Written exam past qs Flashcards by vanessa johansen

What is the right order of listing the parts of the prescription?
Heading, Superscription, Subscription, Inscription
Heading, Superscription, Inscription, Subscription
Heading, Inscription, Superscription, Subscription
Heading, Subscription, Inscription, Superscription

Heading, Superscription, Inscription, Subscription

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What is the main goal in laying and breeding hens to prevent coccidiosis?
Development of Immunity
Chemoprophylaxis with Ionophores
Chemoprophylaxis with chemotherapeutics
Prevention with isolated keeping

Development of Immunity

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Among the listed antibiotics, which would you choose for the treatment of bite wounds?
Gentamicin
Enroflaxacin
Colistin
Amoxicillin- Clavulanic Acid

Amoxicillin- Clavulanic Acid

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In which case would you NOT use ß2-agonist bronchodilator?
Feline Asthma
Horse RAO (Recurrent Airway Obstruction)
Congestive Heart Failure
Emphysema of Lungs

Congestive Heart Failure

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Mass medication is NOT recommended in…
Poultry
Cat
Swine
Honey Bee

Cat

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Intravenous anaesthetic with important side effect of adrenocortical suppression;
Thiopental
Propofol
Medetomidine-Ketamine
Etomidate

Etomidate

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Streptomycin is usually combined with this antibiotic:
Procaine- and Benzathine- Penicillin
Lincomycin
Gentamicin
Cefovecin

Procaine- and Benzathine- Penicillin

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This is the name given to a drug by the International Pharmacopeia Commission and mainly uniform worldwide;
Chemical name
Brand name
Approved name
Licensed name

Approved name

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Non-toxic anthelminthic drug, is very effective against gastro-intestinal nematodes in ruminants, can also be applied in slow release bolus:
Diamphenethide
Praziquantel
Nitroscanate
Morantel

Morantel

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What is the pain-inducing source at the “tail-clip” test?
Hot Metal Plate test
Hot Water bath
Strong Clippers
Focused Infrared Light

Strong Clippers

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This antibiotic is active against fungi, can be applied orally;
Terbinafine
Amphetamicin B
Griseofulvin
Ketoconazole

Griseofulvin

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The drugs in this annexe have fixed MRLs. When prescribing these substances, the
appropriate WP must be stated;
Annexe 2
Annexe 1
Annexe 3
Annexe 4

Annexe 1

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Which drug is most effective against Bordetella bronchiseptica from the following?
Bacitracin
Doxycycline
Penethamat
Cefalexine

Doxycycline

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This drug has beneficial effect in every animal species during chronic stress and disease?
Vitamin C
Vitamin B1
Vitamin B7
Vitamin B6

Vitamin C

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Its micro-emulsion formulation is highly susceptible to bacterial contamination:
Propofol
Alfaxalon-Alfadolon
Ketamine
Thiopental

Propofol

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This drug has no analgesic properties, but it potentiates the effect of analgesia:
Acepromazine
Buprenorphine
??
Xylazine

Acepromazine

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This drug can be used in foals for the treatment of R.equi infection?
Tulathromycin
Doxycycline
Clindamycin
Erythromycin

Erythromycin

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Usual dosage of Doxycycline:
0.2-0.3 mg/bwkg daily 1x
200-300 mg/bwkg daily 2x
1.5-2.0 mg/bwkg daily 2x
5-10mg/bwkg daily 1-2x

5-10mg/bwkg daily 1-2x

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Dosage of Praziquantil:
0.5 mg/bwkg
50mg/bwkg
5mg/bwkg
0.05mg/bwkg

5mg/bwkg

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Can be combined with Carcogenicity studies :
Acute Toxicity Studies
Repeated-dose toxicity studies
Teratogenicity Studies
Preclinical Pharmacological Investigations

Repeated-dose toxicity studies

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This sedative can increase the incidence of convulsions so not suitable for administration to
patients with epilepsy:
Xylazine
Diazepam
Acepromazine
Phenobarbital

Acepromazine

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Given together with this drug when do you expect pharmacodynamics interaction with gentamicin:
Procaine-penicillin
Diazepam
Vitamin K
Xylazine

Diazepam

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The new solid dosage forms can be prescribed using the following type of prescription:
Licensed
All of these prescription types
Prepared
Official

Licensed

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This medicine can be used for treating prostatitis:
Penicillin-G
Sulphonamide alone
Cefalosporine
Potentiated sulphonamide

Potentiated sulphonamide

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``` The most potent anti-inflammatory glucocorticoids of these four is… Prednisolone Cortisole Flumethasone Triamcinolon ```

Flumethasone

``` Which factor has to be eliminated from a poultry farm to decrease the problems caused by coccidiosis? High Ammonia Content in the Air Overflowing troughs, Leaking Water Pipes Preventing contact with swine Vitamin K deficiency ```

Overflowing troughs, Leaking Water Pipes

``` What solution was used for the coloric reaction in our pharmacokinetic investigation with chicken? Trichloroacetic acid water solution Sodium nitrate solution Sodium sulfamate solution Naftil-ethylenediamine ethanol solution ```

Naftil-ethylenediamine ethanol solution

``` This ACE inhibitor is safe also for patients with hepatic failure: Enalepril Ramipril Lisnopril Benazepril ```

Lisnopril

``` This amino acid has liver-protective activity as well: Carnitine Glycine Alanine Taurine ```

Carnitine

``` Which substance can be used intramammarily against penicillinase producing S.aureus? Cloxacillin Benzathine-penicillin Procaine-penicillin Penethamat ```

Cloxacillin

``` Gels are dosage forms that; Vehicle is gel of animal or other origin Have high fat content None of these Are only orally applicable ```

Vehicle is gel of animal or other origin

``` Which of the following substances can be used as a vehicle in premixes? Lucerne Meal Saccharose Zinc Oxide Glucose ```

Lucerne Meal

``` It’s an amino acid in its absence the heart musculature of cats will be hypertrophied: Taurine Serine Methionine Alanine ```

Taurine

Dosage of Ramipril in cats and dogs: 0. 125mg/bwkg PO 1. 25mg/bwkg IM 0. 125mg/bwkg IM 1. 25mg/bwkg PO

0.125mg/bwkg PO

``` Generally, how often should intramammary infusion be administered in case of non-lactating cows? Every 6 hours Every 3 hours Every 12 hours Only once ```

Only once

``` This drug has a narrow therapeutic margin, its side effects are salivation, vomiting, …., bronchoconstriction: Diazonin Parmethrin Amitraz Ivermectin ```

Diazonin

``` What solution was used for diazotation in our pharmacokinetic investigation with chicken? Trichloroacetic acid solution Naftil-ethylenediamine ethanol solution Sodium Sulfamate water solution Sodium nitrate water solution ```

Sodium nitrate water solution

``` How long is the tested substance applied to experimental animals in chronic toxicity studies? 1 year 2 years 1 month 90 days ```

2 years

``` Among the listed quinolone carboxylic acid derivatives, this agent acts against anaerobes: Ciprofloxacin Ibafloxacin Pradofloxacin Marbofloxacin ```

Pradofloxacin

``` Which has significant antigiardial effect as well: Imidocarb dipropionate Fenbendazole Toltrazuril Sodium stibogluconate ```

Fenbendazole

1. Water soluble vitamin, with pronounced skin-protective action a. Vitamin E b. Vitamin B12 c. Vitamin C d. Vitamin A

c. Vitamin C

What is pharmacokinetic symbol of the distribution phase coefficient in a two compartiment model? a. Alpha b. Beta c. Kab d. Kel

a. Alpha

Strongly inhibits satiety centre in the CNS: a. Diazepam b. Vitamin B1 c. Vitamin B12 d. Nandrolone

a. Diazepam

Using an oily type of injection may lead to life- threatening effect in this route of application: a. Intramuscular b. Intraperitoneal c. Subcutaneous d. Intravenous

d. Intravenous

The micronuclues test a. Is a light microscope method for determining mutagenicity b. Is a light microscope method for determining teratogenicity c. Is a electrone microscope method for determining teratogenicity d. Is a electrone microscope method for determining mutagenicity

a. Is a light microscope method for determining mutagenicity

Usually this application method the onset of drug action is most rapid: a. Subcutaneous b. Intarmuscular c. Intraperitoneal d. Intravenous

d. Intravenous

When applying this anaesthetic alone, muscle relaxation and total unconsciousness CANNOT be achieved in the animal a. Methohexital b. Ketamine c. Propofol d. Etomidate

b. Ketamine

In this type of prescription the name and amount of ingredients (individual components) has to be given in the prescription part: a. Prescription of a human licensed medicine b. Prescription of a prepared (magistral) medicine c. Prescription of a veterinary licensed medicine d. Prescription of a formulate official medicine

b. Prescription of a prepared (magistral) medicine

This macrolide reaches high concentration in bronchial fluid, and persists for a long time: a. Tylosin b. Josamycin c. Tulathromycin d. Erytrhomycin

c. Tulathromycin

Besides Babesiosis its other indication is anaplasmosis: a. Paromomycin b. Ronidazole c. Imidocarb dipropionate d. Meglumine antimonate

c. Imidocarb dipropionate

This drug (group) is usually incompatible with tiamulin and the macrolide antibiotics: a. Amprolium b. Triazine anticoccidials c. Ionophor antibiotics d. Halofuginone

