X-Ray Flashcards

(177 cards)

1
Q
used for large objects
 have a short exposure time
increase penumbra (blurrred margins)
A

Large filaments

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2
Q

used for small objects
have a longer exposure time
produce a sharper image
decrease penumbra

A

Small filaments

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3
Q

is negatively charged and contains a focusing cup

A

cathode

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4
Q

is positively charged, made of tungsten, and is the target plate

A

anode

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5
Q

makes 85-90% of the x-ray beam and creates the image

A

Bremsstrahlung radiation (braking radiation or soft x-rays)

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6
Q

makes 10-15% of the x-ray beam and does not contribute to the formation of the image

A

Characteristic radiation (hard x-rays)

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7
Q

complete absorption of x-ray which does not affect the image

A

photoelectric effect

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8
Q

two types of radiographic noise

A

artifact and mottle

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9
Q

three types of mottle

A

quantum, structure, and film graininess

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10
Q

variation of density of a uniformly exposed film that results from random spatial distribution of x-ray quanta absorbed in the screen

A

quantum mottle

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11
Q

factors that affect scatter radiation

A

beam size, field size, and patient size

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12
Q

4 ways to reduce scatter radiation

A

reduce beam size
increase beam energy or increase Kvp
decrease field size w/ grid or collimator
air gap technique

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13
Q

purpose of the grid

A

to prevent scatter radiation and allow useful x-rays through

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14
Q

refers to the distance between the object and the film

A

air gap technique

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15
Q

what happens when you reduce the OFD

A

reduce scatter

image magnification

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16
Q

produces 99% heat and 1% x-rays

A

anode

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17
Q

reduces amount of radiation exposure to the patient

A

port filters and collimator

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18
Q

increasing the mAs incorporates the use of which filament

A

large filament

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19
Q

what is the best grid ratio that also has the greatest effect in reducing scatter radiation

A

16:1

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20
Q

what type of crystals does the film consist of

A

silver halide crystals

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21
Q

directly proportional to the Kvp and Ma and contributes to the overall darkness of the fil

A

density

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22
Q

refers to the differences in the shades of gray of an image and is indirectly related to the Kvp

A

contrast

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23
Q

contrast recommended for soft tissue

A

low contrast (high Kvp)

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24
Q

contrast recommended for bone

A

high contrast (low Kvp)

