you got it Flashcards
(228 cards)
1
Q
refers to the failure of chromosomes or chromatids to properly separate during anaphase (only occurs in meiosis I or meiosis II)
A
Nondisjunction
2
Q
X-linked recessive diseases are very rare in
A
women
3
Q
Glycogen is stored in the _______, so most of glucagon’s action occurs there
A
Liver
4
Q
loss of CO2, increase in O2 in the blood, increased blood pH, increased hemoglobin affinity for O2
A
Hyperventilation
5
Q
oxygen deprivation
A
hypoxia (hypo-under, oxia- oxygen)
6
Q
to be considered an organic compound, there must be a _____ between a C and H atom in the molecular structure
A
covalent bond
7
Q
________ increases H2O and Na+ reabsorption from the kidney while exchanging K+ and Na+ ions
A
Aldosterone
8
Q
is needed to export mRNA from the nucleus to the cytoplasm, and it is a post-transcriptional modification
A
polyadenylation
9
Q
Glycosylation is what kind of modification?
A
It is a post-translational modification
10
Q
involves direct uptake of genetic material from the environment and is not mediated by viruses
A
Transformation
11
Q
a horizontal gene transfer process in bacteria in which plasmid DNA are transferred from one bacterium to another through a pilus. Viruses aren’t involved
A
Conjugation
12
Q
a form of horizontal gene transfer in bacteria in which bacteriophages transmit genomic material
A
transduction
13
Q
how bacteria produce asexually
A
binary fission
14
Q
These cells in adults do not divide
A
Neurons
15
Q
state that a cell will enter if it doesn’t need to divide
A
G0 phase
16
Q
Triglycerides are composed of
A
1 glycerol molecule and 3 fatty acid molecules
17
Q
Guanine and Adenine are
A
Purines (GAP)
18
Q
Cytosine, Uracil and Thymine are
A
Pyrimidines (CUT the Py)
19
Q
____ mutations are implicated in more tumors than are mutations in any other gene
A
p53
20
Q
In ________, proteins migrate toward a positively-charged pole
A
SDS-PAGE
21
Q
What do enzymes do?
A
They catalyze reactions by lowering the activation energy. This allows the reaction to proceed more rapidly.
22
Q
Purines are _-ring structures
A
2-ring (#2-PU-stinky)
23
Q
Pyrimidines are _-ring structures
A
1-ring
24
Q
are forms of secondary structure that exist as a result of hydrogen bonding between amino acid backbone atoms
A
alpha helices and beta sheets
25
SN2 mechanisms are favored by polar, aprotic solvents, such as
acetone or DMSO
26
do not contain O-H or N-H bonds
aprotic
27
contain O-H or N-H bonds
protic
28
begins synthesis of a new strand of copied DNA
primase
29
the enzyme that connects (binds together) Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand of DNA being replicated
Ligase
30
repairs pieces of mis-replicated DNA
DNA Polymerase
31
opens the double helical strand of DNA to begin replication
helicase
32
V=Vmax [S]/ (Km+S)
Michaelis-Menten Equation
33
When does Km=S?
at 1/2 Vmax
34
the only amino acid that is not chiral
Glycine
35
Only _ amino acids are used by eukaryotic cells
L (for living)
36
Prokaryotic cells do use _ amino acids on occasion
D
37
In males, LH stimulated ____ cells to produce testosterone
Leydig
38
the hormone responsible for stimulating the mammary glands to produce milk
Prolactin (produce milk-Prolactin)
39
a thyroid hormone responsible for lowering blood calcium concentrations
Calcitonin
40
the transfer of active humoral immunity in the form of ready-made antibodies, from one individual to another
Passive immunity
41
Gel electrophoresis separates cells based on?
Size
42
Translation occurs at the _______
Ribosomes
43
the ____ is primarily composed of endothelial cells with tight junctions that prevent the movement of most solutes
blood-brain barrier
44
Synapses and dendrites are characteristics of
neurons
45
Neural cells spend more time in which phase?
G0 phase- since they are not growing
46
Gastrointestinal cells spend less time in ____ phase since they divide twice per day
G0
47
non-growing state
G0 phase
48
Cell differentiation occurs primarily through different?
