yellow book

Question 1

If the pH and the BiCarb are both in the same direction then it is?

Answer 1

metabolic

Question 2

If the pH is up it is?

Answer 2

Alkalosis

Question 3

As the pH goes so goes my patient except for?

Answer 3

potassium

Question 4

If the pH is down it is?

Answer 4

acidosis

Question 5

If the pH is up my patient with show signs and symptoms of?

Answer 5

Increase… like tachycardia,diarrhea and borborygmi

Question 6

If the pH is down my patient will show signs and symtoms of?

Answer 6

Decrease… like decreased output, bradycardia and constipation

Question 7

If my pH is up my potassium (K+) is ?

Answer 7

down

Question 8

If my pH is down my potassium (K+) is?

Answer 8

up

Question 9

If my patient is overventilating I should choose?

Answer 9

respiratory alkalosis

Question 10

If my patient is underventilating I should choose?

Answer 10

respiratory acidosis

Question 11

If my patient has prolonged gastric vomiting or suction I choose?

Answer 11

metabolic alkalosis

Question 12

If it is not lung or prolonged vomiting or suctioning I choose?

Answer 12

metabolic acidosis

Question 13

Kussmal Respirations

Answer 13

Metabolic Acidosis ( Remember MacKussmal)

Question 14

Before measuing ABGs you should check what?

Answer 14

Allen’s test. Should be positive. Pt makes a fist and pressure is applied to the ulnar and the radial arteries Ulnar pressure is released and color should return in 7 seconds (means it’s positive and OK to take ABG’s).

Question 15

Definition of Compensation

Answer 15

PH is normal! It is never compensated if it is abnormal.

Question 16

If PH normal

Answer 16

look in the direction it is going. Closer to Acidic? (7.35) acidosis.

Then look at Bicarb & figure out which is abnormal. If Bicarb is out of range, it’s metabolic acidosis.
If C02 is abnormal, it’s Respiratory Acidosis :)

Question 17

If your pt is acidotic and you need to pick a symptom

Answer 17

Pick the symptom where everything is DOWN. ( And vice Versa)

Ex: 2 degree Morbitz Type 2 BLOCK.

Question 18

If you don’t know what causes an acid base balance, pick

Answer 18

metabolic acidosis

Question 19

If in doubt in ABGs, always pick

Answer 19

Headache, nausea, weakness & numbness+ tingling. It can be either up or down.

Question 20

High pressure alarms are triggered when?

Answer 20

They cannot push air in

Question 21

High pressure alarms are caused by what three types of obstructions?

Answer 21

Kinking, Water in dependant loops and mucus in the airway.

Question 22

If kinking in the tube is present you?

Answer 22

unkink

Question 23

If water is present in the dependant loops you?

Answer 23

Open system and empty water.

Question 24

If mucus is present you?

Answer 24

Turn them, cough and have them deeo breath first. If ineffective you then suction.

Question 25

Don't suction unless

Answer 25

Coughing & deep breathing is deemed inappropriate.

Question 26

In order to suction, you must be able to hear

Answer 26

mucus in the lung

Question 27

Low pressure alarms are triggered when?

Answer 27

it is easy to push are in

Question 28

Low pressure alarms are normally caused by?

Answer 28

disconnection

Question 29

If the tubing is disconnected you?

Answer 29

reconnect

Question 30

If O2 sensor line is disconnected you?

Answer 30

reconnect

Question 31

In a vented client respiratory alkalosis means the vent setting may be too?

Answer 31

high

Question 32

In a vented client respiratory acidosis means the vent may be too?

Answer 32

low

Question 33

What do you do if the patients disconnected tube is on the floor?

Answer 33

Bag them, (call for help) get new tube and then reconnect.

Question 34

First question to ask if the low pressure alarm sounds

Answer 34

where is the tubing?

Question 35

HOLD

Answer 35

H- High Pressure O- Obstruction L- Low D- Disconnections

Question 36

Never put anything in YOUR scope of practice

Answer 36

on anyone else

Question 37

Make sure your answer is

Answer 37

patient focused TAKE CARE OF YOUR PATIENT! Don't answer based on staff, building, machine, etc. PATIENT FIRST.

