Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Epizoo > Written MCQ > Flashcards

Written MCQ Flashcards

(73 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What is the principle of haemagglutination inhibition test?

A

If the test is positive then there is no haemagglutination because presence of Ab will inhibit the haemagglutination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the cytopathic effect in cell cultures?

A

The cytopathic effect is when an organism has the ability to cause harm to the cells and destroy them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which medium is used for cultivation of mycobacteria:
A- Lowenstein - Jenssen
B - Hepatic agar
C - Sabourad agar -> fongi

A

Answer nc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which staining methods is used for microscopic detection of brucella
A- Hematoxylin-eosin
B- Koster
C- Ziehl-Nielsen

A

Answer nc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In complement fixation test positive result is:
A- Hemolysis
B- No hemolysis

A

No hemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which is the ,,gold standard” test for laboratory diagnosis of BSE (Bovine Spongiform Encephalitis virus)?
A- Fluorescent antibody test
B- Western blott
C- Agglutination assay

A

Answer nc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

FAO is:
A- Federative agriculture organisation
B- Food and agriculture organisation
C- Forest and agriculture organisation

A

Food and agriculture organisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Forms of infectious process according to quantity of agents?

A

mono etiological, poly etiological, pleurisy etiological

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are grades of epizootiological process?
A- Ascending, descending
B- Preepizootic, interepizootic
C- Sporadic, enzootic, epizootic, panzootic

A

Sporadic, enzootic, epizootic, panzootic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Dogs and cats are born:
A- Agamaglobulinemic
B- Hypergamaglobulinemic
C- Hypogamaglobulinemic

A

Hypogamaglobulinemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Causative agent of oedema diseases in pigs

A

E.Coli -> Toxaemic Colibacillosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Susceptible species in mycobacterioses
A- all vertebrates including man
B- All warm-blooded mammals including man
C- All ruminants and man

A

Answer NC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Marek Disease is caused by:

A

Herpes virus 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of following diseases are zoonotic
A- Mycoplasmosis
B- Swine vesicular disease
C- Canine coronaviral disease

A

Swine vesicular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Swine dysentery is caused by:

A

Brachyspira hyodysenteriae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Way of avian influenza transmission
A- inhalation
B- Ingestion
C- Inhalation and ingestion

A

Inhalation and ingestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Rinderpest is caused by:

A

Morbillivirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Aujeszky disease is always fatal for:
A- Pigs
B- Human
C- Dogs

A

Dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Reservoirs of leptospira are:
A- Pigs
B- Rodents
C- Cats

A

Rodents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

West Nile virus is transmitted by:
A- Mosquitos
B- Ticks
C- Fleas

A

Mosquitos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What sample is taken for rabies diagnosis?
A- Saliva
B- Blood
C- Brain

A

Brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Cytopathic effect is:
A- Genetic mutation of cell culture after virus infection
B- monolayer duplication after virus inoculation
C- Destruction of the cells after virus inoculation

A

Destruction of the cells after virus inoculation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which medium is used for cultivation of salmonella?
A- MacConkey agar
B- Tween agar
C- Sabourad agar

A

MacConkey agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which methods is used for microscopic detection of fungi?
A- Native with KOH
B- Stamp
C- Dark field microscopy

