1-100 super exams Flashcards
(187 cards)
1
Q
Mang Jose lost his vision because of bilateral retinal detachment. Fortunately, his building’s elevator has Braille on the elevator keys so he has no problem getting around. Mang Jose has:
A. Impairment
B. Disability
C. Handicap
D. A and B
E. All of the above
A
D. A and B
2
Q
Loss of psychological, physiologic or anatomic function
A
Impairment
3
Q
Lack of ability to perform certain activities which is considered normally possible for a human being
A
Disability
4
Q
Inability to perform a role in the context of society
A
Handicap
5
Q
Patient undergoes a screening test and a tumor was discovered. The screening advanced the time of diagnosis but no true prolongation of life occurs because there are no effective treatments available. What form of bias is this?
A. Length bias
B. Lead time bias
C. Information bias
D. Recall bias
E. Selection bias
A
B. Lead time bias
6
Q
Window period between the time the cancer can be detected and the time it will become clinically apparent is short. Screening tests are more effective in slowly growing tumors.
A
Length bias
7
Q
Screening advances time of diagnosis but no true prolongation of life occurs because survival for persons who are screened and those who are not is the same
A
Lead time bias
8
Q
Systemic difference in the way data are collected from exposure or the outcome
A
Information bias
9
Q
One form of information bias and refers to what one may remember from exposure
A
Recall bias
10
Q
Inclusion of a subject in a study group is linked to the exposure of interest
A
Selection bias
11
Q
The country of birth is an example of what measurement scale?
A. Dichotomous
B. Nominal
C. Ordinal
D. Interval
E. Ratio
A
B. Nominal
12
Q
Only 2 possible values (male/female, dead/alive, cured/not cured)
A
Dichotomous
13
Q
More than 2 possible values but no intrinsic ordering
A
Nominal variable
14
Q
Intrinsically ordered but not in a quantitative way (good-better-best, always-sometimes-never)
A
Ordinal variable
15
Q
Real numerical units but without a clear zero point (temperature, year of birth)
A
Interval
16
Q
Measurements in relation to a clear zero point (age, metric system)
A
Ratio
17
Q
Screening for hypertension is an example of which level of prevention?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Primary and Secondary
E. Primary and Tertiary
A
D. Primary and Secondary
18
Q
Before disease occurs
A
Primary
19
Q
Before symptoms occur but already with disease
A
Secondary
20
Q
Symptoms and disease already occured
A
Tertiary
21
Q
A researcher is conducting a study on the effects of exposure to arsenic and the development of skin cancer. He takes a group of patients with disease and compares them with case matched patients without the disease. The frequency of arsenic exposure is compared between the 2. Which of the following type of study is this?
A. Ecologic study
B. Cross sectional study
C. Case control study
D. Prospective Cohort
E. Retrospective Cohort
A
C. Case control study
22
Q
Subjects are initially divided according to presence or absence of disease. Outcome is analyzed first, then from there exposure is determined.
A
Case control
23
Q
Subjects are initially divided according to presence or absence of exposure. Exposure is analyzed first, then from there outcome is determined.
A
Cohort
24
Q
If the outcome has not yet occurred, it’s a _______________ (but exposure definitely has occurred already cause remember that’s how you are gonna group the patients).
A
prospective cohort
25
If the outcome and exposure both have already occurred, then it’s a _________________.
retrospective cohort.
26
This is an example of a sampling design wherein every kth element of the population is chosen.
A. Simple random sampling
B. Systematic sampling
C. Cluster sampling
D. Multistage sampling
E. Stratified sampling
B. Systematic sampling
27
Each individual has an equal chance of being selected
Simple random sampling
28
Population is first divided into sampling units called clusters and each element found in the chosen clusters is included in the study
Cluster sampling
29
Individuals are divided into subgroups on the basis of specified characteristics and then random samples are selected from each subgroup
Stratified sampling
30
Which of the following is the appropriate statistical test to analyze data comparing the prevalence of malnutrition between exclusively breastfed and nonbreastfed infants?
A. Chi square test
B. Student T test
C. Z test
D. Paired T test
E. ANOVA
A. Chi square test
31
Quali - quali
Chi- square test
32
<30 population
T-test
33
>30 population
Z-test
34
3 or more groups are being compared
ANOVA
35
for comparing paired nonindependent measurements
Paired test
36
The incidence rate of cirrhosis is 80/100,000 person years for heavy alcoholic beverage drinkers and 10/100,000 for non alcoholic beverage drinkers. What is the relative risk of developing cirrhosis for heavy alcoholic beverage drinkers and nonalcoholic beverage drinkers?
A. 1/8
B. 0.8
C.8
D. 80
E. 800
C.8
37
_____________ is the incidence among the exposed divided by incidence among the unexposed.
Relative risk
38
A researcher wishes to test his new rapid test kit to diagnose malaria. He performs this test on 100 patients known to have malaria, 91 of which test positive. He then performs this test on 100 patients known not to have malaria, 12 of whom tests positive. What is the ability of the test to label negative those who do not have the disease?