c. Ionophor antibiotics

IM usual dosage of Tiamulin in swine a. 2-10 mg/bw.kg b. 500 mg/bw.kg c. 100-200 mg/bw.kg d. 60 mg/bw.kg

a. 2-10 mg/bw.kg

Given together with this drug when do you expect pharmacodynamic interaction with gentamicin? a. Xylazine b. Procaine- Penicillin c. Diazepam d. Vitamin K

c. Diazepam

Which controlled drugs are not used normally in the veterinarian practice? a. Schedule 3 b. Schedule 1 c. Schedule 2 d. Schedule 4

b. Schedule 1

Most appropriate method for the extraction of water-soluble, heat-sensitive substances from medicinal herbs: a. Preparing an infusion b. Preparing a tincture c. Making a decotion d. Extraction with ether

a. Preparing an infusion

Overdosage of this substance has hepatotoxic effect a. Vitamin B1 b. Vitamin K c. Carotine d. Vitamin D

d. Vitamin D

Dosage of Atropine sulphate as antidote in poisoning a. 0.5- 0.7 mg/bw.kg SC/ PO b. 0.05- 0.1 mg/bw.kg SC/ PO c. 0.25- 1.0 mg/bw.kg SC/ one third of the dose slowly IV d. 0.05- 0.1 mg/bw.kg SC/ one third of the dose slowly IV

c. 0.25- 1.0 mg/bw.kg SC/ one third of the dose slowly IV

This active substance can be used for the treatment of varroosis in honeybees: a. Ivermectin b. Imidacloprid c. Permethrin d. Amitraz

d. Amitraz

Alpha 2- agonist molecule, its side effect are less frequent than those of xylazine: a. Metomidate b. Medetomidine c. Ketamine d. Tiletamine

b. Medetomidine

Which of the following substances can be used as a vehicle in premixes? a. Glucose b. Zinc oxide c. Saccharose d. Lucerne meal

d. Lucerne meal

Which vehicle is useful for preparation of eye ointment? a. Simple ointment b. Cocoa butter c. White vaseline d. Paraffin ointment

c. White vaseline

Bronchodilator, with relatively specific ß2- Receptor agonistic effect can be applied primarily by inhalation a. Terburaline b. Clenbuterole c. Ephedrine d. Salbutamol

d. Salbutamol

Its membrane- protective effect can partially replace that of Vitamin E: a. Zinc b. Selenium c. Copper d. Iron

b. Selenium

A drug with potent visceral analgesic properties a. Xylazine b. Butorphenol c. Propofol d. Ketamine

b. Butorphenol

Frequent combined partners of dihidro-streptomycin a. Procain- and benzathine penicillin b. Amoxicillin and clavulanic acid c. Oxacilllin and cloxacillin d. Cefapirin and cefazolin

a. Procain- and benzathine penicillin

In the case of fowl cholera (septicaemia) in chickens, which of the following antibiotics would you apply in medicated water? a. Gentamicin b. Amoxicillin c. Colistin d. Neomycin

b. Amoxicillin

IV dosage of Butorphanol in horses: a. 10 mg/bw.kg b. 0.1 mg/bw.kg c. 1 mg/bw.kg d. 0.01 mg/bw.kg

b. 0.1 mg/bw.kg

Butyrphenone tranquilizer used mainly in laboratory rodents: a. Azaoerone b. Acepromazine c. Tiethylperazine d. Fluanisone

d. Fluanisone

Long acting cephalosporin for the treatment of dogs and cats a. Cepharin b. Cefazolin c. Cefalexin d. Cefovecin

d. Cefovecin

If the aim of these investigations is to determine the accelerated stability of the drug product. What are the appropriate conditions? a. Room temperature: 0-24 hours b. Room temperature: 0-3 months c. Room temperature: 0-4 weeks d. 40°C, 75% RH, 0-6 months

d. 40°C, 75% RH, 0-6 months

The teratogenicity studies have to be performed at least on… : a. 2 animal species b. 3 animal species c. 4 animal species including monkeys d. 1 animal species

a. 2 animal species

Among the listed agents this one is NOT intended against infections caused by anaerobic bacteria a. Tyrmethoprim b. Pradofloxacin c. Metronidazole d. Clindamycin

a. Tyrmethoprim

Mode of action in Lincosamides a. Concentration dependent bactericidal b. Time-dependent bactericidal c. Bacteriostatic d. Detergent like activity

c. Bacteriostatic

In the case fo coli-septicaemia in swine, which drug would you apply in medicated water? a. Gentamicin b. Lincomycin c. Enrofloxacin d. Tylosine

c. Enrofloxacin

Expectorant drug, can be applied in combination with antitissuvies a. Acetilcystein b. Ambroxol c. Guaifenesine d. Bromhexin

c. Guaifenesine

This is obligatory when drug are supplied to owners by vets: a. Label b. Veterinary Record for controlled drugs c. Prescription for Medicated Feedstuff (PMF) d. Legalisation on requisition

a. Label

The most frequently applied drug in combination with spectinomycin: a. Cefuroxime b. Lincomycin c. Gentamicin d. Procaine-penicillin

b. Lincomycin

What is characteristic of suppositories? a. Dissolve at body temperature b. Non-divided dosage form c. Semi-solid at room temperature d. None of these

a. Dissolve at body temperature

What is characteristic of suppositories? a. Dissolve at body temperature b. Non-divided dosage form c. Semi-solid at room temperature d. None of these

a. Dissolve at body temperature

Strongly inhibits the satiety centre in CNS: a. Vitamin B 1 b. Vitamin B 12 c. Diazepam d. Nandrolone

c. Diazepam

Strongly inhibits the satiety centre in CNS: a. Vitamin B 1 b. Vitamin B 12 c. Diazepam d. Nandrolone

c. Diazepam

Bacterial susceptibility to certain antibiotics is usually determined with this method: a. Disc-diffusion method b. PCR c. Macrobroth dilution method d. ELISA

a. Disc-diffusion method

This is a prodrug, in practice it is used only against immature liver flukes, practically inactive against adult flukes and other types of worms: a. Febantel b. Netobimin c. Diamphenethide d. Triclabendazole

c. Diamphenethide

It is a GHS-category: a. unknown mechanism of effect b. mutagenic c. highly toxic d. non-toxic for fish

c. highly toxic

If the aim of these investigations is to determine the stability of the drug product after opening the package, what are the appropriate conditions? a. 40°C, 75% RH, 0-6 months b. Room- temperature: 0 - 3 months c. Room- temperature: 0 - 24 hours d. Room- temperature: 0 – 4 weeks

d. Room- temperature: 0 – 4 weeks

It can be given to birds and reptiles for control of subacute egg-retention a. Dinoprost b. Gonadorelin c. Etiproston d. Oxytocin

d. Oxytocin

Is a butyrophenone mainly used in swine for stress reduction: a. Fentanyl b. Droperidole c. Acepromazine d. Azaperone

d. Azaperone

Given directly after fertilization, it increases the rate of fertility: a. Oestradiol b. Dinoprost c. Cabercoline d. Buserelin

d. Buserelin

In dogs its fast readministration possibly does not cause emesis a. Carbachole b. Neostigmine c. Apomorphine d. Ipecacuanha syrup

c. Apomorphine

In the course of registration of licensed medicines, which documentation part is the clinical documentation according to EUDRALEX requirements? a. Part 1 b. Part 2 c. Part 3 d. Part 4

d. Part 4

This ectoparasitic is NOT active against ticks a. Amitraz b. Fipronil c. Pyriprol d. Imidacloprid

d. Imidacloprid

Which drugs have to be kept in a locked receptacle with the key in the possession of the veterinarian? a. Schedule 2 and 3 drugs b. Schedule 3 and 4 drugs c. Schedule 1 and 4 drugs d. none of the above

a. Schedule 2 and 3 drugs

Usual dosage of Diazepam IM / IV: a. 5-10 mg / b.w.kg b. 0,01-0,02 mg / b.w.kg c. 0,1-0,5 mg / b.w.kg d. 10-20 mg / b.w.kg

c. 0,1-0,5 mg / b.w.kg

This macrolide can be administered to young horses only in certain cases: a. Tylosine b. Erythromycin c. Tilmicosin d. Tulathromycin

b. Erythromycin

In the majority of animal species this vitamin is not essential: a. Vitamin E b. Vitamin K c. Vitamin B 12 d. Vitamin C

d. Vitamin C

It is not obligatory to keep records about this category of drugs when administered to food producing animals: a. If a drug licensed for humans was used b. homeopathic medicines c. If the drug was administered according to the users information d. If the drug was not administered according to the users information

b. homeopathic medicines

This drug has a very low therapeutic index, its IV administration is forbidden. a. Imidocarb dipropionate b. Sodium stibocluconate c. Meglumine antimonate d. Sulphonamides

a. Imidocarb dipropionate

This antibiotic can penetrate well intracellulary a. Procaine-penicillin b. Gentamicin c. Benzathine-penicillin d. Oxytetracycline

d. Oxytetracycline

Injected subcutaneously this drug is appropriate for the treatment of scabies-infestations: a. Diazinon b. Imidacloprid c. Fipronil d. Doramectin

