Written exam questions

Question 1

Currently, the city of PSL is divided into two regions, five districts, and ___ zones?

Answer 1

20 (200.022)
D1-D5 and 4 zones in each district

Question 2

It is recommended that the span of control for first line supervisors not exceed ___ subordinates?

Answer 2

9 (200.022)

Question 3

If an officer observes a deficiency during the pre-shift inspection of his patrol vehicle, he should ___ ?

Answer 3

Advise his supervisor immediately (200.012)

Question 4

Any delays from roll call attendance must be authorized by the ___?

Answer 4

Shift supervisor (200.023)

Question 5

Should traffic control be needed for an extended period of time at a crash scene, the shift supervisor well-arrange for officer relief every ____ hours.

Answer 5

Every two hours (252.030)

Question 6

Unless authorized by the shift supervisor, each officer will remain in his or her assigned zone and will not come to the station parking lot more than ___ prior to the completion of the shift?

Answer 6

15 minutes (200.023)

Question 7

The boundaries of the department’s current zones were drawn____?

Answer 7

With consideration to the natural boundaries with the city.

Question 8

Each squad within a field force will consist of ____sergeant(s), _____ officer(s) and _____ marked police unit(s).

Answer 8

One sergeant, seven officers, two (200.036)

Question 9

Crowd control formation consists of ___ squads when used as part of field force

Answer 9

Four (200.036)

Question 10

In determining whether or not to arrest an individual during a field force response, it is the responsibility of the ____, and only uded as a last resort.

Answer 10

Squad Sergeant (200.036)

Question 11

Any employee who observes another agency employee or other public safety associate, regardless of position or rank, using force that is clearly beyond what is objectively reasonable under the circumstances has a duty to____?

Answer 11

Intervene and take appropriate action in order to stop or attempt to stop the unreasonable force (710.IX)

Question 12

The two categories of immediate activity as defined within the department’s stratified model are ____ and _____?

Answer 12

Incidents and cases of interest (503.2.IV.A)

Question 13

For stress management purposes, a critical incident debriefing is usually conducted ___ a stressful event?

Answer 13

24-72 hours (612.IV.E)

Question 14

Within the stratified policing model, patrol sergeants are responsible for____?

Answer 14

Resolving immediate problems (503.2.IV.12.D)

Question 15

All requests for secondary employment must be renewed ____?

Answer 15

Annually (525.VI.C)

Question 16

A supervisor will be assigned to a extra duty detail if ____ or more officers are required, or if specifically requested by the employer requesting the detail.

Answer 16

Five (528.VIII.C)

Question 17

Special assignment vacancies will be announced at least ____ prior to the commencement of the selection process.

Answer 17

10 days (602.V.B.3)

Question 18

T/F- Verbal Counseling is considered a disciplinary action?

Answer 18

False - (630.V)

Question 19

All receipts from travel away from PSL on city business are due ___ after the employee returns to work?

Answer 19

Two working days (624.X.A)

Question 20

Prompted employees shall be evaluated in writing by the promoting authority prior to the completion of approximately ____ of service in their new position and then annually on their new classification date?

Answer 20

90 days (604.V.D.)

Question 21

The CISM coordinator will follow up with the supervisor and or persons involved in the incident ____ days after the critical incidents to assure that any prolonged or delayed difficulties are addressed?

Answer 21

14 (612.VI.E)

Question 21

T/F- Active force is a type of force utilized by the PSLPD officers?

Answer 21

Fale (710.IV)

Question 22

Repeat incidents are defined as three or more criminal or quality of life incidents that have occurred at the same place within a ____ period?

Answer 22

28 day (503.2.IV.B.1)

Question 23

T/F- First line supervisors have the authority to administer extensions of the probationary period?

Answer 23

False (630.IV.C.2.b)

Question 24

An employe offered the opportunity to enter into the CDP in lieu of discipline has ____ to accept the chief’s offer?

Answer 24

Five days (632.V.E.)

Question 25

A subject balling up their fist and approaching an officer would be considered?

Answer 25

Active resistance (710. Appendix A)

Question 26

All line supervisors shall conduct ___ line inspections to verify the compliance and effect of frequent and irregular inspections.

Answer 26

Semiannual (640.1.V.A.2)

Question 27

Any deliberate incident that poses an immediate or imanant danger to the lives of others is deemed ___?

Answer 27

Active threat (750.1.IV.B)

Question 28

It is the injured employee's responsibility to immediately report an injury that occur on the job to ____ and complete the injury form?

Answer 28

His/Her supervisor (641.IV.A)

Question 29

What are the 4 crime pattern types as identified in the department's stratified policing model?

Answer 29

Series, Sprees, hotspots, and Compound problems (503.2.IV.B.2.f)

Question 30

All BWC equipment will be inspected?

Answer 30

During semiannual line inspections (924.1.VI.D.2)

Question 31

An employe who observes another employee using unreasonable force should notify ___ as soon as possible following the incident

Answer 31

Appropriate supervisory personnel (710.IX)

Question 32

The department's complaint review board consists of ____ members?

Answer 32

Five (633.IV)

Question 33

The use of special impact munitions for crowd control management must be authorized by?

Answer 33

A supervisor (710.XI.E)

Question 34

Short term crime problems are considered successfully resolved when there have been no further incidents report within a ____ period?

Answer 34

Fourteen days (503.2.V.B.7)

Question 35

T/F - A supervisor should respond to all use of force incidents.

Answer 35

True (710.XVIII)

Question 36

If an employee has a performance issue that will result in an overall rating of less than satisfactory on his/her annual performance eval, the eval and benefits contingent upon a satisfactory eval will be delayed allowing the employee to have up to ____ days to improve his/her performance to a satisfactory level.

Answer 36

90 days (604.VI.8)

Question 37

A subject grabbing any part of an officer’s body would be considered ____ resistance?

Answer 37

Aggressive resistance (710.Apendix A)

Question 38

Training regarding the employee assistance program and EAP referral procedures will be provided to employees ___?

Answer 38

Upon their promotion to their new position (611.VIII)

Question 39

Unless circumstances or the responsible supervisor dictate otherwise, a pursuit shall consist of no more than two police vehicles, all other personnel will?

Answer 39

Stay clear of the pursuit unless instructed to participate (730.X.B.5)

Question 40

An officer who receives a traffic citation while off duty, and operating his/her personal vehicle must ____?

Answer 40

Must report to chief by chain of command in writing within 24 hours (730.1.V.K)

Question 41

The _ shall provide the chief of police, and other command staff personnel,both first line and middle line, with a means of routinely assessing the department’s efficiency and effectiveness as well as provide information or current and future planning?

Answer 41

Staff inspection (800.3.III)

Question 42

T/F- The general response guidelines for active threat incidents include risk management?

Answer 42

False (750.1.VI.A0

Question 43

T/F- it is the shift supervisor's duty to request a clear radio traffic channel?

Answer 43

False (751.VII.B.1)

Question 44

T/F- Personnel is one of the five functional areas of incident command systems (ICS)?

Answer 44

False (752.III)

Question 45

The ___ is the oral or written plan that contains objectives reflecting the overall incident strategy and specific tactical actions and supporting information for the operational period?

Answer 45

Inciden Action Plan (IAP) (752.III)

Question 46

T/F Officer input is a component of the departments force guidelines?

Answer 46

False (710.appendix A)

Question 47

It shall be the policy of the PSLPD to inform all victims and witnesses of their rights by the use of a victim rights brochure which includes information about _____ and has been reviewed and approved by the officer of the governor as required by law?

Answer 47

Marcy’s Law (821.II)

Question 48

T/F- It is the responsibility of a supervisor who has responded to a use of force incident to take photographs of any visible injuries reported or sustained by the individuals at the scene.

Answer 48

False- UCI/THI (710.XVIII)

Question 49

Officers who fail to activate the BWC when required will notify their immediate supervisor as soon as practicable but definitely ___?

Answer 49

By the end of their shift of occurrence.

Question 50

Probation for bargaining unit members may be extended up to a maximum of____ at the discretion of the chief of police or his designee?

Answer 50

90 days (pg. 36)

Question 51

The purpose of the corrective diversion process is to ___?

Answer 51

Support the goal of employee accountability (Appendix C

Question 52

Each bargaining unit member shall be allotted ___ to make his or her shift selection during the shift bid process?

Answer 52

24 hours (Pg. 15)

Question 53

No more than ____ bargaining unit members per shift will be off on any combination of comp or vacation time?

Answer 53

Four (Pg. 15

Question 54

Any grievance not answered by management within the prescribed time limits shall

Answer 54

Automatically advance to the next step (Pg. 46) Officer's responsibility

Question 55

Bargaining unit members shall be physically fit for duty 24 hour per day during their on-call status and be in service within ___ after being contacted?

Answer 55

45 minutes (Pg. 16)

Question 56

The City reserves the right ____ to request any bargaining unit member to take a drug test and or controlled substance test with a showing of reasonable suspicion?

Answer 56

At any time (Pg.18)

Question 57

Supervisor assignments with a civilian ride along are limited to ____ hours per shift?

Answer 57

Four hours (Pg. 23)

Question 58

All absences of more than ___ days of shifts may require verification of illness or disability from a physician prior to or upon return to duty?

Answer 58

Three (Pg. 32)

Question 59

Bargaining unit members are not permitted to take more than ____ of annual leave in any six-month period without permission of the police chief or designee.

Answer 59

20 days (pg. 33)

Question 60

Upon mutual agreement of the parties, forfeiture of up to ____ hours of accrued vacation leave and or comp time may be substituted in lieu of a suspension without pay?

Answer 60

80 hours (Pg. 44)

Question 61

Prior to the effective date of discipline, the bargaining unit member may request a name clearing hearing to be held within ___ working days of the request?

Answer 61

Five (Pg. 45)

Question 62

A bargaining unit member may carry over a maximum of ___ hours of annual leave from one fiscal year to the next?

Answer 62

360 hours (pg. 33)

Question 63

Written reprimands will be considered expired if the bargaining unit member is not disciplined____?

Answer 63

Prior to completion of the second annual evaluation subsequent to the reprimand (pg. 44)

Question 64

Employees enter the corrective diversion process for a period of ____?

Answer 64

180 days (pg. Appendix C)

Question 65

Case Law- The concepts of police dominated atmosphere is more closely associated with the US supreme court ruling in.

Answer 65

Orozco v. Texas LG61

Question 66

A person whose behavior when seen by an officer leads that officers to believe the person is mentally ill and will be a danger to himself or others would meet the criteria for a ________?

Answer 66

Baker Act LG 78

Question 67

T/F - Justifiableness is one of the three major exceptions to the general rule that one may not legally touch or injury another person?

Answer 67

False (LG 106-107)

Question 68

In cases where no court order exists to determine custody of a child, and one parent is attempting to leave with the child, but not flee the jurisdiction, the responding officer should?

Answer 68

Maintain the status quo LG 17

Question 69

Under normal circumstances, Florida voters may not be solicited inside or within __feet within polling places?

Answer 69

150 feet (LG 39)

Question 70

91. Florida law requires that BWC records be retained for a period of ___?

Answer 70

90 days (LG17)

Question 71

With regard to identification confrontations, it is suggested that the observations of the suspect, in the vast majority of cases, should not be conducted more than ___ after the crime occurred?

Answer 71

Four hours (Lg 58)

Question 72

One spouse may consent to the search of the other spouse's property only if?

Answer 72

The consenter has joint access to or control over the property at that time (Lg 93.94)

Question 73

A child can be taken into custody for a misdemeanor only if?

Answer 73

The offense was committed in the presence of the officer (lg 62)

Question 74

T/F- A child's family must approve of the issuance in order to activate a missing child alert?

Answer 74

False

Question 75

T/F - "Stop right there, don't move!" is most likely to be seen as a stop as opposed to a consensual encounter?

Answer 75

True- (LG84)

Question 76

A search will be valid as incident to an arrest as long as ___?

Answer 76

The search area was within the arrestee’s immediate control (Lg 96)

Question 77

A person ____ years of age or older may possess a concealed firearm within the interior of a private conveyance without a concealed weapons permit as long as the firearm is securely encased or otherwise not readily available for immediate use.

Answer 77

18 YOA (Lg111)

Question 78

The ____ permits a person to be admitted for assessment or treatment of substance abuse.

Answer 78

Marchman act (LG69)

Question 79

T/F- During a routine traffic stop in which a speeding ticket was being issued, a second officer who arrived on scene is alerted by his narcotics detections dog to the trunk of the car. Given the situation, the officers can open the trunk and search for narcotics

Answer 79

True- LG34

Question 80

The state of being held responsible by higher authority for specific job-related results.

