What is the right order of listing the parts of the prescription?
Heading, Superscription, Subscription, Inscription
Heading, Superscription, Inscription, Subscription
Heading, Inscription, Superscription, Subscription
Heading, Subscription, Inscription, Superscription
Heading, Superscription, Inscription, Subscription
What is the main goal in laying and breeding hens to prevent coccidiosis? Development of Immunity Chemoprophylaxis with Ionophores Chemoprophylaxis with chemotherapeutics Prevention with isolated keeping
Development of Immunity
Among the listed antibiotics, which would you choose for the treatment of bite wounds? Gentamicin Enroflaxacin Colistin Amoxicillin- Clavulanic Acid
Amoxicillin- Clavulanic Acid
In which case would you NOT use ß2-agonist bronchodilator? Feline Asthma Horse RAO (Recurrent Airway Obstruction) Congestive Heart Failure Emphysema of Lungs
Congestive Heart Failure
Mass medication is NOT recommended in… Poultry Cat Swine Honey Bee
Cat
Intravenous anaesthetic with important side effect of adrenocortical suppression; Thiopental Propofol Medetomidine-Ketamine Etomidate
Etomidate
Streptomycin is usually combined with this antibiotic: Procaine- and Benzathine- Penicillin Lincomycin Gentamicin Cefovecin
Procaine- and Benzathine- Penicillin
This is the name given to a drug by the International Pharmacopeia Commission and mainly uniform worldwide; Chemical name Brand name Approved name Licensed name
Approved name
Non-toxic anthelminthic drug, is very effective against gastro-intestinal nematodes in ruminants, can also be applied in slow release bolus: Diamphenethide Praziquantel Nitroscanate Morantel
Morantel
What is the pain-inducing source at the “tail-clip” test? Hot Metal Plate test Hot Water bath Strong Clippers Focused Infrared Light
Strong Clippers
This antibiotic is active against fungi, can be applied orally; Terbinafine Amphetamicin B Griseofulvin Ketoconazole
Griseofulvin
The drugs in this annexe have fixed MRLs. When prescribing these substances, the appropriate WP must be stated; Annexe 2 Annexe 1 Annexe 3 Annexe 4
Annexe 1
Which drug is most effective against Bordetella bronchiseptica from the following? Bacitracin Doxycycline Penethamat Cefalexine
Doxycycline
This drug has beneficial effect in every animal species during chronic stress and disease? Vitamin C Vitamin B1 Vitamin B7 Vitamin B6
Vitamin C
Its micro-emulsion formulation is highly susceptible to bacterial contamination: Propofol Alfaxalon-Alfadolon Ketamine Thiopental
Propofol
This drug has no analgesic properties, but it potentiates the effect of analgesia: Acepromazine Buprenorphine ?? Xylazine
Acepromazine
This drug can be used in foals for the treatment of R.equi infection? Tulathromycin Doxycycline Clindamycin Erythromycin
Erythromycin
Usual dosage of Doxycycline: 0.2-0.3 mg/bwkg daily 1x 200-300 mg/bwkg daily 2x 1.5-2.0 mg/bwkg daily 2x 5-10mg/bwkg daily 1-2x
5-10mg/bwkg daily 1-2x
Dosage of Praziquantil: 0.5 mg/bwkg 50mg/bwkg 5mg/bwkg 0.05mg/bwkg
5mg/bwkg
Can be combined with Carcogenicity studies :
Acute Toxicity Studies
Repeated-dose toxicity studies
Teratogenicity Studies
Preclinical Pharmacological Investigations
Repeated-dose toxicity studies
This sedative can increase the incidence of convulsions so not suitable for administration to patients with epilepsy: Xylazine Diazepam Acepromazine Phenobarbital
Acepromazine
Given together with this drug when do you expect pharmacodynamics interaction with gentamicin: Procaine-penicillin Diazepam Vitamin K Xylazine
Diazepam
The new solid dosage forms can be prescribed using the following type of prescription: Licensed All of these prescription types Prepared Official
Licensed
This medicine can be used for treating prostatitis: Penicillin-G Sulphonamide alone Cefalosporine Potentiated sulphonamide
Potentiated sulphonamide
The most potent anti-inflammatory glucocorticoids of these four is… Prednisolone Cortisole Flumethasone Triamcinolon
Flumethasone
Which factor has to be eliminated from a poultry farm to decrease the problems caused by coccidiosis? High Ammonia Content in the Air Overflowing troughs, Leaking Water Pipes Preventing contact with swine Vitamin K deficiency
Overflowing troughs, Leaking Water Pipes
What solution was used for the coloric reaction in our pharmacokinetic investigation with chicken? Trichloroacetic acid water solution Sodium nitrate solution Sodium sulfamate solution Naftil-ethylenediamine ethanol solution
Naftil-ethylenediamine ethanol solution
This ACE inhibitor is safe also for patients with hepatic failure: Enalepril Ramipril Lisnopril Benazepril
Lisnopril
This amino acid has liver-protective activity as well: Carnitine Glycine Alanine Taurine
Carnitine
Which substance can be used intramammarily against penicillinase producing S.aureus? Cloxacillin Benzathine-penicillin Procaine-penicillin Penethamat
Cloxacillin
Gels are dosage forms that; Vehicle is gel of animal or other origin Have high fat content None of these Are only orally applicable
Vehicle is gel of animal or other origin
Which of the following substances can be used as a vehicle in premixes? Lucerne Meal Saccharose Zinc Oxide Glucose
Lucerne Meal
It’s an amino acid in its absence the heart musculature of cats will be hypertrophied: Taurine Serine Methionine Alanine
Taurine
Dosage of Ramipril in cats and dogs:
- 125mg/bwkg PO
- 25mg/bwkg IM
- 125mg/bwkg IM
- 25mg/bwkg PO
0.125mg/bwkg PO
Generally, how often should intramammary infusion be administered in case of non-lactating cows? Every 6 hours Every 3 hours Every 12 hours Only once
Only once
This drug has a narrow therapeutic margin, its side effects are salivation, vomiting, …., bronchoconstriction: Diazonin Parmethrin Amitraz Ivermectin
Diazonin
What solution was used for diazotation in our pharmacokinetic investigation with chicken? Trichloroacetic acid solution Naftil-ethylenediamine ethanol solution Sodium Sulfamate water solution Sodium nitrate water solution
Sodium nitrate water solution
How long is the tested substance applied to experimental animals in chronic toxicity studies? 1 year 2 years 1 month 90 days
2 years
Among the listed quinolone carboxylic acid derivatives, this agent acts against anaerobes: Ciprofloxacin Ibafloxacin Pradofloxacin Marbofloxacin
Pradofloxacin
Which has significant antigiardial effect as well: Imidocarb dipropionate Fenbendazole Toltrazuril Sodium stibogluconate
Fenbendazole
- Water soluble vitamin, with pronounced skin-protective action
a. Vitamin E
b. Vitamin B12
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin A
c. Vitamin C
What is pharmacokinetic symbol of the distribution phase coefficient in a two compartiment model?
a. Alpha
b. Beta
c. Kab
d. Kel
a. Alpha
Strongly inhibits satiety centre in the CNS:
a. Diazepam
b. Vitamin B1
c. Vitamin B12
d. Nandrolone
a. Diazepam
Using an oily type of injection may lead to life- threatening effect in this route of application:
a. Intramuscular
b. Intraperitoneal
c. Subcutaneous
d. Intravenous
d. Intravenous
The micronuclues test
a. Is a light microscope method for determining mutagenicity
b. Is a light microscope method for determining teratogenicity
c. Is a electrone microscope method for determining teratogenicity
d. Is a electrone microscope method for determining mutagenicity
a. Is a light microscope method for determining mutagenicity
Usually this application method the onset of drug action is most rapid:
a. Subcutaneous
b. Intarmuscular
c. Intraperitoneal
d. Intravenous
d. Intravenous
When applying this anaesthetic alone, muscle relaxation and total unconsciousness CANNOT be achieved in the animal
a. Methohexital
b. Ketamine
c. Propofol
d. Etomidate
b. Ketamine
In this type of prescription the name and amount of ingredients (individual components) has to be given in the prescription part:
a. Prescription of a human licensed medicine
b. Prescription of a prepared (magistral) medicine
c. Prescription of a veterinary licensed medicine
d. Prescription of a formulate official medicine
b. Prescription of a prepared (magistral) medicine
This macrolide reaches high concentration in bronchial fluid, and persists for a long time:
a. Tylosin
b. Josamycin
c. Tulathromycin
d. Erytrhomycin
c. Tulathromycin
Besides Babesiosis its other indication is anaplasmosis:
a. Paromomycin
b. Ronidazole
c. Imidocarb dipropionate
d. Meglumine antimonate
c. Imidocarb dipropionate
This drug (group) is usually incompatible with tiamulin and the macrolide antibiotics:
a. Amprolium
b. Triazine anticoccidials
c. Ionophor antibiotics
d. Halofuginone
c. Ionophor antibiotics
IM usual dosage of Tiamulin in swine
a. 2-10 mg/bw.kg
b. 500 mg/bw.kg
c. 100-200 mg/bw.kg
d. 60 mg/bw.kg
a. 2-10 mg/bw.kg
Given together with this drug when do you expect pharmacodynamic interaction with gentamicin?