A. 12%
B. 88%
C. 90%
D. 91%
E. 98%
B. 88%
39
Ability of a test to label positive those who really have the disease
Sensitivity
40
Ability of the test to label negative those who do not have the disease
Specificity
41
Probability of having the condition given a positive result
Positive predictive value
42
Probability of having the condition given a negative result
Negative predictive value
43
An epidemiologist wishes to determine how fast people are added to the population through births. Which formula should be used?
A. Number of live births in a year/population during July 1
B. Number of live births in a year/population during August 1
C. Number of live births during July 1/population during July 1
D. Number of live births during August 1/population during August 1
E. Number of live births in a year/population during the end of the year
A. Number of live births in a year/population during July 1
44
Number of registered live births in a year/midyear population
Crude birth rate
45
Which of the following is a sensitive indicator of the standard of health care by analyzing the number of deaths over 50 years old?
A. Child mortality rate
B. Age specific proportionate mortality
C. Maternal mortality rate
D. Dependency ratio
E. Swaroop’s index
E. Swaroop’s index
* Swaroop’s index = number of deaths among >50yrs old/total deaths in a year. Higher value = better. Swaroop’s index tends to be higher in developed countries than developing ones.
46
This phase of communicable illness occurs in the environment. It is the preliminary interaction of potential agent, host and environmental factors in disease production.
A. Incubation period
B. Generation period
C. Prepathogenic phase
D. Pathogenic phase
E. Resolution phase
C. Prepathogenic phase
47
Infection to signs and symptoms
Incubation period
48
Infection to maximal communicability of that host
Generation time
49
Course of disorder in man
Pathogenic phase
50
The resistance of a group to invasion and spread of an infectious agent based on the immunity of a high proportion of individual members of the group, believed to be an important factor underlying the dynamics of propagated epidemic and periodicity of a disease is:
A. Environment
B. Antigenicity
C. Herd immunity
D. Virulence
E. Pathogenicity
C. Herd immunity
51
Which of the following family assessment tools is used to assess the capacity of the family to participate in provision of health care or to cope with crisis?
A. Triangulation
B. APGAR
C. SCREEM
D. Functional chart
E. Family Genogram
C. SCREEM
52
This stage of the family life cycle wherein there is increasing flexibility to boundaries to include children and INDEPENDENCE. There is refocus on midlife, MARITAL AND CAREER ISSUES as well as beginning shift towards concern for older generations.
A. Unattached young adult
B. Newly married couple
C. Family with adolescents
D. Launching family
E. Family in later life
C. Family with adolescents
53
Which of the following is not a feature of Primary Health Care?
A. Goal is development of preventive health care
B. Focus of care is the well and early sick
C. Decision making is from top to down
D. Acceptance of indigenous practitioners
E. Self reliance of the community
C. Decision making is from top to down
54
Which of the following Philippine Herbal Medicinal Plants is recommended for Diabetes?
A. Lagundi
B. Niyognyogan
C. Sambong
D. Ampalaya
E. Bawang
D. Ampalaya
> Lagundi – Cough, asthma
> Niyognyogan - ascariasis
> Sambong - urolithiasis
> Ampalaya – Antidiabetes
> Bawang – lowers cholesterol, athletes foot
55
A 4 year old female patient comes to you because the pet dog licked her hand. PE revealed no break in the skin. What is the appropriate management?
A. Wash exposed skin with soap and water
B. Vaccine
C. RIG
D.A+B
E. All of the above
A. Wash exposed skin with soap and water
* Cat 1 – intact skin – no vaccine or RIG needed
* Cat 2 – break in skin but no bleeding – vaccine
* Cat 3 – bleeding or wound located in head and neck – vaccine
56
Which of the following is an example of specific protection?
A. Immunization against poliomyelitis
B. Ear protecting devices in loud working environments
C. Hold an education program on nutrition for children for mothers in a community with children aged 1-5 y/o
D. A and B
E. All of the above
D. A and B
* Specific prevention is a form of primary prevention targeted at a specific disease or type of injury. Examples include immunization against specific disease, use of seatbelts to prevent injuries in automobile accidents, treatment of hypertension to prevent end organ damage.
57
Which of the following is the millennium development goal aimed at combating HIV/AIDs, malaria, and other diseases?
A. MDG4
B. MDG5
C. MDG6
D. MDG7
E. MDG8
C. MDG6
58
To kill extreme poverty and hunger
MDG1
59
To achieve universal primary education
MDG2
60
To promote gender equality
MDG3
61
To reduce child mortality
MDG4
62
To improve maternal health
MDG5
63
To combat HIV/AIDS, malaria, and other diseases
MDG6
64
To ensure environmental sustainability
MDG7
65
To develop a global partnership for development
MDG8
66
You are reading a study that compares cholesterol levels in children whose fathers died from a myocardial infarction with cholesterol levels in children whose fathers died from other causes. The p value obtained in the test was <0.001. What does this value indicate?
a. There was no difference in cholesterol levels between the two groups
b. The difference in the cholesterol levels was less than 0.1%
c. There is a less than 0.1% probability that the results obtained in this study were incorrect
d. There is a less than 0.1% probability that the results obtained in this study occurred because of a sampling error
e. If the null hypothesis is true, there is a less than 0.1% probability of obtaining a test statistic equal to or more extreme than the one obtained
c. There is a less than 0.1% probability that the results obtained in this study were incorrect
* The p value for any hypothesis test is the level at which we would be indifferent between accepting orrejecting the null hypothesis given the sample data at hand. It can also be thought of as the probability of obtaining a test statistic as extreme or more extreme than the actual test statistic obtained, given that the null hypothesis is true. It does not reflect the absolute difference in the data between groups, and does not reflect the correctness of the data in the sample.
67
Stage in the Family life cycle which begins with the birth of the couples first child?
A. The Unattached Young Adult
B. Newly Married Couple
C. Family with Young Children
D. Launching Family
E. Family in Later Life
C. Family with Young Children
68
You are caring for a 24-year-old generally healthy woman. She is sexually active and currently in a monogamous relationship, using oral contraceptives. You recently completed her annual examination. Her Pap smear reports “atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance.” Human papillomavirus testing was positive. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
A. Repeat the Pap smear immediately
B. Repeat the Pap smear in 4–6 months
C. Repeat the Pap smear in 1 year
D. Perform colposcopy
E. Treat the patient with imiquimod and repeat the Pap smear after the treatment is complete.
D. Perform colposcopy
* When the results of a Pap smear are reported as ASCUS, and HPV testing on the sample is positive, the physician should proceed to colposcopy. Colposcopy involves cervical examination under stereoscopic magnification and includes biopsy of abnormal appearing areas, and is the definitive test for assessing Pap smear abnormalities. Imiquimod is an immune modulator and can treat warts, but is not indicated in this case.
69
You and your friends have just measured the heights of your dogs. You came up with the following measurements: 600mm, 470mm, 170mm, 430mm and 300mm. What is the standard error?
A. 164
B. 27,130
C. 394
D. 73.66
E. 32.8
D. 73.66
* FORMULA FOR STANDARD ERROR: Standard deviation/square root of sample size.
*LONG METHOD OF CALCULATING STANDARD ERROR
Step 1: Calculate the mean (Total of all samples divided by the number of samples).
Step 2: Calculate each measurement's deviation from the mean (Mean minus the individual measurement).
Step 3: Square each deviation from mean. Squared negatives become positive.
Step 4: Sum the squared deviations (Add up the numbers from step 3).
Step 5: Divide that sum from step 4 by one less than the sample size (n-1, that is, the number of measurements minus one)
Step 6: Take the square root of the number in step 5. That gives you the "standard deviation (S.D.)."
Step 7: Divide the standard deviation by the square root of the sample size (n). That gives you the “standard error”.
70
An infant born to a Hepatitis B infected mother should get HBIG (hepatitis B immune globulin) and vaccine within how many hours after birth?
A. 12
B. 24
C. 36
D. 48
E. 72
A. 12
71
The Family APGAR assesses the following aspects except?
A. Adaptation
B. Partnership
C. Growth
D. Affection
E. Resilience
E. Resilience
72
You are determining whether or not to use a rapid streptococcal antigen test to screen for streptococcal pharyngitis. You find that that 2% of people with strep throat actually test negative using this test. Of the following, which statement best describes this situation?
A. The sensitivity of the test is 2%
B. The specificity of the test is 98%
C. The test has a 2% false negative rate
D. The test has a 2% false positive rate
E. The test has a positive predictive value of 98%
C. The test has a 2% false negative rate
A false negative is defined as a person who tests negative, but who is actually positive. In the above example, 2% of the positive people test negative. Therefore, the false negative rate is 2% in this case. Sensitivity is defined as the probability that the test would be positive, given that the person has strep throat. The specificity is the probability that the test would be negative if the person does not have strep. The false positive rate is defined as the percent of people who test positive, but are actually negative. The positive predictive value is the probability that a person has an illness, given that the test is positive.
73
You are caring for an 18-year-old man with asthma. He smokes, and reports needing to use his short-acting bronchodilator daily. He gets flares of asthma at least twice a week, and while some days are relatively symptom free, some exacerbations may last several days. He wakes up at least once a week with symptoms. Which of the following classifications best characterizes his asthma?
A. Mild intermittent
B. Moderate intermittent
C. Mild persistent
D. Moderate persistent
E. Severe persistent
D. Moderate persistent
*The patient described in this question fits the “moderate persistent” classification, characterized by daily symptoms and use of short-acting inhaler, with exacerbations that affect activity and may last for days. Nighttime symptoms occur at least weekly.
74
The following is true of the tip of the iceberg phenomenon of disease except:
A. The submerged portion of the iceberg represents carriers and undiagnosed cases.
B. The floating tip represents what the physician sees in his practice/chamber/hospital.
C. The floating tip includes deaths, clinical cases, symptomatic patients and subclinical cases.
D. The unseen part of an iceberg is much larger than the part that is visible above the water.
E. The pattern of disease encountered in a hospital is quite different from that in a community.
C. The floating tip includes deaths, clinical cases, symptomatic patients and subclinical cases.
75
Improving maternal health pertains to Millenium Development goal number:
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
D. 5
76
You are caring for a 35-year-old man in the hospital, admitted with pneumonia. On day 2 of his hospitalization, he becomes diaphoretic, restless, and irritable. Within hours, he is complaining of severe pain, abdominal cramps, and diarrhea. Which of the following would likely be present in his urine toxicology screen?
a. Cocaine
b. Marijuana
c. Opiates
d. 3,4-Methylenedioxymethampheatmine (MDMA or ecstasy)
e. Benzodiazepines
c. Opiates
* Opiate withdrawal is well-characterized, and although not life-threatening in otherwise healthy adults, can cause severe discomfort. Symptoms from a short-acting drug like heroin can occur within just a few hours. Withdrawal from longer acting opiates may not cause symptoms for days. Early symptoms include lacrimation, rhinorrhea, yawning, and diaphoresis. Restlessness and irritability occur later, with bone pain, nausea, diarrhea, abdominal cramping, and mood lability occurring even later.
77
You are reading a medical journal and come across an article about diabetes. The study followed 10,000 patients over 3 years. At the start of the study, 2000 people had diabetes. At the end of the study, 1000 additional people developed diabetes. What was the incidence of diabetes during the study?
a. 10%
b. 12.5%
c. 20%
d. 30%
e. 50%
b. 12.5%
78
Treatment outcome for PTB patients characterized as a smear positive patient who has underwent 6 months of DOTS but without proof of cure?
A. Cured
B. Relapse
C. Treatment completed
D. Failure of treatment
E. Default
C. Treatment completed
79
Selective Primary Health Care was introduced as a strategy:
A. Bellagio Conference
B. Alma Ata Declaration
C. Brahimi Report
D. Clinton Accord
E. Millenium Summit
A. Bellagio Conference
80
What do you call the time interval between entry of an infectious agent into a host and the onset of symptoms?
A. Incubation period
B. Communicable period
C. Preinfectious period
D. Noncontagious period
E. Decubation period
A. Incubation period
81
If you wanted to know whether board exam scores of students who enrolled in Topnotch are significantly higher than those who enrolled in another review school, which statistical test would be most appropriate?
A. Pearson correlation
B. Chi-square test
C. One way ANOVA
D. Student's t-test
E. Matched pairs t-test
D. Student's t-test
82
Which of the following herbal medicines recommended by the DOH is an antihelminthic agent?
A. Akapulko
B. Bayabas
C. Yerba buena
D. Ulasimang bato
E. Niyog-niyogan
E. Niyog-niyogan
83
Bysinnosis will have which of the following as a risk factor?
A. Hay farmer
B. Radar assembly worker
C. Arc welder
D. Coal worker
E. Textile worker
E. Textile worker
Byssinosis is a rare lung disease. It is caused by inhaling hemp, flax, and cotton particles. It is sometimes referred to as brown lung disease. It is a form of occupational asthma. In the United States, byssinosis occurs almost exclusively in people who work with unprocessed cotton.
84
A study shows that people who drink coffee tend to smoke more, and for this reason, coffee drinkers have a higher risk of lung cancer. Which of the following occurred in this study?
A. Lead-time bias
B. Effect modification
C. Differential misclassification
D. Confounding
E. Selection bias
D. Confounding
85
Which is a water-washed disease?
A. Schistosomiasis
B. Leptospirosis
C. Dengue
D. Scabies
E. Malaria
D. Scabies
86
Caused by poor personal hygiene and skin or eye contact with contaminated water.
Water-washed diseases
*(Nag WASH ka sa imong face - SKIN EYE)
87
Caused by the ingestion of water contaminated by human or animal faeces or urine containing pathogenic bacteria or viruses.
Waterborne diseases
88
Caused by parasites found in intermediate organisms living in contaminated water.
Water-based diseases
89
Caused by insect vectors, especially mosquitoes, that breed in water.
Water-related diseases
90
Which is not included in the Millenium Development Goals?
A. Improve Maternal Health
B. Reduce cardiac mortality
C. Combat HIV/AIDS, Malaria and other diseases
D. Develop a Global Partnership for Development
E. Achieve Universal Primary Education
B. Reduce cardiac mortality
91
Goal 1
Eradicate Extreme Hunger and Poverty
92
Goal 2
Achieve Universal Primary Education
93
Goal 3
Promote Gender Equality and Empower Women
94
Goal 4
Reduce Child Mortality
95
Goal 5
Improve Maternal Health
96
Goal 6
Combat HIV/AIDS, Malaria and other diseases
97
Goal 7
Ensure Environmental Sustainability
98
Goal 8
Develop a Global Partnership for Development
99
What statistical test is used to check the difference between 2 qualitative variables?
A. T- test
B. Z-test
C. Chi square test
D. ANOVA
E. Regression Analysis
C. Chi square test
100
The Goal 4 in the MDG:
A Improve Maternal Health
B. Reduce Child mortality
C. Ensure Environmental Sustainability
D. Develop a Global Partnership for Development
E. Promote Gender Equality and Empower Women
B. Reduce Child mortality
101
Malaria prophylaxis is a
A. Primordial prevention
B. Primary prevention
C. Secondary prevention
D. Tertiary prevention
E. Quarternary prevention
B. Primary prevention
102
______________ includes health education, specific protective measures, and environmental modification and sanitation.
Primary prevention
103
Screening programs is a
A. Primordial prevention
B. Primary prevention
C. Secondary prevention
D. Tertiary prevention
E. Quarternary prevention
C. Secondary prevention
104
_______________ aims to diagnose early and give prompt treatment.
Secondary prevention
105
Tertiary programs includes
A. Physical therapy
B. Water sanitation
C. MMR vaccination
D. Annual physical examination
E. Immunoglobulin administration
A. Physical therapy
106
The goal of ________________ is to limit disability and to rehabilitate from disease.
tertiary prevention
107
The goal of _______________ is to limit disability and to rehabilitate from disease.
tertiary prevention
108
Primordial prevention to prevent cardiovascular diseases includes:
A. Policies to encourage healthy lifestyles
B. Drinking medication conscienctiously
C. Exercising regularly
D. Both A and B
E. AOTA
A. Policies to encourage healthy lifestyles
* The clear distinction between primordial and primary prevention relates to primordial prevention activities lying outside the doctor- patient relationship and the medical model.
109
This epidemiological concept states that effects never depend on single isolated cause but rather as result of causation in which each link is the result of complex genealogy and antecedents.
A. Epidemiological triad
B. Web of causation
C. Mutlitple causation
D. The wheel
E. Lever
B. Web of causation
110
Occurrence of number of cases of a disease in excess of normal occurrence or expectancy derived from a common or propagated source.
A. Hyperendemic
B. Epidemic
C. Endemic
D. Pandemic
E. Absnce of disease
B. Epidemic
111
Guilt is the primary emotion at this stage according of Kubler Ross Stages of Death and Dying:
A. Denial
B. Anger
C. Bargaining
D. Depression
E. Acceptance
C. Bargaining
112
The National Health Insurance Act of 1995 is
A. RA 7875
B. RA 7610
C. RA 2382
D. RA 7767
E. RA 7234
A. RA 7875
113
Medical Act of 1959
RA 2382
114
The rate of dissemination of an epidemic is measured by:
A. Pre-patent period
B. Prevalance rate
C. Decubation period
D. Attack rate
E. Generation time
E. Generation time
115
First born child is generally
A. Persevering
B. Rebellious
C. Demanding
D. Optimisitc
E. NOTA
A. Persevering
116
The varaiance of this set of numbers (1, 2, 3, 4, 5) is
A. 1.5
B. 2.0
C. 2.5
D. 3.0
E. 3.5
C. 2.5
117
This family assessment tool is used to determine the capacity to participate in provision of health care:
A. Family Tree
B. APGAR
C. SCREEM
D. FACES
E. FES
C. SCREEM
118
This component of APGAR describes the ability to share in decision making:
A. Adaptation
B. Partnership
C. Growth
D. Affection
E. Resolve
B. Partnership
119
This epidemiologic curve has a short ascending limb and longer descending limb: [SAL/LDL]
A. Classical epidemiological curve
B. Propagated epidemiological curve
C. Progressive epidemiological curve
D. Both Band C
E. AOTA
A. Classical epidemiological curve
120
This is the amount of chemical that is allowable for only a short duration:
A. Time weighted average
B. Short term exposure limit
C. Ceiling
D. Both A and B
E. AOTA
B. Short term exposure limit
121
The size of particles in micrometer that is deposited in the alveolar sacs:
A. 0.1-0.5
B. 0.5-0.9
C. 1-2
D. >2
E. >10
C. 1-2
122
1-2 deposited in _____________
Alveolar sacs
123
>2 to <10 deposited in the _________________
Tracheobronchial tree
124
>10 filtered by _________________
Nose and pharynx
125
The recommended ORS osmlarity (mmol/L) for fluid replacement amongst children with diarrhea:
A. 200
B. 245
C. 290
D. 335
E. 380
B. 245
126
Glucose
75
127
Na
75
128
Cl
65
129
K
20
130
HCO3
10
131
Counselling on safe drug use to prevent hepatitis C virus (HCV) transmission and counselling on safer sex is classified as what level of prevention?
A. Primordial
B. Primary
C. Secondary
D. Tertiary
E. Both primary and tertiary
B. Primary
132
_______________ is defined as the avoidance of disease. It seeks to prevent the onset of specific diseases via risk reduction: by altering behaviours or exposures that can lead to disease, or by enhancing resistance to the effects of exposure to a disease agent.
Primary prevention
133
In a colorectal cancer patient. Follow-up exams to identify recurrence or metastatic disease: physical examination, liver enzyme tests and chest x-rays is classified as what level of prevention?
A. Primordial
B. Primary
C. Secondary
D. Tertiary
E. Both primary and tertiary
D. Tertiary
134
________________ is defined as the avoidance of negative sequelae of a disease process, once the disease has been diagnosed and treated. It seeks to soften the impact caused by the disease on the patient’s function, longevity, and quality of life.
Tertiary prevention
135
In a community you decided to perform organized colonoscopy screening programs. This is classified as what level of prevention?
A. Primordial
B. Primary
C. Secondary
D. Tertiary
E. Both primary and tertiary
C. Secondary
136
_____________ is defined as the interruption of any disease process before the emergence of recognized symptoms or diagnostic findings of the disorder. This includes procedures that detect and treat pre-clinical pathological changes and thereby control disease progression
Secondary prevention
137
Promoting a healthy lifestyle in childhood for example, through prenatal nutrition programs and supporting early childhood development programmes is classified as what level of prevention?
A. Primordial
B. Primary
C. Secondary
D. Tertiary
E. Both primary and tertiary
A. Primordial
138
______________ ACTS EARLY IN THE CAUSAL CHAIN, to alter general social or economic circumstances that give rise to risk factors.
Primordial prevention
139
It consists of actions to MINIMIZE FUTURE HAZARDS to health and hence inhibit the establishment factors (environmental, economic, social, behavioural, cultural) known to increase the risk of disease.
Primordial prevention
140
It addresses broad health determinants rather than preventing personal exposure to risk factors, which is the goal of primary prevention
Primordial prevention
141
The Pap smear test detects cervical cancer in women at an early stage of the disease when there are no symptoms and the disease is not evident on visual examination. Which of the following level of prevention applies to a woman with no history of cervical cancer who undergoes a Pap smear?
A. Primordial
B. Primary
C. Secondary
D. Tertiary
E. Both primary and tertiary
C. Secondary
142
_________________ is defined as the INTERRUPTION OF ANY DISEASE PROCESS before the emergence of recognized symptoms or diagnostic findings of the disorder.
Secondary prevention
143
This includes procedures that detect and treat pre-clinical pathological changes and thereby control disease progression.
Secondary prevention
144
This population pyramid is described as having a BASE THAT IS NARROWER THAN THE MIDDLE of the pyramid usually as a result of recent rapid decline in fertility?
A. Constructive
B. Stationary
C. Expansive
D. Inverted
E. Platypelloid
A. Constructive
145
It is the most sensitive index of assessing the health status in the community?
A. General fertility rate
B. Perinatal mortality rate
C. Neonatal mortality rate
D. Child mortality rate
E. Infant mortality rate
E. Infant mortality rate
146
This statistical rate reflects primarily environmental factors and is a senstive indicator of the socio-economic delopment of a community?
A. General fertility rate
B. Perinatal mortality rate
C. Neonatal mortality rate
D. Child mortality rate
E. Infant mortality rate
D. Child mortality rate
147
In-migration of healthy people will __________ the prevalence rate of a disease.
decrease
148
Which among these factors will decrease the prevalence rate of a disease?
A. Longer duration of disease
B. Prolongation of px's lives without cure
C. In-migration of healthy people
D. Improved diagnostic facilities
E. None of the above
C. In-migration of healthy people
149
You did a community survery to determine the year of birth of each of the sample population. The results fo the survery will fall under what category of data?
A. Nominal
B. Ordinal
C. Interval
D. Ratio
E. Dichotomous
C. Interval
150
This characteristic of data collection refers to the consistency and reproducibility of a test?
A. Validity
B. Sensitivity
C. Specifciity
D. Accuracy
E. Precision
E. Precision
151
___________ also refers to the ABSENCE OF RANDOM VARIATION in a test and is synonymous with reliability
Precision
152
A study was done to determine the ability of new;y discovered cardiac enzyme, serum marker XY, to diagnose an acute myocardial infarction compared to the gold standard test of Troponins. 56 patients had positive Trop I in which 35 of those patients had a negative cardiac enzyme XY test. On the other hand 138 patients had negative Trop I in which 75 of those patients had a positive cardiac enzyme XY test. What is the sensitivity and the specificity of the novel test, respectively?
A. 48.5 and 55.7%
B. 25.5 and 56.8%
C. 56.8 and 25.5%
D. 37.5 and 45.7%
E. 45.7 and 37.5%
D. 37.5 and 45.7%
153
Pertaining to the previous question, what is the negative predictive value of the test?
