from the mother's blood.
293
What happens to haemoglobin's saturation level at low partial pressures of oxygen?
Little increase in saturation as oxygen increases
## Footnote
This describes the initial response of haemoglobin to increasing oxygen levels.
294
What is the volume of blood leaving the heart per minute if calculated as (0.06 x 60) dm3?
3.6 dm3 minute−1
## Footnote
This is a calculation of cardiac output.
295
What percentage of oxygen volume is typically released to tissues from haemoglobin?
50%-60%
## Footnote
Indicates the effectiveness of oxygen delivery to tissues.
296
What is the effect of the globular structure of haemoglobin on its function?
Change the globular / 3D / quaternary structure; reducing affinity of Hb for oxygen
## Footnote
This relates to how structural changes can impact function.
297
What is the typical saturation percentage of haemoglobin in the lungs?
98%
## Footnote
This represents the high efficiency of oxygen loading in the lungs.
298
What is the significance of the oxygen dissociation curve?
Ensures rapid / more intake of oxygen in lungs / release of oxygen in tissues
## Footnote
This illustrates the efficiency of gas exchange.
299
What is the saturation level of haemoglobin in tissues at low partial pressures of oxygen?
Less saturated with oxygen / has reduced affinity
## Footnote
This is important for understanding oxygen delivery during metabolism.
