X100 Flashcards by JOSEPH SCHMID

The strategic support area describes the area extending from a theater to a _____ base or another combatant’s AOR.

Conus

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Which is not a sustainment tenet of MDO? (Agility, Endurance, Depth, Influence)

Influence

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CCDR’s authority to issue logistics directives, including peacetime measures, to effectively execute operations.

Directive Authority for Logistics (DAFL)

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Sustainment: Operational Framework breaks an assigned operational area into what three parts?

Rear, Close, Deep

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Sustainment: Operational Framework breaks an assigned operational area into what three parts? (Tof F)

True

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Sustainment: Operational Framework breaks an assigned operational area into what three parts?

Rear, Close, Deep

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After TAA, capabilities developers execute the __________ to document MTOEs and TDAs.

Command Plan

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Capability Demand Analysis (____), Resourcing and Approval (____), Force Synchronization Review (_____)

Quantitative, Qualitative, Integration

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Which of the following correctly lists operational variables associated with the acronym PMESII-PT?

Economy Infrastructure Time
Mission Economy Social
Physical Terrain, Enemy, Time

Economy Infrastructure Time

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Which of the following is NOT a tactical mission task? (Breach, Attack, Reduce, Isolate)

Attack

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Which tactical mission task physically renders an enemy force combat-ineffective until it is reconstituted?

Destroy

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What are major integrating processes within the operations process?

Information Collection, IPB, and knowledge management

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Targeting process: Decide, ______, Deliver, and Assess (D3A)

Detect

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EEFI is a CCIR that describes a critical aspect of a friendly operation that should be protected from enemy detection. (T or F)

False

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Which is not an attribute of the Rapid Decision-making and Synchronization Process (RDSP)?

produces a single COA
based on existing order
battle drill for current and future ops cell
none of the above

none of the above

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Which color of money is used for Day to Day activities?

Operations and Maintenance- Army

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Compel and Control are examples of ______

Stability Mechanisms

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Commanders drive the Operations Process through UVDDLA. What is the V?

Visualize

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Both Army Design Methodology and Military Decision-Making Process are conceptual planning processes

False

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Which authority is used to accomplish the Title 10 requirements for the Secretary of the Army?

ADCON

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JCIDS uses __________ to identify capability needs, gaps, and solution analysis.

Capabilities-Based Assessments

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JCIDS considers all domains of DOTMLPF-P, and classifies solutions into two categories: Materiel and Non-materiel

True

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Which is NOT a DAS path?

Defense Business Systems
Major Capability Acquisition
Software Acquisition
Deliberate Operational Needs

Deliberate Operational Needs

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What analytical framework does HQDA use to assess an FDU prior to approval?

FIFA

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After TAA, capabilities developers execute the __________ to document MTOEs and TDAs.

Command Plan

Where can you find Army guidance on the percentage of personnel a Component unit should receive?

Army Component Guidance

ID missing force integration doc: Army Modernization Priority List (AMPL), _____, Army Component Manning Guidance (ACMG)

Dynamic Army Resource Priority List (DARPL)

Fill the blanks: Capability Demand Analysis (____), Resourcing and Approval (____), Force Synchronization Review (_____)

Quantitative, Qualitative, Integration

Department of the Army Structure include(s): Pick BEST answer FORSCOM, TRADOC, AMC, AFC ACOM ACOM, ASCC, and DRU ACOM, ASCC, DRU and FOA

ACOM, ASCC, DRU and FOA

ICD stands for:

Initial Capability Document

Who approves army requirements as part of the JCIDS process?

Army Resource Oversight Council

Non-materiel future needs (>2 years) are captured on what JCIDS document?

DOTMLPF-P Change Recommendation

Which is part of DOTMLPF-P?

Principle Departments Time Policy

JCIDS, PPBE, and DAS are the 3 primary decision support systems to integrate capabilities (t or F)

True

Army Futures Command leads the concept and capability development process for the Army Modernization Enterprise.

True

Only the Army use and comply with regulations that govern DAS (t or f)

False

How many milestones are part of the DAS Major Capability Acquisition Overview?

Which DAS Major Capability Acquisition phase includes validation of CDD?

Technology Maturation and Risk Reduction

After which DAS Major Capability Acquisition milestone are full funds committed?

Name of the Army Futures Command team(s) that lead the development of modernization priorities:

Cross Functional Teams

The Army’s urgent operational needs process/approach is captured in:

Operational Needs Statement

This document provides a 1-N list of unit priority, approved by Army Senior Leaders

DARPL

Who is the Army lead organization that synchronizes force integration efforts?

HQDA G-3/5/7

______ is the Army's lead materiel integrator (LMI)

US Army Materiel Command

Who manages acquisition programs? - PEO, Program Managers, Product Managers, and Project Managers Joint Staff J-8 Training and Doctrine Command Joint Staff J-4 Training

PEO, Program Managers, Product Managers, and Project Managers

What represents a "Must-Do", or minimum requirements of a capability being developed?

Key Performance Parameters

___ and ___ are two critical documents of the Force Design Update

O&O and URS

A Table of Organization and Equipment (TOE) is an authorizations document (t or f)

False

What assesses and determines required capabilities based on strategy, concepts, and similar guidance?

Needs Analysis

What compares required capabilities to current capabilities to determine unmet requirements?

Gap Analysis

The Planning to Programming Transition occurs at what step of the Force Management Model?

ARSTRUC publication at the end of TAA

Which is not a tenet of MDO? - Agility Endurance Anticipation Depth

Anticipation

____ is the purposeful reliance by one Service’s forces on another Service’s capabilities to maximize effects of both.

Joint interdependence

Joint Logistics - grouping of capabilities/activities that enable JFC to synchronize, integrate, and direct joint ops (t or f)

False

CCDR’s authority to issue logistics directives, including peacetime measures, to effectively execute operations.

Directive Authority for Logistics (DAFL)

JP 4-0 sustainment is a joint function and is the provision of logistics, personnel services, HSS, and finance mngt (t or f)

False

Which of the following answers list three of the eight Army Principles of Sustainment? - Integration, Endurance, Anticipation Responsiveness, Trust, Survivability Endurance, Simplicity, Improvisation Integration, Continuity, Improvisation

Integration, Continuity, Improvisation

Which is not true about the Theater Sustainment Command (TSC)? - Has three operational responsibilities Lead sustainment org for ASCC TSC is planner, ESC is executer Coordinates Title 10, ASOS, DoD EA, and lead service responsibilities

Has three operational responsibilities

Which is not true about an Expeditionary Sustainment Command (ESC)? - Multiple ESCs may operate in a theater at once Assigned to TSC, attached to Corps Sustainment BDEs are usually subordinate to ESC ESC plans for near-term operations

Assigned to TSC, attached to Corps

Sustainment: Operational Framework breaks an assigned operational area into what three parts?