Answer 80

Accountability

Question 81

The process identified to ensure a continuation of supervision at all levels when variances or absence from duty exists

Answer 81

Command Protocol

Question 82

Performance

Answer 82

Something done, or an action taken (Example; as used: actions taken or omitted regarding specific tasks or assignment.)

Question 84

Span of Control

Answer 84

The number of persons reporting to any one supervisor (9 officers per each Sgt)

Question 85

The idea that each individual in the organization has one, and only ONE, immediate supervisor

Answer 85

Unity of command

Question 86

Span of control: The number of members reporting to executive-level-officers (Captains) should not exceed _____?

Answer 86

3

Question 87

Span of control: The number of members reporting to command-level officers (Lieutenants) should not exceed ___?

Answer 87

5

Question 88

Span of control: The number of members reporting directly to first line supervisors (Sergeants) should not exceed _____?

Answer 88

9

Question 89

What is the Stratified Policing Model?

Answer 89

An organizational model of problem solving, crime analysis, and accountability.

Question 90

Isolated incidents that occur and are resolved within minutes and hours, or in some cases days. - (2) categories- Incidents and Cases of Interest

Answer 90

Immediate Problems

Question 91

Those that occur over several day or weeks and typically require short-term versus immediate responses. They are broken down into two distinct categories: -Repeat incidents and Patterns

Answer 91

Short Term Problems

Question 92

Three or more criminal quality of life incidents that have occurred at the same place within a 28-day period. (Disturbances, barking dog, problem juveniles, alarms, or traffic crashes)

Answer 92

Repeat incidents

Question 93

A list of repeat calls for service by address will be compiled and disseminated by the crime analysis on a _____ basis.

Answer 93

Weekly

Question 94

A group of two or more crimes reported to or discovered by police that are unique because they meet each of the following conditions: (spree, hot spot current radius: 2 incidents with a .20-mile radius; 3 or more incidents within a .40-mile radius.

Answer 94

Patterns

Question 95

There are ____ crime pattern types?

Answer 95

4 (series, spree, Hotspot, compound problems)

Question 96

A group of similar crimes commited by the same individual or group in concert. (Example: Five home invasion-styled robberies involving two to three white males in their 20's wearing stockings over their faces.)

Answer 96

Series

Question 97

A specific type of series characterized by high frequency of criminal activity within a remarkably short time frame, to the extent that the activity appeared to be almost consistent. (Example: A rash of theft from autos in a small community all within several hours)

Answer 97

Spree

Question 98

A group of similar crimes committed by one or more individuals at locations within close proximity to one another. (Example: Four daytime burglaries over the past two weeks at a suburban residential subdivision.)

Answer 98

Hot Spot

Question 99

Highest level problems that encompass various locations, offenders and victims, and in most cases, exist throughout an entire jurisdiction. (Example: Construction site thefts)

Answer 99

Compound porblems

Question 100

Successful resolution of a crime pattern generally means that there were no additional incidents of crime reported within how long?

Answer 100

14 day period.

Question 101

After closing a crime pattern related to a series, the pattern may be re-opened if a new incident occurs within ____ of the last incidents?

Answer 101

21 days

Question 102

Problems that occur over several months, seasons, or years and stem from systematic opportunities created by everyday behavior and environment.

Answer 102

Long term problems

Question 103

Individual addresses or types of places at which there is a concentration of crime problematic activity.

Answer 103

Problem locations

Question 104

Relatively small areas (several block area) with a disproportionate amount of crime or disorderly activity that is related.

Answer 104

Problem Areas

Question 105

The highest level of problems that encompass various locations offenders, and victims and, in most cases, exist throughout entire jurisdictions.

Answer 105

Compound Problems

Question 106

Facilitate action-oriented accountability for strategies implemented for immediate and short-term problems. They are used to develop and monitor implementation of strategies for significant incidents, repeat incidents, and patterns, as well as immediately assess the effectiveness of those strategies.

Answer 106

Daily Staff Meetings/Roll Call briefings

Question 107

What is C.O.A.R, and how frequent are their meetings?

Answer 107

Collaborative Operational Analysis and Response. COAR meetings occur on a weekly basis and facilitate action-oriented accountability within and or among divisions so that divisions an come together to develop coordinate and assess strategies implemented for short term problems. and the meetings occur weekly.

Question 108

What is S.T.A.R.C.O.M?

Answer 108

Statistical Tracking Accountability and Response through Computer Oriented Mapping. STARCOM meetings are held MONTHLY. These meetings facilitate evaluation-oriented accountability within geographic areas and support divisions, as well as across the entire agency.

Question 109

A special order signed by the newly appointed chief of Police which codifies that all general guidelines, standard operating procedures, police department rules and regulations, and other police department written directives that are currently in effect, including any amendments or addendums, shall remain in effect until such time as they are amended or rescinded.

Answer 109

Bridging Document

Question 110

the principle organizational sub-entity.

Answer 110

Bureau

Question 111

A geographical division of variable size within a region

Answer 111

District

Question 112

Secondary Employment

Answer 112

Working for an employer other than the police department and in a non-law enforcement capacity.

Question 113

A memorandum must be forwarded to the Chief of Police, through the proper chain of command, requesting approval for any secondary employment at least ________ prior to the starting position.

Answer 113

2 weeks

Question 114

Requests made for secondary employment must be renewed _____?

Answer 114

Annually

Question 115

The discrimination or inappropriate consideration of specified characteristics, based on personal prejudices or partiality of agency personnel, while enforcement the law or providing police services.

Answer 115

Biased policing

Question 117

Ethical standards: Principle One

Answer 117

Police officers shall conduct themselves, whether on or off duty, in accordance with the constitution of the US, the Florida constitution, and all applicable laws, ordinances, and rule enacted or established pursuant to legal authority.

Question 118

Ethical Standards: Principle Two

Answer 118

Police officers shall refrain from any conduct in an official capacity that detracts from the public's faith in the integrity of the criminal justice system.

Question 119

Ethical Standards: Principal Three

Answer 119

Police Officers shall perform their duties and apply the law impartially and without prejudice or discrimination.

Question 120

Ethical Standards: Principle Four

Answer 120

Police Officers shall not, whether on or off duty, exhibit any conduct which discredits themselves or their department or otherwise impairs their ability or that of other officers or department to provide law enforcement services to the community.

Question 121

Outside employment that occurs during an officer's off duty hours where the actual or potential use of law enforcement powers is anticipated.

Answer 121

Extra Duty Employment

Question 122

Requests for extra- duty detail employment will be made at least _______ in advance.

Answer 122

72 hours

Question 123

Any officer in violation of the extra duty rules and regulations will be disciplined as such:

Answer 123

First offense: (ALL WITHIN A 24-month period) Written counseling form Second offense: Removed from eligibility for 30 days Third Offense: Removed for 60 days Fourth Offense: Removed for 100 days Fifth Offense: Removed for one year

Question 124

The on-duty supervisor is required to make at least ____ contact with the extra duty employment officer during their tour of duty to ensure safety and well-being of the officer.

Answer 124

1 contact

Question 125

A supervisor is required for an off-duty-detail is ____ or more officers are requested?

Answer 125

5 officers, 1 sergeant (4:1 ratio)

Question 126

When _____ or more officers are requested, the detail will require a Lieutenant.

Answer 126

10 or more officers requested

Question 127

Officers will be paid a minimum of _____ hours for any extra duty detail worked, unless otherwise arranged pr previously agreed to by the Chief. If the time worked is less than half of the assigned time, the officer will be paid for the time worked or a minimum of ____ hours which ever is greater.

Answer 127

3 hours, Minimum of 3 hours

Question 128

If the of duty detail time worked is greater than half the assigned time, the officer will be paid______?

Answer 128

The full time of the detail.

Question 129

Cancelations of off duty details must be made within_____?

Answer 129

24 hours of the time of the event

Question 130

Extra duty detail rate: Officer

Answer 130

$65.oo per hour ( $59 plus $6 admin fee)

Question 131

Extra duty detail rate: Supervisor

Answer 131

$70 per hours ($64 per hours plus $6.oo admin fee)

Question 132

Extra duty detail rate: Lieutenant

Answer 132

$74.50 per hour ( $68.50 per hours plus $6.00 admin fee)

Question 133

The holiday Extra duty rate: Officer Sergeant Lieutenant

Answer 133

$75 $80 $84.50

Question 134

The City of Port St Lucie recognizes ____ paid holidays.

Answer 134

12

Question 135

As it relates to promotions, the promotional register will be good for ______?

Answer 135

18 months

Question 136

Promotional candidates may appeal any adverse decision concerning their eligibility for, or appointment to, promotional vacancies within ____?

Answer 136

7 business days of eligibility.

Question 137

An event outside the usual realm of human experience that is remarkably distressing (capable of evoking intense emotions).

Answer 137

Critical incident

Question 138

A debrief of a critical incident will typically take place ____ to ____ hours after the event.

Answer 138

24-72 hours

Question 139

Grevious Bodily Harm that Shocks the Conscience.

Answer 139

Decapitation Degloving Enucleation Evisceration Exposure of one or more organs (brain, heart, intestines, kidneys, liver, or lungs) Impalement Severance Third degree burns

Question 140

A mental or nervous injury that can occur when a person has directly experienced or witnessed an extremely traumatic, tragic, or terrifying event.

Answer 140

Post Traumatic Stress disorder

Question 141

Any physical, moral, or emotional conditions causing stress

Answer 141

Significant Stressful Event

Question 142

The supervisor of personnel involved in a critical incident is responsible for notifying the CISM coordinator _____?

Answer 142

As soon as practical.

Question 143

The CISM coordinator will follow-up with the supervisor and /or person(s) involved in the incident ______ after the critical incident to ensure that any prolonged or delayed difficulties are addressed.

Answer 143

14 days

Question 144

After a critical incident, supervisors should _____?

Answer 144

Remain alert to possible after effects of involvement in a stressful incident, where appropriate, notify the CISM Coordinator.

Question 145

Under F.S.S. 112.181(5), employees suffering from critical incident stress will have _____ from the qualifying event or from the manifestation of a PTSD symptom to submit a "report of Employee injury or incident" form. A claim for benefits must be properly noticed within _____ of the qualifying event

Answer 145

90 days, 52 weeks.

Question 146

In addition to initial peer debriefer training, All CISM team members are required to attend training _____ each year to remain active.

Answer 146

Bi-monthly

Question 147

_____ will maintain a current list of peer support team members

Answer 147

Police Service Specialist (PSS)

Question 148

Methods of accessing peer support team.

Answer 148

- Self-Referral: Member recognizes the need to assistance - Indirect Referral: a member may be referred indirectly by a concerned friend, coworker, or family member. - Mental health clinician and/or EAP provider may be used during a significant event - Peer support team members are available to respond to on scene incidents if needed.

Question 149

The Field training program is approximately a ____ program.

Answer 149

16 weeks (Shorter 4 week training programs may be considered.

Question 150

The role of a First line supervisors as it relates to disclipline.

Answer 150

To provide directions to personnel in the formulation of and monitoring of conduct/job performance. Authority: To administer remedial training, verbal counseling, and warnings

Question 151

A formal letter of disciplinary action issued to the affected employee.

Answer 151

Written Reprimand

Question 152

A form of disciplinary action imposed by a department head which shall be limited to three days. Note: any suspension greater than three days shall require prior approval from the city manager.

Answer 152

Suspension w/ or w/o pay

Question 153

A demotion can only take place where a group __ or ___ violation exists.

Answer 153

II or III (2or 3)

Question 154

A voluntary alternative to disciplinary process that may be extended to employees who are subject to disciplinary process and meet the established criteria as outlines in GG 632.

Answer 154

Corrective Diversion Process (CDP)

Question 155

Counseling or a "word of caution (verbal counseling), may be used to correct an employees misconduct and _____ considered disciplinary action.

Answer 155

IS NOT

Question 156

In the event that a regular city employee, who has attained classified status is dismissed, the city manager shall provide the employee with a written statement of the reason at least ______ prior to effective date of dismissal.

Answer 156

10 business days

Question 157

In the case of a dismissal, the employee will receive a written notice from COP that includes ___?

Answer 157

Reason for dismissal Effective date of dismissal Status of any fringe and retirement benefits Content of employee's service record A statement that employees have the right to submit information to their personnel file to refute or explain the reason for dismissal.

Question 158

Should an employee elect to participate in the Corrective diversion program, he/she will ______?

Answer 158

Foreit their right to file a grievance for the incident.

Question 159

The employee will enter the corrective diversion program for a period of _____. During that time, the employee must not get a similar violation

Answer 159

180 days Note: successful completion will result in the discipline being lowered ONE level.

Question 160

Grievances are analyzed _____?

Answer 160

Annually

Question 161

Under the CDP, discipline consists of _____?

Answer 161

a "written reprimand" or "Suspension" only.

Question 162

(IF Corrective diversion plan fails) If discipline was a suspension, the suspension will be served, or if approved, leave tie may be surrendered in lieu or days off. Notice will be provided within ______ indicating the original discipline will stand.

Answer 162

14 days

Question 163

The categories of discipline eligible for Corrective diversion Plans are_____?

Answer 163

Written reprimand or suspension (1,2, or 3 days)

Question 164

The employee has ____ to accept the chief of police's offer to participate in the corrective diversion plan and thereby accept responsibility for the for his/her action.

Answer 164

5 days

Question 165

Employees may participate in ____ Corrective diversion plan opportunity in a 12 month period. The 12 month period is calculated from the date of the last CDP.

Answer 165

only one

Question 166

Documentation outlining the damage caused to personal or agency property shall be submitted to the supervisor within

Answer 166

48 hours $200 limit for prescription glasses personal clothing contact lenses $30 for personally owned sunglasses

Question 167

Line inspections are performed on a ______ basis?

Answer 167

Semi-Annual

Question 168

A scanned or faxed copy of an officer injury report must be sent to Risk Management within _____?

Answer 168

24 hours of the original incident.

Question 169

The temporary processing area shall not contain any more than ____ detainees at one time?

Answer 169

four.

Question 170

Child offenders, accused or adjudicated, can only be held in a secure area for up to _____ for the purposes of identification, processing, and to arrange for release to parents or transfer to a juvenile facility?

Answer 170

6 hours

Question 171

According to the JJDPA (Juvenile Justice Delinquency Prevention Act) in regards to holding a child in a secure area, child detainees must be____?

Answer 171

Separated by sight and sound from adult detainees.

Question 172

The minimum age required to legally purchase or to possess tobacco products, nicotine, or nicotine dispensing devices is ____. Exceptions to this law include _____.

Answer 172

21 years old, In the military reserve or active duty in armed forces or acting in scope of lawful employment with entity licensed.

Question 173

The transmission/distrubution or possession of multiple photographs or videos that were transmitted by a minor is considered a SINGLE OFFENSE if transmitted within _____?

Answer 173

24-hour period

Question 174

Any person who is over the age of 21 and found in possession of a concealed weapon and not provide a valid form of identification may be _____.

Answer 174

Issued a non-criminal citation

Question 175

A court order that instructs law enforcement to take a person into custody that has been ordered to submit to involuntary mental health or substance abuse treatment or assessment.

Answer 175

Exparte court Order

Question 176

A temporary (emergency) court order, issued without a hearing, prohibiting a person from having their possession or control of any firearm, ammunition, or license to carry a concealed weapon when a person is found to be a significant danger of harming himself or others by possessing such.

Answer 176

Ex Parte Risk Protection Order

Question 177

An authorized facility designed to receive, evaluate, and treat individuals who are mentally disturbed and may be a threat to themselves or others.

Answer 177

Receiving facility

Question 178

Conduct that is technically a violation of the law, is in fact a non-violation or an unavoidable product of an emotional disorder. (i.e. People screaming hysterically after a death and not being charged with breach of peace)

Answer 178

Resultant criminal conduct

Question 179

Prior to interviewing or interrogating a subject believed to be mentally ill, Officers should first ______.

Answer 179

Make the scene as safe as possible.

Question 180

In regard to criminal acts accompanied with a mental health evaluation; the detainee will be transported to the jail for booking accompanied by the baker act paperwork for what types of offenses?

Answer 180

Warrants, crimes of violence, domestic violence, immigration hold, or on probation for another crime/DUI.

Question 181

If no time frame is specified on a court ordered Ex Parte order, the order shall only be valid for a period of _____ after signed.

Answer 181

7 days

Question 182

A person may not be held for an involuntary mental health evaluation longer than _____.

Answer 182

72 hours (3-days)

Question 183

Whenever a petition for a temporary ex parte risk protection order is being initiated, a ______ must be made to provide notice to a family, at-risk-person, or household member of the person

Answer 183

good faith effort

Question 184

After petitioning the court for a risk protection order, the court will schedule a hearing to determine whether to grant a risk protection order for a period of up to ______ or vacate the temp risk PO

Answer 184

12 months

Question 185

A signed and completed Receipt of firearms, Ammunition, and license to carry concealed weapon form, The original copy must be filed with the court within _____.

Answer 185

72-hours

Question 186

A law enforcement agency may hold any seized or voluntary surrendered firearms or ammunition for ____ after the individual who was taken into custody can document that they are no longer subject to involuntary examination and has been released or discharged from impatient/outpatient treatment.

Answer 186

24 hours

Question 187

any criminal offense resulting in physical injury or death or one family or household member by another who is residing in the same single dwelling unit.

Answer 187

Domestic violence

Question 188

Violence between individuals who have or have had a continuing and significant relationship of a romantic or intimate nature. Must have: - dated within 6 months -nature of relationship must have been characterized by the expectation of affection or sexual involvement between parties. - involved over continuous period of time

Answer 188

Dating Violence

Question 189

Two incidents of violence or stalking, one of which must have been within 6 months of filing a petition and must have been directed against the petitioner's immediate family member.

Answer 189

Repeat Violence

Question 190

The act of willfully, maliciously, and repeatedly following, harassing, or cyber stalking another person for no legitimate purpose and thereby causing emotional distress. If in doing so, he/she makes a credible threat with the intent to cause reasonable fear for the safety of that person, act becomes aggravated.

Answer 190

Stalking

Question 191

What are the 5 types of injunctions for protection?

Answer 191

1. Protection against domestic violence. 2. Protecting against dating violence 3. Protection against repeat violence 4. Protection against sexual violence 5. Protection against stalking

Question 192

A person who has been taken into custody for such impairment 3 or more times during the proceeding 12 month period.

Answer 192

Habitual Abuser

Question 193

A law enforcement officer acting in good faith pursuant to this part may not be held criminally or civilly liable for false imprisonment

Answer 193

Immunity from liability

Question 194

A public notification system used to broadcast info about missing persons, specifically senior citizens with Alzheimer's disease, dementia, or other mental disabilities, to aid in their safe recovery.

Answer 194

Silver Alert

Question 195

A public notification system used to broadcast info about missing adults who do not qualify for silver alert but are suffering from mental or cognitive disabilities, brain injuries, mental health or emotional disabilities that are not related to substance abuse or Alzheimer's disease/dementia

Answer 195

Purple Alert

Question 196

What is C.A.R.T.?

Answer 196

Child abduction repsponse team.

Question 197

In regard to missing juveniles, this age is selected because children of this age group are elementary/middle school students and have not established independence from parental control and to have little to no survival skills

Answer 197

13 years old

Question 198

In regard to missing persons, all entries into FCIC/NCIC must be made within _____ of the receipt of the report.

Answer 198

2 hours

Question 199

America's missing broadcast emergency response plan to missing children

Answer 199

Amber Alert

Question 200

Criteria for a Florida Amber Alert to be issued

Answer 200

- younger than 18 years old - Law Enforcement agency has a well-founded belief based on active investigation that a kidnapping took place - Child is in imminent danger of death or serious bodily injury - Detailed description of child, the abductor, or the abductor's vehicle to broadcast to the public - Local LEA recommends the activation

Question 201

The activation of an amber alert must be approved by ___

Answer 201

Shift Lt or designee.

Question 202

A second level activation that can be issued for a child who is missing and believed to be in danger, when there is no apparent sign of an abduction or does not meet all five Amber criteria

Answer 202

Florida missing child alert

Question 203

Criteria for "Missing Child Alert" (4)

Answer 203

- Must be under the age of 18 - LEO has well founded belief that child is in danger - Detailed description of child - LEO recommends activation

Question 204

What is the criteria for a silver alert to be issued?

Answer 204

- 60 years or older - Must be a clear indication that the individual has a diagnosed cognitive impairment such as Dementia etc. - Believed to be in danger and driving a vehicle - Silver alert activation must be authorized by a supervisor.

Question 205

In regard to missing persons, a DNA sample will be obtained if the subject is not located within ____?

Answer 205

90 days

Question 206

In regard to missing persons, a letter of consent will be collected for dental records if the subject is not located within ____?

Answer 206

30 days

Question 207

A child may be surrendered as stated in the "Safe Haven Law" to any fire department, hospital, or other designated location within _____ of birth.

Answer 207

7 days

Question 208

If a missing client is not located by means of the project life saver frequency equipment within ____ ______, air support will be requested along with additional resources.

Answer 208

45 minutes to an hour

Question 209

Blue Alert

Answer 209

The dissemination of suspect information to the public through the emergency alert system by broadcasting the alert on television, radio, cell phones, and dynamic message signs located along the State's highways as it relates to an officer who has been killed, seriously injured, or is missing in the line od duty.

Question 210

The criteria to issue a Blue alert is:

Answer 210

- An officer must have been seriously injured, or killed by an offender or is missing while IN THE LINE OF DUTY - Investigation must determine that the offender poses a serious risk to the public or to other LEO and alert will assist with capture - There must be a detailed description of the offender's vehicle or other means of escape including vehicle tag, or partial tag - Agency must recommend issuing of the blue alert

Question 211

Affidavit of Service/Non-Service

Answer 211

AKA return of service is a document that is returned to the Clerk of Court showing final disposition of the of the service (receipt) within 10 days of serving

Question 212

An order requiring or prohibiting the performance of an action (i.e. Writ of bodily harm)

Answer 212

Writ

Question 213

Service of Risk Protection Orders are conducted by _____

Answer 213

The Special Investigations Division

Question 214

Prior to transport, all department issued vehicles must be _____

Answer 214

Searched

Question 215

What is "P.OP."?

Answer 215

Problem Oriented Policing

Question 216

Problem Oriented Policing (P.O.P.) is a four step process known as the ____?

Answer 216

S.A.R.A Model - Scanning - Identify the problem. - Analyze: Gather information/data including analysis for repeat call for service) about the problem to develop an understanding of the problem, identify those effected, and identify available resources to deal with the problem. - Response: Based on your analysis, develop and implement solutions - Assessment: Measure the results of the efforts. Did the solutions work? The problem-oriented policing model requires documentation of each project to enable the officer's and department to accurately evaluate their efforts.

Question 217

Response to resistance which is likely to cause death or great bodily harm, to include, but not limited to firearms and vehicles.

Answer 217

Deadly Force

Question 218

Physical battery with hands, fists, or defensive equipment to overcome violent resistance or to protect self or others from assault or injury.

Answer 218

Defensive Force

Question 219

Generic term often used to describe the escalating scale of responding force options available to an officer when responding to increasing levels of resistance.

Answer 219

Force Continuum

Question 220

When deploying SIM, our goal is ____

Answer 220

to resolve a potentially violent situation with a minimal amount of force and the least likelihood of serious injury to all involved parties.

Question 221

SIMS: primary target area # 1

Answer 221

Buttocks, thighs, and calves. groin area should NOT be targeted.

Question 222

SIMS: primary target area # 2

Answer 222

Abdominal area

Question 223

SIMS: primary target area # 3

Answer 223

This area carries greatest risk for potential for serious bodily harm to include head, neck, chest, face, spinal cord, kidney area. Requires higher level of force.

Question 224

The use of special impact munitions for crowd management must be ____

Answer 224

Authorized by a supervisor

Question 225

OC is designed to be sprayed directly into the face or eyes of a resisting subject from a distance of ___ to ___ ft.

Answer 225

3-10 ft

Question 226

To achieve the full effectiveness of the OC spray, 2 shots of OC should be sprayed directly at the area of eyes and face in ___ to ____ second bursts.

Answer 226

1-3 second bursts

Question 227

A weapon designed to disrupt a subject's motor and sensory nervous systems by means of deploying battery powered energy sufficient to cause uncontrolled contractions and override an individual's voluntary motor response.

Answer 227

Conducted Energy Weapon (CEW)

Question 228

CEW probe deployment utilizes a small amount of gun powder to propel probes on wires from a cartridge a maximum of ____ Ft.

Answer 228

45 ft

Question 229

What level of force is needed in order to utilize a CEW?

Answer 229

Active physical resistance.

Question 230

CEW may not be used, Absent articulable exigent circumstances....

Answer 230

- Subject does not demonstrate their overt intention to use violence or force against the officer or another person. - On a handcuffed/secure prisoner absent of assaultive behavior that cannot be reasonably delt with. - Flammable liquid potential - Heightened level of danger (i.e. an elevated fall or in water) - Subject is known or appears to be pregnant - Elderly subjects - Subjects is believed to be 12 years of age or less

Question 231

Administrative relief from duty is intended to serve two purposes:

Answer 231

1. To address the personal and emotional needs of an employee involved in the use of deadly force 2. To assure the community that verification of the facts surrounding such incidents are professionally explored.