d. Doramectin

Which bacterium is used in the AMES test? a. Campylobacter jejuni b. Salmonella typhimurium c. Clostridium perfringens d. Escherichia coli

b. Salmonella typhimurium

What information about any drug is included in the European Pharmacopoeia? a. identification methods b. detailed indications in veterinary medicine c. dosage of the drug in humans d. detailed indications in human medicine

a. identification methods

A general anesthetic with a narrow therapeutic margin: a. Thiopental b. Etomidate c. Propofol d. Ketamine

a. Thiopental

It has poor penetration into the CNS, therefore it is less sedative than the other three substances: a. Hidroxycine b. Cetirizine c. Chloropyramine d. Cyproheptadine

b. Cetirizine

Long term administration of this laxative drug can lead to the paralysis of plexus myentericus: a. Aloe b. Liquid paraffin c. Magnesium sulphate d. Lactulose

a. Aloe

During the late pregnancy its application is only allowed while the soft birth canal is dilated: a. Prolactin b. Oxytocin c. Etiproston d. None of them

b. Oxytocin

What is meant by a residual drug? a. the drug metabolites remaining in the meat and other food products from the animal treated with the given pharmaceutical product b. the total amount of the agent remaining in the meat and other food products from the animal treated with the pharmaceutical product c. the total amount of the agent and its metabolites remaining in the meat of the animal treated with the given pharmaceutical product d. the total amount of the agent and its metabolites remaining in the meat and food products of the animal treated with the given pharmaceutical product

d. the total amount of the agent and its metabolites remaining in the meat and food products of the animal treated with the given pharmaceutical product

A drug licensed for humans containing metronidazole: a. cannot penetrate into the milk thus no WP for milk has to be stated b. has to have at least 28 days WP for meat c. must not be used in food producing animals d. requires 0 days withdrawal period in food producing animals

c. must not be used in food producing animals

Most effective in the treatment of chemotherapeutics- induced vomiting, but less effective in other cases: a. Diphenhydramine b. Tiethylperazine c. Maropitant d. Ondansetron

d. Ondansetron

The primary choice of antibiotic for the treatment of swine erysipelas is: a. Enrofloxacin b. Penicillin c. Gentamicin d. Doxycycline

b. Penicillin

What is the formulation type of Burow ointment (Unguentum aluminii acetici tartarici)? a. water in oil (W/O) type emulsion b. Oil-in-water (O/W) type emulsion c. real solution d. oil suspension

a. water in oil (W/O) type emulsion

The oral bioavailability of Aminoglycosides (except apramycin): a. 60-70 % b. 0-10 % c. 30-40 % d. 90-100 %

b. 0-10 %

Administration of this drug to herbivorous rodents is NOT recommended because of the risk of disbacteriosis: a. Enrofloxacine b. Lincomycin c. Spectinomycin d. Sulfadimidine

b. Lincomycin

Primary choice of antibiotics in infections caused by Rickettsia: a. Tetracyclines b. Aminoglycosides c. Macrolides d. Penicillins

a. Tetracyclines

Usual dosage of Dexamethasone: a. 10 mg/b.w.kg IV/IM b. 50 mg/b.w.kg IV/IM c. 0,1 mg/b.w.kg IV/IM d. each answer is correct

c. 0,1 mg/b.w.kg IV/IM

Combined with cephalosporins the nephrotoxic effect of this drug can be enhanced: a. Diazepam b. Enrofloxacin c. Clavulanic acid d. Gentamicin

d. Gentamicin

Aminoglycoside with the best oral bioavailability: a. Spectinomycin b. Gentamicin c. Apramycin d. Neomycin

c. Apramycin

It has poor penetration into the CNS, therefore it is less sedative than the other three substances: a. Hidroxycine b. Cetirizine c. Chloropyramine d. Cyproheptadine

b. Cetirizine

What is the primary purpose of drug administration according to European rule? a. Treatment b. Prevention c. Growth promotion d. This is not determined

a. Treatment

Anticoccidial, can be administered via drinking water: a. Diclazuril b. Toltrazuril c. Monensin d. Clopidol

b. Toltrazuril

Usual dosage of Tylosin in poultry via drinking water: a. 10-20 mg/l b. 500 mg/l c. 2-10 mg/l d. 50 mg/l

b. 500 mg/l

Organisms resistant to the macrolides a. most of the gram- positive organisms b. E. coli and Salmonella ssp. c. Mycoplasmae d. fastidious gram- negative organisms

b. E. coli and Salmonella ssp.

Aminocyclitol, its mode of action is bacteriostatic: a. Streptomycin b. Gentamicin c. Spectinomycin d. Neomycin

c. Spectinomycin

In the course of registration of licensed medicines, which documentation part is the safety documentation according to EUDRALEX requirements? a. Part 1 b. Part 2 c. Part 3 d. Part 4

c. Part 3

If the aim of these investigations is to determine the stability of the drug after opening the package what are the appropriate conditions? a. 40°C, 75% RH, 0-6 months b. Room- temperature: 0 - 3 months c. Room- temperature: 0 - 24 hours d. Room- temperature: 0 – 4 weeks

d. Room- temperature: 0 – 4 weeks

Concentration of Atropin in mydriatic eye drops: a. 0,03 % b. 0,25-0,5 % c. 0,5-1 % d. 1-2 %

c. 0,5-1 %

Juvenile- hormone analogue, that is combined with fipronil in a spot on preparation: a. Fenoxicarb b. Metopren c. Imidacloprid d. Lufenurone

b. Metopren

What is the pharmacokinetic symbol of the plasma concentration maximum at steady state after multiple administrations? a. C max b. C t c. C 0 d. C maxcc [not sure! Almost not readable]

d. C maxcc

What is the purpose of a residual drug analysis? a. determination of the MRL value b. the determination of withdrawal time according to food health legislation c. Kinetics examination the residual drug d. The investigation of the metabolism of the residual drug

b. the determination of withdrawal time according to food health legislation

This sedative can increase the incidence of convulsions, hence not suitable for administration to patients with epilepsy: a. Xylazine b. Diazepam c. Acepromazine d. Phenobarbital

c. Acepromazine

Which of the following drugs would you administer to a risk patient with cardiovascular disease? a. Morphine b. Acepromazine c. Midazolam d. Xylazine

c. Midazolam

Important indication for the use of tetracyclines: a. treatment of intestinal infections b. Tuberculosis c. Metritis, foot rotting, local treatment of wounds d. Swine- dysentery

c. Metritis, foot rotting, local treatment of wounds

Anticoccidial with Cidal- (killing) effect: a. Sulfaquinoxaline b. Amprolium c. Trimethoprim d. Semduramicin

d. Semduramicin

What information about any drug is included in the European Pharmacopoeia? a. dosage of the drug in humans b. detailed indications in veterinarian medicine c. detailed indications in human medicine d. identification methods

d. identification methods

Which drug would you apply for the treatment of horse- botfly- larval infestation (gasterophilosis)? a. Foxim pour on b. Fenbendazole orally c. spraying with Amitraz d. Moxidectin orally

d. Moxidectin orally

Imidazole antifungal that can be used only locally: a. Terbinafine b. Enilconazole c. Ketoconazole d. Itraconazole

b. Enilconazole

Imidazole antifungal that can be used only locally: a. Terbinafine b. Enilconazole c. Ketoconazole d. Itraconazole

b. Enilconazole

When anthrax is diagnosed in domestic animals, which drug would you administer? a. Penicillin b. Cefoperazon c. Enrofloxacin d. treatment is prohibited

a. Penicillin

It is appropriate for the prevention of tick infestation in cats: a. Fipronil b. Permethrin c. Pyriprol d. Amitraz

a. Fipronil

It has a very potent liver- protective activity: a. Zinc b. Selenium c. Iron d. Copper

b. Selenium

Dosage of Ketamine in cats: a. 200 mg/b.w.kg IM b. 2 mg/b.w.kg IM c. 0,2 mg/b.w.kg IM d. 20 mg/b.w.kg IM

d. 20 mg/b.w.kg IM

Which application method is suitable for the treatment of a large number of poultry sick with fowl cholera? a. medicated fog b. oral powder dispensed in the feedstuff c. oral powder dispensed in drinking water d. intramuscular injection

c. oral powder dispensed in drinking water

The major part of the text must be in the veterinarian’s own handwriting: a. Prescription for medicated feedstuff (PMF) b. Label c. Legislation on requisition d. Prescription

c. Legislation on requisition

Intravenous anesthetic with the important side effect of adrenocortical suppression: a. Etomidate b. Propofol c. Medetomidine- Ketamine d. Thiopental

a. Etomidate

For which dosage form is sterility the most significant attribute? a. nasal drops b. shampoo c. eye drops d. ear drops

c. eye drops

Selective COX2- inhibitor: a. Metamizole b. Piroxicam c. Firocoxib d. Acetyl- salicylic acid

c. Firocoxib

When used alone as an anticoccidial agent it can cause heat stress in chickens hence not suitable for use in the summer months: a. Narasin b. Nicarbacine c. Diclazuril d. Halofuginone

b. Nicarbacine

Which of the following is not a perquisite for anesthesia? a. total unconsciousness b. somatic an visceral analgesia c. muscle relaxation d. preoperative antiinflammatory action

d. preoperative antiinflammatory action

It is intended for control of benign prostatic hyperplasia in male dogs, but its continuous administration can lead to bone marrow suppression: a. Oestradiol b. Cabergoline c. Medroxyprogesterone acetate d. Proligestone

a. Oestradiol

This drug - because of its strong cycloplegic properties – can be applied as an eye drop in uveitis to decrease pain: a. Atropine b. Tetracaine c. Pilocarpine d. Procaine

a. Atropine

Which drug would you apply for the treatment of horse- botfly- larval infestation (gasterophilosis)? a. Foxim pour on b. Fenbendazole orally c. spraying with Amitraz d. Moxidectin orally

d. Moxidectin orally

Which of the following antibiotics would you apply in an animal with severe renal impairment? a. Doxycycline b. Gentamicin c. Tobramycin d. Enrofloxacin

d. Enrofloxacin

Provitamin, well documented to direct act on reproduction function of large animals a. Vitamin B b. Vit D c. Vit K d. Carotene

d. Carotene

In adult female rabbit it provokes oestrus a. Dinoprost b. Gonadorelin c. ? d. ?

b. Gonadorelin

Potassium sparing diuretic: a. Flurosamide b. Mannit c. Spironolacton d. ??

c. Spironolacton

Cephalosporin against mycoplasma | ?