Rear, Close, and Deep

Joint Logistics Enterprise (JLEnt) – Connects global strategic providers to the GCC/JFC at the operational level. (t or f)

True

Which authority is used to accomplish the Title 10 requirements for the Secretary of the Army?

ADCON

JCIDS uses __________ to identify capability needs, gaps, and solution analysis.

Capabilities-Based Assessments

Which is NOT true about interorganizational cooperations - Broader interaction among elements Promote COP A subset of Interagency Cooperation Faciliates cooperation in common interest

A subset of Interagency Cooperation

_____is the analytical framework that underpins joint planning.

Operational Design

Combatant Command (COCOM) does not include directive authority for logistics for subordinate units. (t or f)

false

Unified Actions attempts to sync, coordinate and integrate military ops to achieve ________

Unity of Effort

What type of area is represented by letter C?

JSOA

Which is not a Universal Joint Task List level - Strategic Theater Tactical Organizational Operational

orginizational

The JIPOE falls under which Joint Function?

Intelligence

Joint Function: ____ includes the exercise of authority and direction by a commander over assigned and attached forces.

____ is a series of related operations aimed at achieving objectives within a given time and space.

Campaign

Identify the missing element from the Competition Continuum: Cooperation, _______, Armed Conflict - Contingency Operations Adversarial Interaction Adversarial Competition None of the above

Adversarial Competition

The Chief of Mission (COM) has authority over all USG personnel in country, except those under the command of a CCDR. (t or f)

True

Which is not a multinational command structure?

Hybrid

Which principle enables commanders to understand effective mechanisms to achieve unity of effort?

Unity of Command

Which is NOT an attribute of an Alliance?

Ad Hoc

There are 12 Joint Operations principles

True

Fill in the blank: Caveats are any ____, ____ or ___ by a nation on its military forces.

limitation, restriction or constraint

_________ is conducted with units from two or more coalition members.

Coalition Operation

Multinational operations have how many tenets?

Which is part of DIME? - Mission Diplomatic Infrastructure Environment

Diplomatic

Coalition Coordination Centers are established in which multinational command structure?

Parallel

Principle USG organization that works countries on democratic reforms, economic development and disaster assistance and

USAID

Influencing populations occurs in what type of warfare?

Irregular

Which is NOT a military Operation - Security Cooperation Show of Force Antiterrorism Peace Operations

Security Cooperation

Who is not part of interagency coordination efforts? - DOS DOJ Department of Homeland United Nations

United Nations

Which is NOT true about interorganizational cooperations? - Broader interaction among elements Promote COP A subset of Interagency Cooperation Faciliates cooperation in common interest

A subset of Interagency Cooperation

Competition Continuum: Which is missing from Strategic Use of Force - Assure, Deter, ____, Force

Compel

______ authority to task-organize subordinate forces, assign missions and functions, and geographic responsibilities.

OPCON

1 - True or false All services use and comply with regulations that govern DAS

After which DAS Major Capability Acquisition milestone is money committed?

There are 9 Joint Operations principles

False

Name of the Army Futures Command team(s) that lead the development of modernization priorities

Cross Functional Teams

_____ _____ is the distance and duration across which a joint force can successfully employ military capabilities.

Operational Reach

Who chairs the Army Requirements Council?

VCSA

Ethical Triangle: Action is right if it produces the greatest good for the greatest number; concern for moral outcomes

Consequence-based

Jus ad Bellum is law during war

False

____ ____ is when competing virtues come into conflict and we must choice one "right virtue" over another "right virtue"

Ethical Dilemma

Military Revolutions include - WWI Nuclear French Revolution All of the above

According to Clausewitz, war is an extension of _____

Policy

Which of the following guidance documents is produced by the Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS)?

NMS

13 - True or false "Ends" are objectives that must be achieved to enable an end state.

True

Just conduct in war (jus in bello) requires distinguishing between combatants and non-combatants. This principle is:

Discrimination

Which "school of thought" believes peace is obtained through a balance of power?

Realism

The President signs the Defense Planning Guidance

False

Which strategic document does the Secretary of Defense NOT sign? Guidence for Employment of the Force Contingency Planning Guidance National Defense Strategy Defense Planning Guidance

Contingency Planning Guidance

Which "school of thought" believes anarchy of system can bemitigated through laws and institutions as a worldview?

Liberalism

Ethical Triangle: Action is right if a virtuous person would do it; concern for moral identity, ethics of character

Virtue-based

objective, offensive, mass, maneuver, economy of force, unity of command, security, surprise, and simplicity

Principles of Joint Operations

The synchronization, coordination, and alignment of the activities of governmental and nongovernmental entities with military operations to achieve unity of effort.

Unified Action –

C2, information, intelligence, fires, movement and maneuver, protection, and sustainment

Joint Functions

What are the two forms of warfare

irtregular traditional

4 principles of orginization

1. simplicity 2. span of control 3. unit integrity 4. interoperability

an area of land, sea, airspace, and cyberspace defined by a CCDR or subordinate unified commander, in which a JFC (normally a commander, joint task force [CJTF]) conducts military operations to accomplish a specific mission.

JOA

an OA defined by the CCDR for the conduct or support of specific military operations.

theater of operations

A collective term to describe military actions conducted by forces of two or more nations.

Multinational (MN) Operations:

The relationship that results from a formal agreement between two or more nations for broad, long-term objectives that further the common interests of the members.

Alliance

Two or more forces or agencies of two or more allies operating together.

Combined:

An arrangement between two or more nations for common action. Coalitions are typically ad hoc; formed by different nations, often with different objectives; usually for a single problem or issue, while addressing a narrow sector of common interest.

Coalition

Respect: All partners must be included in the planning process and their opinions sought in mission assignment. * Rapport: Personal and direct relationships foster teamwork and improve overall unity of effort. * Knowledge of Partners: Obtain an understanding of each members doctrine, capabilities, goals, culture, religion, history and values. * Patience: Relationships take time to develop. * Mission focus: Temper the need for respect, rapport, knowledge, and patience with the requirement to ensure that the necessary tasks are accomplished. * Trust and Confidence: The Multinational Force Commander (MNFC) must engage with other multinational force leaders to build personal relationships and develop trust and confidence.

