ya Flashcards by walker pettis

(001) What two incident levels were established by the Stafford Act?
a. Emergencies and non-emergencies.
b. Emergencies and major disasters.
c. Natural disasters and major disasters.
d. Natural disasters and man-made disasters.

b. Emergencies and major disasters.

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(001) Which department’s primary mission includes preventing terrorist attacks within the United
States; reducing the vulnerability of the United States to terrorism; and minimizing the damage
and assisting in the recovery from terrorist attacks that occur within the United States?
a. Department of State.
b. Department of Defense.
c. Department of the Interior.
d. Department of Homeland Security

d. Department of Homeland Security

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(001) What directive required the federal government to establish a single, comprehensive
approach to domestic incident management?
a. The National Preparedness Goal.
b. Presidential Policy Directive–8, National Preparedness.
c. Homeland Security Presidential Directive–8, National Preparedness.
d. Homeland Security Presidential Directive–5, Management of Domestic Incidents

d. Homeland Security Presidential Directive–5, Management of Domestic Incidents

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001) What presidential directive provides a nationwide template that enables federal, state, local,
tribal governments, and private-sector and non-governmental organizations to work together
effectively and efficiently to prevent, prepare for, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents
regardless of cause, size, or complexity?
a. National Preparedness Goal.
b. National Response Framework.
c. National Disaster Response Framework.
d. National Incident Management System

d. National Incident Management System

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(002) Which Department of Defense (DOD) publication provides a concept of operations as well as
functional information necessary to execute a comprehensive and unified response to a nuclear
weapon accident?
a. DODI 2000.16, DOD Antiterrorism (AT) Standards.
b. DODI 3150.10, DOD Response to Nuclear Weapons Incidents.
c. DOD 3150.8-M, Nuclear Weapon Accident Response Procedures.
d. DODD 3150.08, DOD Response to Nuclear and Radiological Incidents.

c. DOD 3150.8-M, Nuclear Weapon Accident Response Procedures.

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(003) What department has primary responsibility to protect United States citizens and interests
abroad?
a. Department of State.
b. Department of Defense.
c. Department of Foreign Affairs.
d. Department of Homeland Security.

a. Department of State.

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(004) Which term is defined as “our codified practices on how best to employ air and space
power”?
a. Policy.
b. Doctrine.
c. Guidance.
d. Regulations.

b. Doctrine.

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004) Which operation is not one of the five operational pillars of C-CBRN operations?
a. Counterforce.
b. Offensive operations.
c. Proliferation prevention.
d. Consequence management.

b. Offensive operations.

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005) When using Multi-service Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures (MTTP) what factor must
you remember?
a. MTTPs are directive in nature.
b. MTTPs are not directive in nature.
c. MTTPs provide standardized references to service commanders at the strategic level.
d. MTTPs provide standardized references to service commanders at the operations level

b. MTTPs are not directive in nature.

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(006) Which action is not part of the primary mission of the Air Force Emergency Management
Program?
a. Save lives.
b. Maintain and restore operational capability.
c. Provide support to civil and host-nation authorities.
d. Minimize the loss or degradation of resources in an all-hazards environment

c. Provide support to civil and host-nation authorities.

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(006) What essential elements are contained in the response mission area of the Air Force
Emergency Management Program?
a. Notification, response, and protective actions.
b. Save lives, protect property, and mitigate the effects of an incident.
c. Casualty treatment, unexploded explosive ordnance (UXO) safing, decontamination, and
facility restoration.
d. Passive defense, consequence management, and incident response measures

a. Notification, response, and protective actions.

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(007) Diseases that impact humans or animals are classified as which hazard category?
a. Natural hazard.
b. Technological.
c. Human-caused.
d. Terrorist action.

a. Natural hazard.

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(008) Which action is one of the first steps an installation commander takes in establishing a
single, installation-wide emergency management program?
a. Appointing a crisis action team director.
b. Establishing an emergency operations center.
c. Appointing an installation emergency manager.
d. Establishing an emergency management working group.

c. Appointing an installation emergency manager.

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(009) Which action is not a major element of the installation emergency management program?
a. Planning.
b. Equipping.
c. Organizing.
d. Recovering

d. Recovering

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(009) What factors determine the type and amount of equipment needed for the emergency
management program on your installation?
a. The installation’s mission and the hazards it may face.
b. The size of the installation and the hazards it may face.
c. The installation’s mission and the number of personnel assigned.
d. The size of the installation and the number of personnel assigned.

a. The installation’s mission and the hazards it may face.

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(010) At a minimum, how often does the major command (MAJCOM) Emergency Management
Working Group meet?
a. Annually.
b. Quarterly.
c. Bi-weekly.
d. Semiannually.

a. Annually.

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011) At a minimum, how often does the installation Emergency Management Working Group
meet?
a. Annually.
b. Quarterly.
c. Bi-weekly.
d. Semiannually

b. Quarterly.

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011) Who is the point of contact for emergency management exercise planning and coordination?
a. Wing inspection team.
b. Exercise evaluation team.
c. Exercise inspection team.
d. Emergency management support team

a. Wing inspection team.

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(012) Which function serves as the essential command and control node for the installation?
a. Command post.
b. Crisis action team.
c. Incident command system.
d. Emergency operations center.

b. Crisis action team.

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(012) Which installation function is activated to provide command, control, and communication
link to higher headquarters and civilian agencies and coordinates the incident response needs
when installation resources are exceeded?
a. Command post.
b. Crisis action team.
c. Unit control center.
d. Emergency operations center.

b. Crisis action team

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(013) Who activates the Emergency Operations Center (EOC)?
a. EOC director.
b. EOC manager.
c. Incident commander.
d. Installation commander

d. Installation commander

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(013) Who serves as the Emergency Operations Center (EOC) director?
a. Incident commander.
b. Installation commander.
c. Mission support group commander.
d. Force support squadron commander

c. Mission support group commander.

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(013) Who provides the incident commander all the support requested to manage the incident,
restore mission capabilities, and sustain response and recovery activities?
a. Emergency Operations Center (EOC) manager.
b. Operations section chief.
c. Installation commander.
d. EOC director.

d. EOC director.

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(013) Which person would be appointed as the Emergency Operations Center Manager by the
installation commander?
a. Fire chief.
b. Mission support group commander.
c. Civil engineer squadron commander.
d. Readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight superintendent.

d. Readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight superintendent.

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``` (013) Which Emergency Support Function (ESF) is responsible for oversight of communications procedures, equipment, and capabilities? a. ESF 2. b. ESF 5. c. ESF 7. d. ESF 10 ```

a. ESF 2.

``` (013) Which Emergency Support Function (ESF) is responsible for hazardous material (HAZMAT) response? a. ESF 4. b. ESF 5. c. ESF 10. d. ESF 13 ```

c. ESF 10.

``` (013) Which Emergency Support Function (ESF) is responsible for energy infrastructure assessment, repair, and restoration? a. ESF 7. b. ESF 9. c. ESF 11. d. ESF 12 ```

d. ESF 12

013) Which Emergency Support Function (ESF) is external affairs? a. ESF 1. b. ESF 9. c. ESF 14. d. ESF 15

d. ESF 15

(014) Which function directs, monitors, and reports mitigation and preparedness activities and maintains unit continuity for command and control? a. Unit control centers. b. Emergency operations center. c. Post attack reconnaissance team. d. Emergency communications center

a. Unit control centers.

(015) What is the goal of the integrated emergency communications center? a. To provide an enhanced common operating picture (COP). b. To direct all resources needed by the incident commander. c. To provide a collocated location for medical and fire dispatch. d. To manage communications between the emergency operations center (EOC) and crisis action team (CAT).

a. To provide an enhanced common operating picture (COP).

(015) Which function provides emergency call taking, alarm monitoring, sensor monitoring, video monitoring, control, communications support, channel and frequency assignments, allocation, and emergency notification responder reachback capability during emergencies as well as notification of an emergency to the receiving medical treatment facilities and hospitals? a. Unit control centers. b. Emergency operations center. c. Post attack reconnaissance team. d. Emergency communications center.