A

Answer nc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What are the main reagents in ELISA test?
Antibody,Antigen Enzyme, Chromogen
26
STAMP test is used for differentiation of A- Staph.aureus from Streptococcus uberis B- Staph.aureus from Streptococcus intermedius C- Streptococcus agalactiae from Streptococcus dysgalactiae
Answer nc
27
OIE head office is in? A- Paris B- Rome C- Geneva
Paris
28
Division of etiological agents according to their pathogenity
Facultative, Obligatry, Apathogenic
29
Abortive infection is? A- Infection causing abortion B- Fetal infection C- Infection disappearing after prodromal period
Infection disappearing after prodromal period
30
Give a example of non-contagious infectious diseases:
Blue-tongue
31
what disease is notifable to OIE? A- Pullorum disease B- Canine parvovirosis C- Tetanus
Pullorum disease
32
Susceptible species to avian influenza A- All avian species and human B- All waterfowl C- Birds and pigs only
All avian species and human
33
Brucellosis in horses is caused by: A- Brucella bovis B- Brucella equi C- Brucella abortus
Brucella abortus
34
Way of tick encephalitis transmission A- tick only B- Tick and milk C- Tick and saliva
Tick and milk
35
Strangles is caused by:
Streptococcus equi
36
Which of following disease is not zoonotic A- Myxomatosis B- Camel pox C- Contagious ecthyma
Answer nc
37
Bluetongue is transmitted by: A- Culicoides B- Culicidae C- Ixodidae
Culicoides
38
BVDV is caused by:
Pestivirus
39
Maedi and visna is: A- Retroviral infection B- Prion infection C- Reoviral infection
Retroviral infection
40
Aujeszky diseases is always fatal for? A- Dogs B- Rodents C- Swine
Dog
41
What are the main clinical signs of acute mastitis? A- Normal temperature, mammary gland dysfunction, nodular changes in mammary gland parenchyma B- Redness, swelling, fever, pain, dysfunction C- Mammary gland atrophy
Redness, swelling, fever, pain, dysfunction
42
Scrapie is detected by a) ELISA b) PCR c) Western blot
Western blot
43
Clinical signs of avian leucosis are a) Enlarged Bursa, diffuse and nodular lymphoid tumors in organs b) Neurological c) Respiratory
Enlarged Bursa, diffuse and nodular lymphoid tumors in organs
44
Main clinical signs of strangles are: a) Abscess in the lymph nodes of the gastrointestinal tract – diarrhea b) Abscess in the CNS c) Abscesses in the lymph nodes of the head and neck, yellow coloured nasal discharge, contagious of upper respiratory tract
Abscesses in the lymph nodes of the head and neck, yellow coloured nasal discharge, contagious of upper respiratory tract
45
Etiological agent of strangles:
Streptococcus equi subspecies equi
46
Golden standard for the detection of rabies virus is a) ELISA b) Immunofluorescence c) Haemagglutination test
Immunofluorescence
47
Which diseases are caused by prions? a) Kuru, Scarapie, Maedi – Visna, Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy b) Creuzfeld Jacob’s Disease, Scarapie, Chronic Wasting Disease, Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy c) Creuzfeld Jacob’s Disease, Scarapie, Porcine polioencephalomyelitis, Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy
Creuzfeld Jacob’s Disease, Scarapie, Chronic Wasting Disease, Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy
48
Q fever a) Affect only birds and humans b) Affects only ruminants c) Is a zoonosis (infects rum and occasionally humans)
Is a zoonosis (infects rum and occasionally humans)
49
Clinical manifestation of Maedi Visna a) Only neurological signs b) Respiratory and neurological signs c) Respiratory signs and polyarthritis
Respiratory and neurological signs
50
Tularemia is a) Caused by Francisella tularensis, and not characterized by natural focality b) Caused by Francisella tularensis, and characterized by natural focality c) Caused by Borellia burgdonferi and characterized by natural focality
Caused by Francisella tularensis, and characterized by natural focality
51