a. Xylazine
b. Procaine- Penicillin
c. Diazepam
d. Vitamin K
c. Diazepam
Which controlled drugs are not used normally in the veterinarian practice?
a. Schedule 3
b. Schedule 1
c. Schedule 2
d. Schedule 4
b. Schedule 1
Most appropriate method for the extraction of water-soluble, heat-sensitive substances from medicinal herbs:
a. Preparing an infusion
b. Preparing a tincture
c. Making a decotion
d. Extraction with ether
a. Preparing an infusion
Overdosage of this substance has hepatotoxic effect
a. Vitamin B1
b. Vitamin K
c. Carotine
d. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin D
Dosage of Atropine sulphate as antidote in poisoning
a. 0.5- 0.7 mg/bw.kg SC/ PO
b. 0.05- 0.1 mg/bw.kg SC/ PO
c. 0.25- 1.0 mg/bw.kg SC/ one third of the dose slowly IV
d. 0.05- 0.1 mg/bw.kg SC/ one third of the dose slowly IV
c. 0.25- 1.0 mg/bw.kg SC/ one third of the dose slowly IV
This active substance can be used for the treatment of varroosis in honeybees:
a. Ivermectin
b. Imidacloprid
c. Permethrin
d. Amitraz
d. Amitraz
Alpha 2- agonist molecule, its side effect are less frequent than those of xylazine:
a. Metomidate
b. Medetomidine
c. Ketamine
d. Tiletamine
b. Medetomidine
Which of the following substances can be used as a vehicle in premixes?
a. Glucose
b. Zinc oxide
c. Saccharose
d. Lucerne meal
d. Lucerne meal
Which vehicle is useful for preparation of eye ointment?
a. Simple ointment
b. Cocoa butter
c. White vaseline
d. Paraffin ointment
c. White vaseline
Bronchodilator, with relatively specific ß2- Receptor agonistic effect can be applied primarily by inhalation
a. Terburaline
b. Clenbuterole
c. Ephedrine
d. Salbutamol
d. Salbutamol
Its membrane- protective effect can partially replace that of Vitamin E:
a. Zinc
b. Selenium
c. Copper
d. Iron
b. Selenium
A drug with potent visceral analgesic properties
a. Xylazine
b. Butorphenol
c. Propofol
d. Ketamine
b. Butorphenol
Frequent combined partners of dihidro-streptomycin
a. Procain- and benzathine penicillin
b. Amoxicillin and clavulanic acid
c. Oxacilllin and cloxacillin
d. Cefapirin and cefazolin
a. Procain- and benzathine penicillin
In the case of fowl cholera (septicaemia) in chickens, which of the following antibiotics would you apply in medicated water?
a. Gentamicin
b. Amoxicillin
c. Colistin
d. Neomycin
b. Amoxicillin
IV dosage of Butorphanol in horses:
a. 10 mg/bw.kg
b. 0.1 mg/bw.kg
c. 1 mg/bw.kg
d. 0.01 mg/bw.kg
b. 0.1 mg/bw.kg
Butyrphenone tranquilizer used mainly in laboratory rodents:
a. Azaoerone
b. Acepromazine
c. Tiethylperazine
d. Fluanisone
d. Fluanisone
Long acting cephalosporin for the treatment of dogs and cats
a. Cepharin
b. Cefazolin
c. Cefalexin
d. Cefovecin
d. Cefovecin
If the aim of these investigations is to determine the accelerated stability of the drug product. What are the appropriate conditions?
a. Room temperature: 0-24 hours
b. Room temperature: 0-3 months
c. Room temperature: 0-4 weeks
d. 40°C, 75% RH, 0-6 months
d. 40°C, 75% RH, 0-6 months
The teratogenicity studies have to be performed at least on… :
a. 2 animal species
b. 3 animal species
c. 4 animal species including monkeys
d. 1 animal species
a. 2 animal species
Among the listed agents this one is NOT intended against infections caused by anaerobic bacteria
a. Tyrmethoprim
b. Pradofloxacin
c. Metronidazole
d. Clindamycin
a. Tyrmethoprim
Mode of action in Lincosamides
a. Concentration dependent bactericidal
b. Time-dependent bactericidal
c. Bacteriostatic
d. Detergent like activity
c. Bacteriostatic
In the case fo coli-septicaemia in swine, which drug would you apply in medicated water?
a. Gentamicin
b. Lincomycin
c. Enrofloxacin
d. Tylosine
c. Enrofloxacin
Expectorant drug, can be applied in combination with antitissuvies
a. Acetilcystein
b. Ambroxol
c. Guaifenesine
d. Bromhexin
c. Guaifenesine
This is obligatory when drug are supplied to owners by vets:
a. Label
b. Veterinary Record for controlled drugs
c. Prescription for Medicated Feedstuff (PMF)
d. Legalisation on requisition
a. Label
The most frequently applied drug in combination with spectinomycin:
a. Cefuroxime
b. Lincomycin
c. Gentamicin
d. Procaine-penicillin
b. Lincomycin
What is characteristic of suppositories?
a. Dissolve at body temperature
b. Non-divided dosage form
c. Semi-solid at room temperature
d. None of these
a. Dissolve at body temperature
What is characteristic of suppositories?
a. Dissolve at body temperature
b. Non-divided dosage form
c. Semi-solid at room temperature
d. None of these
a. Dissolve at body temperature
Strongly inhibits the satiety centre in CNS:
a. Vitamin B 1
b. Vitamin B 12
c. Diazepam
d. Nandrolone
c. Diazepam
Strongly inhibits the satiety centre in CNS:
a. Vitamin B 1
b. Vitamin B 12
c. Diazepam
d. Nandrolone
c. Diazepam
Bacterial susceptibility to certain antibiotics is usually determined with this method:
a. Disc-diffusion method
b. PCR
c. Macrobroth dilution method
d. ELISA
a. Disc-diffusion method
This is a prodrug, in practice it is used only against immature liver flukes, practically inactive against adult flukes and other types of worms:
a. Febantel
b. Netobimin
c. Diamphenethide
d. Triclabendazole
c. Diamphenethide
It is a GHS-category:
a. unknown mechanism of effect
b. mutagenic
c. highly toxic
d. non-toxic for fish
c. highly toxic
If the aim of these investigations is to determine the stability of the drug product after opening the package, what are the appropriate conditions?
a. 40°C, 75% RH, 0-6 months
b. Room- temperature: 0 - 3 months
c. Room- temperature: 0 - 24 hours
d. Room- temperature: 0 – 4 weeks
d. Room- temperature: 0 – 4 weeks
It can be given to birds and reptiles for control of subacute egg-retention
a. Dinoprost
b. Gonadorelin
c. Etiproston
d. Oxytocin
d. Oxytocin
Is a butyrophenone mainly used in swine for stress reduction:
a. Fentanyl
b. Droperidole
c. Acepromazine
d. Azaperone
d. Azaperone
Given directly after fertilization, it increases the rate of fertility:
a. Oestradiol
b. Dinoprost
c. Cabercoline
d. Buserelin
d. Buserelin
In dogs its fast readministration possibly does not cause emesis
a. Carbachole
b. Neostigmine
c. Apomorphine
d. Ipecacuanha syrup
c. Apomorphine
In the course of registration of licensed medicines, which documentation part is the clinical documentation according to EUDRALEX requirements?
a. Part 1
b. Part 2
c. Part 3
d. Part 4
d. Part 4
This ectoparasitic is NOT active against ticks
a. Amitraz
b. Fipronil
c. Pyriprol
d. Imidacloprid
d. Imidacloprid
Which drugs have to be kept in a locked receptacle with the key in the possession of the veterinarian?
a. Schedule 2 and 3 drugs
b. Schedule 3 and 4 drugs
c. Schedule 1 and 4 drugs
d. none of the above
a. Schedule 2 and 3 drugs
Usual dosage of Diazepam IM / IV:
a. 5-10 mg / b.w.kg
b. 0,01-0,02 mg / b.w.kg
c. 0,1-0,5 mg / b.w.kg
d. 10-20 mg / b.w.kg
c. 0,1-0,5 mg / b.w.kg
This macrolide can be administered to young horses only in certain cases:
a. Tylosine
b. Erythromycin
c. Tilmicosin
d. Tulathromycin
b. Erythromycin
In the majority of animal species this vitamin is not essential:
a. Vitamin E
b. Vitamin K
c. Vitamin B 12
d. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin C
It is not obligatory to keep records about this category of drugs when administered to food producing animals:
a. If a drug licensed for humans was used
b. homeopathic medicines
c. If the drug was administered according to the users information
d. If the drug was not administered according to the users information
b. homeopathic medicines
This drug has a very low therapeutic index, its IV administration is forbidden.
a. Imidocarb dipropionate
b. Sodium stibocluconate
c. Meglumine antimonate
d. Sulphonamides
a. Imidocarb dipropionate
This antibiotic can penetrate well intracellulary
a. Procaine-penicillin
b. Gentamicin
c. Benzathine-penicillin
d. Oxytetracycline
d. Oxytetracycline
Injected subcutaneously this drug is appropriate for the treatment of scabies-infestations:
a. Diazinon
b. Imidacloprid
c. Fipronil
d. Doramectin
d. Doramectin
Which bacterium is used in the AMES test?
a. Campylobacter jejuni
b. Salmonella typhimurium
c. Clostridium perfringens
d. Escherichia coli
b. Salmonella typhimurium
What information about any drug is included in the European Pharmacopoeia?
a. identification methods
b. detailed indications in veterinary medicine
c. dosage of the drug in humans
d. detailed indications in human medicine
a. identification methods
A general anesthetic with a narrow therapeutic margin:
a. Thiopental
b. Etomidate
c. Propofol
d. Ketamine
a. Thiopental
It has poor penetration into the CNS, therefore it is less sedative than the other three substances:
a. Hidroxycine
b. Cetirizine
c. Chloropyramine
d. Cyproheptadine
b. Cetirizine
Long term administration of this laxative drug can lead to the paralysis of plexus myentericus:
a. Aloe
b. Liquid paraffin
c. Magnesium sulphate
d. Lactulose
a. Aloe
During the late pregnancy its application is only allowed while the soft birth canal is dilated:
a. Prolactin
b. Oxytocin
c. Etiproston
d. None of them
b. Oxytocin
What is meant by a residual drug?
a. the drug metabolites remaining in the meat and other food products from the animal treated with the given pharmaceutical product
b. the total amount of the agent remaining in the meat and other food products from the animal treated with the pharmaceutical product
c. the total amount of the agent and its metabolites remaining in the meat of the animal treated with the given pharmaceutical product
d. the total amount of the agent and its metabolites remaining in the meat and food products of the animal treated with the given pharmaceutical product
d. the total amount of the agent and its metabolites remaining in the meat and food products of the animal treated with the given pharmaceutical product
A drug licensed for humans containing metronidazole:
a. cannot penetrate into the milk thus no WP for milk has to be stated
b. has to have at least 28 days WP for meat
c. must not be used in food producing animals
d. requires 0 days withdrawal period in food producing animals
c. must not be used in food producing animals
Most effective in the treatment of chemotherapeutics- induced vomiting, but less effective in other cases:
a. Diphenhydramine
b. Tiethylperazine
c. Maropitant
d. Ondansetron
d. Ondansetron
The primary choice of antibiotic for the treatment of swine erysipelas is:
a. Enrofloxacin
b. Penicillin
c. Gentamicin
d. Doxycycline
b. Penicillin
What is the formulation type of Burow ointment (Unguentum aluminii acetici tartarici)?
a. water in oil (W/O) type emulsion
b. Oil-in-water (O/W) type emulsion
c. real solution
d. oil suspension
a. water in oil (W/O) type emulsion
The oral bioavailability of Aminoglycosides (except apramycin):
a. 60-70 %
b. 0-10 %
c. 30-40 %
d. 90-100 %
b. 0-10 %
Administration of this drug to herbivorous rodents is NOT recommended because of the risk of disbacteriosis:
a. Enrofloxacine
b. Lincomycin
c. Spectinomycin
d. Sulfadimidine
b. Lincomycin
Primary choice of antibiotics in infections caused by Rickettsia:
a. Tetracyclines
b. Aminoglycosides
c. Macrolides
d. Penicillins
a. Tetracyclines
Usual dosage of Dexamethasone:
a. 10 mg/b.w.kg IV/IM
b. 50 mg/b.w.kg IV/IM
c. 0,1 mg/b.w.kg IV/IM
d. each answer is correct
c. 0,1 mg/b.w.kg IV/IM
Combined with cephalosporins the nephrotoxic effect of this drug can be enhanced:
a. Diazepam
b. Enrofloxacin
c. Clavulanic acid
d. Gentamicin
d. Gentamicin
Aminoglycoside with the best oral bioavailability:
a. Spectinomycin
b. Gentamicin
c. Apramycin
d. Neomycin
c. Apramycin
It has poor penetration into the CNS, therefore it is less sedative than the other three substances:
a. Hidroxycine
b. Cetirizine
c. Chloropyramine
d. Cyproheptadine
b. Cetirizine
What is the primary purpose of drug administration according to European rule?
a. Treatment
b. Prevention
c. Growth promotion
d. This is not determined
a. Treatment
Anticoccidial, can be administered via drinking water:
a. Diclazuril
b. Toltrazuril
c. Monensin
d. Clopidol
b. Toltrazuril
Usual dosage of Tylosin in poultry via drinking water:
a. 10-20 mg/l
b. 500 mg/l
c. 2-10 mg/l
d. 50 mg/l
b. 500 mg/l
Organisms resistant to the macrolides
a. most of the gram- positive organisms
b. E. coli and Salmonella ssp.
c. Mycoplasmae
d. fastidious gram- negative organisms
b. E. coli and Salmonella ssp.
Aminocyclitol, its mode of action is bacteriostatic:
a. Streptomycin
b. Gentamicin
c. Spectinomycin
d. Neomycin
c. Spectinomycin
In the course of registration of licensed medicines, which documentation part is the safety documentation according to EUDRALEX requirements?
a. Part 1
b. Part 2
c. Part 3
d. Part 4
c. Part 3
If the aim of these investigations is to determine the stability of the drug after opening the package what are the appropriate conditions?
a. 40°C, 75% RH, 0-6 months
b. Room- temperature: 0 - 3 months
c. Room- temperature: 0 - 24 hours
d. Room- temperature: 0 – 4 weeks
d. Room- temperature: 0 – 4 weeks
Concentration of Atropin in mydriatic eye drops:
a. 0,03 %
b. 0,25-0,5 %
c. 0,5-1 %
d. 1-2 %
c. 0,5-1 %
Juvenile- hormone analogue, that is combined with fipronil in a spot on preparation:
a. Fenoxicarb
b. Metopren
c. Imidacloprid
d. Lufenurone
b. Metopren
What is the pharmacokinetic symbol of the plasma concentration maximum at steady state after
multiple administrations?
a. C max
b. C t
c. C 0
d. C maxcc [not sure! Almost not readable]
d. C maxcc
What is the purpose of a residual drug analysis?
a. determination of the MRL value
b. the determination of withdrawal time according to food health legislation
c. Kinetics examination the residual drug
d. The investigation of the metabolism of the residual drug
b. the determination of withdrawal time according to food health legislation
This sedative can increase the incidence of convulsions, hence not suitable for administration to patients with epilepsy:
a. Xylazine
b. Diazepam
c. Acepromazine
d. Phenobarbital
c. Acepromazine
Which of the following drugs would you administer to a risk patient with cardiovascular disease?
a. Morphine
b. Acepromazine
c. Midazolam
d. Xylazine
c. Midazolam
Important indication for the use of tetracyclines:
a. treatment of intestinal infections
b. Tuberculosis
c. Metritis, foot rotting, local treatment of wounds
d. Swine- dysentery
c. Metritis, foot rotting, local treatment of wounds
Anticoccidial with Cidal- (killing) effect:
a. Sulfaquinoxaline
b. Amprolium
c. Trimethoprim
d. Semduramicin
d. Semduramicin
What information about any drug is included in the European Pharmacopoeia?
a. dosage of the drug in humans
b. detailed indications in veterinarian medicine
c. detailed indications in human medicine
d. identification methods
d. identification methods
Which drug would you apply for the treatment of horse- botfly- larval infestation (gasterophilosis)?
a. Foxim pour on
b. Fenbendazole orally
c. spraying with Amitraz
d. Moxidectin orally
d. Moxidectin orally
Imidazole antifungal that can be used only locally:
a. Terbinafine
b. Enilconazole
c. Ketoconazole
d. Itraconazole
b. Enilconazole
Imidazole antifungal that can be used only locally:
a. Terbinafine
b. Enilconazole
c. Ketoconazole
d. Itraconazole
b. Enilconazole
When anthrax is diagnosed in domestic animals, which drug would you administer?
a. Penicillin
b. Cefoperazon
c. Enrofloxacin
d. treatment is prohibited
a. Penicillin
It is appropriate for the prevention of tick infestation in cats:
a. Fipronil
b. Permethrin
c. Pyriprol
d. Amitraz
a. Fipronil
It has a very potent liver- protective activity:
a. Zinc
b. Selenium
c. Iron
d. Copper
b. Selenium
Dosage of Ketamine in cats:
a. 200 mg/b.w.kg IM
b. 2 mg/b.w.kg IM
c. 0,2 mg/b.w.kg IM
d. 20 mg/b.w.kg IM
d. 20 mg/b.w.kg IM
Which application method is suitable for the treatment of a large number of poultry sick with fowl cholera?
a. medicated fog
b. oral powder dispensed in the feedstuff
c. oral powder dispensed in drinking water
d. intramuscular injection
c. oral powder dispensed in drinking water
The major part of the text must be in the veterinarian’s own handwriting:
a. Prescription for medicated feedstuff (PMF)
b. Label
c. Legislation on requisition
d. Prescription
c. Legislation on requisition
Intravenous anesthetic with the important side effect of adrenocortical suppression:
a. Etomidate
b. Propofol
c. Medetomidine- Ketamine
d. Thiopental
a. Etomidate
For which dosage form is sterility the most significant attribute?