d. Emergency communications center.

``` (015) Which function serves as the focal point for base security and defense command and control (C2)? a. Crisis action team. b. Emergency operations center. c. Base defense operations center. d. Post attack reconnaissance team. ```

c. Base defense operations center.

(015) Which Emergency Support Function (ESF) is responsible for managing the Chemical, Biological, Radiological, and Nuclear (CBRN) Control Center? a. ESF 4. b. ESF 5. c. ESF 9. d. ESF 10.

b. ESF 5.

(016) Who is the trained and experienced responder who provides tactical on-scene control by initiating the incident command system using subject matter experts and support from other functions? a. Incident commander. b. Installation commander. c. Crisis Action Team director. d. Emergency Operation Center director

a. Incident commander.

(016) Which Disaster Response Force (DRF) members deploy to the accident scene after the first responders to expand the ICS and perform support functions? a. First responders. b. Follow-on responders. c. Secondary responders. d. Emergency responders.

d. Emergency responders.

(017) Which teams are formed from existing installation and unit personnel resources to support emergency response operations? a. Specialized and support/recovery teams. b. Response and recovery teams. c. Emergency support teams. d. Special support teams.

a. Specialized and support/recovery teams.

``` (017) Which team is not one of the primary emergency response support teams that are part of the Disaster Response Force (DRF)? a. Shelter management team. b. Contamination control team. c. Response and recovery team. d. Emergency management support team. ```

c. Response and recovery team.

(017) Which reason is not valid for the installation commander or a designated representative to approve releasing a trained member from a specialized team? a. Retirement. b. Routine leave. c. Medical disqualification. d. Permanent change of station

b. Routine leave.

(017) Which team is established by installations when there is a requirement for extended sheltering of base personnel during natural disasters or man-made incidents? a. Shelter-in-place team. b. Emergency shelter team. c. Shelter management team. d. Base support and recovery team.

c. Shelter management team.

(017) What is the minimum team requirement for natural disaster shelters? a. One shelter manager, one monitor for registration/accountability of the shelter occupants, and one security person. b. One shelter manager, two monitors for registration/accountability of the shelter occupants, and two security personnel. c. One shelter manager, one monitor for registration/accountability of the shelter occupants, one security person, and one person for logistics. d. One shelter manager, two monitors for registration/accountability of the shelter occupants, two security personnel, and two people for logistics

c. One shelter manager, one monitor for registration/accountability of the shelter occupants, one

(017) Which team performs decontamination on assets under the control of their functional area for wartime operations? a. Contamination control team. b. Wartime decontamination team. c. Critical asset decontamination team. d. Chemical, Biological, Radiological, and Nuclear (CBRN) reconnaissance team

a. Contamination control team.

``` (017) Who determines the number of personnel needed to support Contamination Control Area (CCA) operations? a. Crisis action team. b. Local commanders. c. Emergency operations center. d. Emergency management working group. ```

b. Local commanders.

``` (017) Which factor is not used in determining personnel requirements to run the Contamination Control Area (CCA)? a. CCA size. b. CCA design. c. CCA processing rate. d. Number of CCAs on the installation ```

d. Number of CCAs on the installation

(017) Who will activate the contamination control station teams? a. Crisis action team. b. Incident commander. c. Installation commander. d. Emergency operations center

d. Emergency operations center

(017) Who manages the search and recovery (S&R) teams? a. Civil engineer squadron. b. Force support squadron. c. Emergency operations center. d. Emergency support function (ESF) 5

b. Force support squadron.

(017) Which factor is a limitation of the fatality search and recovery team? a. The Army will not accept contaminated human remains from the team. b. The Air Force does not have the capability to dispose of human remains. c. The Navy is the only service that can accept contaminated human remains. d. The Air Force does not have the capability to decontaminate human remains

d. The Air Force does not have the capability to decontaminate human remains

(017) Which team is used to recover aircraft and to support the investigation of the interim and safety accident investigative boards of an aircraft accident? a. Crash recovery team. b. Search and recovery team. c. Incident management team. d. Emergency management support team

a. Crash recovery team.

(017) Which team is a comprehensive team that includes all components and functions of the command and general staff of the Incident Command System (ICS) structure? a. Search and recovery team. b. Incident management team. c. Incident command support team. d. Emergency management support team.

b. Incident management team.

(018) Which response team is a tailored force dispatched from the closest military installation by the Secretary of Defense (SecDef) or by the Chairmen of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, through the Deputy Director of Operations, National Joint Operations and Intelligence Center immediately upon notification of a United States nuclear weapon incident or nuclear or radiological incident? a. Response task force. b. Initial response force. c. Disaster response force. d. Incident management team.

b. Initial response force.

(018) Which response team’s mission is to take immediate lifesaving actions and establish safety and security controls at the accident scene? a. Response task force. b. Initial response force. c. Disaster response force. d. Incident management team

b. Initial response force.

(019) Which DOD response force is appropriately staffed, trained, and equipped to coordinate all actions necessary to control and recover from a nuclear weapon accident or incident? a. Response task force. b. Initial response force. c. Disaster response force. d. Incident management team

a. Response task force.

(019) The specific purpose of the response task force is to a. recover wreckage and fatalities at an aircraft crash site. b. recover weapons and provide radiological accident assistance. c. assist with CBRN reconnaissance and decontamination efforts. d. assist with response to a terrorist use of WMD and provide recovery support.

b. recover weapons and provide radiological accident assistance.

(019) Which team may be activated by the National Military Command Center or the Secretary of Defense (SecDef) to support a nuclear weapons accident or incident of a weapon in DOE custody or an incident under Department of Justice lead? a. Response task force. b. Initial response force. c. Disaster response force. d. Incident management team

a. Response task force.

(020) Which Homeland Security Presidential Directive was issued to enhance the ability of the United States to manage domestic incidents by establishing a single, comprehensive national incident management system? a. HSPD–5. b. HSPD–8. c. HSPD–9. d. HSPD–12

a. HSPD–5.

(020) Which Homeland Security Presidential Directive was issued to strengthen the preparedness of the United States to prevent and respond to threatened or actual domestic terrorist attacks, major disasters, and other emergencies? a. HSPD–5. b. HSPD–8. c. HSPD–9. d. HSPD–12.

b. HSPD–8.

``` (021) Which phase of incident management includes actions such as planning training and exercises? a. Recovery. b. Response. c. Mitigation. d. Preparedness ```

d. Preparedness

(021) Which phase of incident management includes implementing response plans and checklists? a. Recovery. b. Response. c. Mitigation. d. Preparedness.

b. Response.

(021) Which phase of incident management is an ongoing process and is considered, to some degree, a part of every phase of incident management? a. Recovery. b. Response. c. Mitigation. d. Preparedness

c. Mitigation.

(022) What do we call an occurrence (natural, man-made, or technological) that requires some level of a response to protect life, property, or the environment? a. An accident. b. An incident. c. An emergency. d. A major disaster

a. An accident.

``` (022) Which incident type may require several response resources and are usually limited to one operational period (12 hours or less)? a. Type 1. b. Type 2. c. Type 3. d. Type 4 ```

d. Type 4

(022) Which incident type requires resources that exceed the initial response and includes incidents such as an aircraft crash, a hostage situation with several hostages, or a flood? a. Type 2. b. Type 3. c. Type 4. d. Type 5.

b. Type 3.

(022) Which incident type extends beyond the installation’s resource capabilities for response, requiring local, state, and federal response resources to effectively manage the incident? a. Type 1. b. Type 2. c. Type 3. d. Type 4

b. Type 2.

``` (022) Which incident type is the most complex, requiring extensive national resources to effectively manage the incident? a. Type 1. b. Type 2. c. Type 3. d. Type 5. ```

a. Type 1.

(023) What general staff functions fall under the command section of the Incident Command System (ICS)? a. Finance/administration, logistics, operations, and planning. b. Incident commander, operations section chief, and associated units. c. Public information officer, liaison officer, and incident safety officer. d. Incident commander, Emergency Operations Center (EOC) director, and Crisis Action Team (CAT) director.

a. Finance/administration, logistics, operations, and planning.

``` (023) Which factor is the key in determining how large the Incident Command System (ICS) structure will become? a. Span of control. b. Size of the incident. c. Size of the installation. d. Mission of the installation. ```

a. Span of control.

(024) In addition to the incident commander (IC), which positions make up the command staff? a. Time, procurement, compensation and claims, and cost units. b. Finance/administration, logistics, operations, and planning. c. Public information officer, incident safety officer, liaison officer. d. Document, situation, demobilization, resources, and technical units

c. Public information officer, incident safety officer, liaison officer.

(024) Under the Incident Command System (ICS), who has the primary responsibility for releasing information to the public? a. Emergency Operation Center (EOC) director or manager. b. The Crisis Action Team (CAT) or EOC director. c. Public information officer. d. Incident commander.

c. Public information officer.

(024) Under the Incident Command System (ICS), who monitors incident operations and advises the Incident Commander (IC) on all matters relating to operational safety, including the health and safety of emergency responder personnel? a. Emergency Operation Center director. b. Operations section chief. c. Installation commander. d. Incident safety officer

d. Incident safety officer

024) Which unit is not one of the units of the logistics section? a. Food b. Medical c. Base support d. Maintenance

c. Base support

024) Under the Incident Command System (ICS), which section is responsible to conduct actions to reduce the immediate hazard, establish situational control, and restore normal operations? a. Logistics. b. Command. c. Operations. d. Finance and administration.

c. Operations.

``` (024) Under the Incident Command System (ICS), who is responsible for the direct management of all incident tactical activities? a. Incident commander. b. Planning section chief. c. Installation commander. d. Operations section chief. ```

d. Operations section chief.

(024) Under the Incident Command System (ICS), a division is established a. to divide the incident into functional areas of operation. b. when the incident requires additional incident commanders. c. to divide an incident into physical or geographical areas of operation. d. when the incident is small and does not require the full Disaster Response Force (DRF)

c. to divide an incident into physical or geographical areas of operation.

(024) Under the Incident Command System (ICS), a set number of resources of the same kind and type that have an established minimum number of personnel is called a a. group. b. task force. c. strike team. d. response team.

c. strike team.

024) Under the Incident Command System (ICS), any combination of resources assembled in support of a specific mission or operational need is called a a. group. b. task force. c. strike team. d. response team.

b. task force.

(024) Which unit is not a unit under the planning section of the Incident Command System (ICS)? a. Situation. b. Technical. c. Resources. d. Information.

d. Information.

(024) What factors determine how Incident Command System (ICS) positions are filled? a. Rank. b. Individual on site first. c. Expertise and experience. d. Recommendation from the installation commander

c. Expertise and experience.

``` (024) Which Incident Command System (ICS) location is mandatory for executing primary command functions? a. Base. b. Camp. c. Staging area. d. Incident command post. ```

d. Incident command post.

(025) How must local incidents be managed? a. At the highest possible jurisdictional level. b. At the lowest possible jurisdictional level. c. At whatever level the governor dictates. d. By the closest military installation.

b. At the lowest possible jurisdictional level.

(026) Who ensures that the state is prepared to deal with large-scale emergencies and is responsible for coordinating the state response in any incident? a. Elected officials. b. The state’s governor. c. The state’s department of public safety. d. The director of the state Emergency Management agency.

d. The director of the state Emergency Management agency.

(026) Where does state multiagency coordination occur? a. State Incident Command Center (ICC). b. State Unit Control Center (UCC). c. State Emergency Control Center (ECC). d. State Emergency Operations Center (EOC).

d. State Emergency Operations Center (EOC).

``` (027) Which is not one of the major categories of disaster aid made available through Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA)? a. Individual assistance. b. Public assistance. c. Hazard mitigation. d. Business continuity. ```

d. Business continuity.

(027) Who is the principal federal official for domestic incident management? a. The president. b. The secretary of Homeland Security. c. The secretary of Department of the Interior. d. The director of Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA)

b. The secretary of Homeland Security.

027) Which agency is the primary federal incident management field structure? a. Joint Field Office. b. Office of Management. c. Bureau of Land Management. d. Infrastructure/Geophysical Division

a. Joint Field Office.

(028) Which alert warns of a credible terrorist threat against the US? a. Elevated threat. b. Imminent threat. c. Sunset provision. d. Wireless emergency.

a. Elevated threat.

(028) Who is the president’s principal foreign policy advisor? a. Attorney General. b. Secretary of State. c. Secretary of Defense. d. Secretary of Commerce

b. Secretary of State.

(028) What agency has the mission is to protect and defend the US against terrorist and foreign intelligence threats, to uphold and enforce the criminal laws of the US, and to provide leadership and criminal justice services to federal, state, municipal, and international agencies and partners? a. Department of State. b. Department of Defense. c. Federal Bureau of Investigation. d. Department of Homeland Security.

c. Federal Bureau of Investigation.

(029) Which command is the Army’s command and control headquarters responsible for providing Chemical, Biological, Radiological, and Nuclear (CBRNE) forces, in a variety of operational team configurations, to respond, assess, exploit, and eliminate CBRNE hazards worldwide? a. 9th Support Command. b. 16th Support Command. c. 20th Support Command. d. 51st Support Command

c. 20th Support Command.

(029) Which function provides education and research to present and future leaders of the Air Force by helping them better prepare to combat an adversary’s weapons of mass destruction (WMD) threat? a. Civil Air Patrol. b. Air Force Counterproliferation Center. c. Emergency Preparedness Liaison Officer. d. Air Force Northern National Security Emergency Preparedness Directorate.

b. Air Force Counterproliferation Center.

. (030) Which agency is the principal advocate and single point of contact for all Chemical, Biological, Radiological, and Nuclear (CBRN) detection, vaccine, and medical diagnostic acquisition efforts? a. Joint Task Force-Civil Support. b. Defense Threat Reduction Agency. c. National Guard CBRNE-Enhanced Response Force Package. d. Joint Program Executive Office for Chemical and Biological Defense.

d. Joint Program Executive Office for Chemical and Biological Defense.

(030) Which agency’s purpose is to save lives, prevent injury, and provide temporary critical life support during a Chemical, Biological, Radiological, Nuclear and High-Yield Explosives (CBRNE) situation in the US or its territories and possessions? a. Joint Task Force-Civil Support. b. Defense Threat Reduction Agency. c. National Guard CBRNE-Enhanced Response Force Package. d. Joint Program Executive Office for Chemical and Biological Defense.

a. Joint Task Force-Civil Support.

(030) Which of the following is a regional response capability to support a state’s governor? a. Joint Task Force-Civil Support. b. Defense Threat Reduction Agency. c. National Guard CBRNE-Enhanced Response Force Package (CERFP). d. Joint Program Executive Office for Chemical and Biological Defense

c. National Guard CBRNE-Enhanced Response Force Package (CERFP).

(031) Who assigns military missions? a. The president. b. The secretary of defense (SecDef). c. Each service’s respective chief of staff. d. The chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff.

b. The secretary of defense (SecDef).

``` (031) Which combatant command defends America’s homeland—protecting our people, national power, and freedom of action? a. US Transportation (USTRANSCOM). b. US Central Command (USCENTCOM). c. US Southern Command (USSOUTHCOM). d. US Northern Command (USNORTHCOM). ```

d. US Northern Command (USNORTHCOM).

(031) Which combatant command develops and directs the Joint Deployment and Distribution Enterprise to globally project strategic national security capabilities? a. US Transportation (USTRANSCOM). b. US Central Command (USCENTCOM). c. US Southern Command (USSOUTHCOM). d. US Northern Command (USNORTHCOM).

a. US Transportation (USTRANSCOM).

``` (032) What agreement is written to ensure North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) members operate in the same manner? a. Free Trade Agreements. b. Mutual Aid Agreements. c. Standardization Agreements. d. Status of Forces Agreements. ```

c. Standardization Agreements.

(033) Which specialty is assigned to the combined air operations center (CAOC) on every Air Expeditionary Force (AEF) rotation to lead and manage 3E9s in the Southwest Asia (SWA) area of responsibility (AOR)? a. 3E991. b. 3E971. c. 3E951. d. 3E931.

a. 3E991.

(034) Which type of organization plays an essential role in protecting critical infrastructure systems and implementing plans for the rapid restoration of normal commercial activities and critical infrastructure operations in the event of disruption? a. Fundraising. b. Private-sector. c. Human service. d. Non-governmental.

b. Private-sector.

(034) What term is given to those assets, systems, networks, and functions, physical or virtual, so vital to the US that their incapacitation or destruction would have a debilitating impact on security, national economic security, public health or safety, or any combination of those matters? a. Critical infrastructure. b. Vital nation resources. c. Critical nation assets. d. Key resources.

a. Critical infrastructure.

``` (035) What group has a key feature that is their inherent independence and commitment to specific sets of interests and values? a. Coalition forces. b. Combatant commands. c. Private-sector organizations. d. Non-governmental organizations. ```

d. Non-governmental organizations.

``` (035) The American Red Cross is a supporting agency to the mass care functions of which Emergency Support Function (ESF)? a. ESF 4. b. ESF 5. c. ESF 6. d. ESF 7 ```

c. ESF 6.