Tenants of multinational ops

how many command structures are there and what are they

3; Integrated, Parrallel, and Lead Nation

Which of the following correctly lists operational variables associated with the acronym PMESII-PT? a. Enemy, information, social b. External, physical environment, troops c. Economic, infrastructure, time d. Ideology, military, political

Economic, infrastructure, time

_____________ is a location or condition, in any domain, relative to an adversary or enemy that provides an opportunity to progress towards or achieve an objective. a. Relative advantage b. METT_TC(I) c. PMESII-PT d. Operational approach

What are the tenets of multidomain operations? a. Mission, enemy, terrain, troops, time, civil considerations, information b. Surprise, concentration, audacity, tempo c. Agility, convergence, endurance, depth d. Clear, hold, build

Which of the following is an Army warfighting function? a. Protection b. Mission command c. Information d. Leadership

An ___________ is an operational area defined by a commander for the land or maritime force commander to accomplish their missions and protect their forces. a. Area of action b. Operational approach c. Area of operations d. Integration area

Area of operations

_____________ is the U.S. Army’s current operational concept.

MDO

Which of the following is a tactical mission task? Attack Defend Correct Control Allow

control

Which tactical mission task physically renders an enemy force combat-ineffective until it is reconstituted? a. Suppress b. Defeat c. Neutralize d Destroy

After visualizing the broad operational approach to achieve the end state, the commander met with the staff and provided COAs to develop in addition to direction for each warfighting function. What BEST describes what the commander did? a. Described the tactical problem b. Provided CCIR c. Outlined unit key tasks d. Provided planning guidance

What are the main elements contained within the commander’s intent? a. Task organization, mission statement, and concept of the operations b. Critical tasks, battlefield framework, and high value targets c. Broad purpose, key tasks for the unit as a whole, end state conditions d. Broad approach, decision points, commander’s critical information requirements

What are the major integrating processes within the operations process? a. Current operations, future operations, and plans b. Airspace control, information operations, mission analysis, targeting, terrain management c. Information collection, mission analysis, risk management, security operations, and targeting d. Information operations, intelligence preparation of the battlefield (IPB), knowledge management, risk management, and targeting

What planning methodology would you recommend during the execution of the mission if an unanticipated threat is likely to cause a change in the concept of the operations? a. Military decision-making process b. Rapid decision making and synchronization process c. Army problem solving d. Army design methodology

What is the main difference between security operations and reconnaissance operations? a. Reconnaissance operations are only conducted by maneuver units, security operations are only conducted by a cavalry squadron b. Security operations orient on the protected force, area, or facility to be protected, while reconnaissance is enemy, infrastructure, terrain and weather effects, and society oriented c. Security operations are only conducted by maneuver units, while reconnaissance operations are only conducted by a cavalry squadron d. Reconnaissance operations only orient on the protected force, area, or facility to be protected, while security is only enemy, infrastructure, terrain and weather effects, and society oriented

When comparing fundamentals of reconnaissance and security operations, which fundamental is considered in both? a. Provide early and accurate warning b. Retain freedom of maneuver c. Continuous reconnaissance d. Orient on reconnaissance objectives

What are the types of reconnaissance operations? a. Area, reconnaissance in force, route, special, and zone b. Area, route, screen, special, and zone c. Reconnaissance in force, route, screen, special, and zone d. Area, guard, route, special, and zone

What are the four primary types of security operations? a. Defeat, destroy, isolate, control b. Surprise, concentration, audacity, tempo c. Area, zone, route, special d. Screen, guard, cover, area security

d. Screen, guard, cover, area security

What doctrinal concept is a BCT commander describing if, during receipt of mission, he describes his understanding of the BCT’s mission as gaining control of key terrain to protect the flank of the division’s main effort, setting the conditions for withdrawal of enemy forces? a. Types of offensive operations b. Purposes of the offense c. Transitions d. Characteristics of the offense

What doctrinal concept does the commander want to make sure his staff addresses in each COA if he directs his staff to ensure all COAs include surprise, concentration, tempo, and audacity? a. Characteristics of the defense b. Forms of maneuver c. Characteristics of the offense d. Purpose of offensive operations

Which of the following is a correct statement about forms of maneuver? a. A turning movement seeks to destroy a weaker enemy force or fix a larger enemy force b. Frontal assaults and envelopments destroy enemy in their current positions c. Envelopments seize rear objectives, forcing the enemy to depart current positions d. All forms of maneuver seek to destroy the enemy by forcing them to depart their positions

During the offense which protection tasks would a commander most likely place special emphasis? a. Repositioning and sustainment operations b. Survivability and detention operations c. Camouflage and stability operations d. Resupply and replenishment operations

In opposing force tactics, what is a support zone? a. An area that links second and third echelon forces to battle zone forces and used to deceive the enemy of force disposition b. An area where enabling forces operate until committed and the risk of enemy action is moderate c. An area where the OPFOR expects to preposition committed reserve forces in support of the defensive actions d. An area that is free of significant enemy action and to permit the effective logistics and administrative support of forces

Which of the following is a reason that a BCT would reach a culmination point? a. Equipment repairs and personnel replacements do not keep pace with losses b. Stockage of fuel, ammunition, and other supplies drops due to expenditures c. Loss of tempo due to defended areas that can be bypassed d. The enemy force repositions close to, but outside of the BCT’s objective

Which of the following is a purpose of defensive operations? a. Seize population centers b. Disrupt an enemy attack c. Seize terrain, resources, and population centers d. Retain decisive terrain or deny a vital area to an enemy

What characteristic of the defense does a unit exhibit by planning the use of natural terrain, minefields, and likely avenues of approach to canalize attacking forces into engagement areas? a. Combined arms b. Preparation c. Audacity d. Surprise

The commander directs the staff to develop a defensive operation where effects can be concentrated, depth of the defensive area is maximized, the ability to take full advantage of the terrain, build flexibility within defensive actions, and buy time for resumption for future offensive operations. What type of defense is the staff planning? a. Mobile defense b. Area defense c. Maneuver defense d. Defense in depth

Of the five kinds of battle positions, which statement below describes a supplementary position? a. A defensive position for occupation when the primary position is no longer suitable b. The best position to accomplish the mission that covers the enemy’s most likely avenue of approach into an area of operation c. A defensive position that provides the best sectors of fire along an enemy avenue of approach d. A defensive position that provides the best zones of fire along an enemy retreat route.

What are some high priority sustainment considerations during a defensive operation? a. Availability of Class I b. Availability of Class IV and Class V c. Weather forecast d. High value/high payoff targets

According to OPFOR tactics, what are the two forms of attack? a. Integrated and dispersed attack b. Dispersed and collective attack c. Integrated and disruption attack d. Integrated and collective attack

If you are conducting a defensive operation, and it is unsuccessful, what will your unit most likely transition to? a. Offensive operations b. Defense support to civil authorities operations c. Full spectrium operations d. Retrograde operations

Foreign instigated insurgencies, domestic rebellions, and humanitarian crises are sources of what? a. DoS disintegration factors b. Examples of host nation control c. DoD reportable intelligence requirements d. Instability

In stability operations, what is the “whole-of-government approach? a. The full range of measures taken by a nation to promote its growth and to protect itself from subversion, lawlessness, insurgency, terrorism, and other threats to its security b. All Department of Defense (DoD) interactions with foreign defense establishments to build defense relationships that promote specific US security interests, develop allied and friendly military capabilities for self-defense and multinational operations, and provide US forces with peacetime and contingency access to a host nation c. The development, integration, and coordination of all instruments of national power and integrates the collaborative efforts of the departments and agencies of the USG to achieve unity of effort toward a shared goal d. Participation by civilian and military agencies of a government in any of the action programs taken by another government or other designated organization to free and protect its society from subversion, lawlessness, insurgency, terrorism, and other threats to its security

The stabilization framework is designed to accomplish which of the following? a. Dictate the limits of nongovernmental agency/organization involvement b. Describe the conditions of the operational environment c. Provide a sequenced response model for intervening actors d. Prioritize economic and infrastructure development tasks

Which of the following Army stability tasks nests within Department of State’s justice and reconciliation sector? a. Conduct security cooperation b. Establish/support civil control c. Establish civil security d. Support to governance

Stability operations are planned as part of any large-scale combat operation (LSCO), but at what stage of an operation are stability tasks initiated? a. As soon as conditions permit, no matter the combat environment b. Only at the completion of major offensive operations c. Only at the end of major fighting, during consolidation of gains d. At the start of operations, no matter the combat environment

What are designated events called that may be targeted by terrorist or other criminal activities by virtue of their political, economic, social, or religious significance (i.e., Olympics, presidential inaugurations, and state funerals) that require DSCA mission support? a. National incident response event b. Federal Bureau of Investigations special security event c. National special security event d. Homeland defense event

Which processes allow a command to support local communities in an emergency situation/incident? a. Local request for immediate support, state request for immediate support b. Emergency support functions, national incident management system c. Pre-scripted missions, mission assignments d. MOA/MOU, immediate response authority

Which law governs the President’s authority to deploy federal military forces, including federalized National Guard forces, within the United States to put down lawlessness and rebellion? a. Economy Act b. Posse Comitatus Act c. Stafford Act d. Insurrection Act

You are a member of a USNORTHCOM situational assessment team deployed to the Kansas City area to assess recent natural disaster conditions in advance of the potential commitment of federal military forces. What military representative does your team coordinate with for information sharing with other local, state and federal agencies? a. The adjutant general (TAG) for the state of Kansas b. Defense coordinating officer (DCO) c. Chief of staff for the state joint force headquarters (JFHQ-State) d. Deputy commanding officer (DCO)

What is a service or DoD agency installation within the homeland tasked to serve as a base for military forces engaged in DSCA or homeland defense called? a. State National Guard armory b. U.S. Army Reserve center c. Forward operating base (FOB) d. Base support installation (BSI)

The __________ is an orderly, analytical process that integrates the activities of the commander, staff, and subordinate headquarters in the development of a plan or order. a. Course of action decision brief b. Troop-leading procedures (TLP) c. Military decision-making process (MDMP) d. Quick decision-making process (QDP)

What are the doctrinally correct titles and sequence for the five paragraphs of an operations order? a. Situation, mission, execution, sustainment, command and signal b. Situation, mission, execution, sustainment, mission command c. Situation, mission, operations, sustainment, command and signal d. Situation, mission, execution, logistics, command and signal

__________________ is the systematic process of analyzing the mission variables of enemy, terrain, weather, civil considerations, and informational considerations in each of the other factors, in an area of interest to determine their effect on operations. a. Battlefield Calculus b. Intelligence preparation of the battlefield (IPB) c. Receipt of mission d. Planning team composition

Initial intelligence preparation of the battlefield (IPB) occurs during which step of the military decision-making process (MDMP)? a. course of action development b. Course of action approval c. Mission analysis d. Receipt of mission

What is the process that staffs use to develop courses of action during MDMP? a. Receipt of mission, missional analysis, COA development, COA analysis, COA comparison, orders production, dissemination, and transition b. Gather the tools, list all friendly forces, list assumptions, list known critical events and decision points, select the war gaming method, select a technique to record and display the results, war game the operation and assess the results, conduct a war game briefing c. Assess relative combat power, generate options, array forces, develop a broad concept, assign headquarters, develop COA statements and sketches, conduct COA briefing, select or modify COAS for continued analysis d. Frame the operational environment, develop a desired end state, frame the problem, develop an operational approach, develop the plan, continuously assess the situation, reframe as necessary

War gaming is conducted during which step of the military decision-making process (MDMP)? a. Course of action development b. Course of action analysis c. Mission analysis d. Course of action approval

A ________________ help subordinate units and staffs prepare for new missions by describing the situation, providing initial planning guidance, and directing preparation activities. a. Operations order (OPORD) b. Sequel c. Branch plan d. Warning order (WARNORD)

When preparing an operations plan or order, which Army reference specifies format standards and information requirements? a. FM 5-0 Planning and Orders Production b. FM 3-0 Operations c. FM 3-01 How to Fight d. FM 7-0 Training

As the commander develops the defensive plan, what is the first and most critical security consideration at the beginning of any defensive operation? a. Conduct reconnaissance to gain and maintain contact with the enemy b. Disrupting enemy formations to force early deployment c. Completing obstacle construction prior to enemy first contact in the main battle area (MBA) d. Destroying all enemy reconnaissance elements in the MBA and security areas

By law, Headquarters, Department of the Army (HQDA) is limited in size. What organization(s) does it use to accomplish its Title 10 missions?

Army Commands (ACOMs), Army Service Component Commands (ASCCs), Direct Reporting Units (DRUs), and Field Operating Agencies (FOAs)

Force Management ________________________.

develops and fields capabilities that combatant commanders require to meet the demands of the contemporary operating environment

Congress directs the Department of the Army (DA) to accomplish certain tasks through ___________.

Title 10

Which line of authority is used to accomplish the Title 10 requirements for the Secretary of the Army?

ADCON

Provide an example of Congress exercising its authority to organize the military.

Goldwater-Nichols Act established the structure that included geographic combatant commands

At the end of JCIDS, capability developers have an approved solution approach by using _________________ framework.

DOTMLPF

Describe the CBA

The CBA has three analyses and ends with a proposed solution to an identified requirement not currently met by the joint force. The Needs Analysis identifies the problem. The Gap Analysis assesses the unmet requirement. The Solutions Analysis proposes a range of DOTMLPF-P solution approaches.

A _______________ describes how the joint community wants to operate in future conflicts.

joint concept

JCIDS uses __________ to identify capability needs, gaps, and solution analysis.

capability based assessments

JCIDS considers all domains of DOTMLPF-P, but ultimately classifies solutions into two categories:

Materia, non material

_______ are the minimal operational effectiveness and suitability attributes that are testable and measurable to developing an effective military capability.

KPPs

Across DOTMLPF-P, the services consider materiel solutions last because ______________.

They are generally the most expensive and take the longest to develop

The Defense Acquisition System (DAS) applies to ____________.

all services

The Army processes urgent acquisition requirements through Operational Needs Statements (ONSs). The Joint community uses ___________.

Joint Urgent Operational Needs (JUONs) and Joint Emergent Operational Neeeds (JEONs)

Acquisition programs are managed by ______________.

Program Executive Offices, Program Managers, Product Managers, and Project Managers

is the process through which the Army develop and approves new (or modified) organizational designs.

Force design Update

A Table of Organization and Equipment (TOE) contains _________________.

a narrative and listings of the organization's required equipment and personnel

What analytical framework does HQDA use to assess an FDU prior to approval?

FIFA

The Force Design Update consists of six parts. What are the two principal documents?

O and O, URS

Replacing HMMWVs with JLTVs on TOEs requires a __________________ to update the TOE.

a Basis of Issue Plan (BOIP)

After TAA, capabilities developers execute the __________ to document MTOEs and TDAs.

Command Plan

MTOEs are the usual authorizations document for the operating force (including BCTs). _________ are the usual authorizations document for the generating force (including CGSS).

TDAs

Within Total Army Analysis (TAA), the Qualitative Analysis ______________.

Provides a human-in-the-loop view to apply operational experience and professional military judgment to the final Army force structure decisions

The Senior Leaders of the Army document TAA decisions on the total force structure in the ____________.

ARSTRUC

What is one reason that the Army cannot fully man units to MTOE even when it has enough personnel in rank and operational specialty?

Even when the Army has sufficient inventory to fill all units to authorizations, not all personnel are available for duty. Historically, 13% of the force is unavailable and held in an account known as TTHS (Trainees, Transients, Holdees, and Students)

What is an example of the Army considering Force Integration early in the development of a new capability?

FIFA

Where can you find Army guidance on the percentage of personnel a Compo 1 unit should receive?

Army Manning Guidance

Who establishes priorities for Army force integration efforts?

HQDA G3/5/7

How does the Army publish its priorities for unit resourcing?

AMPL and DARPL

The Army Budget Office (ABO) monitors expenditures during ________.

Execution is the actual spending of dollars authorized and appropriated by Congress

While initiated in Planning during Total Army Analysis, the Army's Program Objective Memorandum (POM) is finalized during _____________.

Congress who will actually pass the budget into law

If a program is unable to spend appropriated funds, the Army can shift the funds to another program through ____________, but only if it is less than the allowable threshold.

Reprogramming

This is one funding option when Congress and the President cannot agree on a defense budget by October 1st of any given year:

Continuing Resolution Authority

HQDA G8 aligning resources to requirements approved by the Secretary of the Army and CSA happens as part of ________.

programming

The ____ provides a foundational basis in preparation of annex D for assigned contingency plans and/or OPORD development tasks and establishes priorities of support across all phases of operations to support the jfcs conops

Concept of Logistical Support (COLS)

Human resources (HR) functional units are elements that provide direct or area HR support as an integrated part of the sustainment warfighting function. They are supported by the sustainment community and provide tactical HR support in which of the following specific area?

personnel accountability, casualty operations, postal operations

The strategic support area describes the area extending from the _______________ to the continental United States (CONUS) or another combatant's area of responsibility (AOR).

Joint Security Area (JSA) within a theater

Which of the following answers list four of the eight Army Principles of Sustainment?

responsiveness, survivability, improvisation, and continuity

Doctrinally, what organization is normally designated to control the Division Support Area (DSA)?

Maneuver Enhancement Brigade (MEB)

Which type of contract is considered the most difficult to manage, provides a variety of combat support and combat service support to deployed forces and is written in the United States in support of operations in theater

external

The _______ is a segment of the iterative planning process which addresses identification, understanding, and framing the theater’s mission at the campaign level, not for a specific operation.

theater logistics overview

The Army classifies supplies into 10 classes. Class _____ includes tentage, tool kits, housekeeping supplies, and individual clothing.

____________ is the distance and duration across which a unit can successfully employ military capabilities.

OPerational Reach

What are the levels of warfare according to FM 3-0?

National Strategic, Theater Strategic, Operational, Tactical

Medical evacuation vehicles positioned forward in each company area come from which squad in the battalion medical platoon?

ambulance

What authority does a Combatant Commander use to assign a component commander with the responsibility for conducting various theater logistics functions, as well as base support at designated theater locations

DAFL

Which sustainment principle best describes the abilty to forecast operational requirements and initiate necessary actions that most appropriately satisfy a response without waiting for OPORDs or fragmentary orders?

Anticipation

You are the brigade executive officer. On your first day, you learn that a service contract for maintenance is awarded for $350K. Who is the best person for tracking the monthly payments against the contracted amount in an effort to identify future potential savings through de-obligations?

Brigade S8

When a Brigade Comat Team echelons sustainment, they are normally organized into _______, _______, and _______.

Field Trains, Combat Trains, and Company Trains

What are the parts of the Fiscal Triad?

Financial Management (Disbursing), Financial Management (Budgeting), and Contracting

Which service is the sole provider of patient movement from Role 3 to Role 4 and is the preferred means of patient movement over great distances within a given area of operations (AO)?

Air Force

Casualty evacuation can span a spectrum considered lower end and upper end. Which of the following is considered lower end and the drawback to this type of casualty evacuation?

Dedicated, non-medical vehicle (air or ground) without a medical provider or medical equipment. No ability to provide enroute care.

The ____________ connects strategic enablers to the tactical formations.

Theater sustainment command

Sustainers enable ___________ by conducting sustainment preparation of the operating environment (SPoOE), synchronizing the sustainment plan with the scheme of maneuver, and maintaining flexibility and disciplined initiative while supporting maneuver commanders.

Freedom of action

ATP 4-10 defines operational contract support (OCS) as, “the process of planning for and obtaining supplies, services, and minor construction from commercial sources in support of CCDR-directed operations. What are the complimentary functions of OCS?

contract support integration, contracting support, and contractor management

Within Global Combat Support System (GCSS) - Army, the terms unit ‘OMA’ and ‘Army Working Capital Fund’ are associated with:

tactical funding and strategic funding

Which of the following is described as the capability to deploy and sustain military forces worldwide in support of national strategy?

Strategic Mobility

The Army Health System is divided into two distinct missions. These missions are _____ and ______.

Force Health Protection and Health Service Support

You are a battalion S3 in a unit that is assigned its position or area of operation from your parent unit and have your priorities set by your parent unit. What is your support relationship with the units you are supooporting

According to Joint Publication 4-0 Sustainment is one of the seven joint functions and includes __________________ until mission accomplishment and redeployment of the force.

logistics and personnel services

Which is part of DOTMLPF-P? 30sec Training Principle Data Organic

Training

Ethical Triangle: Action is right if it produces the greatest good for the greatest number; concern for moral outcomes 30sec Virtue-based Consequence-based Principles-based

Consequence-based

ICD stands for: 30sec Initial Change Document Initial Change Demand Initial Capability Document None of the above

Initial Capability Documen

Jus ad Bellum is law during war t or f

false

Which is part of DIME? Mission Diplomatic Infrastructure Environment

diplomatic

Who approves army requirements as part of the JCIDS process? 30sec Army Requirements Council Army Resource Oversight Council Acquisition Resource Oversight Council Department of Defense

Army Resource Oversight Council

Non-materiel future needs (>2 years) are captured on what JCIDS document? 30sec DOTMLPF-P Change Recommendation Solution Request Document Document Change Request Urgent Operational Need

DOTMLPF-P Change Recommendation

Army Futures Command leads the concept and capability development process for the Army Modernization Enterprise. 30sec True False

____ ____ is when competing virtues come into conflict and we must choice one "right virtue" over another "right virtue" 30sec Ethical Dilemma Moral Decision Competing Virtues None of the above

ethicval dilemma

Military Revolutions include 30sec WWI Nuclear French Revolution All of the above

all of the above

According to Clausewitz, war is an extension of _____ 30sec Government Economy Policy Conflicts

Policy

Which of the following guidance documents is produced by the Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS)? NMS JMS UCP JMCP

nms

Just conduct in war (jus in bello) requires distinguishing between combatants and non-combatants. This principle is: 30sec Discernment Moral Decision Making Discrimination Judgement

Discrimination

Which "school of thought" believes peace is obtained through a balance of power? 30sec Realism Liberalism

realism

16 - True or false The President signs the Defense Planning Guidance 30sec True False

Which strategic document does the Secretary of Defense NOT sign? 30sec Guidence for Employment of the Force Contingency Planning Guidance National Defense Strategy Defense Planning Guidance

Contingency Planning Guidance

18 - True or false JCIDS, PPBE, and DAS are the 3 primary decision support systems to integrate capabilities 30sec True False

_____ _____ is the distance and duration across which a joint force can successfully employ military capabilities. 30sec Tactical Distance Operational Depth Operational Reach Combat Area

Operational Reach

Which "school of thought" believes anarchy of system can bemitigated through laws and institutions as a worldview? 30sec Realism Liberalism

Liberalism

Ethical Triangle: Action is right if a virtuous person would do it; concern for moral identity, ethics of character 30sec Virtue-based Consequence-based Principles-based

Virtue-based

Department of the Army Structure include(s): Pick BEST answer 30sec ACOM ACOM, ASCC, DRU and FOA FORSCOM, TRADOC, AMC, AFC ACOM, ASCC, and DRU

ACOM, ASCC, DRU and FOA

Which is part of DOTMLPF-P? Principle Materiel Data Organic

materiel

What are the Levels of War? 30sec Tactical, Operational, Strategic Tactical, Organizational, Strategic Direct, Organizational, Strategic None of the above

Tactical, Operational, Strategic

Major Operations occur at what level of war? 30sec Strategic Tactical Operational Every level

operational

How many milestones are part of the DAS Major Capability Acquisition Overview 30sec 2 4 3 5

Which DAS Major Capability Acquisition phase includes validation of CDD? 30sec Material Solution Analysis Technology Maturation and Risk Reduction Engineering and Manufacturing Development Production and Deployment

Technology Maturation and Risk Reduction

There are 9 Joint Operations principles 30sec True False

Name of the Army Futures Command team(s) that lead the development of modernization priorities 30sec Cross Functional Teams Capability Development Team Cross Capability Team Defense Capability Team

Cross Functional Teams

Which is not a Principle of Organization? 30sec Simplicity Unit Integrity Unity of Command Span of Control

Unity of Command

Who chairs the Army Requirements Council? 30sec CSA VCSA SECDEF

vcsa

The Army’s urgent operational needs process/approach is captured in: 20sec Capability Request Initial Needs Request White Paper Operational Needs Statement

ons

Combatant Command (COCOM) does not include directive authority for logistics for subordinate units. 30sec True False

Unified Actions attempts to sync, coordinate and integrate military ops to achieve ________ 30sec Unity of Command Unity of Effort Economy of Force Joint Force

Unity of Effort

What type of area is represented by letter C? 30sec AOR JSOA JOA Theater of Operations

jsoa

Which is not a multinational command structure? 30sec Lead Hybrid Parallel Integrated

hybrid

Which principle enables commanders to understand effective mechanisms to achieve unity of effort? 30sec Unity of Command Economy of Force Maneuver Legitimacy

uoc

There are 12 Joint Operations principles 30sec True False

Fill in the blank: Caveats are any ____, ____ or ___ by a nation on its military forces. 30sec limitation, concern or constraint limitation, restriction or constraint interest, restriction or constraint

limitation, restriction or constraint

Multinational operations have how many tenets? 30sec 5 6 9 12

Which is NOT a military Operation 20sec Security Cooperation Show of Force Antiterrorism Peace Operations

Security Cooperation

Which is NOT true about interorganizational cooperations? 20sec Broader interaction among elements Promote COP A subset of Interagency Cooperation Faciliates cooperation in common interest