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25
increasing the OFD results in
image magnification
26
exposes patient to less radiation, reduces penumbra, decreases magnification, and increases detail
FFD 72 inches (FFD of 40 inches does opposite)
27
blurred margins
penumbra
28
sharp margins
umbra
29
50% decrease in mAs is equivalent to a 15% increase in Kvp
50/15 rule
30
when decreasing the kvp by 16%, you have to double the mAs or it will halve the film distance OR when increasing the kvp by 20% you have to decrease the mAs by half or you will double the film density
16:20% rule
31
the anode heel effect is stronger on the cathode or anode
cathode
32
the cathode should be placed closer to the fatter part of the object in the anode heel effect
FAT CAT
33
increases film exposure, scatter radiation, and fog and decreases contrast
increasing the kvp
34
increases film exposure and darkens the film
increasing mAs
35
radio sensitivity of tissue is directly proportional to the rate at which the tissue multiplies (the more rapid a tissue grows, the more susceptible it is to damage)
bergonie-tribondeau law
36
radio resistant tissues
brain, spinal cord, thyroid, and muscle
37
radiosensitive tissues
gonads, bone marrow, lymphoid tissue, colon, and lungs
38
when taking x-rays in a female, within how many days should the procedure be performed
within 10 days of her LMP
39
in regards to density, which factors have a direct relationship
Kvp, mAs, collimator
40
in regard to density, which factors have an inverse relationship
FFD, OFD, grid
41
in regards to contrast, which factors have a direct relationship
OFD and grid
42
in regards to contrast, which factors have an inverse relationship
Kvp, mA, collimator
43
in regards to size distortion, which factor has a direct relationship
OFD
44
in regards to size distortion, which has an inverse relationship
FFD
45
in regards to detail, which has a direct relationship
FFD
46
in regards to detail, which has an inverse relationship
OFD
47
in regards to exposure time, which factors have a direct relationship
kvp, mAs, OFD
48
in regards to exposure time, which factors have a inverse relationship
FFD and collimator
49
all radiographic views have a FFD of 40 inches except the following which are at 72 inches
chest films lateral sternum films full spine films Non-AP cervical films (lateral, oblique, flexion, extension)
50
all views are AP projections except the following which are PA projections
``` skull mandible chest wrist tunnel patella ```
51
all oblique films are midway between a PA and a lateral position (usually at 45 degrees) except
thoracic spine | SI joint
52
all views are taken on suspended on expiration except the following which are performed on full inspiration
PA and lateral chest AP full spine AP and lateral thoracic
53
gonadal shielding should be used on children and adults within what range
2 inches
54
grids should be used on
all body parts measuring >12cm to reduce scatter radiation and use 70kvp to penetrate the grid
55
all tube tilts are cephalic except the following which are caudal
cervical anterior oblique lateral lumbar AP coccyx Y-scapula
56
CT is measured in what units
Hounsfield
57
Caldwell view shows what
Frontal sinus
58
Towne view shows
Foramen magnum
59
Water view shows
Maxillary sinus
60
Lateral skull shows
Sella turcica
61
APOM shows
C1 fractures
62
AP cervical shows
Luschka joints
63
Cervical oblique shows
Intervertebral foramina
64
Apical lordotic shows
Pancoast tumor
65
Swimmers shows what
C7 spinous process
66
Frog leg shows
Femoral head in abduction and external rotation
67
Tunnel shows
Intercondylar fossa in knee
68
Sunrise shows
Apical view of patella and the intercondylar groove
69
Lumbar oblique shows
Pars interarticularis
70
Lumbar lateral shows
IVF
71
MRI contraindications
pacemaker cochlear implant intracranial aneurysm implanted neurostimulators
72
MRI is useful in demonstrating what
``` spinal cord and brain pathology disc lesions solid organ pathology metasteses in bone demyelinating CNS disorders musculotendinous disorders ```
73
Which type pf imaging has contrast resolution that is 10x better for soft tissue pathology
MRI 10x better than CT
74
CT and bone scan contraindications
pregnancy
75
CT is useful in demonstrating
``` intraspinal and intracranial masses intracranial bleeding spinal canal stenosis abdominal masses bony structures LUNG pathology (best in CT than in MRI) disc (spiral CT) ```
76
which form of advanced imaging produces reconstructed axial images in any plane of the body
CT
77
has a contrast resolution that is 95 times better than conventional radiography
CT
78
uses a gamma camera to create images
radionuclide bone imaging (bone scan or bone scintigraphy)
79
what are some common radioactive pharmaceuticals used in a bone scan
technetium 99 and indium 111
80
what are normal areas of increased uptake on bone scans
``` SI joint SC joint AC joint kidney tips of scapula costochondral joints frontal parasagittal regions of the skull ```
81
bone scans are useful in determining what