a. nasal drops
b. shampoo
c. eye drops
d. ear drops
c. eye drops
Selective COX2- inhibitor:
a. Metamizole
b. Piroxicam
c. Firocoxib
d. Acetyl- salicylic acid
c. Firocoxib
When used alone as an anticoccidial agent it can cause heat stress in chickens hence not suitable for use in the summer months:
a. Narasin
b. Nicarbacine
c. Diclazuril
d. Halofuginone
b. Nicarbacine
Which of the following is not a perquisite for anesthesia?
a. total unconsciousness
b. somatic an visceral analgesia
c. muscle relaxation
d. preoperative antiinflammatory action
d. preoperative antiinflammatory action
It is intended for control of benign prostatic hyperplasia in male dogs, but its continuous administration can lead to bone marrow suppression:
a. Oestradiol
b. Cabergoline
c. Medroxyprogesterone acetate
d. Proligestone
a. Oestradiol
This drug - because of its strong cycloplegic properties – can be applied as an eye drop in uveitis to decrease pain:
a. Atropine
b. Tetracaine
c. Pilocarpine
d. Procaine
a. Atropine
Which drug would you apply for the treatment of horse- botfly- larval infestation (gasterophilosis)?
a. Foxim pour on
b. Fenbendazole orally
c. spraying with Amitraz
d. Moxidectin orally
d. Moxidectin orally
Which of the following antibiotics would you apply in an animal with severe renal impairment?
a. Doxycycline
b. Gentamicin
c. Tobramycin
d. Enrofloxacin
d. Enrofloxacin
Provitamin, well documented to direct act on reproduction function of large animals
a. Vitamin B
b. Vit D
c. Vit K
d. Carotene
d. Carotene
In adult female rabbit it provokes oestrus
a. Dinoprost
b. Gonadorelin
c. ?
d. ?
b. Gonadorelin
Potassium sparing diuretic:
a. Flurosamide
b. Mannit
c. Spironolacton
d. ??
c. Spironolacton
Cephalosporin against mycoplasma
?
NONE!
Uterotonic drug:
a. Clenbuterol
b. Cloprostenol
c. Ergot, Carbachol, Oxytocin, Carbetocin
d. ??
c. Ergot, Carbachol, Oxytocin, Carbetocin
Sedative decreases body temperature, thus contraindicated in dehydrated animals:
a. Butorphan
b. Diazepam
c. Acepromazin
d. ???
c. Acepromazin
Dose of Ionophores:
a. Maduramycin 5 mg/food kg
b. Salino 10 mg/food kg 60
c. Monensin 17 mg/b.w.kg 100
d. Calsal 16 mg/food kg
a. Maduramycin 5 mg/food kg
Benzimidazol used for pigs and chickens in the industry:
a. Flubendazol
b. Albendazol
c. Thiabendazol
d. Triclabendazol
a. Flubendazol
This anthelmetic drug has very small oral bioavailability, but is highly effective in horses against nematodes in the large bowel, because of the high enough concentration there:
a. Triolabendazole
b. Praziquantel
c. Closantel
d. Pyrantel
d. Pyrantel
A frequent combination partner of nicarbazine:
a. Diclazuril
b. Narasin
c. Amprolium
d. Lazalocid
b. Narasin
Its administration is practically free from major side effects, rarely may cause allergy:
a. Dinoprost
b. Medroxyprogesterone acetate
c. Oestradiol
d. HcG
d. HcG
Which of the following are NOT water soluble bases?
a. wool fat
b. sunflower oil
c. Neither of these
d. both of them
d. both of them
Which technology is appropriate for achieving a pulsatile release of an active substance in a bolus?
a. expanding matrix
b. insoluble matrix
c. chip- controlled diaphragm
d. OROS
c. chip- controlled diaphragm
Necessary amount of chlorinated lime for disinfection of drilled wells:
a. 100 g/1 m 3 water
b. 30 g
c. 100 g
d. 30 g/1 m 3 water
c. 100 g
Antibacterial drug with bactericidal mode of action:
a. Erythromycin
b. Spectinomycin
c. Lincomycin
d. Gentamicin
d. Gentamicin
Antibacterial drug with bactericidal mode of action:
a. Erythromycin
b. Spectinomycin
c. Lincomycin
d. Gentamicin
d. Gentamicin
Polipeptide antibiotic, when it is applied in injection can be highly neuro- and nephrotoxic: A. Cefquinome B. Clavulanic acid C. Colistin sulphate D. Penethamat
C. Colistin sulphate
Its mode of action is coccidiostatic. It is active against second generation schizonts: A. Narasin B. Salinomycin C. Clopidol D. Sulfachloropyrazine
D. Sulfachloropyrazine
Which is characteristic to thiopental?
A. It induces total unconsciousness for a very short time.
B. It produces excellent analgesic effect
C. It has a long duration of action (30-60 minutes)
D. It is rapidly eliminated from the body
A. It induces total unconsciousness for a very short time.
Appropriate for the treatment of enteritis caused by E.coli and Salmonellae: A. Erythromycin B. Bacitracin C. Phenoxymethyl-penicillin D. Gentamicin
D. Gentamicin
The amoxicillin-clavulanic acid combination is ineffective against: A. Staphylococcus aureus B. E.Coli C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. Pasteurella multocida
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
How did we measure the free hemoglobin content in the in vitro tissue irritation test?
A. Flourometric measurement
B. Luminometric measurement
C. Light absorbance at specific wavelength
D. Light absorbance at the full spectrum
C. Light absorbance at specific wavelength
This antibiotic can be used for the treatment of mastitis caused by penicillinase producing Staphylococcus aureus: A. Benzylpenicillin-Na B. Oxacillin C. Benzathine penicillin D. Penethamat
B. Oxacillin
Among the listed macrolides this one has cardiotoxic effect (e.g. in goats): A. Erythromycin B. Tilmicosin C. Azithromycin D. Tylosin
B. Tilmicosin
Which is characteristic to polypeptide antibiotics?
A. They are very effective for the treatment of respiratory tract infections
B. They are well absorbed after oral administration
C. They have bactericidal effect
D. They are very safe antibiotics given IM
C. They have bactericidal effect
Which bacterium is highly sensitive to Cephalexine? A. Clamidophila felis B. Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae C. Staph. pseudointermedius D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Staph. pseudointermedius
This antibiotic has very short lasting effect, it has to be applied IV approx. 6 times a day: A. Oxacillin B. Benzathine-penicillin C. Benzylpenicillin-Na D. Penethamat
C. Benzylpenicillin-Na
This antiprotozoal drug can be applied in food-producing mammals and birds: A. Metronidazole B. Ronidazole C. Furazolidone D. Halofuginone
D. Halofuginone
The lowest man power requirement is during the external mass-treatment by application A. Pour on B. Spraying C. Spot on D. Washing
B. Spraying
Among the listed Aminoglycosides this agent is active against Pseudomonas aeruginosa: A. Spectinomycin B. Amikacin C. Neomycin D. Apramycin
B. Amikacin
Recommended application routes for the treatment of sick swine with elevated body temperature:
A. Only medicated water
B. Medicated water or parenteral treatment
C. Only parenteral treatment
D. None of these are true
B. Medicated water or parenteral treatment
What is the main side of blood taking in chicken? A. Vena saphena B. Vena antebrachii C. Vena auricularis D. Vena brachialis
B. Vena antebrachii
Procaine-benzyl penicillin is ineffective against: A. E.coli B. Streptococcus pyogenes C. Bacillus anthracis D. Pasteurella multocida
A. E.coli
23. Which of the listed materials is less sensitive to the presence of organic material remnants? A. Iodine containing agents B. Hypochlorates C. Tensides D. Aldehydes
C. Tensides
Where should the test material be applied in case of the tissue irritation test? A. Large muscles B. Per os C. Under the skin of the ear D. Intraosseal
A. Large muscles
This ionophore antibiotic is less subject to development of cross-resistance: A. Monensin B. Salinomycin C. Lasalocid D. Narasin