NONE!

Uterotonic drug: a. Clenbuterol b. Cloprostenol c. Ergot, Carbachol, Oxytocin, Carbetocin d. ??

c. Ergot, Carbachol, Oxytocin, Carbetocin

Sedative decreases body temperature, thus contraindicated in dehydrated animals: a. Butorphan b. Diazepam c. Acepromazin d. ???

c. Acepromazin

Dose of Ionophores: a. Maduramycin 5 mg/food kg b. Salino 10 mg/food kg  60 c. Monensin 17 mg/b.w.kg  100 d. Calsal 16 mg/food kg 

a. Maduramycin 5 mg/food kg

Benzimidazol used for pigs and chickens in the industry: a. Flubendazol b. Albendazol c. Thiabendazol d. Triclabendazol

a. Flubendazol

This anthelmetic drug has very small oral bioavailability, but is highly effective in horses against nematodes in the large bowel, because of the high enough concentration there: a. Triolabendazole b. Praziquantel c. Closantel d. Pyrantel

d. Pyrantel

A frequent combination partner of nicarbazine: a. Diclazuril b. Narasin c. Amprolium d. Lazalocid

b. Narasin

Its administration is practically free from major side effects, rarely may cause allergy: a. Dinoprost b. Medroxyprogesterone acetate c. Oestradiol d. HcG

d. HcG

Which of the following are NOT water soluble bases? a. wool fat b. sunflower oil c. Neither of these d. both of them

d. both of them

Which technology is appropriate for achieving a pulsatile release of an active substance in a bolus? a. expanding matrix b. insoluble matrix c. chip- controlled diaphragm d. OROS

c. chip- controlled diaphragm

Necessary amount of chlorinated lime for disinfection of drilled wells: a. 100 g/1 m 3 water b. 30 g c. 100 g d. 30 g/1 m 3 water

c. 100 g

Antibacterial drug with bactericidal mode of action: a. Erythromycin b. Spectinomycin c. Lincomycin d. Gentamicin

d. Gentamicin

Antibacterial drug with bactericidal mode of action: a. Erythromycin b. Spectinomycin c. Lincomycin d. Gentamicin

d. Gentamicin

``` Polipeptide antibiotic, when it is applied in injection can be highly neuro- and nephrotoxic: A. Cefquinome B. Clavulanic acid C. Colistin sulphate D. Penethamat ```

C. Colistin sulphate

``` Its mode of action is coccidiostatic. It is active against second generation schizonts: A. Narasin B. Salinomycin C. Clopidol D. Sulfachloropyrazine ```

D. Sulfachloropyrazine

Which is characteristic to thiopental? A. It induces total unconsciousness for a very short time. B. It produces excellent analgesic effect C. It has a long duration of action (30-60 minutes) D. It is rapidly eliminated from the body

A. It induces total unconsciousness for a very short time.

``` Appropriate for the treatment of enteritis caused by E.coli and Salmonellae: A. Erythromycin B. Bacitracin C. Phenoxymethyl-penicillin D. Gentamicin ```

D. Gentamicin

``` The amoxicillin-clavulanic acid combination is ineffective against: A. Staphylococcus aureus B. E.Coli C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. Pasteurella multocida ```

C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

How did we measure the free hemoglobin content in the in vitro tissue irritation test? A. Flourometric measurement B. Luminometric measurement C. Light absorbance at specific wavelength D. Light absorbance at the full spectrum

C. Light absorbance at specific wavelength

``` This antibiotic can be used for the treatment of mastitis caused by penicillinase producing Staphylococcus aureus: A. Benzylpenicillin-Na B. Oxacillin C. Benzathine penicillin D. Penethamat ```

B. Oxacillin

``` Among the listed macrolides this one has cardiotoxic effect (e.g. in goats): A. Erythromycin B. Tilmicosin C. Azithromycin D. Tylosin ```

B. Tilmicosin

Which is characteristic to polypeptide antibiotics? A. They are very effective for the treatment of respiratory tract infections B. They are well absorbed after oral administration C. They have bactericidal effect D. They are very safe antibiotics given IM

C. They have bactericidal effect

``` Which bacterium is highly sensitive to Cephalexine? A. Clamidophila felis B. Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae C. Staph. pseudointermedius D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa ```

C. Staph. pseudointermedius

``` This antibiotic has very short lasting effect, it has to be applied IV approx. 6 times a day: A. Oxacillin B. Benzathine-penicillin C. Benzylpenicillin-Na D. Penethamat ```

C. Benzylpenicillin-Na

``` This antiprotozoal drug can be applied in food-producing mammals and birds: A. Metronidazole B. Ronidazole C. Furazolidone D. Halofuginone ```

D. Halofuginone

``` The lowest man power requirement is during the external mass-treatment by application A. Pour on B. Spraying C. Spot on D. Washing ```

B. Spraying

``` Among the listed Aminoglycosides this agent is active against Pseudomonas aeruginosa: A. Spectinomycin B. Amikacin C. Neomycin D. Apramycin ```

B. Amikacin

Recommended application routes for the treatment of sick swine with elevated body temperature: A. Only medicated water B. Medicated water or parenteral treatment C. Only parenteral treatment D. None of these are true

B. Medicated water or parenteral treatment

``` What is the main side of blood taking in chicken? A. Vena saphena B. Vena antebrachii C. Vena auricularis D. Vena brachialis ```

B. Vena antebrachii

``` Procaine-benzyl penicillin is ineffective against: A. E.coli B. Streptococcus pyogenes C. Bacillus anthracis D. Pasteurella multocida ```

A. E.coli

``` 23. Which of the listed materials is less sensitive to the presence of organic material remnants? A. Iodine containing agents B. Hypochlorates C. Tensides D. Aldehydes ```

C. Tensides

``` Where should the test material be applied in case of the tissue irritation test? A. Large muscles B. Per os C. Under the skin of the ear D. Intraosseal ```

A. Large muscles

``` This ionophore antibiotic is less subject to development of cross-resistance: A. Monensin B. Salinomycin C. Lasalocid D. Narasin ```

C. Lasalocid. | Cross resistance among monovalent ionophores, Lasalocid is divalent

``` NOT appropriate for the treatment of mastitis caused by penicillinase-producing Staphylococcus aureus: A. Oxacillin B. Cefalexin C. Penethamat D. Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid ```

Penethamat? Can be used for Staph but not penicillinase producing...

``` ß-lactam antibiotic suitable for the treatment of Pseudomonas aeruginosa urinary tract infection: A. Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid B. Cefalexin C. Cefuroxim D. Piperazillin-tazobactam ```

D. Piperazillin-tazobactam

``` Among the Quinolone carboxylic acid derivates this agent is important in veterinary medicine but it is licensed for human use: A. Marbofloxacin B. Ciprofloxacin C. Ibafloxacin D. Enrofloxacin ```

B. Ciprofloxacin

``` What is the main side of blood taking in chicken? A. Vena saphena B. Vena antebrachii C. Vena auricularis D. Vena brachialis ```

B. Vena antebrachii

``` Which of these is a parenteral application route? A. None of these B. Oral C. Buccal D. Intraruminal (with tube) ```

A. None of these

``` This group has a very low therapeutic index. Mammals, above all horses and dogs, are extremely sensitive: A. Triazone derivates B. Pentavalent antimony compounds C. Ionophore antibiotics D. Sulphonamides ```

C. Ionophore antibiotics

``` Frequently occurring active substances in ear drops, eye drops: A. Penicillin, Enrofloxacin B. Tylosine, Gentamycin C. Neomycin, Gentamycin D. Cefovecin, Ciprofloxacin ```

C. Neomycin, Gentamycin

``` This Macrolide is NOT intended for the treatment of young foals: A. Tylosin B. Azithromycin C. Erythromycin D. Clarithromycin ```

A. Tylosin

``` Aminoglycoside that is active against Mycoplasma: A. Lincomycin B. Streptomycin C. Neomycin D. Spectinomycin ```

D. Spectinomycin

``` First generation Cephalosporins, it cannot be applied orally, in veterinary medicine frequently used in intramammary infusions: A. Cefquinome B. Cefapirin C. Cefalexin D. Cefoperazone ```

B. Cefapirin

``` In which animal species might intraosseous administration a high significance? A. Chinchilla B. Goat C. Swine D. Horse ```

D. Horse / A. Chinchilla (e.g. tibia of small animals like hamster and guinea pig for drug administration)

``` This penicillin antibiotic has long acting effect applied IM: A. Oxacillin B. Benzylpenicillin-Na C. Penethamat D. Benzathine-penicillin ```

D. Benzathine-penicillin

``` Because of its pharmacokinetic profile it is not recommended for treatment of urinary tract infections: A. Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid B. Doxycycline C. Gentamicin D. Enrofloxacin ```

Enrofloxacin - only CIA! 1st choice Amoxicillin

``` This antiseptic is NOT used for mammary gland disinfection: A. Chlorhexidine B. Sodium hypochloride C. Bradophen D. Povidone iodine ```

B. Sodium hypochloride | Used: Chlorhexidine, Bradophen, Povidone iodine

``` This anti-mycoplasmal agent can be concomitantly used with Monensin: A. Erythromycin B. Doxycycline C. Tylosin D. Tiamulin ```

D. Tiamulin ?