Question 38

What does wean mean?

Answer 38

decrease gradually

Question 39

What do you do if the patients disconnected tube is on the chest?

Answer 39

Reconnect ... if its above the waist its ok.

Question 40

Remember is PSYCH if you are asked to Prioritize, Don't forget

Answer 40

MASLOW! 1. Physiological 2. Safety 3. Comfort - Includes pain 4. Psychological 5. Social 6. Spiritual

Question 41

When prioritizing, always use Maslow + ABCs

Answer 41

For one patient. Don't if you have more than one patient.

Question 42

What is the biggest problem in abuse?

Answer 42

denial

Question 43

To treat denial you need to?

Answer 43

confront them

Question 44

Definition of Denial

Answer 44

Refusal to accept reality of their problem

Question 45

How do you confront?

Answer 45

Point out the difference between what they say and what they do.

Question 46

What is the one circumstance that you as a nurse would support denial?

Answer 46

loss and grief

Question 47

always go

Answer 47

med surgery first then psych

Question 48

what is dependency?

Answer 48

When the abuser gets a significant other so make decisions for them or do thing for them.

Question 49

what is codependency?

Answer 49

When the significant other gets positive self esteem from doing things or making decisions for an abuser.

Question 50

To treat dependency/codependency you ?

Answer 50

Set limits and enforce them. Say NO and follow through. Agree in advance on what requests are allowed, then enforce the agreement. Work on self esteem of the codependent.

Question 51

what is manipulation?

Answer 51

When the abuser gets the significant other fo do things for them that is not in the best interest of the significant other. This can be dangerous and harmful to the significant other.

Question 52

How do you treat manipulation?

Answer 52

set limits and enforce

Question 53

Why is manipulation easier to treat then dependency/codependency?

Answer 53

Because no one likes being manipulated.

Question 54

DABDA

Answer 54

``` D- Denial A- Anger B- Bargaining D- Depression A- Acceptance ```

Question 55

Psych Needs, In order

Answer 55

Denial Depend Manipulation

Question 56

To address a patient's psychological needs, they must be:

Answer 56

STABLE, safe, comfortable.

Question 57

pain

Answer 57

Never killed anyone. NOT the top priority, especially if there are physiological needs in the question that make the patient unstable

Question 58

What is Wernickes (Korsakoffs) Syndrome?

Answer 58

Psychosis induced by vitamin B1 (Thiamine) deficiency.

Question 59

Symptom of Wernickes Korsakoffs syndrome?

Answer 59

Amnesia with confabulation. = Loss of memory with making up stories to fill in the gaps.

Question 60

Vitamin B1 helps breakdown?

Answer 60

alcohol

Question 61

So without B1 what happens?

Answer 61

Alcohol isn't metabolized correctly goes to the brain and causes Wernickes

Question 62

Primary symptom of Wernickes?

Answer 62

Amnesia with confabulation (making up stories).

Question 63

Is Wernickes preventable?

Answer 63

yes- take vitamin B1

Question 64

Is Wernickes arrestable?

Answer 64

yes- take vitamin B1

Question 65

Is Wernickes reversible?

Answer 65

no

Question 66

What is the goal of patients dementia/organic brain syndrome?

Answer 66

maintain function, never improve

Question 67

What is aversion therapy?

Answer 67

when you try and make the patient hate something

Question 68

Antabuse onset and duration is?

Answer 68

2 weeks

Question 69

Teach a patient taking Antabuse to avoid what?

Answer 69

alcohol

Question 70

On top of alcohol a patient taking Antabuse should also avoid what other 7 things?

Answer 70

``` Alcohol Aftershave, Cologne, Perfumes Insect Repellent Elixirs Vanilla Extract Vinaigrettes Handsanitizer Alcohol Prep Pads Vanilla Icing ```

Question 71

How long does it take for Antabuse to get out of the system so they can drink Alcohol again?