Question 232

In all instances where a firearm is pointed at a subject, regardless of high or low ready, it shall be ___

Answer 232

Documented in the offense report and the on-duty supervisor should be notified as soon as possible.

Question 233

A subject's verbal and or physical refusal to comply with an officer's lawful direction causing the officer to use physical techniques to establish control i.e. Refuses to move, peacefully protesting a political event at public place, refuses to remove hands from pocketss Officer should: Give verbal direction, Soft hand escorts, and/or use of O.C. spray

Answer 233

Passive Resistance

Question 234

Subject physically anchors themselves to a person or object to prevent being removed, braces or pulls away from officers when officer grab arms, attempts to run when officer touches them arm or shoulder, SUBJECT BALLS UP FIST AND APPROACHES OFFICERS Officers should: Use of impact weapons to include hands fist feet knees elbows, Less lethal options such as CEW or shotgun or baton, directed to appropriate area based on training

Answer 234

Active Resistance

Question 235

Pushes the officers try to take them into custody, any attempt to or striking of an officers or another person, SUBJECT GRABS ANY PART OF THE OFFICERS BODY. Officer should: Techniques used at active level to a location of the subject's body that would be more likely to result in additional injury but does not rise to deadly force.

Answer 235

Aggressive resistance

Question 236

Subject refuses to drop knife when ordered to by officer AND moves toward the officer, Subject shoots OR points a gun at an officer or another person. Any action that may result in death or great bodily harm.

Answer 236

Deadly Force

Question 237

Achieving complaince or custody through the use of empty hand or leverage enhanced techniques such as pain compliance, transporters, restraint devices, takedowns, and striking techniques.

Answer 237

Physical Control

Question 238

Non Lethal weapon

Answer 238

A weapon that is not fundamentally designed to cause death or great bodily harm.

Question 239

A court term used to refer to all the facts and circumstances known to the officer at the time or reasonably perceived by the officer as the basis for use of force decision.

Answer 239

Totality of the Circumstances

Question 240

The totality of circumstances includes consideration of the subject's form of resistance, all reasonably perceived factors that may have an effect on the situation, and the response options available to officers. Some factors may be:

Answer 240

Severity of crime Subject is an immediate threat Subject's mental or psychiatric history (if known) Subject's violent history Subject's combative skills Subject's access to weapons Innocent bystanders number of subject vs number of officers Duration of confrontation Subject's and officer's size age weight and physical condition. Enviornmental factors like terrain, weather conditions etc

Question 242

When a minor knowingly uses a computer, or any other device capable of electronic data transmission or distribution, to transmit or distribute to another minor any photograph or video of any person which depicts nudity and is harmful to minor and/or possess a photograph or video of any person that was transmitted or distributed by another minor which depicts nudity and is harmful to minors.

Answer 242

Sexting

Question 243

The minimum age required legally to purchase tobacco products, nicotine dispensing devices is

Answer 243

21 years old Exceptions: in military, lawful employment with entity licensed...

Question 244

Any minor who is found to be in violation of "Sexting" laws may be ____ for their first violation.

Answer 244

Issued a non-criminal citation

Question 245

The transmission/distrubution or possession of multiple photographs or video were transmitted by a minor is considered a single offense if the photograph or video were transmitted in the same ____?

Answer 245

24-hours period

Question 246

Juveniles are NOT eligible for a non-criminal citation for a ____

Answer 246

2nd or subsequent offense

Question 247

Anyone OVER the age of 21 and found in possession of a concealed firearm and does NOT have a for of ID may be ____

Answer 247

issued a non-criminal citation

Question 248

A court order that instructs law enforcement to take a person into custody that has been ordered to submit to involuntary mental health or substance abuse treatment or assesment

Answer 248

Ex Parte Order

Question 249

A temporary emergency court order issued without a hearing prohibiting a person from having his or her possession or control any firearm ammunition or license to carry a concealed weapon or firearm.

Answer 249

Risk protection order

Question 250

Prior to interviewing or interrogating a subject believed to be mentally ill, Officers should first _______

Answer 250

make the scene as safe as possible.

Question 251

Subjects who are to be criminally charged but require emergency medical attention for misdemeanor charges will be

Answer 251

transported to nearest receiving facility and an affidavit/warrant will be generated

Question 252

Subjects who are to be criminally charged but do not require emergency medical attention for felony charges will be

Answer 252

Taken into custody and booked in the same manner as any other criminal- BA paperwork left with the jail

Question 253

A person may not be held for involuntary examination longer than

Answer 253

72 hours or 3 days

Question 254

The ____ Act was enacted in 2018 in effort to protect innocent citizens from gun violence associated with individuals suffering from mental health disorders.

Answer 254

Marjory Stoneman Douglas High School Act

Question 255

When petitioning the court for a risk protection order temporary ex parte order, the petition must

Answer 255

Allege the individual for which the risk protection order is being sought for, Be accompanied by a sworn affidavit detailing statements actions and facts and identify whether there is a known existing protection order in place.

Question 256

At the time of the surrender of all firearms/concealed weapons permit, the officer shall complete a

Answer 256

Receipt of firearms , ammunition, and LTC a concealed weapon form

Question 258

If the subject is not actually the owner of the firearms but the subject of a RPO inclines to remain inside the home, the owner will be required to sign a ____

Answer 258

Storage of firearms and ammunition form

Question 259

A law enforcement agency my hold any seized or voluntary surrendered firearms for _____ after the subject was taken into custody.

Answer 259

24 hours

Question 260

Prior to returning any firearms or ammo to a subject of an RPO notice must be provided to

Answer 260

any family or household member

Question 261

any assault/agg, battery/agg, sexual battery, stalking/agg, kidnapping, false imprisonment, or any criminal offense resulting in physical injury or death or one family or household member by another who is or was residing in the same single dwelling.

Answer 261

Domestic violence

Question 262

Violence between individuals who had or have had a continuous and significant relationship of a romantic or intimate nature

Answer 262

Dating Violence

Question 263

Two incidents of violence or stalking, one of which must have been within 6 months of filling a petition and must have been directed against the petitioner or immediate family.

Answer 263

Repeat violence

Question 264

In the event that there is probable cause for an arrest for domestic violence related offenses and the suspect is not located prior to the end of the officer's shift___________

Answer 264

a warrant application will be submitted by the OIC and an affidavit will be delivered to the oncoming shift supervisor incase contact is made with the suspect.

Question 265

Factors which should NOT influence an officer's decision to arrest are:

Answer 265

1. Lack of cooperation from victim 2. Current relationship between involved parties 3. Whether suspect and victim reside together 4. Abscence of an injunction 5. Potential financial consequences for family 6. Verbal assurances that the violence will cease 7. Absence of visible injuries 8. Location of incident: private property vs public property

Question 266

Only victims of ____ ______ are eligible for emergency injunctions

Answer 266

Domestic violence

Question 267

Officers who are victims of domestic violence will be reminded that services are available through

Answer 267

The Employee Assistance Program (EAP) as well as victim assistance program.

Question 268

When making an arrest of a law enforcement officer from an outside agency, a supervisor shall notify the employer of the arrest and the charge/time of arrest

Answer 268

Prior to the end of tour

Question 269

If an officer is placed on administrative leave, departmental equipment shall be secured by

Answer 269

Administration Division Lt

Question 270

Supervisors should be aware and, when appropriate, document ___

Answer 270

any pattern of abusive behavior potentially indicative of an officer's possible domestic violence including: -Aggressiveness -DV related issues - Deteriorating work performance

Question 271

In September of 1996, Congress passed a revision of Federal Law which makes it illegal for any person convicted of a misdemeanor "Domestic violence" offense, whether under Federal or state law,

Answer 271

to possess or own a firearm or ammunition.

Question 272

An officer convicted of a DV offense

Answer 272

will no longer be able to perform regular duties as a police officer

Question 273

Should an individual refuse to relinquish a personal firearm or ammo, the agency will contact ____

Answer 273

ATF

Question 274

An advanced conducted energy weapon, which through high voltage and low watts, is designed to disrupt a subject's central nervous system.

Answer 274

Conducted energy Weapon (CEW)

Question 275

Weapons designed to incapacitate others to include flashlights, batons, and certain hand and kick techniques.

Answer 275

Impact weapons

Question 276

All sworn personnel must demonstrate proficiency with all department issued or approved personnel owned firearms and holster systems carried while on duty. This shall be done on an ___ basis in accordance with CJST rule

Answer 276

Annually

Question 277

A certified firearms instructor will be present on the range for every ____ shooters actively engaged in its use

Answer 277

6 shooters

Question 278

Only firearms chambered in ____ caliber or less will be used on the range

Answer 278

.30 caliber

Question 279

The department armorer will conduct a visual inspections of each firearm at least _____ to determined if the firearm is safe and in good working order.

Answer 279

annually

Question 280

In accordance with CJSTC rule, firearm proficiency and a score of ___ percent out of 100%, or pass or fail, must be obtained on an approved course for all firearms

Answer 280

80 % or higher

Question 281

An officer fails to qualify with their duty handgun after a maximum of _____ attempts in ONE QUALIFICATION DAY.

Answer 281

maximum of three attempts in ONE QUALIFICATION DAY.

Question 282

Remedial firearms training and a second qualification attempt will occur within _____ of the initial unsuccessful attempt.

Answer 282

Within one week of the initial unsuccessful attempt. No more than 200 rounds and max of 4 hours

Question 283

If officer fails to qualify after remedial firearms training and a maximum of three attempts on that second qualification day, the officer will receive a

Answer 283

Written reprimand. (Counseling for first attempt, Written reprimand for second attempt, 3-day suspension without pay for third attempt, Unpaid leave pending further administrative action to include suspension up to termination for fourth attempt)

Question 284

At any time after a failed qualification attempt an officer may be required on a _____ basis. The qualification/proficiency shall consist of _______

Answer 284

Quarterly basis, 1 qualifying score out of 3 attempts.

Question 285

If during the quarterly proficiency qualifications and the next annual qualification the officer is able to obtain a score of _______ or greater, they will only be required to qualify as required in section XI.

Answer 285

score of 34/40 or greater

Question 286

Officers who receive_______ primary qualification failures or 3 out of 5 yearly qualification failures will be subject to disciplinary action up to and including termination.

Answer 286

3 consecutive

Question 287

officers using iron or holographic sights will be required to obtain a score of ____ percent with 4 and 5 zones of the targets counting as a hit.

Answer 287

90% or higher

Question 288

Officers qualifying and using a magnifier will be required to obtain a score of ___ percent or higher with ___ zone of the target counting as a hit.

Answer 288

90 % or high with 5 zone

Question 289

Absent any other legal and articulable circumstance, it is the policy of this agency that firearms shall not be taken merely for "safekeeping" reasons unless such firearm is left unsecured in a location which is accessible to a child under the age of _____.

Answer 289

16 years old

Question 290

In order for Law enforcement to act under the Majory Stoneman Douglas High school act, the following two elements must be met subsequent a mental health evaluation

Answer 290

1. The individual poses potential danger to themselves or others AND... 2. The individual has made a credible threat of violence against another person.

Question 291

What is the NIBIN?

Answer 291

National Integrated Ballistic Information Network

Question 292

Communicable disease training/education shall be provided at no cost to the officer or other identified at-risk member and shall be done during working hours. Training will occur within ____ of the time of assignment to a position in which exposure to bloodborne pathogens exists.

Answer 292

ten days

Question 293

What is forcible felony?

Answer 293

Treason, murder, manslaughter, sexual battery, carjacking, home invasion robbery, robbery, burglary, arson, kidnapping, aggravated assault/battery, aggravated stalking, aircraft piracy, unlawful throwing, placing or discharging of a destructive device or bomb, and any other felony which involves the use or threat of physical force or violence against an individual.

Question 294

The decision to initiate a pursuit shall be based on the initiating officer's reasonable belief at the time the pursuit is initiated that the person fleeing has_____?

Answer 294

committed a forcible felony with the exception of in the case of a burglary if there are no injuries to anyone or no threats of harm were made.

Question 295

In deciding whether to initiate a pursuit, the officer shall take into consideration:

Answer 295

A. Seriousness of the violator's offense, and its relationship to community and highway safety B. Time of day and location C. Type of roadway D. Weather conditions E. other vehicles F. Familiarity with roads G. Capabilities of vehicle H. Speeds I. Evasive tactics by violator J. Other means to take into custody K. Presence of other people in the patrol vehicle

Question 296

A pursuit shall consist of

Answer 296

only a reasonable minimal number of officers determined necessary to effectively and safely apprehend the suspect

Question 297

An analysis of all vehicle pursuits will be conducted ____to identify any patterns or trends that may have emerged.

Answer 297

Annually.