``` primary bone tumors except multiple myeloma blastic metastases osteomyelitis occult or stress Fx avascular necrosis of bone pulmonary embolism ```
82
what form of imaging is helpful in the investigation of suspected vascular diseases
diagnostic ultrasound
83
what form of imaging is excellent in determining the size of tumors or abdominal aneurysms
diagnostic ultrasound
84
what imaging form uses high frequency sound waves
diagnostic ultrasound
85
diagnostic ultrasound uses
``` abdominal aortic aneursym carotid artery disease vertebral artery disease pregnancy ovarian disease cholelithiasis ```
86
What form of imaging is used to measure brain activity and changes in blood oxygenation
fMRI
87
Which form of imaging measures regional cerebral blood flow using radioactive labeled tracer glucose molecules
PET scan
88
tumors preferentially use the glycolytic pathway for energy therefore, there is a greater concentration of of radioactive glucose in malignant tissues
Warburg Effect (PET SCAN)
89
what form of imaging uses an injection of radionuclide into the bloodstream
SPECT
90
mammograms use a ___ Kvp and a ___ mA
lower; higher
91
is used for blood flow in arteries or veins with ultrasound
doppler
92
is used to visualize the esophagus
barium swallow
93
is used to visualize filling defects in the stomach or hiatal hernias
barium meal
94
is used to visualize filling defects in the small intestines
barium follow through
95
is used to visualize filling defects in the large intestine
barium enema
96
is used to visualize narrowing or clots in arterial blood vessels by injecting a radio contrast agent into an artery
angiogram
97
uses a magnetic field and pulses of radio wave energy to visualize arteries int he body
MRA
98
What does ALARA stand for
As low as reasonably achievable
99
what is the screen made from
phosphorus crystals
100
X-RAY guidelines
``` pain or limitation of motion spinal trauma malignancy congenital anomalies previously detected spinal abnormality scoliosis and kyphosis shoulder or arm pain from suspected cervical radiculopathy occipital headache pain radiating around the chest wall pain radiating into hip, buttock, hip or groin compression Fx ```
101
radiographs needed if any of the following are present after trauma high risk factors such as older than 65, work with dangerous mechanisms paresthesia in the extremities presence of midline cervical spine tenderness or delayed onset neck pain unable to actively rotate the neck beyond 45 degrees
Canadian C spine rules
102
``` no radiographs are needed if all of the following are present in a patient with a history of injury to the neck no posterior cervical spine tenderness no evidence of intoxication normal level of alertness no focal neurological damage no painful distracting injury ```
NEXUS (national emergency x-ray utilization study)
103
ottawa knee rules
X-rays recommended if there is a history of trauma to the knee and if any of the following are present age 55 or over isolated tenderness of the patella (no bone tenderness of the knee other than the patella) tenderness at the head of the fibula inability to flex to 90 degrees inability to take more than 4 consecutive weight bearing steps both immediately and in the office
104
ottawa ankle rules
X-rays are recommended if there is a history of trauma to the ankle and any of the following: age over 55 unable to take more than 4 successive weight bearing steps shortly after the injury and in the office localized tenderness along posterior aspect or crest of either malleolus localized tenderness over any of the following: talus navicular cuboid 5th metatarsal
105
champagne glass pelvis, splayed cupped metaphysics, small skull base
achondroplasia
106
large sella turcica, arrowhead phalanges, heel pad >23mm
acromegaly
107
soap bubble appearance, metaphysical lytic lesion, filled with blood, balloting of the cortex
Aneurysmal bone cyst
108
shiny corners, romans lesions, dagger sign, bamboo spine
AS
109
wedged shape dense *medial upper end of tibia, overweight and black kids
blount
110
AVN of the *head of the femur, patchy sclerosis and lucency, crescent sign
Chandler
111
totally disorganized joint with destruction, debris, and distension
Charcot's joint
112
stones in the upper right quadrant and +Murphys sign
cholelithiasis
113
dense sclerotic well circumscribed lesion rarely >2 cm in the skull or spine
osteoma
114
lucent lesion <2cm surrounded by a rim of dense bone, long bone or spine
osteoid osteoma
115
metaphysical Fxs at different healing stages and pencil thin cortices
osteogenesis imperfecta
116
broad based bone outgrowth cauliflower or coat hanger look
osteochondroma
117
AVN, *medial femoral epicondyle, ankle, hip, and elbow, arc like cleft, fragment
ostechondritis dessicans
118
eccentric, lytic lesion located in the diaphysis or metaphysis or neural arch
osteoblastoma
119
subluxation of the proximal radio-ulnar joint
nursemaids elbow
120
triangular sclerosis of the lower ilium near the SI joint, bilateral, and symmetrical
osteitis condensans ilii
121
solitary oval radiolucent defect, thin cortex, bunch of grapes appearance