Answer 71

2 weeks

Question 72

What are Elixirs?

Answer 72

95% of liquids. If it is not an antibiotic, assume it is an elixir, so the patient can't have it if on antabuse. This rule applies for diabetics too (elixers also have sugar).

Question 73

What happens if a person on Antabuse ingests alcohol?

Answer 73

Nausea, Vomiting, & Possibly Death

Question 74

In Overdose VS Withdrawal, Ask yourself?

Answer 74

Is this drug an upper or a downer?

Question 75

What are the five uppers?

Answer 75

Caffeine, Cocaine, Methamphetamines, PCP/LSD and ADHD Meds, Bath Salts

Question 76

downers are?

Answer 76

``` Everything other then the five uppers. Heroin Ativan Valiumn Fetanyl ```

Question 77

S/Sx of uppers are?

Answer 77

``` Everything goes up Tachycardia Increased BP Irritability Fever Diarrhea +4 Reflexes Pupil Dilation Excitability Seizures Borborygmi ETC. ```

Question 78

s/sx of downers are?

Answer 78

``` Everything goes down Bradycardia Lethargy Constricted Pupils Hyporeflexia Flaccidity Respiratory Depression ```

Question 79

with uppers and downers ask yourself?

Answer 79

Are they talking about Overdose or Withdrawal?

Question 80

Overdose/Intoxication:

Answer 80

I have too much...

Question 81

withdrawal:

Answer 81

I dont have enough

Question 82

Overdose of a downer causes everything to go?

Answer 82

down

Question 83

Overdose of an upper causes everything to go?

Answer 83

up

Question 84

Withdrawal of an upper causes everything to go?

Answer 84

down

Question 85

Withdrawal of a downer causes everything to go?

Answer 85

up

Question 86

Upper withdrawal looks like

Answer 86

downer overdose

Question 87

Downer Withdrawal looks like

Answer 87

upper overdose

Question 88

At birth if the mother was addicted to a substance always assume the newborn is?

Answer 88

overdosed

Question 89

If 24 hours after birth assume the baby is in?

Answer 89

withdrawal

Question 90

Every alcoholic goes through what withing 24 hours after cessation?

Answer 90

Alcohol Withdrawal syndrome

Question 91

What is Alcohol Withdrawal Syndrome?

Answer 91

Hyper irritability state less than 24 hours after the first drink

Question 92

After 72 hours of alochol withdrawal a small minority may get?

Answer 92

delirium tremens

Question 93

Can Delirium Tremens kill you?

Answer 93

yes

Question 94

Can Alcohol Withdrawal Syndrome kill you?

Answer 94

no

Question 95

Are patients with Alcohol Withdrawal Syndrome a danger to themselves or others?

Answer 95

no

Question 96

Are patients with Delirium Tremens a danger to themselves or others?

Answer 96

yes

Question 97

N/I for Delirium Tremens?

Answer 97

``` Private room near nurses station NPO/Clear liquids Restricted bed rest Restraints, tranquilizer, multivitamin (B1 Vitamin/Thiamine) Antihypertensive. ```

Question 98

N/I for Alcohol Withdrawal Syndrome?