Gene expression levels
49
DNA ______ also plays a role in gene expression
methylation
50
The alpha-helical structure of a protein is held together by what?
Hydrogen bonding between carbonyl oxygen and amino hydrogen atoms
51
contains Sulfur and is the only amino acid that can form disulfide bridges?
Cysteine
52
Long chain fatty acids are those with how many carbons in their tail?
Between 13 and 21
53
is classified as a triterpene. These are hydrocarbons, but they do not contain oxygen, so they cannot possibly be classified as carbohydrates
Squalene
54
Formula of Glucose
C6H12O6
55
Complementary C and G nucleotides are held together by ____ hydrogen bonds, while A and T nucleotides are connected by ___H-bonds.
3, 2
56
generally consist of a hydrophobic portion within the lipid bilayer and two hydrophilic portions that face the cytosol and extracellular space. These proteins are highly physiologically important and actually provide about 50% of drug targets
Transmembrane proteins
57
a peptide hormone that promotes a decrease in blood glucose levels
insulin
58
bones that are strong and provide protection to vital organs. Examples include the sternum, scapula, and ribs
flat bones
59
is first released in the oral cavity
salivary amylase
60
is released in the stomach, where it works in a very acidic environment (think of how Pepsi has an acidic bubble to it.)
pepsin
61
an enzyme that is involved in protein digestion in the small intestine
Carboxypeptidase
62
What does the sodium-potassium pump do?
It pumps 3 Na+ ions out of the cell, and 2 K+ ions into the cell.
63
uses labeled antibodies to distinguish particular proteins in tissue samples
Immunohistochemistry
64
used to detect specific RNA molecules among a mixture of RNA
Northern blot
65
used in molecular biology for detection of a specific DNA sequence in a sample of DNA
Southern blot
66
Sodium and ammonium always form ______ salts
soluble
67
five-membered rings that consist of 4 carbons and one oxygen atom
Furanose
68
six-membered rings that consist of 5 carbons and 1 oxygen atom
Pyranose
69
The keto form is always more stable than the ____ form
enol
70
mRNA is directly involved in which process?
translation
71
X-linked diseases can't pass from
male to male
72
in a pedigree, squares represent _____ and circles represent _____
males, females
73
X-linked diseases are often transmitted by ____
| Males inherit their __ chromosome from their fathers
carrier mothers.
Y chromosome
74
a form of inheritance in which neither allele is completely expressed over the other
incomplete dominance
75
refers to a pattern in which both alleles are fully expressed
codominance
76
Genes that are far apart are less likely to be
linked
77
a prolonged increased in heart and breathing rates during a snow skiing trip is likely due to
hypoxia (caused by low blood hemoglobin to supply oxygen for exercise at the low oxygen pressure)
78
this is the substance that holds oxygen in the muscles and organ.
If it is found in the urine it indicates damaged _____ or _______
myoglobin
muscles or organs
79
the part of the brain that controls heart rate
brain stem
80
part of the brain that controls muscle coordination
cerebellum
81
part of the brain that controls appetite
hypothalamus
82
What is something that distinguishes eukaryotic cells from prokaryotic cells?
eukaryotic cells contain membrane-bound organelles such as mitochondria
83
When does the centromere split and the sister chromatids separate?
anaphase II of meiosis II
84
functions of mammalian skin:
touch sensation, protection from disease, and protection from internal injury
85
What does inbreeding do?
the chances of getting a pair of deleterious recessive genes increases enormously when the mate is a relative. It decreases genetic diversity and doesn't have an effect on spontaneous mutations.