Question 298

Tire deflation devices may be used on vehicles when an officer has probable cause to believe that a ______

Answer 298

felony has been committed.

Question 299

A tire deflation device shall be deployed only with ____

Answer 299

approval of a supervisor

Question 300

Tire deflation devices may only be used only vehicles that have ___ or more tires

Answer 300

4 or more tires

Question 301

Any employee of the department authorized to operate an oversized emergency vehicle (over 26,001 lbs must

Answer 301

A. "A' class "A, B, C" driver's license which ARE exempt from needing the emergency vehicle "E" endorsment. B. Class "E" driver's license with an "E" emergency vehicle endorsement C. A list of employees authorized to oeprate an oversized emergency vehicle must be forwarded to ADMIN and Staff services

Question 302

No more than ____ police vehicles will be parked at any location execept while on official duty.

Answer 302

4

Question 303

All vehicles shall be free of trash and fully fueled with a minimum of ___ tank of fuel

Answer 303

3/4

Question 304

Any traffic citation received while on or off duty while operating a city vehicle must be reported with _____ of the occurance, in writing, to the bureau Deputy Chief via chain of command. The immediate supervisor must be contacted immediately.

Answer 304

24 hours

Question 305

All police department vehicle crashes which are investigated by PSLPD will be investigated by

Answer 305

A THI

Question 306

In order to participate in the vehicle take home program, the employee must reside in

Answer 306

SLC, Martin Co, OK Co, Indian River Co, or Palm Beach Co

Question 307

All passengers under the age of _ and under shall be transported in a crash tested, federally approved, child restraint device.

Answer 307

5 years of age or younger

Question 308

Prior to engaging a disabled vehicle for removal, officers operating push bumper equipped on department vehilces shall

Answer 308

Notify the on-duty shift supervisor for approval

Question 309

In every case involving the impounding of a vehicle, the officer shall first obtain

Answer 309

approval from a supervisor

Question 310

When a vehicle is left unattended on a public street or highway in the city in excess of ____, it will be presumed abandoned.

Answer 310

36 hours

Question 311

The passenger compartment of a motor vehicle AND any opened, closed, or locked containers found therin may be searched incident to a lawful arrest of an occupant if

Answer 311

there is reason to believe that suspect will have access to the vehicle at the time of search, or the vehicle contains evidence related to the ARREST.

Question 312

The officer must give a reasonable amount of time to provide an alternative to impoundment for a minimum of

Answer 312

30 minutes

Question 313

The impounding officer/detective will obtain approval from the ____ prior to placing a hold for investigative or any other purpose.

Answer 313

District/Division Lt

Question 314

Per F.S.S. 323.001 a hold may be placed on a vehicle stored within a wrecker operator's storage facility by law enforcement for a period not exceed

Answer 314

5 days

Question 315

A written vehicle hold can be made when

Answer 315

- probable cause exists to believe the vehicleshould be seized and forfeited pursuant to the florida contraband act - Probable cause that vehicle was used as means of commutting a crime - vehicle is evidence of crime - vehicle is impounded or immobilized or offier is complying with a court order

Question 316

When performing a show-up, the suspect shall

Answer 316

never be transported to the witness (exclusionary rule)

Question 317

Photo lineups must be presented by

Answer 317

an independant adminstrator who knows nothing about the suspect

Question 318

When presented with a photo line up, a minimum of ____ photographs will be placed in the individual folders

Answer 318

6

Question 319

The preliminary investigation begins when

Answer 319

the first police officer arrives on scene and makes contact with the compl or victim.

Question 320

Witnesses should be interviewed ___?

Answer 320

As soon as possible after the incident is under investigation.

Question 321

The objective of the interview is to

Answer 321

establish a cooperative relationship between the witness and the interviewer.

Question 322

Factors which affectt he reliability of witnesses include

Answer 322

A. physical ability B. Alcohol or narcotic consumption C. Emotional stability of witness D. Prejudices of witnesses E. Physical location of witness F. Age, educational, and cultural background of witnesses

Question 323

Indications of formal custody are

Answer 323

Physical restraints Use of weapons searches booking procedures

Question 324

Currency will be counted in the presence of

Answer 324

a second officer as well as the individual from whom the currency was taken (if no risk) and whom the individual who is taking possession of the currency.

Question 325

When police personnel are involved in off duty incidents, the officer will

Answer 325

Notify the on-duty supervisor of his or her involvement and the supervisor will respond to the scene.

Question 326

If an arrest of a PSLPD officers is involved, it should be made by

Answer 326

the CID sergeant.

Question 327

If an employee is arrested on a felony or misdemeanor, the chief of police MAY place the employee on admin leave without pay immediately following the outcome of _____

Answer 327

first apearance.

Question 328

Officers dealing with child offenders shall

Answer 328

use the least coercive method among reasonable alternatives

Question 329

If probable cause is established for the arrest of a juvenile and the juvenile is eligible for the diversion program, the child

Answer 329

SHALL be referred to 19th judicial circuit civil citation program.

Question 330

A child taken into custody shall be released from custody as soon as reasonably possible and may NOT be held in a secure room (temporary processing area or CID interview room longer than

Answer 330

6 hours

Question 331

The juvenile restorative program states should be utilized if the situation deems

Answer 331

a child's first, second, or third misdemeanor offense and they have not had three previous civil citations or post arrest diversions, (Misd or fel) the juvenile SHALL be referred to the program

Question 332

What is JJDPA?

Answer 332

Juvenile justice and delinquency prevention Act

Question 333

Force that is likely to cause death or great bodily harm

Answer 333

Deadly force

Question 334

A condition, which creates substantial risk of death or serious perosnal injury or disfigurement, or protracted loss of impariment of function of any bodily member or organs.

Answer 334

Great bodily harm

Question 335

An anxiety disorder that can result from exposure to short term and long term severe stress or the long term buildup of repetitive and prolonged milder stress

Answer 335

Post Traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

Question 336

____ maintains and agreement with the PSLPD to assume primary responsibility for conducting all Officer involved shootings unless otherwise directed by the chief of police.

Answer 336

FDLE

Question 338

Upon notification of an officer involved shooting, the on-duty district supervisor will

Answer 338

-Immediately respond to the scene and deploy appropriate personnel to the scene and make assignments -Assign detail officer with officer involved -Officer directly involved removed from the scene and taken to hospital or head quarters - immediately secure crime scene (inner outer perimeters) - Insure crowd control - Identify witnesses and remove any witnesses from scene and contain them in an area away from crime scene.

Question 339

Only the following personnel will be permitted access to an officer involved shooting crime scene

Answer 339

- Emergency medical - CSI in conjunction with FDLE team - Medical examiner - State attorney personnel - FDLE personnel - other law enforcement investigators assisting the FDLE

Question 340

In accordance with FSS 943.1740, when and officer's use of force results in the death of any person, or the intentional discharge of a firearm results in injury or death of any person, an independent review of the use of force will be conducted by

Answer 340

- A Law enforcement agency that did not employ the officer at time of incident - A Law enforcement officer who is not employed by the same employing agency as the officer under investigation - The state attorney of the judicial circuit in which the use of force occurred

Question 341

Internal affairs reviews into al police related shootings, deadly force incidents, and death or great bodily harm incident will be completed within _____ of the close of the case by the FDLE, CID, or State Attorney's officer, whichever is later.

Answer 341

within 72 hours (NOTE: An extension may be granted by Chief)

Question 342

Prior to entering the immediate area of a bomb threat, officers shall

Answer 342

advise 911 communications that they are turning off radios and cell phones

Question 343

One or more people who participate in a life-threatening assault and demonstrate their intent to continuously or systematically kill or wound others.

Answer 343

Active assailant

Question 344

Any deliberate incident that poses an immediate or imminent danger to the lives of others.

Answer 344

Active Threat

Question 345

An area that is located near the triage post where, after triage is completed, victims are moved to for awaiting transport. Area should have easy entry and exit points and space for multiple ambulances

Answer 345

Ambulance Exchange Point (AEP)

Question 346

A temporary location where injured victims can be quickly and safely assembled until it is feasible to move to patients to the triage area.

Answer 346

Casualty Collection Point (CCP)

Question 347

Any law enforcement official who will command, control, and coordinate the use of resources and personnel at an active threat incident.

Answer 347

Incident Commander

Question 348

FSS that establishes that a law enforcement officer need not retreat or desist from efforts to make a lawful arrest because of resistance to the arrest and justifies the use of any force.

Answer 348

FSS 776.06

Question 349

When responded to an active threat incident, the primary objective of responding law enforcement is to

Answer 349

Stop the threat

Question 350

When responding to an active threat incident, the Incident commander will

Answer 350

- Respond to location and notify 911 that they are assuming role of incident commander (IC) - Activate and expand Incident command Systems (ICS) - Establish a secure locate for ICS which will be in close proximity to the incident location but both out of site and out of line of fire. - Contact EMS/Fire rescue for unified command and location

Question 351

When responding to an active threat, staging areas should be designated for

Answer 351

Responding personnel/resources Evacuation/assembly point Family Members Media EMS

Question 352

In active threat incidents, the prioritization of activities in order of importance are

Answer 352

1. Stop the active threat 2. rescue the victims 3. provide medical assistance 4. preserve the crime scene

Question 353

Once a sufficient number of contact teams have been deployed into an active threat situation, rescue teams will be deployed and will consist of

Answer 353

Two to Six members which may also include EMS personnel.

Question 354

Active threat training will be received within ______ of enacting a new or revised active threat policy.

Answer 354

180 days

Question 355

At the conclusion of an active threat, a debrief will be held within _____ after all personnel have returned to a routine work schedule

Answer 355

30 days

Question 356

A report submitted by the SWAT team that contains an incident narrative, identified concerns and recommended changes to policies and procedures training deficiencies etc

Answer 356

Active action report

Question 357

An incident where a person maintains a position of cover or concealment and ignores or resists law enforcement personnel, and it is reasonable to believe the subject is armed with a dangerous or deadly weapon and the barricaded suspect HAS COMMITTED A CRIMINAL ACT.

Answer 357

Armed criminal barricade

Question 358

An incident where a person maintains a position of cover or concealment and ignores or resists law enforcement personnel, and it is reasonable to believe the subject is armed with a dangerous or deadly weapon. The barricaded situation could involve an armed barricaded criminal suspect or a non-criminal barricaded suicidal subject.

Answer 358

Barricade situation

Question 359

the tactical decision to leave the scene, delay contact, delay custody, and or plan to contact a person engaged in a non-criminal barricade at a different time, under different circumstances.

Answer 359

Strategic disengagement

Question 360

The tactical decision to RESUME engagement in a non-criminal barricade incident AFTER disengagement efforts were applied.

Answer 360

Strategic Re-Engagement

Question 361

Upon being notified that a high risk incident exists, the supervisor's primary responsibility is

Answer 361

to assess the risk level of the situation and confirm that a high risk incident exists.

Question 362

Define the C.L.E.A.R. principle

Answer 362

Containment Long rifle Evacuate Assess React

Question 363

The priority of life model suggests this order to be followed:

Answer 363

Innocent civilians Police Officers Suspects Property/Evidence

Question 364

Duties of the shift supervisor when responding to a non-criminal barricade

Answer 364

- Evaluate situation - Verify incident to NOT be high risk - maintain peace to resolve incident -

Question 365

Five major functional areas of Incident command system:

Answer 365

Command, Operations, Planning, Logistics, and Finance administration

Question 366

The intent of the Incident command system is to ensure that

Answer 366

All hazards are handled in a manner to ensure unity of command and maximize the benefits of a coordinated response

Question 367

The program utilized by the Forida Division of Emergency Management to determine how much of a jurisdiction's expenditures are reimbursed immediately upon obligation (up to 80%)

Answer 367

Florida Recovery Obligation Calculation (F-ROC), the higher the score, the higher the reimbursement.

Question 368

An oral or written plan that contains objectives reflecting the overall incident strategy and specific tactical actions and supporting information for the operational period

Answer 368

Incident Action Plan (IAP)

Question 369

The time set for a given set of actions as specified in the Incident action plan. Can be of various lengths but usually not over (13) hours.

Answer 369

Operational Period

Question 370

The number of individuals a supervisor is responsible for, usually expressed as a ratio of supervisors to individuals.

Answer 370

Span of control (9 officers to 1 Sgt)

Question 371

An application of Incident Command System (ICS) used when there is more than one agency with incident jurisdiction or when incidents cross political jurisdictions

Answer 371

Unified command

Question 372

The principle that a subordinate will report to only on supervisor at any given time, providing a clear channel of authority and accountability

Answer 372

Unity of Command

Question 373

In relation to an "all hazard plan via ICS", FDLE will be responsible for

Answer 373

coordinating federal, state, and local law enforcement resources during a civil disorder, pursuant to FSS chapter 23

Question 374

Total operational control of the city will come under the control of the military commander when _____ is declared

Answer 374

Martial law

Question 375

A standardized management tool for meeting the demands of small or large emergency or non-emergency situations and ensures command, control, and coordination of resources.

Answer 375

Incident Command System (ICS)

Question 376

Incident Command system may be used for what type of events:

Answer 376

natural and man-made disasters, civil disturbances, mass arrests, bomb threats, hostage/barricaded persons, acts of terrorism, and other unusual incidents.

Question 377

Three principles of how ICS operations are predicted are

Answer 377

1. Protecting life and provided for the safety of emergency responders and public 2. Stabilizing the incident by developing a strategy that will minimize the effect it has on the surrounding area 3. Conservation of property by minimizing the effects on the environment

Question 378

What are the five steps in effectively assuming command of an incident in progress?

Answer 378

1. Oncoming Incident commander must be adequately briefed by current IC. 2. Oncoming IC should personally perform assessment of the incident situation with the existing IC 3.Determine appropriate time for transfer of command 4. Notice of change of command will be made to Police chief and AC via 911 center, Bureau chief, ICS command staff, ICS general staff, All incident personnel.

Question 379

Operations Section of ICS

Answer 379

Establish perimeter ensure the safety of assigned personnel conduct evacuations maintain command post and scene security provide for detainee transportation, processing, and confinement direct and controlling traffic Conduct post incident investigations

Question 380

Planning section within ICS

Answer 380

collection, evaluation, dissemination, and use of information about the development of the incident and status of resources Prepare a documented incident action pla

Question 381

logistics Section within ICS

Answer 381

Provides manpower, facilities, services, and materials in support of the critical incident Communications transportation Medical support Food services Specialized team equipment needs

Question 382

Finance/Admin section within ICS

Answer 382

Recording personnel time Procuring additional resources recording expenses Documenting injuries and liability issues

Question 383

Within the ICS, the Safety officer is responsible for

Answer 383

Immediate safety of assigned personnel Correct unsafe acts via chain of command unless action or intervention is immediately required.

Question 384

Within the ICS, the Information officer (IO) is responsible for

Answer 384

Implementation of PIO policy

Question 385

Within the ICS, the Liaison Officer (LO) is responsible for

Answer 385

coordinating with agencies assisting in the incident, with city legal advisor, and advise police chief of all legal matters.

Question 386

The ____ shall coordinate the evacuation of residents during natural and manmade disasters and advise the emergency operations center of the approximate number of people to be evacuated.

Answer 386

IC (Incident commander)

Question 387

N.O.C.

Answer 387

Negotiation Operations Command vehicle.

Question 388

How many operators are appointed to the N.O.C. when activated and who activates the N.O.C.

Answer 388

2, IC (incident commander)

Question 389

The primary rule in the restoration of law and order is

Answer 389

the application of minimum force

Question 390

What are some factors to be considered before using chemical agents?

Answer 390

A. Wind conditions B. Direction the crowd should be moving c. Type of area the group members might disperse into D. IF said dispersal will expose innocent residents and businesses to vandalism, destruction, and/or danger. E. Effects on un-involved subjects and business/property

Question 391

When responding to a railroad crash, the first unit on scene shall

Answer 391

Notify dispatch of the severity of the crash, notify railroad dispatch to stop all trains on track, and contain/protect the scene to prevent any further loss of life.

Question 392

Field command posts should be located ______ and act as a liason between the CEOC

Answer 392

at or beyond the outer perimeter of any problem area,

Question 393

The point of contact for the F-ROC process will be the

Answer 393

Police Fiscal Management Administrator, second POC will be the Police emergency management Coordination Sergeant.

Question 394

In addition to the documented quarterly inspection, a documented inspection of the police building facilities and emergency equipment will be conducted at least ____?

Answer 394

Anualy, and will include photographs

Question 395

Agency members who are required to report to their designated work location before, during, and after an emergency situation

Answer 395

Essential personel

Question 395

The movement of resources or the classification level during an emergency or event

Answer 395

Operational phasing

Question 396

During a hurricane, Sergeants will assume the position of

Answer 396

Field supervisors

Question 397

When responding to a potential hazardous materials incident, all personal shall respond from

Answer 397

upwind (wind to your back)

Question 398

When responding to a potential hazardous material incident, an officer's role is

Answer 398

to secure the scene in order to attempt to control further contamination and gather info for fire rescue

Question 399

All reports will be completed and turned in ______. Exceptions may only be given by a

Answer 399

prior to the end of shift. Shift Lt

Question 400

The records section will generate a status report _____ to identify any missing or late reports

Answer 400

Weekly

Question 401

All reports will be submitted in ____ ink if hand written

Answer 401

black Ink

Question 402

Incidents requiring immediate notification to the chief of police, including those that may expose the department to serious liability, or which may result in heightened community interest, to include, but not limited to. OIS, In-custody deaths, Vehicle pursuits resulting in serious bodily injury or death, Serious assault of an officer that results in substantial bodily injury or death, at fault crash resulting in serious bodily injury or death

Answer 402

Critical incident

Question 403

Command staff at the rank of _____ and above will not be assigned or issued or required to wear a BWC, regardless of the above assignments.

Answer 403

Captain

Question 404

Personnel who discover their issue BWC is not operating correctly shall swap out their camera and notify

Answer 404

their supervisor

Question 405

All BWC equipment will be inspected

Answer 405

semi-annually during line inspections

Question 406

Personnel who fail to activate the BWC when required will notify their immediate supervisor

Answer 406

As soon as practicable but definitely by the end of the shift

Question 407

Employees will categorize BWC recordings no later than

Answer 407

the end of shift

Question 408

Any request by the BWC coordinators to recategorize a video must be completed within

Answer 408

3 working days or before any extended period of time

Question 409

The Internal Affairs Section shall be responsible for reviewing BWC recordings related to

Answer 409

1. UOF/response to SRR 2. Pursuits 3. Officer injury 4. Injury to suspect 5. Documented Citizen and internal complaints

Question 410

BWC refresher training will be conducted

Answer 410

Annually

Question 411

The BWC coordinator will conduct ____ documented reviews of at least ___ BWC recordings to ensure that BWC recordings are being properly uploaded, categorized, and described in accordance with agency policies and procedures.

Answer 411

Quarterly, 20

Question 412

Unless otherwise specified, All recordings shall be retained for a minimum of _____

Answer 412

90 days

Question 413

Vehicle crashes involving an employee, pursuits, and events involving injury to an employee and/ or citizen, or any recording of an event of public interaction where the employee reasonably believes could lead to litigation against them shall be retained for a minimum of

Answer 413

4 years

Question 414

Sergeant Admin duties include

Answer 414

- RESOLVING REPEAT CFS - Provide remedial training when needed - Line inspections - Support top-down philosophy - Display strong work ethic - Attend monthly staff meetings - carry out mandate of commanding officers - Keep Lt informed Demonstrate commitment and superior customer service - Evaluations - provide training - Supervisory investigations

Question 415

Agency issued email shall be checked at least

Answer 415

once during the shift

Question 416

Supervisors are responsible for detail officers that are in district and they are required to touch base with that officer

Answer 416

At least once per shift

Question 417

Notification to the PSS section when sending command notifications shall be made within _____ in order to provide basic facts to the command staff

Answer 417

30 minutes of the initial investigation

Question 418

The function of the NPB district sergeant is

Answer 418

to ensure that the proper resources are utilized in conjunction with the legal and procedural means specified.

Question 419

Police Officer's responsibilities inlcude

Answer 419

**Effectively resolve neighborhood problems through creative problem solving techniques by initiating problem solving action plans to reduce or eliminate repeat crime and disorder problems in neighborhoods**   Protect life and property To prevent and suppress crime to apprehend violators of the law Preserve the public order

Question 420

When dealing with restraining force, Officers shall use

Answer 420

least amount of force needed or appropriate amount of force necessary to overcome resistance to effect an arrest.

Question 421

The primary function of NPB is

Answer 421

to protect life and property, inclusive of the prevention and suppression of crime, the apprehension of violators of the law, the preservation of public order, and to enhance the quality of life through community policing and evidenced-based crime reduction strategies

Question 422

The road patrol division has two patrol regions

Answer 422

East and West

Question 423

East and west regions consist of

Answer 423

5 districts, 20 zones

Question 424

An operational and management philosophy that is uniquely identifiable. Ongoing attempts to promote greater community involvement in the police function

Answer 424

Community Policing

Question 425

Patrol aspects of the stratified model

Answer 425

quality investigations, directed patrol, field interview cards, traffic stops, contacting known offenders, and contacting potential victims

Question 426

If any deficiencies are discovered during pre shift inspections, the officer shall

Answer 426

notify immediate supervisor immediately

Question 427

Take home vehicles will not be left with less than

Answer 427

3/4 of tank of fuel

Question 428

All electronic warrant applications must be based on

Answer 428

probable cause

Question 429

An arrest warrant through cloud Gavel will be considered approved when

Answer 429

the judge selects "Approve" in cloud gavel

Question 430

Officers will not leave their assigned district for breaks until they have been cleared by

Answer 430

a supervisor

Question 431

Meal breaks will not be longer than

Answer 431

40 minutes with 10 min of travel time

Question 432

coffee breaks (10/10) will be no longer than

Answer 432

10 minutes with 10 min of travel time

Question 433

No breaks will be authorized within the

Answer 433

the first hour and last hour of any shift

Question 434

No more than ____ marked police units, and no more than ____ uniformed officers will be allowed in any one place

Answer 434

4, 4

Question 435

Officer will not meet in parking lots or public places where the presence of ______ police vehicles will atract attention, unless the meeting is necessary to conduct official business, and the time does not exceed _____

Answer 435

2 or more, 10 minutes

Question 436

Command notification CFS

Answer 436

Air craft crash arrest of PSL officer or employee Arson animal control injuries barricaded/hostages' situations (determine crimes committed if any) Baker Acts with or without potential RPO behavioral threat Assessment management Contact with city Counsil Deaths Dv involving PSL employee Drowning Escapes prisoner

Question 437

A death of which the deceased has been seen on a regular basis and treated by a physician within the past year such that the physician will sign the death certificate.

Answer 437

Attended death

Question 438

When a person dies more than 30 days after being treated by a physician unless the death was medically expected.

Answer 438

Unattended death

Question 439

To stop traffic with a whistle

Answer 439

use one long blast to stop. two short blasts to start

Question 440

Emergency stopping of traffic

Answer 440

Use three or more short blasts for all traffic to immediately clear an intersection and stop

Question 441

Manual operation of traffic control signals can be used in circumstances including

Answer 441

Periods of high traffic Signal Malfunction Traffic accidents affecting movement To provide uninterrupted flow

Question 442

The ultimate goal of traffic enforcement is to

Answer 442

reduce traffic collisions

Question 443

A proactive approach to traffic enforcement and is monitored on a continuing basis.

Answer 443

Selected traffic enforcement program- S.T.E.P.

Question 444

An evaluation of the selective enforcement will be completed at least

Answer 444

Annually

Question 445

All uniform officers should place their traffic enforcement emphasis on

Answer 445

Violations that cause collisions and at the times/locations where they most occur

Question 446

Seized driver's licenses or vehicle plates will be submitted to the property section

Answer 446

by the end of officer's tour

Question 447

When arrested for DUI, the suspect may not have a blood/breath alcohol level of .08 or more grams of alcohol per ____ liters of blood or _____ liters of breath

Answer 447

100 liters of blood... or per 210 liters of breath

Question 448

Driving a commercial vehicle as defined in F.S.S. 316.003 with a blood alcohol level of ____ or more is prohibited.

Answer 448

.04

Question 449

When conducting field sobriety exercises, the officer will note each clue of the suspect's eyes during HGN. If ___ or more of the ___ possible clues are observed, there is a positive indication of impairment.

Answer 449

4 or more of the 6

Question 450

When conducting the "walk and turn" during a DUI investigation, ___ or more clues are a positive indication of impairment.

Answer 450

2 or more

Question 451

When conducting the "One leg stand" during a DUI investigation, ___ or more clues indicate impairment.

Answer 451

2 or more

Question 452

When responding to a crash, a long form is required during the following circumstances.