Answer 98

``` Semi-private room anywhere Regular diet Up and ad-lib, no restraint Tranquilizer Multivitamin (B1/Thiamine) Antihypertensive. ```

Question 99

A two point restraint is?

Answer 99

One arm and the opposite leg.

Question 100

N/I for restraints?

Answer 100

Check Q15min | Rotate sites Q2H

Question 101

All aminoglycosides end in?

Answer 101

"mycin" Vancomycin

Question 102

For Aminoglycosides, think:

Answer 102

a mean old mycin

Question 103

Aminoglycosides treat?

Answer 103

Big gun antibiotics. | Treat serious, life threatening, resistant infections

Question 104

If it has "thro" in it you?

Answer 104

Throw it out...Zithromycin. | It treats a minor infection

Question 105

Toxic effects of aminoglycosides?

Answer 105

Ototoxicity Nephrotoxicity Cranial nerve 8 (vestibulocochlear nerve) which senses sound.

Question 106

The one Aminoglycoside that doesn't end in Mycin?

Answer 106

amikacin

Question 107

What is another word for aminoglycoside?

Answer 107

glycopeptide

Question 108

Monitor what with aminoglycoside use?

Answer 108

Hearing, balance, tinnitus & creatinine (best indicator of renal function)

Question 109

Best indicator of aminoglycoside toxicity?

Answer 109

Ototoxicity (Ears)

Question 110

Frequency of administration for aminoglycosides?

Answer 110

Q8H

Question 111

Aminoglycoside route of administration?

Answer 111

IM or IV

Question 112

Aminoglycosides are given PO for what two reasons?

Answer 112

Hepatic Encephalopathy and Pre-op bowel surgery.

Question 113

What is Hepatic Encephalopathy also called?

Answer 113

Liver Coma, Ammonia-Induced Encephalopathy

Question 114

If fluid resuscitation is used in shock, there will be

Answer 114

increased urine output

Question 115

Neomycin and Kanmycin are used for what?

Answer 115

Bowel sterilzation? | Can also be given for C.Diff

Question 116

Who can sterilize my bowel?

Answer 116

"Neo" "Kan"

Question 117

If you give aminoglycosides PO, do you have to worry about side effects?

Answer 117

no

Question 118

Hepatic Encephalopathy is caused by?

Answer 118

high ammonia levels

Question 119

What raises ammonia levels the most?

Answer 119

ecoli in the gut

Question 120

Why do you draw TAP levels?

Answer 120

narrow therapeutic window

Question 121

When do you draw a trough level?

Answer 121

30 minutes before the next scheduled dose.

Question 122

When do you draw a sublingual peak level?

Answer 122

5-10 minutes after it is dissolved.

Question 123

When do you draw a IV peak level?

Answer 123

15-30 minutes after dose is finished.

Question 124

When do you draw a IM peak level?

Answer 124

30-60 minutes after given

Question 125

If you must pick a time to draw the peak, pick the highest amount of time without going over the limits

Answer 125

So for IV, Pick 30 Minutes, not 15.

Question 126

Category A Bio terrorism Agents

Answer 126

most lethal

Question 127

What are the Category A Bio terrorism Agents?

Answer 127

``` Smallpox Tularemia Anthrax Plague Hemorrhagic Fever, Such as Ebola Botulism ```

Question 128

category B

Answer 128

a big ling list

Question 129

Category C. Not very Lethal

Answer 129

Hanta Virus | Nipeh Virus

Question 130

Small Pox Early Detection Symptom

Answer 130

Rash that starts around the mouth

Question 131

small pox

Answer 131

Inhalation. Pt on AIRBORNE Precautions | Dies from Septicemia. No treatment

Question 132

Tularemia

Answer 132

Inhalation Chest Symptoms Dies from RESPIRATORY FAILURE Treat with Streptomycin

Question 133

Anthrax spreads by

Answer 133

Inhalation (AIRBORNE PRECAUTIONS)

Question 134

Anthrax looks like

Answer 134

Respiratory FLU

Question 135

Anthrax death occurs from?

Answer 135

Respiratory Failure

Question 136

Treat Anthrax with

Answer 136

Cipro, Penicillin, Streptomycin

Question 137

Plague spreads by

Answer 137

inhalation

Question 138

3 H's of Plague

Answer 138

Blood Everywhere. H- emoptysis - Coughing up blood H-ematemesis - Blood in Vomitus H-ematochezia - Bright red blood in the diarrhea

Question 139

Plague patients die by

Answer 139

DIC and respiratory Distress

Question 140

Hemorrhagic Illnesses (Like Ebola)

Answer 140

Petechiae and ecchymoses | = Pinpoint Hemorrhage, especially on Chest & Bruising

Question 141

Botulism is

Answer 141

Ingested - Most Lethal | Dies from Respiratory Arrest

Question 142

3 Major Symptoms of Botulism

Answer 142

Descending Paralysis (Starts in face and goes down) Fever But is Alert

Question 143

Gullian Barre

Answer 143

Ascending Paralysis

Question 144

Chemical Agents

Answer 144

Mustard Gas, Cyanide, and Phosgine Chlorine

Question 145

Mustard Gas The Chemical Agent causes

Answer 145

blisters

Question 146

Cyanide The Chemical Agent Causes

Answer 146

Respiratory Arrest.