Maedi Visna a) Is caused by a retrovirus and affects sheep and only sheep b) Is caused by a paramyxovirus and affects sheep, occasionally goats c) Is caused by a retrovirus and affects sheep, occasionally goats
Is caused by a retrovirus and affects sheep, occasionally goats
52
Campylobacteriosis a) Is a zoonosis b) Affects only pigs and cattle c) Affects only cattle and sheep
Is a zoonosis
53
Lyme disease is usually diagnosed by a) Serology b) Cultivation c) PCR
Serology
54
African swine fever is caused by a) Circovirus b) Pestivirus c) Asfavirus
c) Asfavirus
55
Contagious bovine pleuropneumonia is caused by a) Mycoplasma bovis b) Mycoplasma mycoides subsp. Mycoides c) Pestivirus
Mycoplasma mycoides subsp. Mycoides
56
Rabies virus is a) Pantropic b) Polytropic c) Neurotropic
Neurotropic
57
Clinical signs (most common) in Feline Immunodeficiency Virus infection are a) Mostly reproductive disorders b) Mostly neurological signs c) Aaemia, Immunosuppression and Lymphoma associated signs
Aaemia, Immunosuppression and Lymphoma associated signs
58
Samples for the laboratory diagnosis of African swine fever are a) Brain, blood, faeces b) Liver, tonsils, lymph node, kidney c) Tonsils, kidney, spleen, cloted blood, lymph node
Liver, tonsils, lymph node, kidney
59
Outcomes of Feline Leukaemia Virus infection are a) Always a Progressive infection b) Abortive infection and Progressive infection c) Progressive infection, Regressive infection and Abortive infection
Progressive infection, Regressive infection and Abortive infection
60
Source of paratuberculosis is a) Exhaled air from infected animals b) Faeces of infected animals c) Blood of infected animals
Faeces of infected animals
61
Leptospira spp. a) Is mostly shed through blood b) Are high resistant in dry conditions c) Survives in wet conditions
Survives in wet conditions
62
Most common localization of ringworm lesions: a) Around eyes, head and neck b) Mammary gland c) Limbs
Around eyes, head and neck
63
What is the causative agent of Lockjaw? a) Streptococcus equi b) Clostridium chauvoei c) Clostridium tetanii
Clostridium tetanii
64
What is the sample for the detection of foot and mouth disease virus a) Blood and faeces b) Vesicle c) Conjuctival swab
Vesicle
65
What is the minimum level of antibodies that correlates with protection against rabies infection a) 1:800 HIT b) 0,2 IU c) 0,5IU
0,5IU
66
Mucosal disease is associated with a) African swine fever virus infection b) Bovine viral diarrhea virus infection c) Rinderpest
Bovine viral diarrhea virus infection
67
Dumb form of rabies is characterized by a) Bleeding b) Paralysis c) Behavioural changes
Paralysis
68
Lumpy skin disease (LSD) is caused by a) Parapoxvirus b) Herpesvirus c) Capripoxvirus
Capripoxvirus
69
African horse sickness a) Is caused by a Pestivirus, transmitted by Culicoides spp. b) Is caused by a Orbivirus, transmitted by Culicoides spp. c) Is caused by a Orbivirus, transmitted by Ixodes spp.
Is caused by a Orbivirus, transmitted by Culicoides spp.
70
What are the most common isolated bacterial pathogens from the digestive tract of dogs? a) Escerichia coli, Campylobacter spp., Salmonella spp., Yersinia enterocolitica b) Bordetella bronchiseptica, Pasteurella spp., Klebsiella pneumonia, Arcanobacterium pyogenes c) Streptococcus spp., Staphylococcus spp., Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Escerichia coli, Campylobacter spp., Salmonella spp., Yersinia enterocolitica
71
What are the most common bacterial agents of the digestive tract of cattle? a) Escerichiacoli,Salmonellaspp.,Clostridiumspp.,Mycobacterium avium subsp. Paratuberculosis b) Listeria spp., Leptospira spp., Arcanobacterium pyogenes c) Pasteurella multocida, Manhemia haemolytica, Haemophilus somnus
Escerichiacoli,Salmonellaspp.,Clostridiumspp.,Mycobacterium avium subsp. Paratuberculosis
72
Herpesviruses are characterized by a) Neurotropism only b) Latency c) Oncogenic transformation of the host cell
Latency
73
Field diagnosis of mastitis:
California mastitis test, Determination of pH

Epizoo (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions