03a: Antibacterial Agents Flashcards

(83 cards)

1
Q

List the four sites of antibiotic action.

A
  1. Cell wall synthesis
  2. Protein synthesis
  3. Nucleic acid synthesis
  4. Folic acid synthesis
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2
Q

List the classes of antibiotics that target cell wall synthesis. Star the beta lactams

A
  1. Penicillins*
  2. Vancomycin
  3. Beta-Lactamase Inhibitors
  4. Cephalosporins*
  5. Carbapenems*
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3
Q

Penicillin is (bactericidal/bacteriostatic) and (time/conc)-dependent.

A

Bactericidal; time-dependent

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4
Q

Mechanism of action of beta lactams is (stim/inhib) of (X), followed by bacterial cell (Y).

A

Inhibition;
X = PBPs (cross link peptide chains of peptidoglycan)
Y = lysis (via osmotic P or autolysins)

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5
Q

Natural penicillins, such as (X), primarily target gram (pos/neg) (aerobes/anaerobes) and is treatment of choice for which situations/infections?

A

X = penicillin G
Gram-pos aerobes (strep);

  1. Strep (GAS pharyngitis)
  2. Syphilis
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6
Q

Extended spectrum penicillins differ from natural penicillins in that they have greater:

A

access/ability to penetrate through O.M. of gram negatives

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7
Q

Aminopenicillins, such as (X), have coverage similar to penicillin G with (more/less) coverage for:

A

X = ampicillin; more

  1. Enterococcus
  2. Listeria
  3. Enterobacteriaceae
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8
Q

T/F: Aminopenicillins have very broad range of coverage for gram positives.

A

False

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9
Q

T/F: Penicillinase-resistant penicillins have very broad range of coverage for gram positives.

A

True

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10
Q

Drug of choice for endocarditis prophylaxis (i.e. via enterococcus).

A

Aminopenicillins (ex: ampicillin)

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11
Q

T/F: Most penicillins must be given by IV or IM to achieve adequate levels.

A

True (degraded by gastric acid)

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12
Q

T/F: Penicillins distribute well into most tissues, particularly bone/CSF.

A

False - less so in bone/CSF, though CSF levels are 5-20% of serum levels

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13
Q

Penicillins are mainly excreted (changed/unchanged) via which route?

A

Unchanged;

Renal (rapid)

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14
Q

Most common adverse effect of penicillins.

A

Hypersensitivity (3-10%), though anaphylaxis is rare

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15
Q

T/F: There may be cross-reactivity between penicillins and cephalosporins, but not other beta-lactams.

A

False - can be cross-reactivity between any of those

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16
Q

Beta-Lactamase Inhibitor example.

A

Clavulanic acid

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17
Q

Cephalosporins have which mechanism of action?

A

They’re beta-lactams! Similar to penicillins (inhibit PBPs)

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18
Q

(X) is a first-generation cephalosporin that acts primarily on which type of bacteria?

A

X = cefazolin

Gram-positive aerobes (ex: strep, MSSA)

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19
Q

(X) is a second-generation cephalosporin that acts primarily on which type of bacteria? (Y) is also a second-gen drug, but with additional activity against (Z).

A

X = cefuroxime
Gram-pos (mainly Strep, less Staph) and Gram-neg aerobes;
Y = cefoxitin
Z = gram-neg anaerobes

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20
Q

Which cephalosporin would you likely use to treat respiratory infections and community acquired pneumonia?

A

Cefuroxime (second generation)

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21
Q

(X) is a third-generation cephalosporin that acts primarily on which type of bacteria?

A
X = ceftriaxone
Gram pos (mainly Strep, less Staph) and gram neg aerobes (less than fourth gen)
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22
Q

Which cephalosporin would you likely use to treat strep pneumo and gram negative infections?

A

Gen 3 (ceftriaxone)

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23
Q

Which cephalosporin would you likely use to treat hospital-acquired Pseudomonas?

A

Gen 4 (cefepime)

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24
Q

T/F: Gen 4 cephalosporins have no gram-positive acitivty.