Question 147

What do you use to treat Cyanide Poisoning?

Answer 147

Sodium Thiosulfate IV

Question 148

What does Phosgine Chloride Cause

Answer 148

choking

Question 149

Sarin, the Nerve Agent, Causes

Answer 149

Massive Cholinergic parasympathic response

Question 150

Cholinergic, Parasympathetic effects cause?

Answer 150

``` B-ronchorrhea B-ronchospasm S-Salivation L-acrimating U-rinating Constantly D-iaphoretic + Diarrhea G-I distress E-mesis ```

Question 151

Ebola (Hemorrhagic Fever) Precautions

Answer 151

Standard, Contact, and Droplet

Question 152

All chemical agents require only soap and water except for Sarin, which requires

Answer 152

A WEAK Bleach

Question 153

What do you do in a Chemical Attack?

Answer 153

Decontaminate + Treat

Question 154

What is the Nurse's role in Chemical Decontamination?

Answer 154

Put clothes in Biohazard bag that gets burned Put them in a Government Issued suit They may need to be housed for a while

Question 155

Biochemical Attack, what do you do?

Answer 155

Quarrentine

Question 156

Calcium Channel Blockers are like what for the heart?

Answer 156

valium

Question 157

Calcium Channel Blockers

Answer 157

Negative Ino, Chrono, Dromo

Question 158

Calcium Channel Blockers treat what? (the 6 A's)

Answer 158

Antihypertensive, Anti-Anginal, Anti Atrial Arrythmia and SVTS

Question 159

Calcium Channel Blocker side effects? (the 2 H's)

Answer 159

Headache and Hypotension | Also Bradycardia

Question 160

Calcium Channel Blockers treat what Arrhythmias starting with?

Answer 160

A, as well as SVT

Question 161

What causes angina?

Answer 161

Chest pain due to decreased O2 supply and demand issues.

Question 162

What do Anti-Anginal Medications do?

Answer 162

Decrease O2 demand on the Heart, allowing more O2 to chest (dilate)

Question 163

90% of Calcium Channel Blockers end in?

Answer 163

"dipine" and "zem"

Question 164

When giving a Calcium Channel Blocker you hold and notify if?

Answer 164

Systolic is 100 or lower.

Question 165

"QRS" refers to?

Answer 165

ventricular

Question 166

"P" refers to?

Answer 166

atrial

Question 167

Asystole is?

Answer 167

A lack of QRS repolarizations

Question 168

Asystole

Answer 168

TX: Epinephrine | Think Heart Stimulant

Question 169

Atrail Flutter is?

Answer 169

Rapid P-wave repolarizations in a saw tooth pattern.

Question 170

Atrial Flutter

Answer 170

Pharmacological therapy, such as beta blockers, antiarrhythmics, or calcium-channel blockers, need frequent monitoring of EKG rhythm strips, heart sounds, and apical pulse rate. (Unlikely to ask this)

Question 171

Atrial- Fib is?

Answer 171

Chaotic QRS depolarizations

Question 172

Atrial Fibrillation

Answer 172

Chaotic Between QRS, but QRS is still PRESENT. HR Has to be Irregular. Treatment: Heparin. IMMEDIATELY.

Question 173

What do you do if the A-fib is unwitnessed?

Answer 173

1. Heparin First 2. Cardioversion 3. ADENOsine 8 second Push- Watch for the pt to go into Asystole BETA Blocker CALCIum Channel Blockers DIGitalis (Lanoxin)

Question 174

V-fib is?

Answer 174

Chaotic QRS depolarizations

Question 175

Ventricular Fibrillation

Answer 175

TX: Shock therapy. | you DE-FIB.

Question 176

V-tach is?

Answer 176

Wide bizarre QRS's

Question 177

Ventricular Tachycardia

Answer 177

Treatment: Lidocaine & amniodarone

Question 178

SVT - Subventricular Tachycardia

Answer 178

``` Narrow QRS. Treatment: A-denosine 8 second Push- Watch for the pt to go into Asystole B-eta Blocker C- Calcium Channel Blockers D- igitalis (Lanoxin) ```

Question 179

PVC is?

