yup Flashcards

(41 cards)

1
Q

What is the purpose of Fume Hoods?

A

Fume Hoods expel hazardous fumes from chemical reagents. They should be inspected for blockages and ventilation velocity.

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2
Q

What do Biosafety Cabinets do?

A

Biosafety Cabinets remove harmful particles of infective biological specimens and offer varying levels of protection depending on biosafety level.

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3
Q

What are the Risk Groups of Microorganisms?

A

Risk Group 1: No/low individual and community risk.
Risk Group 2: Moderate individual risk, low community risk.
Risk Group 3: High individual risk, low community risk.
Risk Group 4: High individual and community risk.

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4
Q

What are the Biosafety Containment Levels?

A

Level 1: Basic lab, non-pathogenic organisms.
Level 2: Pathogenic to humans but not a serious hazard.
Level 3: Serious diseases, treatment usually available.
Level 4: Lethal pathogens, easily transmitted, no effective treatment available.

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5
Q

What is a Light Microscope?

A

A Light Microscope uses compound lenses to magnify objects with magnifications of 4x, 10x, 40x, and 100x.

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6
Q

What is Borrelia burgdorferi?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi is a spirochete that causes Lyme disease.

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7
Q

What is Bacillus anthracis?

A

Bacillus anthracis is a gram-positive rod that causes anthrax and is spore-forming.

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8
Q

What is Streptococcus pneumoniae?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae is a gram-positive diplococcus that causes pneumonia.

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9
Q

What is Staphylococcus aureus?

A

Staphylococcus aureus is a gram-positive sphere that can be pathogenic.

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10
Q

What is Clostridium tetani?

A

Clostridium tetani is a gram-positive rod that is spore-forming and causes tetanus.

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11
Q

What is Saccharomyces cerevisiae?

A

Saccharomyces cerevisiae is a budding yeast used in baking and brewing.

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12
Q

What is Rhizopus sporangia?

A

Rhizopus sporangia are filamentous fungi that act as decomposers.

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13
Q

What is Taenia?

A

Taenia is a parasitic helminth that causes taeniasis.

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14
Q

Why is Aseptic Technique important?

A

Aseptic Technique prevents contamination of the work area/person and prevents contamination of the sample.

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15
Q

What are the types of Growth Media?

A

Complex Media: Composition not precisely known (e.g., TSA, nutrient broth).
Defined Media: Precisely known composition (e.g., minimal agar).

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16
Q

What is an Autoclave?

A

An Autoclave operates at 121°C, 15 psi, for 15 minutes.

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17
Q

What is contamination?

A

Contamination is the presence of unwanted microbes.

18
Q

What are the forms of Culture Media?

A

Broths: Liquid media, growth observed as turbidity, pellicle, or sediment.
Agar Slants: Solidified media in test tubes.
Agar Plates: Solid media in petri dishes.

19
Q

Who developed Pure Culture Techniques?

A

Robert Koch developed methods to isolate bacteria.

20
Q

What is a Colony?

A

A Colony is a visible bacterial mass originating from one cell.

21
Q

What is Colony Morphology?

A

Colony Morphology differentiates species based on appearance.

22
Q

What are Positive Stains?

A

Positive Stains are dyes that bind to cells (basic stains).

23
Q

What are Negative Stains?

A

Negative Stains are dyes that are repelled by cells, staining the background.

24
Q

What are the steps for Simple Stain?

A
  1. Prepare a smear. 2. Add dye. 3. Rinse with water. 4. Dab dry.
25
What does Gram Staining differentiate?
Gram-Positive: Purple (thick peptidoglycan layer). Gram-Negative: Red (thin peptidoglycan, outer membrane).
26
What factors affect Gram Stains?
Older cultures may stain incorrectly. Thick smears can entrap crystal violet. Over- or under-decolorization affects results.
27
What is Acid-Fast Staining used for?
Acid-Fast Staining is used for Mycobacterium (e.g., M. tuberculosis).
28
What is the Ziehl-Neelsen Method?
The Ziehl-Neelsen Method requires heat for Acid-Fast Staining.
29
What is the Kinyoun Method?
The Kinyoun Method does not require heat for Acid-Fast Staining.
30
What does Endospore Staining differentiate?
Endospore Staining differentiates vegetative cells (pink) and endospores (green) using the Schaeffer-Fulton Method.
31
What is Biochemical Identification?
Each bacteria has a unique biochemical fingerprint based on enzyme presence.
32
How is Fermentation detected?
Using Phenol Red Broth: Red = No fermentation; Yellow = Acid production (fermentation occurred).
33
What does the Citrate Utilization Test determine?
It tests if bacteria can use citrate as a sole carbon source. Positive: Blue color (citrate utilized); Negative: Green color.
34
What does the Starch Hydrolysis Test determine?
It determines if bacteria can break down starch. Positive: Clearing around growth after iodine; Negative: No clearing.
35
What does the DNase Test detect?
The DNase Test detects deoxyribonuclease (DNase) activity. Positive: Clearing around growth; Negative: No clearing.
36
What does the Lipase Test detect?
The Lipase Test detects the ability to hydrolyze lipids. Positive: Halo around growth; Negative: No clearing.
37
What are the expected results for E. coli?
E. coli: Gram (-), Glucose (+), Lactose (+), Sucrose (-), Citrate (-), Starch (-), DNase (-), Lipase (-).
38
What are the expected results for S. aureus?
S. aureus: Gram (+), Glucose (+), Lactose (+), Sucrose (+), Citrate (+), Starch (-), DNase (+), Lipase (+).
39
What are the expected results for B. subtilis?
B. subtilis: Gram (+), Glucose (+), Lactose (-), Sucrose (+), Citrate (+), Starch (+), DNase (-), Lipase (+).
40
What are the expected results for S. marcescens?
S. marcescens: Gram (-), Glucose (+), Lactose (-), Sucrose (+), Citrate (+), Starch (-), DNase (+), Lipase (-).
41
What are the expected results for P. vulgaris?
P. vulgaris: Gram (-), Glucose (+), Lactose (-), Sucrose (+), Citrate (+), Starch (-), DNase (+), Lipase: Varies.