``` Which Tetracycline would you recommend to an animal with renal failure? A. Chlortetracycline B. Oxytetracycline C. Tetracycline D. Doxycycline ```

D. Doxycycline

``` Usually which is the experimental animal in case of „hot plate“ test? A. Mouse B. Dog C. Cat D. Rabbit ```

A. Mouse

``` Antifungal drug that is active against Malassezia pachydermatis: A. Streptomycin B. Clotrimazole C. Griseofulvin D. Vincristin ```

B. Clotrimazole

``` This antibiotic inhibits the cell wall synthesis of bacteria, due to its high nephrotoxicity it is used only topically or orally: A. Penethamat B. Bacitracin zinc C. Oxacillin D. Cefapirin ```

B. Bacitracin zinc

``` Anticoccidal with Cidal - (killing) effect: A. Clopidol B. Monensin C. Robenidine D. Sulphachloropyrazine ```

B. Monensin

``` The antibiotics in this groups bound to the 30s subunit of the bacterial ribosome they interact with protein synthesis: A. Aminopenicillins B. Polimyxins C. Aminoglycosides D. Narrow spectrum penicillins ```

C. Aminoglycosides

``` Imidazole antifungal that can be used only locally: A. Fluconazole B. Itraconazole C. Enilconazole D. Terbinafine ```

C. Enilconazole

``` Which of the following is the least toxic aminoglycoside? A. Tobramycin B. Spectinomycin C. Neomycin D. Gentamicin ```

B. Spectinomycin

``` Which of the following antibacterials would you apply in an animal with severe renal impairment? A. Doxycycline B. Gentamicin C. Tobramycin D. Enrofloxacin A ```

A. Doxycycline

``` Necessary amount of chlorinated lime for disinfection of dug wells: A. 100g B. 30g C. 100g / m(hoch3) water D. 30g / 1m(hoch3) water ```

D. 30g / 1m(hoch3) water

``` Not bactericidal antibiotic: A. Ampicillin B. Marbofloxacin C. Erythromycin D. Neomycin ```

C. Erythromycin

``` Not bactericidal antibiotic: A. Doxycycline B. Gentamicin C. Amoxicillin D. Enrofloxacin ```

A. Doxycycline

``` What kind of materials can we use for disinfection of stables if animals are in the building? A. None of them B. Surfactants C. Both of them D. Chloramines ```

B. Surfactants

``` Administration of this drug to herbivorous rodents is NOT recommended because of the risk of dysbacteriosis? A. Gentamicin B. Clindamycin C. Sulfamethoxasole D. Enrofloxacin ```

B. Clindamycin

``` Administration of this drug to herbivorous rodents is NOT recommended because of the risk of dysbacteriosis? A. Sulfadimidine B. Spectinomycin C. Enrofloxacin D. Lincomycin ```

D. Lincomycin

``` Antifungal drug that is active ..........(against dermatophytes) A. Fluconazole B. Nystatin C. Griseofulvin D. Enilconazole ```

C. Griseofulvin

``` This anti fungal can be used for treating fungal infections of the cornea, it is not irritant for the eye: A. Amphothericin B. Natamycin C. Chlorhexidine D. Acriflavine ```

B. Natamycin

``` Vehicle in licking stones which my have growth-promoting abilities in ruminants: A. Bentonite B. Bismuth-subgallate C. Light kaolin D. Activated charcoal ```

A. Bentonite

``` Hypocalcaemia can occur with the IV administration of this antibiotic: A. Oxytetracycline B. Gentamicin C. Enrofloxacin D. Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid ```

A. Oxytetracycline

``` Bacterial susceptibility to certain antibiotics is usually determined with this method: A. PCR B. Macrobroth dilution method C. Disc-diffusion method D. ELISA ```

C. Disc-diffusion method

``` In case of risk septicemia in swine which drug would you apply in medicated water? A. Gentamicin B. Enrofloxacin C. ? D. ? ```

B. Enrofloxacin

``` Its absorption after oral administration is very limited thus it is a good choice for the treatment of enteric infections given orally: A. Neomycin B. Amoxicillin C. Enrofloxacin D. Sulfamethoxasole ```

A. Neomycin

``` Locally & systemically available anti fungal drug: A. Enilkonazole B. Naftifine C. Terbinafine D. Acrifalvine ```

C. Terbinafine

``` Locally & systemically applicable anti fungal: A. Naftifine B. Enilconazole C. Thiabendazole D. Ketokonazole ```

D. Ketokonazole

``` Are the alcohol-based hand disinfectants allowed to be rinsed? A. Yes, but not necessary B. Yes, with water C. Yes, with sterile water D. No, it is prohibited ```

D. No, it is prohibited

``` Are the detergent-based hand disinfectants allowed to be rinsed before surgery? A. Yes, but not necessary B. No, it is prohibited C. Yes, with sterile water D. Yes, with water ```

C. Yes, with sterile water

``` Vehicle in licking stones which my have growth-promoting abilities in ruminants: A. Bentonite B. Bismuth-subgallate C. Light kaolin D. Activated charcoal ```

A. Bentonite

``` Its cardiovascular side effects are negligible: A. Xylazine B. Medetomidine C. Propofol D. Diazepam ```

D. Diazepam

``` Its cardiovascular side effects are negligible: A. Ketamine B. Etomidate C. Thiopental D. Propofol ```

B. Etomidate

``` This anthelmintic drug is safe also when it is used concomitantly with cholinesterase inhibitor compounds: A. Pyrantel B. Levamisole C. Flubendazole D. Piperazine ```

C. Flubendazole

``` Usual Dosage of Gentamicin: A. 25 mg/bwkg IM B. 2-4 mg/bwkg IM C. Each answer is incorrect D. 50 mg/bwkg IM ```

B. 2-4 mg/bwkg IM

``` What is the pharmacokinetic symbol of the theoretical plasma concentration maximum using the intravasal pharmacokinetic method? A. Ct B. C0 C. Cmaxcc D. Cmax ```

B. C0

``` In the form of a sterile product it can also be given slowly as an IV infusion: A. Tincture B. Micro-suspension C. Suspension D. Emulsion ```

B. Micro-suspension

``` Which organ is usually ..... systemic antifungals are administered for a prolonged period? A. Liver B. Skin C. Kidney D. Eye ```

A. Liver

``` What method was used for the measurement of the active substance in our pharmacokinetic investigation with chicken? A) GC B) Spectrophotometric C) HPLC D) Microbiological ```

B) Spectrophotometric

``` In the majority of animals this Vitamin is not essential: A. Vit E B. Vit K C. Vit B12 D. Vit C ```

D. Vit C

``` 59. A general anaesthetic with a narrow therapeutic margin: A. Thiopental B. Etomidate C. Propofol D. Ketamine ```

A. Thiopental

``` It has poor penetration into the CNS therefore it is less sedative than the other three substances: A. Hidroxyzine B. Cetirizine C. Chloropyramine D. Cyproheptadine ```

B. Cetirizine

``` Long term administration of this laxative drug can lead to the paralysis of plexus myentericus: A. Aloe B. Liquid paraffin C. Magnesium sulphate D. Lactulose ```

A. Aloe

What is meant by a residual drug? A. The drug metabolites remaining in the meat and other food products from the animal treated with the given pharmaceutical product. B. The total amount of the agent remaining in the meat and other food products from the animal treated with the pharmaceutical product. C. The total amount of the agent and its metabolites remaining in the meat of the animal treated with the given pharmaceutical product. D. The total amount of the agent and its metabolites remaining in the meat and food products of the animal treated with the given pharmaceutical product

The total amount of the agent and its metabolites remaining in the meat and food products of the animal treated with the given pharmaceutical product

``` Anticoccidial, can be administered via drinking water: A. Diclazuril B. Toltrazuril C. Monensin D. Clopidal ```

B. Toltrazuril

``` What is the pharmacokinetic symbol of the area under the concentration-time curve from zero up to ... after single administration? A. AUC B. MRT C. C0 D. AUC.. ```