A subset of Interagency Cooperation

Competition Continuum: Which is missing from Strategic Use of Force - Assure, Deter, ____, Force 20sec Compel Protect Direct None of these

compel

Which is not a sustainment tenet of MDO? 30sec Agility Endurance Anticipation Depth

Anticipation

____ is the purposeful reliance by one Service’s forces on another Service’s capabilities to maximize effects of both. 30sec Joint interdependence Integration Army Support to Other Services Joint Interagency

Joint interdependence

JP 4-0 sustainment is a joint function and is the provision of logistics, personnel services, HSS, and finance mngt 30sec True False

Which of the following answers list three of the eight Army Principles of Sustainment? 30sec Integration, Endurance, Anticipation Responsiveness, Trust, Survivability Endurance, Simplicity, Improvisation Integration, Continuity, Improvisation

Integration, Continuity, Improvisation

Which is not true about the Theater Sustainment Command (TSC)? 30sec Has three operational responsibilities Lead sustainment org for ASCC TSC is planner, ESC is executer Coordinates Title 10, ASOS, DoD EA, and lead service responsibilities

Has three operational responsibilities

Which is not true about an Expeditionary Sustainment Command (ESC)? 30sec Multiple ESCs may operate in a theater at once Assigned to TSC, attached to Corps Sustainment BDEs are usually subordinate to ESC ESC plans for near-term operations

Assigned to TSC, attached to Corps

Joint Logistics Enterprise (JLEnt) – Connects global strategic providers to the GCC/JFC at the operational level. 30sec True False

Which is NOT a DAS path? 30sec Defense Business Sustems Major Capability Acquisition Software Acquisition Deliberate Operational Needs

Deliberate Operational Needs

Where can you find Army guidance on the percentage of personnel a Component unit should receive? 20sec Force Management System Army Component Guidance Unit Reference Sheet TOE

Army Component Guidance

Fill the blanks: Capability Demand Analysis (____), Resourcing and Approval (____), Force Synchronization Review (_____) 20sec Quantitative, Qualitative, Integration Wargaming, Qualitative, Integration Qualitative, Quantitative, Integration Quantitative, Qualitative, Distribution

Quantitative, Qualitative, Integration

_____is the analytical framework that underpins joint planning. 20sec Operational Art Operational Design

Operational Design

This document provides a 1-N list of unit priority, approved by Army Senior Leaders 30sec ACMG DARPL AMPL ARSTRUC

DARPL

______ is the Army's lead materiel integrator (LMI) 30sec US Army Materiel Command ASA(ALT) Army Sustainment Command DA G-8

US Army Materiel Command

A Table of Organization and Equipment (TOE) is an authorizations document 30sec True False

The Planning to Programming Transition occurs at what step of the Force Management Model? 30sec Initial Operating Capability at the end of DAS DOTMLPF-P solution at the end of JCIDs ARSTRUC publication at the end of TAA Requirements identification at the end of wargaming

ARSTRUC publication at the end of TAA

Which is not a sustainment tenet of MDO? 30sec Agility Endurance Influence Depth

Influence

Decisions made during execution are either execution decisions or adjustment decisions 20sec True False

Which of the following correctly lists operational variables associated with the acronym PMESII-PT? 30sec Economy, Infrastructure, Time Mission, Economy, Social Physical Terrain, Enemy, Time Military, Enemy, Intelligence

Economy, Infrastructure, Tim

Which of the following is NOT a tactical mission task? 30sec Breach Attack Reduce Isolate

atk

What are major integrating processes within the operations process? 30sec Information Collection, IPB and Knowledge management IBP, Access, and Estimates Design, Risk management, and Targeting

Information Collection, IPB and Knowledge management

Which is not an attribute of the Rapid Decision-making and Synchronization Process (RDSP)? 30sec Usually a single COA Based on existing order Battle drill for current and future ops cells None of the above

None of the above

Which color of money is used for Day to Day activities? 30sec Operations & Maintenance – Army Military Personnel Army Procurement None of the above

oma

Which is NOT part of the ethical triangle 20sec Principle Virtue Moral Consequence

Moral

Key Players, End State, Interests, Facts, Assumptions, Paradigms, and Problems make up the THIS reasoning process 30sec Problem Framing Vison Statement Operational Approach Ethical Reasoining

Problem Framing

Which is NOT a level of Culture 20sec Artifact Shared Attitudes Espoused Belief Basic Underlying Assumptions

Shared Attitudes

______, bests describes Napoleonic Strategy 20sec Attrition Decisive Battle Limited Warfare Combined Arms Warfare

Decisive Battle

Material Solution Analysis is the first phase of the ____ 20sec PPBE FDU DAS TAA

das

______ is the final phase of the DAS 20sec Technology Maturation and Risk Reduction Production and Deployment Engineering and Manufacturing Development Operations and Support

operations and support

The ______ is an output of Total Army Analysis (TAA) 20sec Unit Reference Sheet ARSTRUC MTOE Basis of Issue Plan (BOIP)

arstrucvk

Funding, Facilities, Readiness, Manning, Structures, Training, Equipment, Deploying make up the 30sec Force Integration Functional Area (FIFA) Capabilities Based Assessment (CBA) DOTMLPFP POM Force

fifa

Which is NOT a module under Sustainable Readiness 20sec Mission Ready Reset Prepare

Reseresett

PEGs monitor assigned programs and resources to ensure they conform to Title 10 requirements. The 5 PEGs are 20sec Manning, Training, Equipment, Sustaining, Installations CIO G6, G2, G1, G3, G4 Futures CMD, Material CMD, TRADOC, CECOM, FORSCOM

Manning, Training, Equipment, Sustaining, Installations

Describes a specific organization, program, or function and captures its resources over a multi-year Period APE Management Decision Execution Packages (MDEP) Program Evaluation Groups (PEGs): POM Force

Management Decision Execution Packages (MDEP)

PPBE (Programing Phase) is Led by the 20sec G-4 S-8 G-3 5 7 G-8

Protection, C2, Intelligence, Fires, Information, Sustainment, Movement and Maneuver are the 20sec War Fighting Functions Principles of Joint Ops Joint Operating Precepts Joint Functions

joint functions

Which is not one of the 12 principles of Joint Operations 20sec Legitimacy Restraint Perseverance Determination

Determination

Offense, Defense, Stability, DSCA are 20sec Tenents of ULO Defeat Mechanisms Elements of Decisive Action Stability Mechanisms

Elements of Decisive Action

Which is NOT an element of operational design 20sec Termination Decisive Points Forces and Functions Combat Power