C. Lasalocid.
Cross resistance among monovalent ionophores, Lasalocid is divalent
NOT appropriate for the treatment of mastitis caused by penicillinase-producing Staphylococcus aureus: A. Oxacillin B. Cefalexin C. Penethamat D. Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid
Penethamat? Can be used for Staph but not penicillinase producing…
ß-lactam antibiotic suitable for the treatment of Pseudomonas aeruginosa urinary tract infection: A. Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid B. Cefalexin C. Cefuroxim D. Piperazillin-tazobactam
D. Piperazillin-tazobactam
Among the Quinolone carboxylic acid derivates this agent is important in veterinary medicine but it is licensed for human use: A. Marbofloxacin B. Ciprofloxacin C. Ibafloxacin D. Enrofloxacin
B. Ciprofloxacin
What is the main side of blood taking in chicken? A. Vena saphena B. Vena antebrachii C. Vena auricularis D. Vena brachialis
B. Vena antebrachii
Which of these is a parenteral application route? A. None of these B. Oral C. Buccal D. Intraruminal (with tube)
A. None of these
This group has a very low therapeutic index. Mammals, above all horses and dogs, are extremely sensitive: A. Triazone derivates B. Pentavalent antimony compounds C. Ionophore antibiotics D. Sulphonamides
C. Ionophore antibiotics
Frequently occurring active substances in ear drops, eye drops: A. Penicillin, Enrofloxacin B. Tylosine, Gentamycin C. Neomycin, Gentamycin D. Cefovecin, Ciprofloxacin
C. Neomycin, Gentamycin
This Macrolide is NOT intended for the treatment of young foals: A. Tylosin B. Azithromycin C. Erythromycin D. Clarithromycin
A. Tylosin
Aminoglycoside that is active against Mycoplasma: A. Lincomycin B. Streptomycin C. Neomycin D. Spectinomycin
D. Spectinomycin
First generation Cephalosporins, it cannot be applied orally, in veterinary medicine frequently used in intramammary infusions: A. Cefquinome B. Cefapirin C. Cefalexin D. Cefoperazone
B. Cefapirin
In which animal species might intraosseous administration a high significance? A. Chinchilla B. Goat C. Swine D. Horse
D. Horse / A. Chinchilla (e.g. tibia of small animals like hamster and guinea pig for drug
administration)
This penicillin antibiotic has long acting effect applied IM: A. Oxacillin B. Benzylpenicillin-Na C. Penethamat D. Benzathine-penicillin
D. Benzathine-penicillin
Because of its pharmacokinetic profile it is not recommended for treatment of urinary tract infections: A. Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid B. Doxycycline C. Gentamicin D. Enrofloxacin
Enrofloxacin - only CIA! 1st choice Amoxicillin
This antiseptic is NOT used for mammary gland disinfection: A. Chlorhexidine B. Sodium hypochloride C. Bradophen D. Povidone iodine
B. Sodium hypochloride
Used: Chlorhexidine, Bradophen, Povidone iodine
This anti-mycoplasmal agent can be concomitantly used with Monensin: A. Erythromycin B. Doxycycline C. Tylosin D. Tiamulin
D. Tiamulin ?
Which Tetracycline would you recommend to an animal with renal failure? A. Chlortetracycline B. Oxytetracycline C. Tetracycline D. Doxycycline
D. Doxycycline
Usually which is the experimental animal in case of „hot plate“ test? A. Mouse B. Dog C. Cat D. Rabbit
A. Mouse
Antifungal drug that is active against Malassezia pachydermatis: A. Streptomycin B. Clotrimazole C. Griseofulvin D. Vincristin
B. Clotrimazole
This antibiotic inhibits the cell wall synthesis of bacteria, due to its high nephrotoxicity it is used only topically or orally: A. Penethamat B. Bacitracin zinc C. Oxacillin D. Cefapirin
B. Bacitracin zinc
Anticoccidal with Cidal - (killing) effect: A. Clopidol B. Monensin C. Robenidine D. Sulphachloropyrazine
B. Monensin
The antibiotics in this groups bound to the 30s subunit of the bacterial ribosome they interact with protein synthesis: A. Aminopenicillins B. Polimyxins C. Aminoglycosides D. Narrow spectrum penicillins
C. Aminoglycosides
Imidazole antifungal that can be used only locally: A. Fluconazole B. Itraconazole C. Enilconazole D. Terbinafine
C. Enilconazole
Which of the following is the least toxic aminoglycoside? A. Tobramycin B. Spectinomycin C. Neomycin D. Gentamicin
B. Spectinomycin
Which of the following antibacterials would you apply in an animal with severe renal impairment? A. Doxycycline B. Gentamicin C. Tobramycin D. Enrofloxacin A
A. Doxycycline
Necessary amount of chlorinated lime for disinfection of dug wells: A. 100g B. 30g C. 100g / m(hoch3) water D. 30g / 1m(hoch3) water
D. 30g / 1m(hoch3) water
Not bactericidal antibiotic: A. Ampicillin B. Marbofloxacin C. Erythromycin D. Neomycin
C. Erythromycin
Not bactericidal antibiotic: A. Doxycycline B. Gentamicin C. Amoxicillin D. Enrofloxacin
A. Doxycycline
What kind of materials can we use for disinfection of stables if animals are in the building? A. None of them B. Surfactants C. Both of them D. Chloramines
B. Surfactants
Administration of this drug to herbivorous rodents is NOT recommended because of the risk of dysbacteriosis? A. Gentamicin B. Clindamycin C. Sulfamethoxasole D. Enrofloxacin
B. Clindamycin
Administration of this drug to herbivorous rodents is NOT recommended because of the risk of dysbacteriosis? A. Sulfadimidine B. Spectinomycin C. Enrofloxacin D. Lincomycin
D. Lincomycin
Antifungal drug that is active ..........(against dermatophytes) A. Fluconazole B. Nystatin C. Griseofulvin D. Enilconazole
C. Griseofulvin
This anti fungal can be used for treating fungal infections of the cornea, it is not irritant for the eye: A. Amphothericin B. Natamycin C. Chlorhexidine D. Acriflavine
B. Natamycin
Vehicle in licking stones which my have growth-promoting abilities in ruminants: A. Bentonite B. Bismuth-subgallate C. Light kaolin D. Activated charcoal
A. Bentonite
Hypocalcaemia can occur with the IV administration of this antibiotic: A. Oxytetracycline B. Gentamicin C. Enrofloxacin D. Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid
A. Oxytetracycline
Bacterial susceptibility to certain antibiotics is usually determined with this method: A. PCR B. Macrobroth dilution method C. Disc-diffusion method D. ELISA
C. Disc-diffusion method
In case of risk septicemia in swine which drug would you apply in medicated water? A. Gentamicin B. Enrofloxacin C. ? D. ?
B. Enrofloxacin
Its absorption after oral administration is very limited thus it is a good choice for the treatment of enteric infections given orally: A. Neomycin B. Amoxicillin C. Enrofloxacin D. Sulfamethoxasole
A. Neomycin
Locally & systemically available anti fungal drug: A. Enilkonazole B. Naftifine C. Terbinafine D. Acrifalvine
C. Terbinafine
Locally & systemically applicable anti fungal: A. Naftifine B. Enilconazole C. Thiabendazole D. Ketokonazole
D. Ketokonazole
Are the alcohol-based hand disinfectants allowed to be rinsed? A. Yes, but not necessary B. Yes, with water C. Yes, with sterile water D. No, it is prohibited
D. No, it is prohibited
Are the detergent-based hand disinfectants allowed to be rinsed before surgery? A. Yes, but not necessary B. No, it is prohibited C. Yes, with sterile water D. Yes, with water
C. Yes, with sterile water
Vehicle in licking stones which my have growth-promoting abilities in ruminants: A. Bentonite B. Bismuth-subgallate C. Light kaolin D. Activated charcoal
A. Bentonite
Its cardiovascular side effects are negligible: A. Xylazine B. Medetomidine C. Propofol D. Diazepam
D. Diazepam
Its cardiovascular side effects are negligible: A. Ketamine B. Etomidate C. Thiopental D. Propofol
B. Etomidate
This anthelmintic drug is safe also when it is used concomitantly with cholinesterase inhibitor compounds: A. Pyrantel B. Levamisole C. Flubendazole D. Piperazine
C. Flubendazole
Usual Dosage of Gentamicin: A. 25 mg/bwkg IM B. 2-4 mg/bwkg IM C. Each answer is incorrect D. 50 mg/bwkg IM
B. 2-4 mg/bwkg IM
What is the pharmacokinetic symbol of the theoretical plasma concentration maximum using the intravasal pharmacokinetic method? A. Ct B. C0 C. Cmaxcc D. Cmax
B. C0
In the form of a sterile product it can also be given slowly as an IV infusion: A. Tincture B. Micro-suspension C. Suspension D. Emulsion
B. Micro-suspension
Which organ is usually ..... systemic antifungals are administered for a prolonged period? A. Liver B. Skin C. Kidney D. Eye
A. Liver
What method was used for the measurement of the active substance in our pharmacokinetic investigation with chicken? A) GC B) Spectrophotometric C) HPLC D) Microbiological
B) Spectrophotometric
In the majority of animals this Vitamin is not essential: A. Vit E B. Vit K C. Vit B12 D. Vit C
D. Vit C
59. A general anaesthetic with a narrow therapeutic margin: A. Thiopental B. Etomidate C. Propofol D. Ketamine
A. Thiopental
It has poor penetration into the CNS therefore it is less sedative than the other three substances: A. Hidroxyzine B. Cetirizine C. Chloropyramine D. Cyproheptadine
B. Cetirizine
Long term administration of this laxative drug can lead to the paralysis of plexus myentericus: A. Aloe B. Liquid paraffin C. Magnesium sulphate D. Lactulose
A. Aloe
What is meant by a residual drug?
A. The drug metabolites remaining in the meat and other food products from the animal treated
with the given pharmaceutical product.
B. The total amount of the agent remaining in the meat and other food products from the animal
treated with the pharmaceutical product.
C. The total amount of the agent and its metabolites remaining in the meat of the animal
treated with the given pharmaceutical product.
D. The total amount of the agent and its metabolites remaining in the meat and food products of
the animal treated with the given pharmaceutical product
The total amount of the agent and its metabolites remaining in the meat and food products of
the animal treated with the given pharmaceutical product
Anticoccidial, can be administered via drinking water: A. Diclazuril B. Toltrazuril C. Monensin D. Clopidal
B. Toltrazuril
What is the pharmacokinetic symbol of the area under the concentration-time curve from zero up to ... after single administration? A. AUC B. MRT C. C0 D. AUC..