A

False - similar to Gen 1 activity

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25
T/F: Cephalosporins have no activity against anaerobes.
False - Cefoxitin(a gen 2) does against gram-neg anaerobes
26
Aside from (X), the pharmacokinetics of cephalosporins are similar to (Y) drugs.
``` X = ceftriaxone (longer half-life and biliary excretion) Y = penicillins ```
27
T/F: Cephalosporins have adverse effects/toxicity overall similar to penicillins.
True
28
Carbapenems have which mechanism of action?
They're beta-lactams! Similar to penicillins (inhibit PBPs)
29
Carbapenems: (X) is combined with (Y) to prevent:
``` X = imipenem Y = cilastatin ``` Imipenem brakdown to nephrotoxic product
30
List the three mechanisms that pathogens use for antimicrobial resistance.
1. Efflux of drug 2. Alteration of drug 3. Degradation of drug
31
(X) are broad-spectrum agents, generally reserved for documented resistance activity. These agents work on gram (pos/neg) (aerobes/anaerobes).
X = carbapenems | Gram pos and neg aerobes and anaerobes
32
Most common adverse effect of carbapenems are:
GI disturbances
33
T/F: Vancomycin is a beta-lactam that's bactericidal and time-dependent.
Partly false - it's a glycopeptide (not beta-lactam)
34
Spectrum of vancomycin is gram (pos/neg) (aerobes/anaerobes).
Gram pos aerobes and anaerobes (including MRSA)
35
Vancomycin primarily used for which two scenarios?
1. MRSA | 2. Pt with anaphylaxis to beta-lactams
36
"Red man syndrome" can be seen with infusion of (X) drug too rapidly.
X = vancomycin
37
List the classes of antibiotics that target protein synthesis.
1. Aminoglycosides 2. Tetracyclines 3. Macrolides 4. Clindamycin
38
Aminoglycosides, such as (X), have which mechanism of action?
X = gentamicin Bind (irreversibly) to 30S ribosome (causing misreading)
39
Gentamicin activity is (bactericidal/bacteriostatic) and (time/conc)-dependent. Its spectrum of activity mainly includes gram (pos/neg) (aerobes/anaerobes).
Bactericidal; Conc-dependent Gram neg (and limited gram pos) aerobes
40
Distribution of gentamicin is primarily into which body compartment?
Extracellular (highly polar); no CNS penetration
41
Adverse effects of gentamicin.
1. Nephrotoxicity (reversible) | 2. Ototoxicity (auditory/vestibular; irreversible)
42
Tetracyclines, such as (X), have which mechanism of action?
X = doxycycline Bind (reversibly) to 30S ribosome (causing misreading)
43
Doxycycline activity is (bactericidal/bacteriostatic) and (time/conc)-dependent.
Bacteriostatic; | Time-dependent
44
Gentamicin works (intra/extra)-cellularly. It is transported via which mechanisms?
Intracellularly (on 30S ribosome) 1. Porin channels (passive) 2. Active transport (oxygen dependent)
45
Gentamicin is less effective in (aerobic/anaerobic) and (acidic/basic) conditions. Why?
Anaerobic, acidic; Decreased transport (which is oxygen-dependent)
46
(X) drugs are often used in combo with others (in sick, high-risk patients), while waiting for tests to ID illness.
X = Gentamicin (aminoglycosides)
47
For optimal bactericidal effects, Gentamicin must have Cmax: MIC ratio of:
10:1 (conc-dependent)
48
Doxycycline has generally broad spectrum of gram (pos/neg) coverage, but (resistance/adverse effects) pose issues.
Both (pos and neg aerobes and anaerobes); | Both acquired resistance and adverse effects are problematic
49
Oral absorption of doxycyline is (fair/poor) and it distributes into (most/only select) tissues. How is it eliminated?
Fair (but decreased by simultaneous ingestion of certain minerals); Most; Undergoes glucoronidation, then excreted in urine and bile
50
Doxycycline is contraindcated in which patient population? Why?
Children under 8 due to photosensitivity (rash) and tooth/bone discoloration
51
Doxycycline most common adverse effect.
GI disturbances