A. AUC

``` Systemic endectocide which is active against fleas and also roundworms: A. Pyriprol B. Fipronil C. Selamectin D. Foxim ```

C. Selamectin

``` This anthelmintic drug is not safe enough, when it is used concomitantly with cholinesterase inhibitor compounds: A. Praziquantel B. Closantel C. Levamisole D. Albendazole ```

C. Levamisole

Dosage of Xylazine in Cattle

0,05 - 0,2 mg/ kg bw IM

``` It is quite effective against pseudopregnancy in bitches, it may cause emesis: A. Cabergoline B. Oestradiol C. Medroxyprogesterone acetate D. Proligestone ```

A. Cabergoline

``` Which of the following are water-soluble bases? A. Wax B. Vaseline C. None of these D. Gelatine ```

D. Gelatine

``` A dosage form appropriate for the preparation of medicated feed stuff: A. Oral solution B. OROS C. WSP D. Premix ```

D. Premix

``` The antibiotics in this group inhibit the cell wall synthesis of bacteria and they are active against E.coli: A. Polymixins B. Narrow spectrum penicillins C. Aminopenicillins D. Aminoglycosides ```

C. Aminopenicillins

``` In the case of keratoconjunctivitis SICCA this substance supplied in an eye drop may enhance tear production: A. Procaine B. Tetracaine C. Pilocarpine D. Atropine ```

C. Pilocarpine

Among the listed Macrolides following a single application this one has high concentration and long action (6-8 days) in bronchial fluid: A. Azithromycin B. Tylosin C. Erythromycin D. Tulathromycin

D. Tulathromycin

``` Which juvenile hormone analogue can be applied in salt lick blocks? A. Flubendazole B. Fenthion C. Metoprene D. Fipronil ```

C. Metoprene

``` Sedative drug with no analgesic properties, but it potentiates the effect of analgesics? A. Acepromazine B. Medetomidine C. Buprenorphine D. Xylazine ```

A. Acepromazine

Dosage of Medetomidine in cats

50-150 microgramm/ kg IV IM

``` Which drug can be used as a premedication to reverse the cardiovascular actions of Xylazine? A. Flumazenile B. Glycopyrrolate C. Xylometazoline D. Naloxone ```

B. Glycopyrrolate

``` A general anaesthetic with a broad therapeutic margin, although its administration might induce cardiovascular side effects or apnea: A. Alfaxalon-Alfadolon B. Propofol C. Etomidate D. Thiopental ```

B. Propofol

``` Systemic antifungal drug that can be applied safely also in cats A. Griseofulvin B. Itraconazole C. Enilconazole D. Naftifine ```

B. Itraconazole

``` Frequently applied substances in a form of oral gel or oral paste to horses: A. Broad spectrum penicillins B. Anthelmintics C. Parasympathomimetics D. Parasympatholytics ```

B. Anthelmintics

``` In which animal species are the local tolerance studies performed most frequently? A. Rabbit B. Beagle C. Mouse D. Rat ```

A. Rabbit

``` This coccidiostatic is a pyrimidine derivate, acts as competitive agent of Vitamin B1: A. Clopidol B. Halofuginone C. Decoquinate D. Amprolium ```

D. Amprolium

Which is characteristic to polypeptide antibiotics? A. They are very effective for the treatment of respiratory tract inf B. They are well absorbed after oral administration C. They are very safe antibiotics given intramuscularly D. They have bactericidal effect

D. They have bactericidal effect

Mechanism of action of Carbamate insecticidals: A. Inhibition of cholinesterase enzyme B. Agonist of Octopamine receptors C. Inhibition of Na+ Channels D. Stimulation of Glutamate mediated Cl Channels

A. Inhibition of cholinesterase enzyme

This is obligatory when drugs are supplied to owners by vets: A. Prescription for medicated feed stuff (PMF) B. Label C. Legislation on requisition D. Veterinary record for controlled drugs

B. Label

``` What kind of treatment was used for the pharmacokinetic investigation during the semester? A. Per os B. Intramuscular C. Intravenous D. Subcutaneous ```

C. Intravenous

When supplying this drug, one copy of which of the following has to be kept by the registered feed compounder? A. Special prescription B. Prescription C. Prescription for Medicated Feedstuff (PMF) D. Legislation on requisition

C. Prescription for Medicated Feedstuff (PMF) ?

``` This substance is not used on its own because of the low achieved plasma concentrations A. Benzathine-penicillin B. Procaine-penicillin C. Amoxicillin D. Benzylpenicillin ```

A. Benzathine-penicillin

``` Which active substances can be used as a combination in cats for the treatment of flea- infestation? A. Flumethrin + propoxur in a collar B. Permethrin + Piriproxifen spot on C. Imidacloprid + Permethrin spot on D. Fipronil + Methropen spot on ```

D. Fipronil + Methropen spot on

``` Antifungal drug that is active in the case of dermatomycosis, can be teratogenic: A. Griseofulvin B. Enilconazole C. Nystatin D. Fluconazole ```

A. Griseofulvin

``` Which of the below mentioned organisms are susceptible to the tetracyclines? A. Mycoplasmae, Borreliae, Rickettsiae B. Chlamydiae, Coccidiae C. Mycobacteria, Mycoplasmae D. Coccidia, Pseudomonas ```

A. Mycoplasmae, Borreliae, Rickettsiae

``` Some of them require safe custody: A. Prescription only medicines (POM) B. Pharmacy and merchant list medicines (PML) C. General sale list medicines (GSL) D. Pharmacy medicines (P) ```

A. Prescription only medicines (POM)

``` Which of the following is the approved name of the drug? A. None of these B. Amoxicillin C. Amoxysol inj A.U.V D. 7-amino-3methyl blabla ```

B. Amoxicillin

``` This aminoglycoside is not used on its own (alone) because of the widespread resistance: A. Gentamicin B. Neomycin C. Streptomycin D. Spectinomycin ```

C. Streptomycin

``` Well absorbed from the nasal mucosa of sows, can be applied in MMA syndrome (metritis mastitis agalactia) A. Lidocaine B. Cortison C. Adrenaline D. Oxytocin ```

D. Oxytocin

``` What is the pharmacokinetic symbol of the apparent volume of distribution? A. B B. Clb C. Vd D. MRT ```

C. Vd

``` Which compound forms (as byproduct) in the demethylation reaction of Dextromethorphan? A. Formaldehyde B. Acetylacetone C. Ammonium-acetate D. Trichloroacetic-acid ```

A. Formaldehyde

``` First Generation Cephalosporin, it is applied orally and parenterally as well: A. Cefoperazone B. Cefquinome C. Cefalexin D. Cefapirin ```

C. Cefalexin

``` Which of the following is a characteristic of creams? A. Higher water content B. None of these C. Higher dry material content D. Higher lipid content ```

A. Higher water content

``` This aminoglycoside is not used on its own (alone) because of the widespread resistance: A. Gentamicin B. Neomycin C. Streptomycin D. Spectinomycin ```

C. Streptomycin

``` Which ß lactam acts against chlamidophila? A. None of these B. Cefquinom C. Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid D. Piperacillin-tazobactam ```

A. None of these

``` This drug is contraindicated in animals with diabetes mellitus because it can cause hyperglycemia: A. Acepromazine B. Xylazine C. Diazepam D. Apomorphine ```

B. Xylazine

``` The most effective macrolide for the treatment of swine dysentery: A. Tilmicosin B. Tulathromyicin C. Erythromycin D. Tylvalosin ```

D. Tylvalosin

Which of the following CANNOT be an attribute of ointments? A. Does not contain solid particles B. Homogenous C. Dissolves at body temperature D. Cocoa butter can be used as vehicle base

C. Dissolves at body temperature

``` Appropriate as an antidote for Xylazine and Medetomidine: A. FLumazenile B. Atipamezole C. Sarmazenile D. Fluanisone ```

B. Atipamezole

``` Among the listed agents this one is the most effective against Brachyspira hyodysenteriae: A. Doxycycline B. Tiamulin C. Erythromycin D. Tylosin ```

B. Tiamulin

``` This benzimidazole anthelmintic frug can be used in porcine and chicken industry as well: A. Triclabendazole B. Thiabendazole C. Flubendazole D. Albendazole ```

C. Flubendazole

Its cardiovascular side effects are negliable: a. Xylazine b. Medetomidine c. Propofol d. Diazepam

d. Diazepam

Dosage of Prednisolone in shock

20-30 IV

``` In the case of Fentanyl overdosage, which of the following substances can be used? A. Naloxone B. Atipamezole C. Yohimbine D. Flumazenile ```

A. Naloxone

Dosage of Xylazine in dogs

1-2 IM, IV on its own | 0.25-0.5 in combination

``` Its mode of action is coccidiostatic. It is ative against second generation schizonts: A. Narasin B. Salinomycin C. Clopidol D. Sulphacloropyrazine ```

D. Sulphacloropyrazine

``` It can provide super ovulation in donor cows during the embryo transfer process: A. Cabergoline B. EcG (PMSG) C. Oestradiol D. Cloprosterol ```