A. AUC
Systemic endectocide which is active against fleas and also roundworms: A. Pyriprol B. Fipronil C. Selamectin D. Foxim
C. Selamectin
This anthelmintic drug is not safe enough, when it is used concomitantly with cholinesterase inhibitor compounds: A. Praziquantel B. Closantel C. Levamisole D. Albendazole
C. Levamisole
Dosage of Xylazine in Cattle
0,05 - 0,2 mg/ kg bw IM
It is quite effective against pseudopregnancy in bitches, it may cause emesis: A. Cabergoline B. Oestradiol C. Medroxyprogesterone acetate D. Proligestone
A. Cabergoline
Which of the following are water-soluble bases? A. Wax B. Vaseline C. None of these D. Gelatine
D. Gelatine
A dosage form appropriate for the preparation of medicated feed stuff: A. Oral solution B. OROS C. WSP D. Premix
D. Premix
The antibiotics in this group inhibit the cell wall synthesis of bacteria and they are active against E.coli: A. Polymixins B. Narrow spectrum penicillins C. Aminopenicillins D. Aminoglycosides
C. Aminopenicillins
In the case of keratoconjunctivitis SICCA this substance supplied in an eye drop may enhance tear production: A. Procaine B. Tetracaine C. Pilocarpine D. Atropine
C. Pilocarpine
Among the listed Macrolides following a single application this one has high concentration and
long action (6-8 days) in bronchial fluid:
A. Azithromycin
B. Tylosin
C. Erythromycin
D. Tulathromycin
D. Tulathromycin
Which juvenile hormone analogue can be applied in salt lick blocks? A. Flubendazole B. Fenthion C. Metoprene D. Fipronil
C. Metoprene
Sedative drug with no analgesic properties, but it potentiates the effect of analgesics? A. Acepromazine B. Medetomidine C. Buprenorphine D. Xylazine
A. Acepromazine
Dosage of Medetomidine in cats
50-150 microgramm/ kg IV IM
Which drug can be used as a premedication to reverse the cardiovascular actions of Xylazine? A. Flumazenile B. Glycopyrrolate C. Xylometazoline D. Naloxone
B. Glycopyrrolate
A general anaesthetic with a broad therapeutic margin, although its administration might induce cardiovascular side effects or apnea: A. Alfaxalon-Alfadolon B. Propofol C. Etomidate D. Thiopental
B. Propofol
Systemic antifungal drug that can be applied safely also in cats A. Griseofulvin B. Itraconazole C. Enilconazole D. Naftifine
B. Itraconazole
Frequently applied substances in a form of oral gel or oral paste to horses: A. Broad spectrum penicillins B. Anthelmintics C. Parasympathomimetics D. Parasympatholytics
B. Anthelmintics
In which animal species are the local tolerance studies performed most frequently? A. Rabbit B. Beagle C. Mouse D. Rat
A. Rabbit
This coccidiostatic is a pyrimidine derivate, acts as competitive agent of Vitamin B1: A. Clopidol B. Halofuginone C. Decoquinate D. Amprolium
D. Amprolium
Which is characteristic to polypeptide antibiotics?
A. They are very effective for the treatment of respiratory tract inf
B. They are well absorbed after oral administration
C. They are very safe antibiotics given intramuscularly
D. They have bactericidal effect
D. They have bactericidal effect
Mechanism of action of Carbamate insecticidals:
A. Inhibition of cholinesterase enzyme
B. Agonist of Octopamine receptors
C. Inhibition of Na+ Channels
D. Stimulation of Glutamate mediated Cl Channels
A. Inhibition of cholinesterase enzyme
This is obligatory when drugs are supplied to owners by vets:
A. Prescription for medicated feed stuff (PMF)
B. Label
C. Legislation on requisition
D. Veterinary record for controlled drugs
B. Label
What kind of treatment was used for the pharmacokinetic investigation during the semester? A. Per os B. Intramuscular C. Intravenous D. Subcutaneous
C. Intravenous
When supplying this drug, one copy of which of the following has to be kept by the registered feed compounder?
A. Special prescription
B. Prescription
C. Prescription for Medicated Feedstuff (PMF)
D. Legislation on requisition
C. Prescription for Medicated Feedstuff (PMF) ?
This substance is not used on its own because of the low achieved plasma concentrations A. Benzathine-penicillin B. Procaine-penicillin C. Amoxicillin D. Benzylpenicillin
A. Benzathine-penicillin
Which active substances can be used as a combination in cats for the treatment of flea- infestation? A. Flumethrin + propoxur in a collar B. Permethrin + Piriproxifen spot on C. Imidacloprid + Permethrin spot on D. Fipronil + Methropen spot on
D. Fipronil + Methropen spot on
Antifungal drug that is active in the case of dermatomycosis, can be teratogenic: A. Griseofulvin B. Enilconazole C. Nystatin D. Fluconazole
A. Griseofulvin
Which of the below mentioned organisms are susceptible to the tetracyclines? A. Mycoplasmae, Borreliae, Rickettsiae B. Chlamydiae, Coccidiae C. Mycobacteria, Mycoplasmae D. Coccidia, Pseudomonas
A. Mycoplasmae, Borreliae, Rickettsiae
Some of them require safe custody: A. Prescription only medicines (POM) B. Pharmacy and merchant list medicines (PML) C. General sale list medicines (GSL) D. Pharmacy medicines (P)
A. Prescription only medicines (POM)
Which of the following is the approved name of the drug? A. None of these B. Amoxicillin C. Amoxysol inj A.U.V D. 7-amino-3methyl blabla
B. Amoxicillin
This aminoglycoside is not used on its own (alone) because of the widespread resistance: A. Gentamicin B. Neomycin C. Streptomycin D. Spectinomycin
C. Streptomycin
Well absorbed from the nasal mucosa of sows, can be applied in MMA syndrome (metritis mastitis agalactia) A. Lidocaine B. Cortison C. Adrenaline D. Oxytocin
D. Oxytocin
What is the pharmacokinetic symbol of the apparent volume of distribution? A. B B. Clb C. Vd D. MRT
C. Vd
Which compound forms (as byproduct) in the demethylation reaction of Dextromethorphan? A. Formaldehyde B. Acetylacetone C. Ammonium-acetate D. Trichloroacetic-acid
A. Formaldehyde
First Generation Cephalosporin, it is applied orally and parenterally as well: A. Cefoperazone B. Cefquinome C. Cefalexin D. Cefapirin
C. Cefalexin
Which of the following is a characteristic of creams? A. Higher water content B. None of these C. Higher dry material content D. Higher lipid content
A. Higher water content
This aminoglycoside is not used on its own (alone) because of the widespread resistance: A. Gentamicin B. Neomycin C. Streptomycin D. Spectinomycin
C. Streptomycin
Which ß lactam acts against chlamidophila? A. None of these B. Cefquinom C. Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid D. Piperacillin-tazobactam
A. None of these
This drug is contraindicated in animals with diabetes mellitus because it can cause hyperglycemia: A. Acepromazine B. Xylazine C. Diazepam D. Apomorphine
B. Xylazine
The most effective macrolide for the treatment of swine dysentery: A. Tilmicosin B. Tulathromyicin C. Erythromycin D. Tylvalosin
D. Tylvalosin
Which of the following CANNOT be an attribute of ointments?
A. Does not contain solid particles
B. Homogenous
C. Dissolves at body temperature
D. Cocoa butter can be used as vehicle base
C. Dissolves at body temperature
Appropriate as an antidote for Xylazine and Medetomidine: A. FLumazenile B. Atipamezole C. Sarmazenile D. Fluanisone
B. Atipamezole
Among the listed agents this one is the most effective against Brachyspira hyodysenteriae: A. Doxycycline B. Tiamulin C. Erythromycin D. Tylosin
B. Tiamulin
This benzimidazole anthelmintic frug can be used in porcine and chicken industry as well: A. Triclabendazole B. Thiabendazole C. Flubendazole D. Albendazole
C. Flubendazole
Its cardiovascular side effects are negliable:
a. Xylazine
b. Medetomidine
c. Propofol
d. Diazepam
d. Diazepam
Dosage of Prednisolone in shock
20-30 IV
In the case of Fentanyl overdosage, which of the following substances can be used? A. Naloxone B. Atipamezole C. Yohimbine D. Flumazenile
A. Naloxone
Dosage of Xylazine in dogs
1-2 IM, IV on its own
0.25-0.5 in combination
Its mode of action is coccidiostatic. It is ative against second generation schizonts: A. Narasin B. Salinomycin C. Clopidol D. Sulphacloropyrazine
D. Sulphacloropyrazine
It can provide super ovulation in donor cows during the embryo transfer process: A. Cabergoline B. EcG (PMSG) C. Oestradiol D. Cloprosterol
B. EcG (PMSG)
Which drug is prohibited in food-producing animals? A. Tylvalosin B. Florfenicol C. Chloramphenicol D. Tiamphenicol
C. Chloramphenicol
Its cardiovascular side effects are negliable:
a. Ketamine
b. Etomidate
c. Thiopental
d. Propofol
b. Etomidate
In this type of prescription the proprietary name of a veterinary licensed medicine is given:
a. Prescription on a prepared (magistral) medicine
b. Prescription of a formulated official medicine
c. Prescription of a human licensed medicine
d. Prescription of a veterinary licensed medicine
d. Prescription of a veterinary licensed medicine
Usual dosage of Gentamicin
a. 25 mg/b.w.kg IM
b. 2-4 mg/b.w.kg IM
c. 50 mg/b.w.kg IM
d. each answer is correct
b. 2-4 mg/b.w.kg IM
Locally and systemically available antifungal drug:
a. Acriflavine
b. Enilconazole
c. Naftifine
d. Terbinafine
d. Terbinafine
What is the pharmacokinetic symbol of the theoretical plasma concentration maximum using the intravasal pharmacokinetic model? a. C t b. C 0 c. C maxcc d. C max
b. C 0
Not active against Chlamidophilia:
a. Oxytetracycline
b. Enrofloxacin
c. Doxycyclin
d. Amoxicillin - Clavulinic acid
d. Amoxicillin - Clavulinic acid
Non water soluble vehicles?