52
Macrolides, such as (X), have which mechanism of action?
X = azithromycin Reversibly bind 50S ribosome
53
Azithromycin is (bactericidal/bacteriostatic) and (time/conc)-dependent. Its coverage is similar to that of (X) drug, but with less gram (Y) coverage.
Depends on dose and organism; Time-dependent X = penicillins Y = anaerobic
54
T/F: Azithromycin has activity against T. pallidum and chlamydia.
False - only chlamydia
55
T/F: Azithromycin has activity against H. flu and Legionella.
True
56
T/F: Azithromycin is used in resp tract infections, such as against mycoplasma.
True
57
Oral absorption of azithromycin is (fair/poor) and it distributes into (most/only select) tissues. How is it eliminated?
Fair (some food interactions; Most (except CSF); Metabolized by liver; excreted in bile and urine
58
Clindamycin has which mechanism of action?
Binds 50S ribosome and inhibits protein synthesis
59
Clindamycin is (bactericidal/bacteriostatic) and covers (broad/narrow) range of gram (pos/neg) bacteria.
Bacteriostatic; | Broad (gram pos aerobes and anaerobes)
60
Clindamycin has (fair/poor) oral absorption and distributes into (most/only select) tissues. It's excreted (changed/unchanged) in (bile/urine).
Fair; Most (except CSF); Changed (inactivated metabolites); Bile and urine
61
Most common adverse effect of Clindamycin.
GI tolerability
62
List the two antibacterial drug classes that act as Nucleic Acid structure inhibitors.
1. Quinolones | 2. Metronidazole
63
Generation (1/2/3/4) of quinolones are no longer used.
Gen 1
64
Anaerobic activity is seen in gen (1/2/3/4) quinolones.
Gen 4
65
Quinolones have (fair/poor) oral absorption and distributes into (most/only select) tissues. It's excreted (changed/unchanged) in (bile/urine).
Fair; Most; Unchanged in urine
66
The major "hole" in cephalosporin coverage is (X) bacterial species.
X = ENTEROCOCCUS
67
Monobactam drugs, such as (X), have similar mechanism to (Y) drugs but with gram (pos/neg) spectrum only.
X = aztreonam Y = penicillins Only gram-neg
68
T/F: Patient with penicillin allergy can be given aztreonam.
True - it's a monobactam
69
For (X) class of drugs, think DRUG INTERACTIONS.
X = macrolides
70
(X) class of drugs covers atypical bacteria in their spectrum.
X = macrolides
71
Linezolid is (bactericidal/bacteriostatic) and has which mechanism of action?
Bacteriostatic; | Binds 50S ribisome
72
Linezolid has mainly gram (pos/neg) spectrum of activity. In clinical practice, it's primarily used against which bacteria?
Gram positive aerobes; MRSA and VRE infections
73
Levofloxacin is part of (X) drug class. It's (bactericidal/bacteriostatic) and (time/conc)-dependent.
X = quinolones Bactericidal; Conc-dependent
74
(X) drugs are considered the "last line of defense" in the community setting.
X = quinolones
75
Levofloxacin mechanism of action.
Inhibits topoisomerases (enzymes that maintain DNA supercoiling)
76
T/F: Quinolone oral bioavailability is equal to IV bioavailability.
Essentially true! Excellent oral absorption
77
T/F: Quinolones prove ineffective in hospital-acquired infections.
False - cover pseudomonas and atypicals
78
Metronidazole is in (X) class of drugs. It's (bactericidal/bacteriostatic) and (time/conc)-dependent. What's the mechanism?
X = nitroimidazole Bactericidal; conc-dep Enters cell and is reduced to cytotoxic product
79
Spectrum of metronidazole is:
ANAEROBES
80
Gold standard drug for anaerobic infections, especially gram-neg.
Metronidazole (used for "below diaphragm" anaerobes)
81
Above diaphragm: typically gram (pos/neg) anaerobes. And below diaphragm?
Gram-pos above; gram-neg below
82
Gold standard #2 drug for anaerobic infections, especially gram-pos.
Clindamycin (used for "above diaphragm" anaerobes)
83
"Metallic" taste is side effect of which drug?
Metronidazole