Answer 179

Periodic wide, bizarre QRS's

Question 180

PVC

Answer 180

PVC is the deviation in the picture from the normal QRS. | Treatment is Lidocaine & Aminodorone

Question 181

Be concerned about PVC's if? ( rule of 6's)

Answer 181

More then 6 per minute, 6 in a row

Question 182

What are the 2 lethal arrythmias?

Answer 182

A-systole and V-Fib (Pic if V-Fib, Asystole is Flat Lining)

Question 183

What are the 4 potentially life threatening arrythmias?

Answer 183

V-tach, A-fib, A-flutter and PVC

Question 184

What are the 6 arrythmias you are tested over on the NCLEX?

Answer 184

V-fib, A-fib, A-flutter, PVC, A-systole and V-tach

Question 185

What are the 6 arrythmias for NCLEX in order for prioritization?

Answer 185

A-systole, V-fib, V-tach, A-fib, A-flutter and PVC

Question 186

When talking about arrythmias the word "chaotic" means?

Answer 186

Fibrillation

Question 187

When talking about arrythmias the word 'bizarre" means?

Answer 187

tachy

Question 188

PVC's fall on what wave of the previous beat?

Answer 188

T wave

Question 189

When prioritizing lethal arrhythmias, if one happened 6 minutes ago and the other happened 15 minutes ago, which do you choose?

Answer 189

Always choose the closest to the 8 minute mark. | After 8 minutes the survival rate is LOW.

Question 190

To treat PVC's you give?

Answer 190

Lidocaine/Amnioderone

Question 191

To treat V-tach you give? (If it starts with V you use..)

Answer 191

Lidocaine/Amnioderone

Question 192

To treat supraventricular arrythmias you give?

Answer 192

Adeno Beta Calci Dig (Lonoxin)

Question 193

Supra means?

Answer 193

above

Question 194

To treat V-fib you ?

Answer 194

Defibrillate ... | For V-fib you D-fib

Question 195

To treat AsystolE you give?

Answer 195

CPR Epinephrine (atropine no longer given) Oxygen

Question 196

If asked how to treat A-fib first you?

Answer 196

Give Heparin then ABCD.... Heparin is instant Warfarin and Plavix take time.

Question 197

What is the purpose of Chest Tubes?

Answer 197

To re-establish negative pressure in the pleural space

Question 198

Pneumothorax removes

Answer 198

air

Question 199

Hemothorax removes

Answer 199

blood

Question 200

Pneumohemothorax

Answer 200

air and blood

Question 201

An Apical chest tube is placed?

Answer 201

High (for air) A for air

Question 202

A Basilar chest tube is placed?

Answer 202

Low (for blood) B for blood

Question 203

Chest tubes after a surgery or trauma assumes it's a?

Answer 203

Unilateral Pneumohemothorax

Question 204

Does a pneumonectomy get a chest tube?

Answer 204

No..removes the pleural space

Question 205

Patient Positioning after Chest Surgery

Answer 205

Chest Tube Up, good side down

Question 206

Patient Positioning after Chest Surgery

Answer 206

Operative side (Good lung up) Or Back (Supine)

Question 207

What 4 things do you do if the water seal breaks on a chest tube?

Answer 207

Clamp it 1st!! Cut broken device off of tube Put the tube in water (NS) Unclamp.

Question 208

What do you do if you kick over the collection bottle?

Answer 208

Set it back up | Tell the patient to take some deep breaths

Question 209

What is the BEST thing to do if the water seal breaks?

Answer 209

Put it in water (NS). | the first= clamp it

Question 210

What 4 things do you do if a chest tube comes out?