B. EcG (PMSG)

``` Which drug is prohibited in food-producing animals? A. Tylvalosin B. Florfenicol C. Chloramphenicol D. Tiamphenicol ```

C. Chloramphenicol

Its cardiovascular side effects are negliable: a. Ketamine b. Etomidate c. Thiopental d. Propofol

b. Etomidate

In this type of prescription the proprietary name of a veterinary licensed medicine is given: a. Prescription on a prepared (magistral) medicine b. Prescription of a formulated official medicine c. Prescription of a human licensed medicine d. Prescription of a veterinary licensed medicine

d. Prescription of a veterinary licensed medicine

Usual dosage of Gentamicin a. 25 mg/b.w.kg IM b. 2-4 mg/b.w.kg IM c. 50 mg/b.w.kg IM d. each answer is correct

b. 2-4 mg/b.w.kg IM

Locally and systemically available antifungal drug: a. Acriflavine b. Enilconazole c. Naftifine d. Terbinafine

d. Terbinafine

``` What is the pharmacokinetic symbol of the theoretical plasma concentration maximum using the intravasal pharmacokinetic model? a. C t b. C 0 c. C maxcc d. C max ```

b. C 0

Not active against Chlamidophilia: a. Oxytetracycline b. Enrofloxacin c. Doxycyclin d. Amoxicillin - Clavulinic acid

d. Amoxicillin - Clavulinic acid

Non water soluble vehicles? a. Polysorbate b. Methylcellulose c. None of them d. Both of them

c. None of them

The lowest man-power requirement is during the internal mass-treatment by an application of: a. Bolus b. Medicated water c. Injection d. Drench

b. Medicated water

When using classic neuroleptanalgesia the following substances are applied: a. Benzodiazepine + Ketamine b. Tranqualizer + Ketamine c. α-2 aginist + opioid d. Tranqulizer + Opiate

d. Tranqulizer + Opiate

PO usual dosage of Cefalexin: a. Not intended for PO application b. 1.5 mg/b.w.kg daily 2x c. 15 mg/b.w.kg daily 1x d. 15 mg/b.w.kg daily 2x

d. 15 mg/b.w.kg daily 2x

``` Pregnant females and those with asthma should wear protective gloves during the administration of: a. Oestradiol b. HcG c. Fertilerin d. Dinoprost ```

d. Dinoprost

Which of the following information is not included in the european pharmacopeia? a. Reagents b. Scientific method c. Dosage forms d. Side effects of drug

d. Side effects of drug

Correct dosage for Butorphanol in dogs: a. 0.06 mg/b.w.kg IV b. 0.01 mg/b.w.kg IM c. 1-4 mg/b.w.kg IV, IM d. 0.1-0.4 mg/b.w.kg IV, IM

d. 0.1-0.4 mg/b.w.kg IV, IM

which drug has anti-progesterone effect? a. …… b. Fertilerin c. ….. d. Aglepristone

d. Aglepristone

Which drug is used for the treatment of infections caused by anaerobic bacteria (e.g. foot rot): a. Marbofloxacin b. Gentamycin c. Flymequin d. Lincomycin

d. Lincomycin

Divalent Ionophor coccidiostatic drug? a. Narasin b. Lasalocid c. Monensin d. Salinomycin

b. Lasalocid

…. treating fungal infection of the cornea, it is a non irritant of the eye: a. Natamycin b. Chlorhexidine c. Acriflavine d. Amphotericin B

a. Natamycin

How many days can an open bottle of a drug be used: a. 28 days b. 21 days c. 30 days d. 50 days

a. 28 days

Not allowed for food producing animals: a. Floramphenicol b. Gentamycin c. Chloramphenicol d. Tilmicosin

c. Chloramphenicol

When applied as an ear drop this drug is active in otitis external caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa: a. Bacitracin b. Sulfadimidine c. Neomycin d. Polymixin-B

d. Polymixin-B

Inappropriate for the treatment of enteritis caused by E.coli and Salmonella: a. Gentamycin b. Collision c. Bacitracin d. Spectinomycin

c. Bacitracin

Anticoccidials alternating within one raising period of broilers: a. Switch program b. Full program c. Rotation program d. Shuttle program

d. Shuttle program

Which kind of effects can be expected when using ointments? a. Local effect b. Both local and systemic effect c. Systemic effect d. Neither

b. Both local and systemic effect

Which ingredient is missing from the hard capsule? a. Glycerine b. Gelatine c. Agar d. Water

a. Glycerine

Which of the followings is Phase II metabolism enzyme? a. Aldehyde-dehydrogenase b. Alcohol-dehydrogenase c. Glutathione-S-Transferase d. Monoamine oxidase

c. Glutathione-S-Transferase

Ectoparasitic with repellent activity: a. Avermectins b. Pirethroids c. Formamidines d. Milbemycins

b. Pirethroids

This phase of drug research procedures does not fall into the “preclinical” examination category: a. Pharmacological investigation b. Pharmacovigiliance c. TMC test d. Acute toxicity tests

b. Pharmacovigiliance

Procaine-benzypenicillin is ineffective against: a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa b. Mannheimia haemolytica c. Erysopelothrix rhusiopathiae d. Clostridium tetani

a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

The side effect of this drug on the cardiovascular system may …….. cause transient hypertension, then bradycardia and hypotension: a. Metamizole b. Medetomidine c. Metomidate d. Methadone

b. Medetomidine

Mechanism of action of pyrethroid insecticide. a. inhibition of cholinesterase enzyme b. stimulation of glutamate … channels c. Opening of oclopamine receptors d. Inhibition of Na channels…

d. Inhibition of Na channels…

Which is the method of preservation of resistance to coccidia in chicken? a. Both of them b. None of them c. Rotation program d. Shuffle program

a. Both of them

Tetracyclins are very active against: a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa b. E.coli c. Brachyspira Hyodysenteriae d. Borreliosis

d. Borreliosis

How many groups can medicinal substances be classified based on the MRL- value (earlier annex): a. No classification based on the MRL value b. Four c. Three d. Five

b. Four

``` Excellent substance for the treatment of E. coli meningitis: Procaine-penicillin Cefalexin Ceftriaxon Amoxicillin ```

Ceftriaxon

This anthelmintic drug is not safe enough, when it is used concomitantly with cholinesterase inhibitor compounds: a. Closantel b. Levamisole c. Albendazole d. Praziquantel

b. Levamisole

Procarcinogen, which by metabolism in the liver, is transformed into a mutagenic and carcinogenic compound? a. Vincristine b. Cyclophosphamide c. Cyclosporine d. Benzpyrene

d. Benzpyrene

Which effect is characteristic to phenothiazine tranquilizers? a. They increase the fertility rate. b. They have analgesic effect. c. They have sedative effect. d. They induce hypnosis.

c. They have sedative effect.

Among the quinolone carboxylic acid derivatives this agent does not contain fluorine: a. Nalidixic acid b. Flumequin c. Ciprofloxacin d. Norfloxacin

a. Nalidixic acid

This agent inhibits the bacterial folic acid synthesis by inhibition of dihydropteroate synthase: a. Metronidazole b. Sulfadimidine c. Doxycycline d. Lincomycin

b. Sulfadimidine

Which compound forms (as by product) in the demethylation reaction of dextromethorphan? a. Ammonium-acetate b. Trichloroacetic acid c. Acetylacetone d. Formaldehyde

d. Formaldehyde

Can be used for prevention of abortion due to toxoplasmosis in ewes: a. Narasin b. Halofuginone c. Decoquinate d. Salinomycin

c. Decoquinate

Frequently toxic in collies, causing paralysis in sensitive individuals: a. Ivermectin b. Levamisole c. Amitraz d. Selamectin

a. Ivermectin

Which drug is useful as a myometrial relaxant? a. Altrenogest b. Fertirelin c. Clenbuterol d. Luprostiol

c. Clenbuterol

In which case do you expect miosis in the eye when applying this drug in an eye? a. Atropine b. Tetracaine c. Pilocarpine d. Procaine

c. Pilocarpine

What is the CD written requisition? a. None of these. b. Records that contain the administered quality and quantity of the given CD. c. A label on the package of a Schedule 2 or 3 drug. d. An order form from a veterinarian to the pharmacist when Schedule 2 and 3 drugs are obtained.

d. An order form from a veterinarian to the pharmacist when Schedule 2 and 3 drugs are obtained.

Dosage of Metamisole Na (Noraminophenasone) in small animals: a. 20-50 mg/b.w.kg IV/IM b. 2-5 mg/b.w.kg IV/IM c. 5 mg/b.w.kg PO d. 20-50 μg/b.w.kg IV/IM

a. 20-50 mg/b.w.kg IV/IM

The antibiotics in this group disrupt the bacterial cell membrane, and they represent very fast bactericidal action (Quatenary ammonium disinfectant “tenside” like action): a. Aminopenicillins b. Aminoglycosides c. Narrow spectrum penicillins d. Polimyxins

d. Polimyxins

The adhesive of granules can be: a. Saccharose b. Pyridine c. Lactose d. Distilled water

d. Distilled water

Water soluble vitamin, with pronounced neuroprotective action: a. Vitamin E b. Vitamin B7 c. Vitamin B5 d. Vitamin B1

d. Vitamin B1

An osmotic laxative drug, but also used for the treatment of hepatic encephalopathy: a. Sodium citrate b. Magnesium sulphate c. Lactulose d. Sorbitol

c. Lactulose

It can be administered for the control of heart and voluntary muscle degeneration: a. Vit. B7 b. Vit. E c. Vit. B1 d. Vit. B6

b. Vit. E

Vehicle of licking stones which may have growth-promoting abilities in ruminants: a. Activated charcoal b. Bismuth-subgallate c. Bentonite d. Light caolin

c. Bentonite

This drug is NOT preferred for treatment of cats: a. Diphenoxilate b. Light caolin c. Cimetidine d. Diazepam

a. Diphenoxilate

Correct dosage of Ionophores a. Salinomycin 10mg/kg feed b. Monesin 17 mg/kg feed c. Maduramycin 5mg/kg feed d. Lasalocid 16mg/kg feed

d. Lasalocid 16mg/kg feed

What is the most ulcerogenic agent in dogs?

Diclofenac

Calcitriol decreases the urinary excretion of:

Phosphorus

A drug licensed for humans and included in Annex 1 and 3 administered to dairy cattle, should have a withdrawal period for milk for:

At least 7 days withdrawal period

Which matrices are examined in a residue analysis?

Edible tissues, milk, eggs and honey

At which of the below mentioned combinations do you expect the least respiratory depression?

Droperidol + Fentanyl

The most important toxicological properties of Gentamicin

Nephron –and ototoxic

This macrolide antibiotic can only be applied subcutaneously to cattle:

Tilmicosin

Dosage of Ivermectin in horse:

0.2 mg/kg body weight PO

Broad-spectrum anti-fungal drug that is active against yeasts, and dermatophyte alike:

Ketoconazole

It increases the liberation of prolactin, hence not suitable for administration to pseudopregnant animals:

Chlorpromazine

Which active substances can be used as a combination in cats for the treatment of flea-infestation?

Fipronil + Metropen spot-on

Which term is abbreviated by “MRL-value”?

Maximal residual drug concentration

Which drug would you use in cats for the prevention of tick-infestation?

Propoxur as a collar

This anti-emetic drug is an antagonist of neurokinin-1 receptors in the CNS:

Maropitant

Usually for mixing these types of drugs into the medicated feedstuff, commercial feed compounders, do not a prescription for the medicated feedstuff:

Pharmacy and Merchant List medicines (PML)

Its important side effects are bradycardia, pronounced respiratory depression and hypotension:

Fentanyl

Anti-fungal drug, that is active in the case of dermatomycosis, can be teratogenic?

Griseofulvin

This anti-helminthic drug is belonging into the group of Tetrahydropyrimidine:

Morantel

What does the abbreviation “GLP” stand for?

Good Laboratory Practice

Used in the eye as an anaesthetic:

Tetracaine

Premix prescription:

MFS

What is used to measure drug concentration in chicken practical?

Spectrophotometry

Sigmund test. What is used to stimulate pain?

Nail clippers

Which one has the least cardiovascular side effect?

Etomidate (Thiopental)

Which endocrine drug has few side effects, but allergy can be one?

HcG

Which is the 4th generation Cephalosporin?

Cefquinone

What is normally contraindicated with Tiamulin?

Ionophore antibiotics

Which anticoccidial drugs would you use in a rotation program to prevent coccidiosis in broilers?

Monensin-amprolium

Usually, which is the experimental animal in case of “hot plate” test:

Mouse

Can be given PO to an adult ruminant:

Fenbendazole

Anti-bacterial and anticoccidial drug, its long-term use can cause “haemorrhagic syndrome” in chickens:

Sulfaquinoxaline

Can the in-vivo (animal experiment) tissue irritation test substituted with any other...of experiment during the licensing process of a medicine?

No, it is obligatory to perform

Most frequently applied oral dosage form in horses:

Oral gel and oral paste

What is the advantage of combination of Xylazine and Ketamine?

Together they induce more analgesic effect than the substance alone

This drug is an inhibitor of β-lactamases:

Clavulanic acid

What is the most common intra-ruminal drug?

Pulsatile release bolus

What tranquilizer is less sedative due to penetration of BBB?

Promethazine

NSAID + anti-spasmolytic:

Metamizole + Butylscopolamine

Treatment of Candidiasis:

Chitin inhibitors

Treatment of mosquitoes, ants, beetles:

JHA Juvenile Hormone Analogues

Ectoparasitic toxic to fish:

Pyrethions, Synthetic pyrethrins

Preclinical phase consists of:

Pharmacological investigation, toxicity studies, user safety, target animal studies and toxicity test

Is polysorbate 20 water-soluble?

What to give for stressed animals?

Vitamin C

What drug is not suitable for herbivorous rodents?

Lincomycin and macrolides

Which one is insoluble in water?

Hydrous W/O

Treatment of Cushing Syndrome:

Trilostane

Pseudo-pregnancy:

Ergolines

Name some active drug against both larvae and adult worms?

Levamisole or Tetrahydropyrimidine

What do tetracycline work against?

Rickettsia, Borrelia, Mycoplasma and Chlamydia

Information about medicine in prescription for pharmacist:

Inscription

Feline asthma:

Zafirlukast and Terbutaline

Which is tetracycline sensitive?

Rodents, horses, puppies and kittens " pregnancy, last trimester

Which of these drugs has no analgesic properties?

Chlorpromazine

Program not used in coccidian treatment in chicken?

Combined

What can you use as treatment of Candida infection?

Myostatin

Slowest acting NSAID?

Methazone, Flunixin, Megumin

Which part of drug development is not preclinical?

Field trails, pharmacovigilance

If no vet-licensed drug is available, what do we use?

Human licensed

What drug is not suitable for lower urinary tract infection?

Penicillins, Cephalosporins

What antibiotic causes yellow discoloration in puppies?

Oxy-tetracycline

What drug causes the least cardiovascular depression?

Diazepam

What is the most accurate dispensed?

Dispensed powders

What animal did we use in the practical for the pharmacokinetic investigations?

Chicken

What anti-helminthic is used in cows against warble flies?

Pour-on with Ops or Macrolides

What is found in the European Pharmacopeia?

Human medicine indications

What annex has no withdrawal period?

Annex 2

What drug has a pronounced ionotropic effect?

Pimobendan, Digitalis glycosides

What drug causes super-ovulation?

PMSG

What drug is contraindicated in glaucoma?

Atropine

What drug induces fertility after fertilization?

GnRH

Which drug can be used against swine dysentery both PO and IV?

Tiamulin

What Spot-On application is not used in cats?

Amitraz

What drug is used in the treatment of Haemorrhagic Synthesis in chicken?

Vitamin K

Which drug is used in the treatment of swine dysentery?

Tylvalosin, Lincomycin, Tiamulin and Tylosin

Diuretic:

Furosemide

What drug is used to treat Babesiosis?

Imido Camp dipropionate

Which antibiotic is toxic to rodents?

Lincomycin

Gentamycin is not effective if administered:

What drug is for inducing oestrus?

Progesterone

What can cause dysbacteriosis in rodents?

Penicillin, Lincomycin, Tetracycline, Macrolides

Part of the toxicology studies:

Part 2

Which part of drug legislation contains clinical trails?

Part 3

What two drugs should be used in the switch program?

Ionophore and Thiazine

Pastes major component?

Over 40% powder: high solid content

What binds toxins including E. coli enterotoxins?

Activated charcoal

Some of these drugs require safe custody?

POM

What would you use against ticks in dogs?

Permethrin

Which one is used twice in one raising period?

Shuttle

Doxycycline is used against what disease?

Lyme disease

What kind of formulation is covered by a thin polymer layer?

Tablet

What anti-helminthic is used in the large colon of horse?

Pyrantel paste " Tetrahydropyrimidine

What drug causes least pre-/post-excitation of inhalations?

Sevoflurane

What drug would you use in renal failure?

Cephalosporins " Cefoperazone, Ceftriaxone, Cefador

What drug would you use in a urinary tract Infection?

Gentamycin

What bacteria are susceptible to Macrolides?

Mycoplasma, Brachyspira hydrosenteriae

What is the most significant quality requirement for injections?

Sterility

Partial agonist opiate, it is frequently combine with Medetomidine:

Butorphanol

Concentration of Amitraz as sheep dip:

0.025-0.05% solutions

This drug has severely harmful effect on the intestinal flora:

Enrofloxacin

In adult female rabbits, it will provoke oestrus regardless of the oestrus cycle:

Gonadorelin

Annex 1 definition:

Fixed MRL

Swine septicaemia treatment:

Enrofloxacin

What can you use as treatment of tuberculosis in humans?

Streptomycin

In which part of drug legislation is the clinical documentation?

Part 4

What is the dosage form free of particles?

Solution

It can be used to treat wells:

Both chlorinated lime + Sodium hypochloride

Not usually dipped:

Swine

Testing for drinking water:

0-24, room temperature

Propofol effect:

5-8 minutes

Where is the injection site, and how much should be injected in a mouse?

Caudal vein – 2mg/kg

Which can be used with no restriction?

General sales list

Best way to give de-wormer to horse?

Orally: paste or drench nasogastric tube

From the fastest to the slowest drug application methods:

IV – IM – SC – ID

Oily zinc suspension is a?

Oily suspension

Which of the following are water-soluble bases?

Gelatine

Which one is a narrow spectrum anti-helminthic?

Triclabendazol

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