a. Polysorbate
b. Methylcellulose
c. None of them
d. Both of them
c. None of them
The lowest man-power requirement is during the internal mass-treatment by an application of:
a. Bolus
b. Medicated water
c. Injection
d. Drench
b. Medicated water
When using classic neuroleptanalgesia the following substances are applied:
a. Benzodiazepine + Ketamine
b. Tranqualizer + Ketamine
c. α-2 aginist + opioid
d. Tranqulizer + Opiate
d. Tranqulizer + Opiate
PO usual dosage of Cefalexin:
a. Not intended for PO application
b. 1.5 mg/b.w.kg daily 2x
c. 15 mg/b.w.kg daily 1x
d. 15 mg/b.w.kg daily 2x
d. 15 mg/b.w.kg daily 2x
Pregnant females and those with asthma should wear protective gloves during the administration of: a. Oestradiol b. HcG c. Fertilerin d. Dinoprost
d. Dinoprost
Which of the following information is not included in the european pharmacopeia?
a. Reagents
b. Scientific method
c. Dosage forms
d. Side effects of drug
d. Side effects of drug
Correct dosage for Butorphanol in dogs:
a. 0.06 mg/b.w.kg IV
b. 0.01 mg/b.w.kg IM
c. 1-4 mg/b.w.kg IV, IM
d. 0.1-0.4 mg/b.w.kg IV, IM
d. 0.1-0.4 mg/b.w.kg IV, IM
which drug has anti-progesterone effect?
a. ……
b. Fertilerin
c. …..
d. Aglepristone
d. Aglepristone
Which drug is used for the treatment of infections caused by anaerobic bacteria (e.g. foot rot):
a. Marbofloxacin
b. Gentamycin
c. Flymequin
d. Lincomycin
d. Lincomycin
Divalent Ionophor coccidiostatic drug?
a. Narasin
b. Lasalocid
c. Monensin
d. Salinomycin
b. Lasalocid
…. treating fungal infection of the cornea, it is a non irritant of the eye:
a. Natamycin
b. Chlorhexidine
c. Acriflavine
d. Amphotericin B
a. Natamycin
How many days can an open bottle of a drug be used:
a. 28 days
b. 21 days
c. 30 days
d. 50 days
a. 28 days
Not allowed for food producing animals:
a. Floramphenicol
b. Gentamycin
c. Chloramphenicol
d. Tilmicosin
c. Chloramphenicol
When applied as an ear drop this drug is active in otitis external caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa:
a. Bacitracin
b. Sulfadimidine
c. Neomycin
d. Polymixin-B
d. Polymixin-B
Inappropriate for the treatment of enteritis caused by E.coli and Salmonella:
a. Gentamycin
b. Collision
c. Bacitracin
d. Spectinomycin
c. Bacitracin
Anticoccidials alternating within one raising period of broilers:
a. Switch program
b. Full program
c. Rotation program
d. Shuttle program
d. Shuttle program
Which kind of effects can be expected when using ointments?
a. Local effect
b. Both local and systemic effect
c. Systemic effect
d. Neither
b. Both local and systemic effect
Which ingredient is missing from the hard capsule?
a. Glycerine
b. Gelatine
c. Agar
d. Water
a. Glycerine
Which of the followings is Phase II metabolism enzyme?
a. Aldehyde-dehydrogenase
b. Alcohol-dehydrogenase
c. Glutathione-S-Transferase
d. Monoamine oxidase
c. Glutathione-S-Transferase
Ectoparasitic with repellent activity:
a. Avermectins
b. Pirethroids
c. Formamidines
d. Milbemycins
b. Pirethroids
This phase of drug research procedures does not fall into the “preclinical” examination category:
a. Pharmacological investigation
b. Pharmacovigiliance
c. TMC test
d. Acute toxicity tests
b. Pharmacovigiliance
Procaine-benzypenicillin is ineffective against:
a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b. Mannheimia haemolytica
c. Erysopelothrix rhusiopathiae
d. Clostridium tetani
a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
The side effect of this drug on the cardiovascular system may …….. cause transient hypertension, then bradycardia and hypotension:
a. Metamizole
b. Medetomidine
c. Metomidate
d. Methadone
b. Medetomidine
Mechanism of action of pyrethroid insecticide.
a. inhibition of cholinesterase enzyme
b. stimulation of glutamate … channels
c. Opening of oclopamine receptors
d. Inhibition of Na channels…
d. Inhibition of Na channels…
Which is the method of preservation of resistance to coccidia in chicken?
a. Both of them
b. None of them
c. Rotation program
d. Shuffle program
a. Both of them
Tetracyclins are very active against:
a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b. E.coli
c. Brachyspira Hyodysenteriae
d. Borreliosis
d. Borreliosis
How many groups can medicinal substances be classified based on the MRL- value (earlier annex):
a. No classification based on the MRL value
b. Four
c. Three
d. Five
b. Four
Excellent substance for the treatment of E. coli meningitis: Procaine-penicillin Cefalexin Ceftriaxon Amoxicillin
Ceftriaxon
This anthelmintic drug is not safe enough, when it is used concomitantly with cholinesterase inhibitor compounds:
a. Closantel
b. Levamisole
c. Albendazole
d. Praziquantel
b. Levamisole
Procarcinogen, which by metabolism in the liver, is transformed into a mutagenic and carcinogenic compound?
a. Vincristine
b. Cyclophosphamide
c. Cyclosporine
d. Benzpyrene
d. Benzpyrene
Which effect is characteristic to phenothiazine tranquilizers?
a. They increase the fertility rate.
b. They have analgesic effect.
c. They have sedative effect.
d. They induce hypnosis.
c. They have sedative effect.
Among the quinolone carboxylic acid derivatives this agent does not contain fluorine:
a. Nalidixic acid
b. Flumequin
c. Ciprofloxacin
d. Norfloxacin
a. Nalidixic acid
This agent inhibits the bacterial folic acid synthesis by inhibition of dihydropteroate synthase:
a. Metronidazole
b. Sulfadimidine
c. Doxycycline
d. Lincomycin
b. Sulfadimidine
Which compound forms (as by product) in the demethylation reaction of dextromethorphan?
a. Ammonium-acetate
b. Trichloroacetic acid
c. Acetylacetone
d. Formaldehyde
d. Formaldehyde
Can be used for prevention of abortion due to toxoplasmosis in ewes:
a. Narasin
b. Halofuginone
c. Decoquinate
d. Salinomycin
c. Decoquinate
Frequently toxic in collies, causing paralysis in sensitive individuals:
a. Ivermectin
b. Levamisole
c. Amitraz
d. Selamectin
a. Ivermectin
Which drug is useful as a myometrial relaxant?
a. Altrenogest
b. Fertirelin
c. Clenbuterol
d. Luprostiol
c. Clenbuterol
In which case do you expect miosis in the eye when applying this drug in an eye?
a. Atropine
b. Tetracaine
c. Pilocarpine
d. Procaine
c. Pilocarpine
What is the CD written requisition?
a. None of these.
b. Records that contain the administered quality and quantity of the given CD.
c. A label on the package of a Schedule 2 or 3 drug.
d. An order form from a veterinarian to the pharmacist when Schedule 2 and 3 drugs are obtained.
d. An order form from a veterinarian to the pharmacist when Schedule 2 and 3 drugs are obtained.
Dosage of Metamisole Na (Noraminophenasone) in small animals:
a. 20-50 mg/b.w.kg IV/IM
b. 2-5 mg/b.w.kg IV/IM
c. 5 mg/b.w.kg PO
d. 20-50 μg/b.w.kg IV/IM
a. 20-50 mg/b.w.kg IV/IM
The antibiotics in this group disrupt the bacterial cell membrane, and they represent very fast bactericidal action (Quatenary ammonium disinfectant “tenside” like action):
a. Aminopenicillins
b. Aminoglycosides
c. Narrow spectrum penicillins
d. Polimyxins
d. Polimyxins
The adhesive of granules can be:
a. Saccharose
b. Pyridine
c. Lactose
d. Distilled water
d. Distilled water
Water soluble vitamin, with pronounced neuroprotective action:
a. Vitamin E
b. Vitamin B7
c. Vitamin B5
d. Vitamin B1
d. Vitamin B1
An osmotic laxative drug, but also used for the treatment of hepatic encephalopathy:
a. Sodium citrate
b. Magnesium sulphate
c. Lactulose
d. Sorbitol
c. Lactulose
It can be administered for the control of heart and voluntary muscle degeneration:
a. Vit. B7
b. Vit. E
c. Vit. B1
d. Vit. B6
b. Vit. E
Vehicle of licking stones which may have growth-promoting abilities in ruminants:
a. Activated charcoal
b. Bismuth-subgallate
c. Bentonite
d. Light caolin
c. Bentonite
This drug is NOT preferred for treatment of cats:
a. Diphenoxilate
b. Light caolin
c. Cimetidine
d. Diazepam
a. Diphenoxilate
Correct dosage of Ionophores
a. Salinomycin 10mg/kg feed
b. Monesin 17 mg/kg feed
c. Maduramycin 5mg/kg feed
d. Lasalocid 16mg/kg feed
d. Lasalocid 16mg/kg feed
What is the most ulcerogenic agent in dogs?