non-ossifying fibroma
122
dystrophic calcification in muscle (brachial, quadriceps, thigh adductors)
myositis ossificans
123
ivory vertebra, punched out lytic lesions, bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
lymphoma in bone
124
small femoral head, mushroom deformity, epiphyseal sclerosis, fragmentation *head of femur in a child
legg calves perthes disease
125
thick tranverse radio dense metaphysis bands
lead posioning
126
AVN, partial fragmentation, sclerosis, and collapse of the *navicular bone
Kohler
127
blocked vertebrae, occipitilization of C1, platybasia, wasp-waist sign
Klippel feil syndrome
128
AVN, dense sclerotic *lunate bone with partial fragmentation and collapse
Keinbock
129
salt and pepper skull, acro-osteolysis, bone cysts, rugger jersey spine
hyperparathyroidism
130
articular irregularity, wide intercondylar femoral groove, soft tissue swelling
hemophilia
131
beak like spurs on radial sides of metacarpal heads, joint space narrowing
hemochomatosis
132
osteolytic lesion, corduroy cloth, striated vertebrae, picture frame like
hemangioma
133
periarticular calcification around the shoulder joint, may affect hip and spine
HADD
134
soft tissue swelling, periarticular bone erosion, overhanging margin sign
Gout
135
eccentric metaphysical lesion crosses epiphyseal line, soap bubble appearance
giant cell tumor
136
AVN, sclerosis, fragmentation and deformation of the *2nd metatarsal head
Freiberg
137
lytic metaphysical lesion extending into diaphysis, soft tissue involved
fibrosarcoma
138
circumscribed lytic lesion, ground glass appearance, soap bubble, shepherds crook
fibrous dysplasia
139
diaphysial permeative, onion skin appearance with cortical saucerization
Ewings sarcoma
140
geographic lesion medullary region, destructive moth eaten pattern
eosinophilic granuloma
141
numerous intramedullary lesions in long bones, phlebolith calcifications
enchondromatosis
142
geographic central expansile lesion with stippled calcification, hand or feet
enchondroma
143
ADI >5mm in a child, hypo plastic atlas, genesis of the dens
down's syndrome
144
generalized osteoporosis, compression fractures, cod fish vertebrae
Cushing's syndrome
145
small femoral epiphysis, lateral femoral displacement, shallow acetabulum
congenital hip dysplasia
146
absent clavicles, numerous wormian bones, pear shape skull
cleidocranial dystosis
147
intramedullary lytic soap bubble lesion, speckled calcification in the tibia
chondrosarcoma
148
round or elongated lesion eccentrically located, thins the cortex
chondromyxoid fibroma
149
oval epiphyseal lytic lesion in lower or upper tibia, fluffy cotton wool
chondroblastoma
150
eccentric lucent lesion in metaphysis with cortical depression
chondroma
151
linear intra articular calcification in the knee, elbow, shoulder, or wrist
CPPD (pseudo gout)
152
slipping sideways injury through growth plate
Grade 1 (Slipping)
153
Fx of the edge of the metaphysis and growth plate
Grade 2 (Metaphysis)
154
fracture through the growth plate and articular surface
Grade 3 (articular)
155
fracture through the metaphysis and epiphysis into the articular surface
Grade 4 (complete)
156
compression of growth plate
Grade 5 (Krush)
157
pseudo fractures in long bones, decreased bone density, coarsened trabeculae
osteomalacia
158
soft tissue swelling, periosteal elevation, brodies abscess, involocrum
osteomyelitis
159
plastic metaphysical permeative lesion, conman triangle, sunburst appearance
osteosarcoma
160
cotton wool skull, mixed plastic/lytic lesion pelvic brim and candle flame sign
Pagets
161
ossification of medial knee collateral ligament, traumatic
pelligrini stieda disease
162
AVN, sclerosis and fragmentation of the proximal pole of the *scaphoid
Preiser
163
cup and pencil deformity of DIP joints, mouse ears, sausage digits
psoriatic arthritis
164
soft tissue swelling, intra-articular erosions, ulnar deviation of MCP joint
RA
165
widened growth plate, metaphysical cupping, paint brush appearance in a child
Rickets
166
anterior wedging, schmorls nodes, decreased disc height in 3+ vertebrae
Scheurmanns disease
167
ice cream sliding off the cone sign, disrupted kleins line and shentons lines
SCFE
168
soft tissue retraction, calcinosis cutis and aero-osteolysis
scleroderma
169
Frankl's line, Pelkens spur, and wimbergers ring
scurvy
170
AVN, fragmented irregular sclerosis of the *calcaneal apophysis
Sever
171
hair on end skull, undertubulation of long bones, cod fish vertebrae
sickle cell disease
172
slippage of one vertebra on the other, most common at L5/S1, pars Fx
spondylolisthesis
173
expansile geographic defect in proximal humerus or femur, fallen fragment sign
simple bone cyst
174
small elevated scapula, omovertebral bone (30%), and lipped feel syndrome
sprengels deformity
175
soft tissue swelling, periarticular osteoporosis, reducible ulnar deviation
SLE
176
apical cavitation; unilateral or bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, tracheal shift
TB
177
causes of AVN (STARS)
``` Sickle cell disease Trauma Alcoholism Radiation Steroids ```