Answer 452

Crash resulted in death Any and all complaints of injury or pain Hit and run DUI Towed vehicles Commercial vehicles invovled

Question 453

Officers responding to crash scenes involving autonomous vehicles will

Answer 453

notify their supervisor, and request a THI to handle the crash

Question 454

When arriving on scene of a hazardous material crash, the officer shall

Answer 454

Isolate the hazard are and evacuate non-essential personnel Provide first aid Coordinate traffic control Identify the hazard materials DO NOT ENTER evacuated area relay information to 911

Question 455

If an ON-duty officer is involved in a crash resulting in serious bodily injury or death,

Answer 455

FHP will assume control of the scene

Question 456

The Traffic Homicide Investigator will notify FHP and receive a county fatality number within

Answer 456

24 hours

Question 457

The Traffic Homicide Investigator will fax to FHP in Tallahassee, the traffic fatality report form (one page form) within

Answer 457

24 hours

Question 458

The City's remittance will be deemed correct if the association does not give written notice to the city within

Answer 458

15 calendar days

Question 459

Each bargaining unit member may contribute ____ of annual leave to the Association time bank on an annual basis

Answer 459

two hours

Question 460

The maximum number of representatives to be granted time off paid from the Association time bank is

Answer 460

3 representatives

Question 461

The president of the Association shall submit all requests for the use of th association time bank to the police chief at least _____ working days in advance

Answer 461

2 working days

Question 462

Association timebank charges will be drawn in increments of ____ and will be charged for all hours.

Answer 462

1 hours increments

Question 463

Up to ___ representatives of the Association will be allowed to attend collective bargaining sessions without loss of pay when attending during their normal hours of work

Answer 463

4 representatives

Question 464

In the event that an association meeting lasts longer than ______, the member may elect to utilize time bank for the remainder of their shift (ten hours shift)

Answer 464

6 hours

Question 465

How many representatives of the association are allowed to attend grievance meetings?

Answer 465

1

Question 466

How many representatives of the association are allowed to be present for critical incidents?

Answer 466

2

Question 467

Shifts by "first, Second, and Third" are

Answer 467

First shift (Mids) 10pm-8am Second shift (Days) 7am-5pm Third Shift (Eves) 3pm-1am

Question 468

Bargaining unit members shall be awarded ____ in advance notice of both bi-annual shift picks

Answer 468

72 hours

Question 469

How much time is each bargaining unit member allotted to make their shift pick selection?

Answer 469

12 hours

Question 470

All bargaining unit members that is an officer may accrue a maximum of ____ of comp time at any given time.

Answer 470

80 hours (upon resignation, can be compensated for up to 80 as well)

Question 471

Request for comp time must be submitted _____ in advance

Answer 471

72 hours

Question 472

No more than ____ bargaining unit members per shift will be off on any combination of comp or vacation time

Answer 472

5 members

Question 473

All bargaining unit members shall be paid a minimum of ____ hours when required to appear in court, SAH or meetings, responding to any court related hearing, or prep meetings, whether in person or telephonic or video during off time

Answer 473

3 hours

Question 474

All bargaining unit members shall be paid a minimum of ____ hours for any telephonic conference with the SAO

Answer 474

2 hours (non court prep)

Question 475

All bargaining unit members shall receive ____ hours compensation plus all time worked when required to RETURN to work after the expiration of their shift

Answer 475

3 hours

Question 476

All bargaining unit members shall be compensated ___ additional hour (hold over) plus all time worked when required to remain on duty during their shift.

Answer 476

1

Question 477

Stand by status (on call) is defined as when a member is required to to carry a pager or device and be available to return to work within ______ or less notice

Answer 477

45 minutes or less

Question 478

Bargaining unit members who are on call/stand by shall be afforded with ____ per day.

Answer 478

1.5 hours per day (2.5 hours during holiday)

Question 479

All step increases shall be Soley based on

Answer 479

Merit

Question 480

In the event that a bargaining unit member receives an evaluation of failure to meet standards, that member will then be evaluated in

Answer 480

30, 60, 90 days

Question 481

Bargaining unit members assigned to CID, SID, THI exeeding 12 consecutive weeks are entitled to

Answer 481

$1 additional per hours

Question 482

UCI are entitled to

Answer 482

$1.50 per hour more

Question 483

K-9 unit teams shall receive ____ hours compensation on each of their scheduled days off for care and maintenance of their partner.

Answer 483

1.5 hours

Question 484

High liability instructors must have a minimum of ___ years as a LEO and ___ hours of instruction.

Answer 484

3 years min and 20 hours of instruction time (2 classes)

Question 485

incentive pay shall be issued as a one-time lump sum payment as follows:

Answer 485

2.5% for AA or Bachelor's degree 5% for a master's degree or Doctoral

Question 486

Any member who sustain a job related injury or illness shall be entitled to full pay status for a maximum period of up to ____

Answer 486

12 months ( 6 month extension if needed)

Question 487

An employee, while on disability leave, shall not be eligible to earn or accrue leave benefits after

Answer 487

30 days

Question 488

A maximum of ____ hours of overtime compensation ours per fiscal year will be included as pensionable earnings

Answer 488

300 max

Question 489

The pension board shall calculate a bargaining unit member's pension benefit based on the top

Answer 489

5 years

Question 490

All absences of more than ____ days or shifts may require verification of illness or disability (doctor's note)

Answer 490

3

Question 491

Sick time payments shall be made only when a bargaining unit member separates from City employment in good standing and shall be limited to a maximum of

Answer 491

1,040 hours

Question 492

In mobile filed force, A SQUAD will consist of a minimum of

Answer 492

seven police officers and 1 sergeant.

Question 492

An employee, while on disability leave shall not be eligible to earn or accrue leave benefits after ____ days

Answer 492

30 days

Question 493

The pension board shall calculate a bargaining unit member pension benefit based upon the top _____ year of service

Answer 493

5 years

Question 494

All bargaining unit members shall accrue ___ hours annually of sick leave compensation

Answer 494

96

Question 495

The bargaining unit member making a sick time donation shall be employed with the city for more than ____ years. Additionally, a maximum of ___ hours can be donated by an officer in a 12 month period

Answer 495

5 years, 80 hours maximum

Question 496

Accrued annual leave per years of service. Annual leave capping annual amount over a period of 26 pay periods

Answer 496

0-3 80 hours 4-9 120 hours 10-19 160 hours 20+ 200 hours

Question 497

Annual leave may be accrued to a maximum of

Answer 497

360 hours

Question 498

Bargaining unit members are eligible to use leave time after completing ___ consecutive months of employment

Answer 498

6

Question 499

Request for ____ or more hours of annual leave should be submitted to the chief's designee

Answer 499

40 or more

Question 500

Bargaining unit members are not permitted to take more than ___ days of annual leave in any 6-month period without permission from chief of police

Answer 500

20 days

Question 501

Any bargaining unit member who elects to take an authorized leave of absence for up to ___ days shall maintain their seniority.

Answer 501

180 days

Question 502

No bargaining unit member shall be required to work more than ____ consecutive hours, unless agreed to by the member, or if they volunteered, if either results in the bargaining unit member not receiving ___ hours of off duty time (except during city emergency)

Answer 502

12 consecutive hours, 8 hours of off duty time in between

Question 503

No bargaining unit member shall be permitted to work more than ____ shifts including off-duty details, in a 24-hour period without approval by Lt or above.

Answer 503

2 shifts

Question 504

What are the 4 Types of disciplinary actions?

Answer 504

- Written reprimand - Suspension without pay (Forfeiture of up to 80 hours of accrued vacation or comp leave) - Dismissal - Demotion

Question 505

Written reprimands will be considered expired if the bargaining unit member is not disciplined prior to the completion of the

Answer 505

second annual evaluation subsequent to the reprimand

Question 506

Terminations, written reprimands, and suspensions without pay shall become effective immediately ___ days after the notice of discipline has been issued unless in a CDP.

Answer 506

10 days

Question 507

Prior to the effective date of the discipline, the bargaining unit member may request a name clearing hearing within

Answer 507

5 working days of the request

Question 508

The purpose of the grievance process is to

Answer 508

Settle, at the lowest supervisory level, disputes or disagreements between the city and the employees

Question 509

A dispute or disagreement involving the interpretation or the application of specific provisions of this agreement

Answer 509

Grievance

Question 510

An Officer shall present a grievance in writing within ____ days of the occurance

Answer 510

15 days

Question 511

When provided with a grievance, the division commander shall render their decision within ____ days

Answer 511

12 days

Question 512

Any unsettled grievance at step 1 shall be taken to the chief of police within ____ working days

Answer 512

12

Question 513

Any grievance not settled at Step 2 will be taken up by the city manager within ____ days. During that period, the city manager will render a decision within __ days post meeting with the association and employee.

Answer 513

12 days, 20 days for city manager to render decision.

Question 514

In the event that a grievance is not settled by the city manager in step 3, the association or the grievant may request that the grievance be submitted to arbitration within

Answer 514

20 Calander days

Question 515

In regard to arbitration, the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Services panel is made up of ____ names

Answer 515

7 names (Grievant strikes first), next 5 strike and then seventh is a "neutral arbitrator" process completed in 15 days

Question 516

Second panel of 7 arbitrators' session shall be resolved in

Answer 516

45 days

Question 517

Copies of the arbitrator's award shall be furnished to both parties within

Answer 517

45 days

Question 518

The arbitrator award may be retroactive to a period earlier than ____ days

Answer 518

180 days

Question 519

In disciplinary and discharge cases, the burden of proof is on the

Answer 519

City of PSL

Question 520

In contract interpretation cases (grievances), the burden of proof is on the

Answer 520

Grievant

Question 521

If any article, portion, provision, term or condition or section of this CBA agreement is found invalid, illegal, or not enforceable by reason of any existing or subsequently enacted legislation or by judicial or admin authority, the parties will agree to meet within ____ days to review

Answer 521

30 days

Question 522

The categories of discipline eligible for the CDP include

Answer 522

written reprimand or suspension (1, 2, or 3 days only)

Question 523

The maximum number of comp time earned for a sergeant is

Answer 523

70 hours

Question 524

The time period in which the value of property stolen from multiple acts of retail theft can be aggregated is

Answer 524

120 days

Question 525

HALO law states

Answer 525

it is unlawful for any person, after receiving a verbal warning to not approach from a first responder, who is engaged in the lawful performance of a legal duty, to violate such warning and approach or remain within 25 feet of the first responder with the INTENT TO INTERFERE WITH, THREATEN OR HARASS.

Question 526

Tianeptine is a schedule ____ narcotic.

Answer 526

1

Question 527

What are the two forms of arrest?

Answer 527

Arrest with a warrant and without a warrant

Question 528

Searches of subjects under arrest does not violate the fourth amendment

Answer 528

Gustafson v. State and Robinson v. US

Question 529

An arrest warrant authorizes law enforcement to enter a residence when they have reasonable grounds to believe what?

Answer 529

Gustafson v. State

Question 530

Steagald v. United States

Answer 530

Search warrant is required when attempting to enter a third-party residence in order to arrest a subject who does not currently reside at that location.

Question 531

Benefied V. State

Answer 531

The Florida Supreme Court ruled in favor of Benefield, holding that officers must knock and announce their presence before entering a private residence to make an arrest, unless there are special circumstances (e.g., danger to officers, risk of evidence destruction).

Question 532

A court order authorizing an arrest for failure to appear in court (Also referred to as "Bench warrant")

Answer 532

Capias

Question 533

Warrantless arrest/Misdemeanor exceptions

Answer 533

1. Leaving or depositing a poison in any common street or in an yard or enclosure 2. Cruelty to animals 3. Confinement to animals without sufficient food, water, or exercise 4. Violations of livestock transportation requirements 5. Selling or comingling of animals with contagious disease without disclosure. 6. Assault of officer or medical personnel 7. Battery 8. Child abuse 9. Criminal mischief/Graffiti 10. Concealed weapon 11. Disorderly conduct at licensed establishments 12. Any act of Domestic violence 13. Violation of Domestic violence injunction 14. Possession of firearm or ammo while bound by a final injunction against domestic violence 15. An act that violates a condition of pre-trail release when the original arrest was related to Domestic or dating violence 16. Possession of not more than 20 grams of marijuana 17. Exposure of sexual organs 18. Loitering and Prowling 19. Obscene material- knowingly possessing an obscene, child like doll 20. Racing 21. Sexual Cyberharassment 22. Stalking 23. Theft from public lodging establishment or pubic food service establishment 24. Theft from Retail Store or farm 25. Traffic related offenses 26. Transit fare evasion 27. Trespass at airport 28. Trespass from public fairgrounds 29. Trespassing on school property 30. Vessel Safety violation (violation of safety zone, security zone, regulated navigation area, or naval vessel protection zone

Question 534

An arrest by a police officer pursuant to a warrant or a warrant exception must always be based on

Answer 534

Probable cause

Question 534

Jenkins v. State (Tampa Police)

Answer 534

Probable cause to arrest based on information obtained from other officers, witnesses, or even informants.

Question 535

A bondsman may arrest a principle (suspect) before or up to

Answer 535

two years after the forfeiture

Question 536

An out of state bondsman is authorized to arrest/capture a principle in Florida if

Answer 536

The bondsman possesses an equivalent license by the state where the bond is issued.