Diclofenac
Calcitriol decreases the urinary excretion of:
Phosphorus
A drug licensed for humans and included in Annex 1 and 3 administered to dairy cattle, should have a withdrawal period for milk for:
At least 7 days withdrawal period
Which matrices are examined in a residue analysis?
Edible tissues, milk, eggs and honey
At which of the below mentioned combinations do you expect the least respiratory depression?
Droperidol + Fentanyl
The most important toxicological properties of Gentamicin
Nephron –and ototoxic
This macrolide antibiotic can only be applied subcutaneously to cattle:
Tilmicosin
Dosage of Ivermectin in horse:
0.2 mg/kg body weight PO
Broad-spectrum anti-fungal drug that is active against yeasts, and dermatophyte alike:
Ketoconazole
It increases the liberation of prolactin, hence not suitable for administration to pseudopregnant animals:
Chlorpromazine
Which active substances can be used as a combination in cats for the treatment of flea-infestation?
Fipronil + Metropen spot-on
Which term is abbreviated by “MRL-value”?
Maximal residual drug concentration
Which drug would you use in cats for the prevention of tick-infestation?
Propoxur as a collar
This anti-emetic drug is an antagonist of neurokinin-1 receptors in the CNS:
Maropitant
Usually for mixing these types of drugs into the medicated feedstuff, commercial feed compounders, do not a prescription for the medicated feedstuff:
Pharmacy and Merchant List medicines (PML)
Its important side effects are bradycardia, pronounced respiratory depression and hypotension:
Fentanyl
Anti-fungal drug, that is active in the case of dermatomycosis, can be teratogenic?
Griseofulvin
This anti-helminthic drug is belonging into the group of Tetrahydropyrimidine:
Morantel
What does the abbreviation “GLP” stand for?
Good Laboratory Practice
Used in the eye as an anaesthetic:
Tetracaine
Premix prescription:
MFS
What is used to measure drug concentration in chicken practical?
Spectrophotometry
Sigmund test. What is used to stimulate pain?
Nail clippers
Which one has the least cardiovascular side effect?
Etomidate (Thiopental)
Which endocrine drug has few side effects, but allergy can be one?
HcG
Which is the 4th generation Cephalosporin?
Cefquinone
What is normally contraindicated with Tiamulin?
Ionophore antibiotics
Which anticoccidial drugs would you use in a rotation program to prevent coccidiosis in broilers?
Monensin-amprolium
Usually, which is the experimental animal in case of “hot plate” test:
Mouse
Can be given PO to an adult ruminant:
Fenbendazole
Anti-bacterial and anticoccidial drug, its long-term use can cause “haemorrhagic syndrome” in chickens:
Sulfaquinoxaline
Can the in-vivo (animal experiment) tissue irritation test substituted with any other…of experiment during the licensing process of a medicine?
No, it is obligatory to perform
Most frequently applied oral dosage form in horses:
Oral gel and oral paste
What is the advantage of combination of Xylazine and Ketamine?
Together they induce more analgesic effect than the substance alone
This drug is an inhibitor of β-lactamases:
Clavulanic acid
What is the most common intra-ruminal drug?
Pulsatile release bolus
What tranquilizer is less sedative due to penetration of BBB?
Promethazine
NSAID + anti-spasmolytic:
Metamizole + Butylscopolamine
Treatment of Candidiasis:
Chitin inhibitors
Treatment of mosquitoes, ants, beetles:
JHA Juvenile Hormone Analogues
Ectoparasitic toxic to fish:
Pyrethions, Synthetic pyrethrins
Preclinical phase consists of:
Pharmacological investigation, toxicity studies, user safety, target animal studies and toxicity test
Is polysorbate 20 water-soluble?
No
What to give for stressed animals?
Vitamin C
What drug is not suitable for herbivorous rodents?
Lincomycin and macrolides
Which one is insoluble in water?
Hydrous W/O
Treatment of Cushing Syndrome:
Trilostane
Pseudo-pregnancy:
Ergolines
Name some active drug against both larvae and adult worms?
Levamisole or Tetrahydropyrimidine
What do tetracycline work against?
Rickettsia, Borrelia, Mycoplasma and Chlamydia
Information about medicine in prescription for pharmacist:
Inscription
Feline asthma:
Zafirlukast and Terbutaline
Which is tetracycline sensitive?
Rodents, horses, puppies and kittens “ pregnancy, last trimester
Which of these drugs has no analgesic properties?
Chlorpromazine
Program not used in coccidian treatment in chicken?
Combined
What can you use as treatment of Candida infection?
Myostatin
Slowest acting NSAID?
Methazone, Flunixin, Megumin
Which part of drug development is not preclinical?
Field trails, pharmacovigilance
If no vet-licensed drug is available, what do we use?
Human licensed
What drug is not suitable for lower urinary tract infection?
Penicillins, Cephalosporins
What antibiotic causes yellow discoloration in puppies?
Oxy-tetracycline
What drug causes the least cardiovascular depression?
Diazepam
What is the most accurate dispensed?
Dispensed powders
What animal did we use in the practical for the pharmacokinetic investigations?
Chicken
What anti-helminthic is used in cows against warble flies?
Pour-on with Ops or Macrolides
What is found in the European Pharmacopeia?
Human medicine indications
What annex has no withdrawal period?
Annex 2
What drug has a pronounced ionotropic effect?
Pimobendan, Digitalis glycosides
What drug causes super-ovulation?
PMSG
What drug is contraindicated in glaucoma?
Atropine
What drug induces fertility after fertilization?
GnRH
Which drug can be used against swine dysentery both PO and IV?
Tiamulin
What Spot-On application is not used in cats?
Amitraz
What drug is used in the treatment of Haemorrhagic Synthesis in chicken?
Vitamin K
Which drug is used in the treatment of swine dysentery?
Tylvalosin, Lincomycin, Tiamulin and Tylosin
Diuretic:
Furosemide
What drug is used to treat Babesiosis?
Imido Camp dipropionate
Which antibiotic is toxic to rodents?
Lincomycin
Gentamycin is not effective if administered:
PO
What drug is for inducing oestrus?
Progesterone
What can cause dysbacteriosis in rodents?
Penicillin, Lincomycin, Tetracycline, Macrolides
Part of the toxicology studies:
Part 2
Which part of drug legislation contains clinical trails?
Part 3
What two drugs should be used in the switch program?
Ionophore and Thiazine
Pastes major component?
Over 40% powder: high solid content
What binds toxins including E. coli enterotoxins?
Activated charcoal
Some of these drugs require safe custody?
POM
What would you use against ticks in dogs?
Permethrin
Which one is used twice in one raising period?
Shuttle
Doxycycline is used against what disease?
Lyme disease
What kind of formulation is covered by a thin polymer layer?
Tablet
What anti-helminthic is used in the large colon of horse?
Pyrantel paste “ Tetrahydropyrimidine
What drug causes least pre-/post-excitation of inhalations?
Sevoflurane
What drug would you use in renal failure?
Cephalosporins “ Cefoperazone, Ceftriaxone, Cefador
What drug would you use in a urinary tract Infection?
Gentamycin
What bacteria are susceptible to Macrolides?
Mycoplasma, Brachyspira hydrosenteriae
What is the most significant quality requirement for injections?
Sterility
Partial agonist opiate, it is frequently combine with Medetomidine:
Butorphanol
Concentration of Amitraz as sheep dip:
0.025-0.05% solutions
This drug has severely harmful effect on the intestinal flora:
Enrofloxacin
In adult female rabbits, it will provoke oestrus regardless of the oestrus cycle:
Gonadorelin
Annex 1 definition:
Fixed MRL
Swine septicaemia treatment:
Enrofloxacin
What can you use as treatment of tuberculosis in humans?
Streptomycin
In which part of drug legislation is the clinical documentation?
Part 4
What is the dosage form free of particles?
Solution
It can be used to treat wells:
Both chlorinated lime + Sodium hypochloride
Not usually dipped:
Swine
Testing for drinking water:
0-24, room temperature
Propofol effect:
5-8 minutes
Where is the injection site, and how much should be injected in a mouse?
Caudal vein – 2mg/kg
Which can be used with no restriction?
General sales list
Best way to give de-wormer to horse?
Orally: paste or drench nasogastric tube
From the fastest to the slowest drug application methods:
IV – IM – SC – ID
Oily zinc suspension is a?
Oily suspension
Which of the following are water-soluble bases?
Gelatine
Which one is a narrow spectrum anti-helminthic?
Triclabendazol