86
increasing blood pressure will affect the
glomerular filtration rate
87
is a messenger RNA
coding RNA, which is translated
88
tRNA, siRNA, miRNA are
noncoding RNA, which are not translated into protein
89
restriction enzymes are known as
Endonucleases
90
ribonucleases degrade
RNA
91
two factors that can determine blood pressure are
cardiac output and the resistance to blood flow
92
increases blood flow to the muscles during exercise and to the skin during blushing
vasodilation
93
is important in maintaining blood pressure during a hemorrhage
vasoconstriction
94
sperm motility requires
large amounts of ATP
95
functions of this organ are: absorption of fats in the small intestine, production of bile, and detoxification of poisons
liver
96
are heritable changes in the sequence of the nucleic acid component of chromosomes
mutations
97
the 3-D structure of a protein can be disrupted by
heating or by changing the pH
98
causes Na+ reabsorption by the kidney tubules
Aldosterone
99
bacterial cells and human cells are alike in the ability to produce ATP via ATP synthase
only bacterial cells have cell walls, human cells do not.
most bacterial chromosomes are circular, but human chromosomes are linear
100
bones forming will do what to the calcium in the blood?
it will decrease calcium in the blood
101
bones being broken down will
increase calcium in the blood
102
a key factor that determines a ____ is the ability to successfully breed and produce fertile offspring
species
103
this cycle involves the hypothalamus, pituitary, and the ovaries
the menstrual cycle
104
a butterfly-shaped organ located in the base of your neck. It releases hormones that control metabolism—the way your body uses energy
thyroid gland
105
if a dsDNA molecule has bases with a ratio of 3:1, the dsDNA daughter ratio would have a ratio of?
3:1 as well
106
nervous tissues arise from the
ectoderm
107
a reduction in gene-pool diversity because of a sharp reduction in population size
genetic bottleneck
108
p^2+2pq+q^2
| p+q=1
```
p^2= frequency of homozygous dominant
2pq= frequency of heterozygous
q^2= frequency of homozygous recessive
```
109
when a more extreme phenotype is favored
directional selection
110
this occurs because of physical barriers
allopatric speciation
111
occurs when reproductive isolation is due to physical barriers that separate a population
sympatric speciation
112
these cells are generally diploid. this means they have 2 chromatids for each chromsome
somatic cells
if they have 26 chromosomes, they'll have 52 sister chromatids
113
reflects the proportion of individuals in a group carrying a genotype
penetrance
114
reflects the strength with which the phenotype is expressed
expressiveness
115
a form of directional selection in which phenotypic features are preferentially selected for during the mating process even if such features have no correlation with fitness (peacock feathers for ex.)
sexual selection
116
communication between individuals of the same species
intraspecific
117
communication between different species
interspecific communication
118
high blood glucose levels lead to
insulin secretion
119
What does insulin do?
it decreases blood glucose levels
120
reduced activity of GLUT4 transporters, upregulation of gluconeogenesis, increased proteolysis
effects of glucagon
121
high levels of insulin lead to
increased triglyceride synthesis
122
primary driving force behind protein folding is the _____ by the hydrophobic residues in the protein core
increased entropy
123
in the reaction coordinate diagram, peaks are referred to as ______ and valleys are referred to as
transition states, reaction intermediates
124
ATP hydrolysis has a negative and is spontaneous
negative delta G
125
the proton gradient is established by directly coupling the movement of protons to the oxidation of
NADH to NAD+
126
when channels open, sodium ions flow into the neuron causing it to
depolarize
127
Steroid hormones and methylation can affect gene _______, but peptide hormones can not affect this.
gene expression
128
at the peak of an action potential, the membrane potential is around __ mV.
+40 mV.
| At this voltage, Na ceases to flow into the cell, and K channels open to allow K to flow out of the cell.
129
the specialized part of the cell body that connects to the axon. Action potentials are summated here before traveling down the axon
the axon hillock
130
houses the auditory cortex, which processes auditory information
temporal lobe
131
controls fine motor movements (playing an instrument)
basal ganglia
132
part of the auditory pathway that transmits signals to the medial geniculate nucleus
inferior colliculus
133
_____ are responsible for myelinating nerve axons in the Central Nervous System, while ______ perform similar functions in the Peripheral Nervous system
Oligodendrocytes-CNS (O-C)
| Schwann cells- PNS (PS)
134
work=
force x distance
135
the electron transport chain only provides ATP ______
aerobically (with oxygen)
136
defined as a process where distantly related organisms independently evolve similar traits to adapt to similar needs. A dolphin and a shark are an example.
convergent evolution
137
the evolution of homologous structures is always an example of
divergent evolution
think of an elephant and a wooly mammoth. Came from same ancestor but diverged apart like a path in the woods that splits into two.
138
is an enzyme that can catalyze the joining (ligation) of two large molecules by forming a new chemical bond,
ligase
139
is an enzyme involved in the replication of DNA and is a type of RNA polymerase
DNA primase
140
refers to any of the enzymes that use the energy derived from the hydrolysis of nucleoside triphosphates to unwind the double-stranded helical structure of nucleic acids.
helicase
141
refers to a class of enzymes, which alter the supercoiling of double-stranded DNA
topoisomerase
142
these have to do with hydrolase activity
proteases
143
What is a trait of cancer cells?
the inhibition of apoptosis
144
An _____ containing two genes in prokaryotic cells is transcribed from a single promoter upstream of the first gene in the operon
operon
145
The Na+ K+ pump is an example of
primary active transport
146
What does the sodium-potassium pump do?
It pumps 3 Na+ out of the cell, and pumps 2 K+ into the cell per molecule of ATP hydrolyzed.
If there were two molecules, the totals would double.
147
What does fasting lead to?
the breakdown of glycogen, gluconeogenesis, and continued fasting leads to the production of ketone bodies sustained by fatty acid oxidation
148
the adrenal medulla secretes what in response to short-term stress
epinephrine and norepinephrine
Reactions to short-term stress are mediated by the sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system
149
this type of inhibition involves binding of an inhibitor to a site other than the substrate binding site
allosteric inhibition
150
supplies energy for many cellular processes, such as muscle contraction
ATP
151
this is used in the electronic transport chain
NADH
152
osmotic pressure is directly proportional to
solute concentration
153
this isn't made in fasting states
Glycogen
When fasting, you are breaking down these storage forms.
154
insulin is unlikely to be present when
fasting
155
insulin-
| glucagon-
fed
| fasted
156
red blood cells don't have:
a nucleus and no DNA as well
157
the citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylation take place where?
in the mitochondria and the mitochondrial membrane
158
Where does glycolysis occur?
in the cytosol
159
red blood cells require large amounts of ___ for normal functioning
NADPH
160
these factors refer to someone's personality
dispositional
161
these factors can be out of someone's control. The weather, what others do.
situational factors
162
________ occurs in the liver mostly and a little in the kidneys
Gluconeogenesis
163
phosphoglucose isomerase is an enzyme involved in
glycolysis
164
If you are given a target sequence:
| CCCCGGGC, which part is palindromic?
Only CCCGGG is palindromic.
165
Complex II of the electron transport chain is known as:
Succinate dehydrogenase (SDH)
166
Complex I of ETC
NADH Dehydrogenase or NADH Ubiquinone Oxidoreductase
167
Complex III of ETC
Cytochrome bc1 Complex or Cytochrome C Reductase
168
Complex IV of ETC:
Cytochrome c Oxidase
169
these genes are expressed in a parent-specific manner
imprinted genes
170
How do RNA viruses replicate?
By using Reverse Transcriptase
171
What does the glomerulus do?
It prevents the entry of large molecules like proteins into the filtrate
172
a series of small tubes inside the kidneys that funnel urine into the renal pelvis for drainage into the ureter
the collecting duct
173
_____ of the nephron in the kidney regulates sodium, potassium, calcium, and pH in the kidney
the distal tubule
174
What is the principle function of the Loop of Henle?
The principal function of the loop of Henle is in the recovery of water and sodium chloride from urine.
175
the optimum pH varies from one enzyme to another, but the optimum ______ is normally __ degrees
The optimum temperature is 37 degrees Celsius
176
specialized cells for secretion that are present in the respiratory tract
epithelial cells
177
villi atrophy results in a decrease in the surface area of the small intestine, leading to a decrease in
nutrient absorption
178
an excess of unabsorbed fats in the intestine inhibits normal water and electrolyte reabsorption, resulting in increased:
osmotic pressure and diarrhea
179
to increase blood calcium levels, what would need to be happening?
Osteoclasts (breaking down bone) would need to be working and osteoblasts (building bone) would need to be working less.