Answer 210

Cover hole with a gloved hand Put on a vaseline gauze dressing, Put on sterile dressing and then tape on 3 sides.

Question 211

How many chest tubes (and where) for a Unilateral Pneumohemothorax ?

Answer 211

2 chest tubes, One side (Unilateral) one apical (for air/pneumo) and one basal (for blood-hemo)

Question 212

How many chest tubes (and where) for bilateral Pneumothorax?

Answer 212

Bilateral- chest tubes on both sides Pneumo- (air) Apical = 2 apical chest tubes (one on each side)

Question 213

How many chest tubes (And Where) for post-op chest surgery?

Answer 213

Unilateral, pneumohemo (2 chest tubes, one side, apical and basal) Assume Chest trauma is a gunshot wound.

Question 214

Straight Catheter is to a foley catheter

Answer 214

Like a Thoracentesis is to a Chest Tube :) | meaning less invasive, less infection risk

Question 215

How long can you clamp a chest tube?

Answer 215

No longer then 15 seconds without a doctors order.

Question 216

What do you use to clamp a chest tube and why?

Answer 216

Rubber tipped double clamps. | Rubber because it won't pierce the tube and double because were nurses and if one is good two is better.

Question 217

Is bubbling in the water seal continuously good?

Answer 217

No it is bad. | You need to find the air leak, tape it, report it and then record it.

Question 218

Is bubbling in the water seal intermittently good?

Answer 218

Yes it should tidal on inhalation

Question 219

Is bubbling in the suction control chamber intermittently good?

Answer 219

No it is bad. | You need to dial up the suction, report and record.

Question 220

Is bubbling in the suction control chanber continuously good?

Answer 220

yes

Question 221

When picking answers, narrow it down to two, then ask yourself

Answer 221

If i did this, but not this, what would be the outcome? Is it better?

Question 222

In routine care, do you ever clamp a chest tube?

Answer 222

No. In an emergency, you can.

Question 223

When picking answers ask yourself ?

Answer 223

Which one is MOST important to leave undone. More so than the others.

Question 224

All congenital heart defects that are trouble start with a ?

Answer 224

"T"

Question 225

Which exception to the rule of congenital heart defects doesn't start with a T?

Answer 225

Left Ventricular Hypoplastic Syndrome

Question 226

What defects have right to left shunts and are cyanotic?

Answer 226

Trouble defects

Question 227

What defects have left to right shunts and are acyanotic?

Answer 227

Not trouble defects

Question 228

All congenital heart defects have what?

Answer 228

Murmur and an echocardiogram done

Question 229

What are the four defects of Tetrology of Fellot?

Answer 229

Ventricular Defect, Pulmonic Stenosis, Overriding Aorta and Right Hypertrophy

Question 230

What is the saying to help remember the four defects of Tetrology of Fellot?

Answer 230

VarieD PictureS Of A RancH

Question 231

1 fingerwidth is how many cm's?

Answer 231

1

Question 232

How to measure crutches

Answer 232

2-3 cm/fingerwidths below anterior AXILLARY FOLD to a point lateral and slightly in front of the foot

Question 233

When measuring crutches, don't pick

Answer 233

any foot landmark like a "toe" or "heel"

Question 234

When the handgrip of a crutch is properly in place the elbow felxion should be?

Answer 234

30 degrees

Question 235

If crutch is not 30*, what will happen?

Answer 235

nerve damage

Question 236

Crutches should be how many fingerwidths below the armpit?

Answer 236

2-3

Question 237

Describe a 2 point gait?

Answer 237

1. one crutch and opposite foot together 2. Other crutch and other foor together. 2 points 2gether and the same time.

Question 238

Describe a 3 point gait?

Answer 238

1. Move two crutches and bad leg together. 2. Move good foot. Move all three together and then the good leg.

Question 239

Describe a 4 point gait?

Answer 239

NOTHING moves together 1. Right crutch 2. Left foot. 3. Left crutch. 4. Right foot. It moves one at a time so 1,2,3,4 and 1,2,3,4, and 1,2,3,4

Question 240

Describe swing through?