PMESII-PT and METT-TC help commanders _____ the OE 20sec Describe Direct Visualize Understand

understand

Commanders describe and express their visualization through 20sec OPORDs FRAGOs CDRs Intent, Planning Guidance, CCIR, EEFI Lines of Effort

CDRs Intent, Planning Guidance, CCIR, EEFI

Logistics, Financial, Management, Personnel Service, Health Service Support are 20sec Elements of Sustainment Element of Combat Power War Fighting Functions Integrators Logistical Functions

elements of sustainment

A BSA can only defeat a ____________ unless augmented with addition security forces. 20sec Company Platoon Squad Battalion

squad

Role 3 Medical Care is 20sec Combat Support Hospitals CONUS-based Hospitals Medical Company Unit Level Medical Care

Combat Support Hospitals

Integration, Anticipation, Responsiveness, Simplicity, Economy, Survivability, Continuity, Improvisation = 30sec Elements of Sustainment Principles of Logistics Principles of Sustainment Tenets of ULO

Principles of Sustainment

Route, Zone, Area, RECON in Force and Special RECON are 20sec RECON Methods Forms of RECON RECON Tasks RECON Principles

Forms of RECON

Dismounted, Mounted, Aerial, and RECON by Fire are 20sec RECON Methods Forms of RECON RECON Tasks RECON Principles

RECON Methods

Envelopment, Turning Movement, Infiltration, Penetration, Frontal Attack = 20sec Security Operations Offensive Operation Tactical Enabling Tasks Forms of Maneuver

formsd of maneuver

Which is NOT a Tactical Enabling Task 20sec Relief in Place Passage of Lines (Forward) Passage of Lines (Reward) Feint

feint

Disruption, Flexibility, Maneuver, Mass and Concentration, Operations in Depth, Preparation, Security = 20sec Characteristics of the Defense Characteristics of the Offense Principles of Security Characteristics RECON

Characteristics of the Defense

Which is not a Type of Defensive Operation 20sec Area Retrograde Defense of a Linear Obstacle Mobile

defense of a linear obstacvle

Which is NOT a form of Defense 20sec Defense of a Linear Obstacle Perimeter Defense Reverse Slope Defense Retrograde

retrograde

A defensive location oriented on a likely enemy avenue of approach 20sec Battle Position Engagement Area Target Defensive Location

Establish Civil Security, Restore Essential Services, and Support to Governance are three of the six ____ 20sec Army Stability Operations Tasks DSCA tasks Stability Mechanisms Defeat Mechanisms

Army Stability Operations Tasks

______ -Most associates with Frederick the Great 20sec Decsive Battle Jominian Tactics Nationalism Limited War

limited war

Shape Operational Environments, Prevent Conflict, Prevail in LSCO, and Consolidate Gains = 30sec Operational Art US Army Strategic Roles US Army Operational Roles US Army Tactical Roles

strategic

Operational Art + Operational Design = 20sec OPORDs CCDR Campaign Plan Strategy Operational Approach

Operational Approach

According to ADP 3-0, the purpose of a sustaining operation is to enable the decisive operation or shaping operations by ______ and ______ combat power.

generating and maintaining

Mutual trust, mission orders, shared understanding, competence, commander’s intent, disciplined initiative, and risk acceptance

prinmciples of mission command

_________ are conducted by the Department of Defense, at the direction of the Department of State, to assist US citizens to leave a foreign nation when the security situation becomes dangerous.

neo

Which source of power is best suited for gaining the commitment of followers?

personal power

According to Dr. John Kotter's 8-Stage Change Model, this stage perpetuates the organization’s successes and newly learned behaviors into the future.

Anchoring New Approaches in the Culture

The ability to establish, and operate ports of debarkation (air, sea, and rail), to establish a distribution system and sustainment bases, and to facilitate port throughput and sustainment support for the reception, staging, onward movement and integration of forces within a theater of operations is:

Theater Opening

Who is responsible for organizing, training, equipping, and providing administrating, supplying, and maintaining forces?

Military Departments: Title 10, United States Code and Department of Defense Directive (DODD) 5100.1 describe the organization, roles, and responsibilities for the elements of the DOD to include the statutory requirements for ach military department. In accordance with Title 10, each Service retains responsibility for the sustainment support of forces it allocates to a joint force.

Which document does the President approve that defines the responsibilities and areas of responsibility for combatant commanders?

Unified Command Plan

What is the process that brings newly developed capabilities to the force?

Force Integration

HQDA G8 aligning resources to requirements approved by the Secretary of the Army and CSA happens as part of ________.

programming

Who establishes priorities for Army force integration efforts?

G-3/5/7

Who was the principal architect of Soviet “Deep Operations” concepts during the Interwar years?

Mikhail Tukhachevsky

Germany’s attempts to break the stalemate after 1916 can best be described as

Storm Trooper Tactics; unrestricted submarine warfare

Why did new German operational methods fail to break through the Allied lines during the spring offensive of 1918?

Inadequate supplies; Stubborn Allied defensive tactics; An over-reliance on German Stormtroopers; The German military overestimation of their offensive capabilities; The inability of Ludendorff to follow the stated operational aims

What were Alfred Thayer Mahan’s six “principal conditions” that affected sea power?

Geographical Position, extent of territory, number of population, national character

Which three methods does the Defense Acquisition System (DAS) use for materiel development based on immediacy of need?

Urgent, Emergent, and Deliberate

A Table of Organization and Equipment (TOE) contains _________________.

narrative and listings of the organization's required equipment and personnel

Achieving shared understanding, informed decision making and unity of effort among various agencies of the US Government at the combatant command level is done through a:

Joint Interagency Coordination Group (JIACG) or similar enterprise

The Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS) is the primary system the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff uses to execute statutory responsibilities to conduct assessments, provide military advice to the President and SecDef, and assist the President and SecDef in providing strategic direction to the Armed Forces of the United States. Which of the following is a JSPS product?

The Joint Strategic Campaign Plan

Using national strategies as a guide, combatant commanders develop plans that execute day-to-day campaigning that address theater objectives as well as objectives directed by global campaign plans and functional campaign plans. Which selection describes this category of plans?

Combatant Command Campaign Plan

Which organization within the United Nations is responsible for maintaining international peace and security?

Leadership, Information, Mission Command, M2, Intel, Fires, Protection, Sustainment

elements of combat power

how w`ow do commanders dewcribe the visualization of broad general actions that will resolve a problem

operational app

what are authority responsibility decisionmaking and leadership key elements of

command

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