180
in this inhibition, the inhibitor reversibly bind the enzyme's active site
competitive inhibition
181
a cellular control mechanism in which an enzyme’s activity is inhibited by the enzyme’s end product
feedback inhibition
182
Blood is filtered into Bowman's space within Bowman's capsule and the moves sequentially through the:
proximal tubule, loop of Henle, distal tubule, and the collecting duct
183
meiosis only occurs in ____ cells
germ cells
184
When does crossing over occur?
In prophase I of meiosis
185
Neurons and muscle cells are typically in a state of
G0 (non-growing state)
186
Skin cells are exposed to the environment and constantly grow and repair so they are more likely to undergo
mitosis at a faster rate
187
the point at which a cells is committed to mitosis occurs in
G1 phase of the cell cycle
188
B cells are part of the
immune system
189
have no endoplasmic reticulum, have circular dsDNA, have a cell wall, and have a plasma membrane
Prokaryotes
190
these cells are part of cell-mediated immunity
T cells
191
Methylation _____ the expression of the corresponding DNA sequence
inhibits
192
damage to the midbrain would disrupt
visual and auditory processing
193
known as the startle reflex in infants
Moro reflex
194
this reflex occurs when the bottom of a baby's foot is stroked and the big toe bends up and the other toes fan out
Babinski reflex
| think of when you ski, your toes bend in and out with the movement of the skis
195
this brain imaging technique is used to compare blood flow to different regions of the brain
fMRI
196
this brain technique can be used to visualize blood vessels or hemorrhage
CT scan
197
an excitatory neurotransmitter causes _____ of its target neuron, and an inhibitory neurotransmitter causes _____ of other neurons
depolarization of its target neuron, hyperpolarization
198
Vmax=
kcat [Et]
199
the turnover number is also known as the
kcat
200
inactive precursors to enzymes that require proteolytic cleavage prior to becoming active
Zymogens
201
A graph showing cooperativity would have which shape?
Sigmoidal or S-shaped
202
A Hill coefficient greater than 1 reflects
positive cooperativity
203
Magnesium is a necessary _____ for hexokinase
cofactor
204
Which form of inhibition has a Km that doesn't change?
Noncompetitive
205
C
U
N
Km:
+
-
=
Vmax:
=
-
-
206
this inhibitor is an inhibitor of the enzyme-substrate complex
uncompetitive inhibitor
207
enzymes that bind together two smaller components
ligases
208
these enzymes transfer functional groups from one molecule to another
Transferases
209
increases triglyceride synthesis, decreases fatty acid oxidation, reduces blood glucose levels and increases glycogenesis
Insulin
210
this hormone triggers ovulation in females
Luteinizing Hormone
211
LH binds to its receptors in _____ cells, stimulating testosterone synthesis and secretion
Leydig
212
a hormone that acts on neighboring cells
a paracrine hormone
213
these hormones act on the cell that secreted them
autocrine hormones
214
these hormones travel and act on distant sites
Endocrine hormones
215
this gland secretes the thyroid-stimulating hormone
anterior pituitary gland
216
this gland secretes melatonin, which is the hormone that regulates sleep patterns
pineal gland
217
cyclic AMP, cyclic GMP, and calcium ions acts as
second messengers
218
ATP is NOT considered a
second messenger. It is the cell's main source of energy.
219
transCription occurs in the ____, and translation occurs at the ______
nuCleus, ribosomes
220
pancreatic beta cells affect the ability to produce ____, and alpha cells produce _____
insulin, and glucagon
221
travel from the endocrine gland where they are produced through the blood to their target tissue
hormones
222
What are released at neural synapses?
Neurotransmitters
223
In order to regulate glucose levels, glycogen is made, stored, and broken down in the
liver
224
these muscles contain striated muscle fibers
skeletal and cardiac muscles
225
the heart is made of which muscle
cardiac
226
the primary muscle type of the uterus, arteries, veinss, and the small intestine is
smooth muscle
227
During muscle contraction, bridges between actin and myosin form, break, and reform leading to
a shortening of muscle sarcomeres
228
____ the hormone responsible for triggering ovulation, and ___ is the pregnancy hormone
LH, and HCG