Question 537

Register v. Barton

Answer 537

Register v. Barton (1954) is a Florida Supreme Court case that addressed the authority of bail bondsmen to apprehend their principals (the individuals they have bonded) and that the authority cannot be delegated to other non-peace officers.

Question 538

Buchanan v. State

Answer 538

is a Florida District Court of Appeal case that examines the legal boundaries concerning the use of force by bail bondsmen when apprehending their principals. Only force necessary to secure bond and deadly force when in self-defense.

Question 539

Diplomatic Immunity

Answer 539

is a principle of international law by which certain foreign government officials are not subject to the jurisdiction of local courts and other authorities for both their official and to a large extent their personal activities

Question 540

Diplomatic Consulars- Blue cards

Answer 540

issued to Diplomatic agents and members of their families. COMPLETE CRIMINAL IMMUNITY. Cannot be handcuffed, arrested, or criminally prosecuted

Question 541

Diplomatic Consulars- Green cards

Answer 541

issued to members of admin, technical, and service staff of an embassy. If they hold critical positions in embassy, they are complete criminal immunity

Question 542

Diplomatic Consulars Red Cards

Answer 542

Issued to employees and consular officers which offers some immunities

Question 543

Carpenter v. United States

Answer 543

Whether the government needs a search warrant to access historical cell phone location records under the Fourth Amendment.

Question 544

When seizing personal property require an exparte order be filed within ____ business days of every seizure. A ruling of no probable cause means that the law enforcement agency must return the property within ____ days.

Answer 544

10 business days, 5 days to return property

Question 545

Even if a seizing agency meets it burden at trial of of proving beyond a reasonable doubt that seized property constitutes contraband, there are TWO statutory defenses available to a claimant under the act. Those two offenses are

Answer 545

An innocent owner or a bon fide lien holder

Question 546

U.S. Supreme court case that directly relates to the violation or deprivation of one's civil right under the constitution.

Answer 546

Marshall V. Sawyer 1962

Question 547

Case law related to citizens recording police officers while not interfering with their normal Duties (hint:2)

Answer 547

Smith v. City of cumming Glik v. Cunniffe

Question 548

U.S. Supreme Court case about GPS tracking and the Fourth Amendment. In this case, police placed a GPS device on car without a proper warrant and tracked his movements for 28 days.

Answer 548

U.S. v. Jones

Question 549

U.S. Supreme Court case about thermal imaging and the Fourth Amendment. In this case, police used a thermal imaging device from outside Danny Kyllo’s home to detect heat patterns suggesting indoor marijuana growing, without a warrant.

Answer 549

United States v. Kyllo

Question 550

U.S. Supreme Court case that says a trained, reliable drug dog’s alert gives probable cause to search a vehicle top to bottom

Answer 550

Florida v. Harris (2013)

Question 551

a Florida Supreme Court case about concealed weapons. In this case, the Court clarified that a weapon is considered "concealed" if it is hidden from the ordinary sight of another person, even if part of the weapon is slightly visible.

Answer 551

Ensor v. State (1981)

Question 552

a Florida case about reasonable suspicion for a police stop. In this case, officers stopped a juvenile based only on his presence in a "high-crime area" and his nervous behavior.

Answer 552

R.R. v. State (2002)

Question 553

a Florida case dealing with Miranda rights and custodial interrogation. In this case, the court looked at whether the subject was in custody when he made incriminating statements without being read his Miranda rights. The court ruled that a person is considered "in custody" for Miranda purposes if a reasonable person would feel they are not free to leave, even if formal arrest hasn't occurred yet.

Answer 553

Cook v. Crosby (2005)

Question 554

a Florida case about investigatory stops and reasonable suspicion. In this case, officers stopped a subject based only on vague descriptions and his presence in an area near a recent crime. The court ruled that officers must have specific, articulable facts — not just vague suspicions or general descriptions — to justify an investigatory stop.

Answer 554

Wallace v. State (1998)

Question 555

a Florida case about search and seizure under the Fourth Amendment. In this case, officers searched a vehicle without a warrant or consent after stopping him for a traffic violation. The court ruled that the search was unlawful because it wasn’t supported by probable cause or a warrant, and there was no immediate threat or exigent circumstances justifying it.

Answer 555

Walker vs. state (2007)

Question 556

a Florida case about evidence obtained from an unlawful stop. In this case, the subject was stopped by police without reasonable suspicion or probable cause, and evidence was found during the stop. The court ruled that the evidence obtained during the unlawful stop was inadmissible, as it violated the Fourth Amendment rights.

Answer 556

Smithson v. state (1997)

Question 557

A United States Case law that depicts the reasonableness when utilizing a photo lineup/show up to identify a suspect

Answer 557

U.S. v. Sanchez (1970) or Cummings v. Zelker

Question 558

The maximum time allowed after an offense to conduct a confrontation/identification by Florida authority (as described in Ashford v. State) is

Answer 558

4 days

Question 559

Case law that depicts how a suspect has no right to counsel at a photographic display regardless of whether the display is conducted prior to indictment is ____ or post indictment is

Answer 559

Kirby v. Illinois (1973) Post indictment - U.S. v. Ash (1973)

Question 560

The Supreme Court held that a post-indictment lineup is a critical stage of the prosecution, and therefore, the defendant has a constitutional right to have counsel present. Identifications made without counsel may be inadmissible unless the prosecution can show they were based on an independent source.

Answer 560

United States v. Wade (1967)

Question 561

United states case law that states the prosecution may not use statement whether exculpatory or inculpatory stemming from a custodial interrogation of the defendant unless it demonstrates the use of procedural safeguards effective to secure the privilege against self-incrimination

Answer 561

Miranda v. Arizona (1966)

Question 562

Supreme court case law closely involving the interrogation and cease of interrogations with juveniles

Answer 562

B.P. v. State and Ramirez v. State

Question 563

Medical Marijuana Card Registry information is renewed ____?

Answer 563

Annually

Question 564

Patients may not possess more than _____ medical marijuana.

Answer 564

4 ounces (70-day supply)

Question 565

The law requires that at least _____ persons when transporting medical marijuana, and at least _____ persons to remain in the vehicle when making the delivery

Answer 565

2 persons and 1 in the vehicle when making the delivery

Question 566

Firearms seized or voluntarily surrendered pursuant to the Baker Act must be returned within ______ after the individual is no longer subject to the involuntary baker act.

Answer 566

7 days

Question 567

a landmark U.S. Supreme Court case concerning the Fourth Amendment and the definition of a "seizure" by law enforcement.

Answer 567

united states v. Mendenhall

Question 568

Case law related to recording police officers while they are performing their duties

Answer 568

Smith v. City of cumming and Glik v. Cunniffe

Question 569

An RPO can restricts one’s access to firearms or ammunition for periods between

Answer 569

14 days -12 months

Question 570

RPOs can be extended by officer or agency within ____ prior to the expiration date on the order

Answer 570

30 days

Question 571

Upon surrendering, a receipt identifying all firearms collected must be given to the respondent and within ______ the officer must file the original receipt with the court

Answer 571

Within 72 hours

Question 572

is a U.S. Supreme Court case addressing Fourth Amendment protections against unlawful searches

Answer 572

United States. . Jacobsen

Question 573

is a landmark U.S. Supreme Court case concerning Fourth Amendment rights and the **“fruit of the poisonous tree”

Answer 573

United States v. Wong Sung

Question 574

the Supreme Court held that when a person gives consent to search their vehicle, that consent can include containers within the car that might reasonably contain the object of the search (in this case, drugs).

Answer 574

Florida v. Jimeno

Question 575

In regards to provided consent to search a vehicle, this case law established that one who does not own the car may provide consent if reaonable and if they are in actual al control

Answer 575

State v. Walton

Question 576

US Supreme Court case law that held that police could conduct a warrantless search with the consent of a third-party occupant who possesses common authority over the premises, even when the subject occupant is physically absent from the premises due to a lawful detention or arrest

Answer 576

Fernandez v. California

Question 577

United States Supreme Court case all that states a search may not be conducted if an occupant on scene is objecting to the search regardless of the co-occupant consent given

Answer 577

Georgia v. Randolf

Question 578

is a landmark U.S. Supreme Court case establishing the constitutionality of stop-and-frisk procedures under the Fourth Amendment.

Answer 578

Terry v. Ohio

Question 579

Supreme Court case law that found flight or running at the site of police in a high crime area in and of itself constituted as reasonable suspicion for an investigative detention stop under the fourth amendment

Answer 579

Illinois v. Wardlow

Question 580

Supreme Court case that states during the course of a pat down for weapons, you detect an item that by sheer contour or mass makes its identity and criminality immediately apparent to you such as narcotics based on your training and experience, you may seize the object and the subject may be arrested on the narcotics charge

Answer 580

Minnesota v. Dickerson also referred as the plain feel doctrine

Question 581

Case law that states when a lawful arrest is made without a warrant, and Officer may search the person arrested and the area within his or her immediate control

Answer 581

Chimes v. California

Question 582

The Supreme Court case law held that while the search incident to an arrest warrant exception is still clearly valid once the arrest is physically separated from any possible weapon or destructible evidence. This exception no longer applies for the purposes of searching the immediate area where the subject was taken into custody Consequently and search performed incident to arrest after the subject is secured is not needed for officer, safety, or evidence preservation, and would therefore be a violation of the fourth amendment prohibition against unreasonable, searches for seizures

Answer 582

Arizona v. Gant

Question 583

This US Supreme Court case held that although a cell phone can be seized as part of a search incident to arrest the information contained in the cell phone absent exit existent circumstances cannot be viewed or accessed in anyway without a valid search warrant

Answer 583

Riley v. California

Question 584

This US Supreme Court case states that a police officer having problems caused to stop a vehicle for any traffic violation may do so, even if the officer has an alternative ulterior motive for making the stop

Answer 584

Whren v. U.s

Question 585

This case, Law states that a warrantless valid search may be made of a car and any containers within the vehicle when there’s probable cost to believe that the automobile contains contraband a weapon or evidence of a crime. Under these circumstances, a search may be made of the entire vehicle, including the trunk, locked or unlocked containers and locked glove compartment.

Answer 585

Carrol v. U.s also known as the Carol doctrine.

Question 586

The US Supreme Court held that during a lawful traffic stop all passengers are seized from the moment a car is stopped by the police the court stated that the temporary seizure of driver and passengers ordinarily continues and remains reasonable for the duration of the stop

Answer 586

Arizona v. Johnson

Question 587

Case law that states if there is probable cause that a vehicle contains fruits or instrumentalities of a crime or contraband the entire vehicle, including any locked or unlocked containers may be searched

Answer 587

California v. Acevedo

Question 588

United States case law related to inventory searches based on police policy and procedure

Answer 588

Colorado v. Bertine Florida v. Wells

Question 589

Supreme Court case loss stating that a warrantless search is permitted when officers reasonably believe that contraband or other evidence may be destroyed or removed before a search warrant can be legally obtained

Answer 589

Mincey v. Arizona

Question 590

Supreme Court case law that is closely related to hot pursuit of a felon suspect

Answer 590

Warden versus Hayden

Question 591

The Supreme Court case law, prohibits, warrantless and nonconsensual entries into a suspects home in order to make a routine felony arrest

Answer 591

Payton v. New York

Question 592

A search warrant will be prepared and excuted as soon as possible within its life span of _____

Answer 592

10 days

Question 593

U.S Case law that prohibits law enforcement for searching rental cars where the sole occupant is the lease on the agreement

Answer 593

Bryd v. United states

Question 594

U.S. Supreme court held that when an officer lack information negating an inference that the oner is the driver of a registered vehicle, the traffic stop is considered reasonable. (i.e. running license plates to determine the drivers revoked or suspended.

Answer 594

Kansas v. Glover

Question 595

A trespass is good for ___ months

Answer 595

4 months

Question 596

What are the three exceptions to legal justification of battery

Answer 596

1. Consent (whether implied or expressed) 2. Self defense 3. Arrest

Question 597

a landmark United States Supreme Court decision that significantly shaped law enforcement use-of-force policies, particularly regarding deadly force and force used when dealing with fleeing felons

Answer 597

Tennessee v. Garner

Question 598

The US supreme court held that in order to determine whether an officer used reasonable force, the court must pay careful attention to the facts and circumstances (totality) of each case including: The severity, whether the suspect poses an immediate threat to the safety of officers or others, and whether the suspect is actively resisting arrest and/or attempting to evade capture by flight

Answer 598

Graham v. connor

Question 599

The specific law that demands all victims of any crime have the right to prevent the disclosure of information or records that could be use to locate harass the victim or the victim's family

Answer 599

Marsy's Law