Answer 240

traditional crutching

Question 241

Who uses Swing Through?

Answer 241

Amputees, non weight bearing (sprain/break)

Question 242

Use the even numbered gaits when weakness is?

Answer 242

Evenly distributed (bilateral) Remember, Even for Even, Odd for Odd

Question 243

When using the even gaits what one is for severe and what one for mild problems?

Answer 243

2 point gait for mild 4 point gait for severe.

Question 244

4 point gait for what?

Answer 244

Fresh Post Op

Question 245

If the question says "systemic disease" when it comes to crutches

Answer 245

Assume it impacts both legs

Question 246

Use the odd numbered gait when?

Answer 246

The problem is affecting one leg (unilateral)

Question 247

When going up the stairs or down the stairs with crutched remember?

Answer 247

UP with the GOOD and DOWN with the BAD

Question 248

Crutches always move with what leg?

Answer 248

the bad leg

Question 249

What side do you hold the cane?

Answer 249

strong side

Question 250

What side do you advance the cane with?

Answer 250

The weak side for a wide base support. | Step with opposites

Question 251

For walkers remember you?

Answer 251

Pick it up, set it down and walk to it.

Question 252

Remember for walkers that you

Answer 252

Always push, never pull NO tennis balls on legs If you put something on the walker, make it the side not front

Question 253

A non psychotic person has

Answer 253

insight and is reality based

Question 254

A psychotic person has

Answer 254

has | No Insight and is Not reality based

Question 255

Not all psych patients are

Answer 255

Psychotic. Show this in your answers!

Question 256

7 Hallucinatory Words

Answer 256

``` Look See Listen Hear Feel Taste Smell ```

Question 257

If the question has "appear" in psych, it is

Answer 257

A delusion ( a belief)

Question 258

What is a delusion?

Answer 258

A false fixed belief, idea or thought. | This has no sensory component.

Question 259

What are the three types of delusions?

Answer 259

Paranoid or Persecutory, Grandiose and Somatic

Question 260

What is a paranoid delusion?

Answer 260

False fixed belief that people are out to harm you (CIA, FBI).

Question 261

What is a grandiose delusion?

Answer 261

False fixed belief that you are superior (God, the Pope).

Question 262

What is a somatic delusion?

Answer 262

False fixed belief about a body part (X-ray vision).

Question 263

What is a hallucination?

Answer 263

False, fixed sensory experience.

Question 264

Five types of hallucinations?

Answer 264

``` Auditory, visual, tactile (feel) olfactory gustatory (taste) ```

Question 265

Most common type of hallucination?

Answer 265

Auditory (Especially Command)

Question 266

What is an illusion?

Answer 266

Misinterpretation of reality. | It is a sensory experience.

Question 267

How can you diffirentiate between illusions and hallucinations?

Answer 267

Illusion: Sensory response to something in reality [the news (reality) is talking TO them (illusion)] Hallucination: Sensory response but nothing in reality pertains

Question 268

Don't treat all Psych patients

Answer 268

The same/like they are psychotic

Question 269

Example of an illusion?

Answer 269

The clock on the wall is a bomb (the clock is real, but the belief isn't)

Question 270

What are the four types of functional psychosis?

Answer 270

Schizophrenia Schizoaffective disorder, Major depression/mania (bipolar). (SCHIZO SCHIZO MAJOR MANIC)

Question 271

Functional Psychotics have WHAT

Answer 271

The potential to learn reality

Question 272

If a functional psychotic is having a delusion or illusion you?

Answer 272

Acknowledge the feeling ( I see you are upset), Present reality (but we have no spiders in the room) Set a limit ( we're not going to talk about that lets talk about something else) Enforce the limit ( I see you're to ill to talk about reality). Follow with : We have medication to treat those symptoms

Question 273

NEVER set limits on

Answer 273

feelings

Question 274

Present reality

Answer 274

positively

Question 275

Example of presenting reality positively:

Answer 275

Tell them what they CAN do instead of what they CAN'T do.