A. 21.9%
B. 35.5%
C. 45.5%
D. 54.5%
E. 64.3%
E. 64.3%
Positive predictive value is TP/(TP+FP)= 21.9% and negative predictive value is TN/(TN+FN)= 64.3%
154
Pertaining to the previous question, what is the prevalence rate of the disease?
A. 28.9%
B. 35.5%
C. 26.5%
D. 33.8%
E. 30.0%
A. 28.9%
155
A sampling design wherein every kth element of the population is chosen ie: every 6th person of a sample size of 60 is chosen is what kind of sampling method?
A. Purposive sampling
B. Simple random sampling
C. Systematic sampling
D. Cluster sampling
E. Multistage sampling
C. Systematic sampling
156
A researcher plans to do a survey to determine the top 10 causes of morbidity in his community. What measure of central tendency is best used?
A. Mean
B. Mode
C. Median
D. Range
E. Standard deviation
B. Mode
157
________ is defined as the value that occurs with the greatest frequency in a set of observations. It is often used in public health statistics.
Mode
158
In any study where a sample is utilized, the error or finding an association in the sample when none truly exist in the population is called?
A. Type I error
B. Type II error
C Type III error
D. Type IV error
E. Type V error
A. Type I error
159
______________ is rejecting null hypothesis when it is really true "You saw a difference when it does not exist".
Type I or alpha error
160
The probability of commiting type I error in computing your sample size is called?
A. power of the study
B. effect size
C. level of significance
D. standard deviation
E. variance
C. level of significance
161
A researcher is interested in performing a study regarding Budd-Chiarri syndorme and factors that could have led to this condition? What study method is best for this disease entity?
A. Cross sectional
B. Prospective cohort
C. Retrospective cohort
D. Case control
E. Case report
D. Case control
162
_______________ provides opportunity to investigate rare diseases (ex: Budd chiarri syndorme occuring in 1 per 1 million population) as well as disease with long periods of latency
Case control studies
163
An indigent patient came to the rural health center complained of shooting pains in the flank radiating to the groin associated with hematuria during urination. He doesn’t have any money for medications. Being knowledgeable with the uses of herbal medications what could you give to the patient?
A. Akapulko
B. Sambong
C. Tsaang gubat
D. Yerba buena
E. Ulasimang bato
B. Sambong
164
ACT, a brilliant researcher, wants to determine if the paleontologic diet would decrease serum cholesterol among his patients aged 40 - 50 years old and male without other co-morbid conditions. The following are the results of his study:
Patient A: 210 ---------- 208
Patient B: 189 ---------- 172
Patient C: 175 ---------- 170
Patient D: 204 ---------- 180
Patient E: 224 ---------- 227
Patient F: 243 ---------- 238
What is the standard deviation?
a. 12.9
b. 22.17
c. 24.29
d. 13.8
e. none of the above
c. 24.29
165
From the above scenario, what is the standard error?
a. 9.92
b. 10.2
c. 8.6
d. 11.5
e. none of the above
a. 9.92
166
APT, a novice researcher wants to know the statistical test she would use for her undergraduate study. She asks you for help and tells you that she is trying to compare the mean blood pressure between members of 3 different Filipino ethnic groups of Mindanao. Which of the following is the appropriate test?
a. chi square
b. student t - test
c. paired t- test
d. ANOVA
e. Mann Whitney test
d. ANOVA
167
Which of the following is the first step in calculating for F - ratio?
a. calculate the degrees of freedom
b. calculate the variance between samples and within samples
c. calculate the sample means within groups
d. calculate the sum of squares between samples and within samples
e. divide the mean square between groups and mean square within groups
c. calculate the sample means within groups
168
Which of the following is the MOST common indoor pollutant?
a. tobacco smoke
b. Radon
c. nitric oxide
d. dust
e. none of the above
b. Radon
169
HS, a 32 year old male with multiple sexual partners both male and female, comes to you for pretest counselling for HIV. After a series of discussions, HS finally submits himself for testing. The next day, the results came back positive and HS is asking for his result. Which of the following is your most approriate first response?
a. "Im afraid I have some bad news for you."
b. "Do you really want to know your results?"
c. "You are HIV positive."
d. "We need more tests."
a. "Im afraid I have some bad news for you."
170
In the PRECEDE - PROCEED planning model, which of the following is NOT part of the proceed phases?
a. implementation
b. diagnosis
c. process evaluation
d. impact evaluation
e. outcome evaluation
b. diagnosis
171
Precede phases:
1. social diagnosis;
2. epidemiological, behavioral and environmental diagnosis;
3. educational and ecological diagnosis;
4. administrative and policy diagnosis
172
Proceed phases:
1. implementation;
2. process evaluation;
3. impact evaluation;
4. outcome evaluation
173
BAT, a busy dermatologist, arrived an hour late at her clinic in Alabang. The patient walked in her clinic angrily. What should be the most appropriate response?
a. immediately apologize and move on with the consultation
b. "You seem upset. What seems to be bothering you?"
c. apologize and explain why she was late (e.g. stuck in traffic)
d. "I can understand why you are upset, and I appreciate your waiting for me."
e. none of the above
d. "I can understand why you are upset, and I appreciate your waiting for me."
174
AT, a gastroenterologist, was caring for a Muslim hypertensive patient from Dubai. During the course of treatment, the patient was noncompliant with all his medications. Which of the following is the most approriate response of AT?
a. refer the patient to a Muslim doctor who would understand their culture
b. counsel and emphasize on the consequences of noncompliance which would lead to mortality
c. counsel and emphasize on the good effects of compliance with treatment
d. read about Muslim culture and ask for advise
e. none of the above
b. counsel and emphasize on the consequences of noncompliance which would lead to mortality
175
A 65 year old female came in for complaints of breast mass for 2 years. On workup, patient had multiple liver nodes, 1cm temporal lobe mass with multiple bone metastasis. During her visit, patient says, “I know I can survive this. I will do what I can to be with my grandchildren.” Which of the following is the most appropriate response?
a. There is no cure as your cancer has metastasized.
b. You should be preparing your grandchildren for your death.
c. Let us hope for the best and focus on your remaining time left.
d. I think you are in denial that your cancer has spread.
e. You are going through the normal stages of grief.
c. Let us hope for the best and focus on your remaining time left.
176
In the above situation, which of the following is a requirement for referral to hospice care?
a. has a DNR order
b. has a diagnosis of Breast Cancer Stage IV
c. has prognosis of 5 months to live
d. has good decision making ability
e. has ambulatory capacity
c. has prognosis of 5 months to live
*hospice model: focus on quality of life, symptom control, interdisciplinary team, services provided at home, assisted living facility; requires prognosis of <= 6 months
177
A 65 year old female came in for complaints of knee pain. Her medical problems include hypertension, gouty arthritis, and dyslipidemia. She has seen several doctors already for consult of her knee pain but doesn’t seem to go away with medications and physical therapy. She says, “ Pagod na pagod na ako. Walang nakakatulong sa akin. Walang gamot din tumatalab sa sakit ng tuhod ko. Hindi na nga ako nakakapaglinis ng bahay at nakakapaglaba. Mas mabuti magfile na ako ng PWD card.” Which of the following is the most appropriate response?
a. better consult with a pain specialist
b. you may have untreated depression
c. I will assist you in filling up your PWD card
d. I understand your frustration. It is difficult to help when you are convinced nothing will work
e. I understand that lack of improvement has been frustrating
e. I understand that lack of improvement has been frustrating
178
A 49 year old math teacher RC comes to you with complains of sore throat, mild cough productive of scant yellow sputum, clear watery nasal discharges, and low grade fever. PE reveals clear breath sounds and low grade fever. RC insists that you prescribe him with antibiotics as his previous doctor always gave antibiotics for these kinds of ailments. What should you do?
a. give him the antibiotics because its the patient’s wishes
b. give him a placebo as doctor patient relationship is important
c. dont prescribe the antibiotics
d. refer the patient to another doctor
e. none of the above
c. dont prescribe the antibiotics
179
Doctor JMK sees Ms Bea Alonzo for complains of acne vulgaris. Ms Bea asks JMK if he would go out for a candle light dinner with her. Dr JMK finds Bea very attractive and wants to date her also. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Dr JMK should accept the invitation for the dinner date
b. Dating a patient is unethical
c. physician patient relationship must be terminated prior to a date
d. it is inappropriate for a beautiful patient to ask for a date
e. none of the above
b. Dating a patient is unethical
180
Which of the following refers to consistency and reproducibility of a test and the absence of random variation in a test?
a. accuracy
b. validity
c. precision
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
c. precision
181
A normal statistical distribution is represented by a Gaussian curve or bell shaped curve where mean = mode = median. In nonnormal statistical distributions, there is asymmetry of the curve. Which of the following refers to a bimodal distribution?
a. metabolic polymorphisms of fast and slow acetylators
b. age of onset of Hodgkin’s lymphoma
c. suicide rate by age
d. all of the above
e.only B and C
d. all of the above
182
“It is a mathematical fact that fifty percent of all doctors graduate in the bottom half of their class.” Bias and study errors must be avoided to make the study valid and reliable. WHat is the best strategy to reduce bias in the Pygmalion effect or the self - fulfilling prophecy?
a. blinding
b. standardized method of data collection
c. crossover studies
d. randomization
e. decrease time from exposure to follow up
a. blinding
183
______________ reduce influence of participants and researchers on procedures and interpretation of outcomes as neither are aware of group allocation.
Blinding and use of placebo
184
___________ effect refers to researcher’s belief in the efficacy of a treatment changes the outcome of that treatment (observer - expectancy bias).
Pygmalion
185
Which of the following are exceptions to informed consent?
a. therapeutic privilege
b. emergency cases
c. capacity
d. both A and B
e. both B and C
d. both A and B
186
Lola Sepa is the administrator of an autosupply and lumber center in Pangasinan. She is loved by the people in the town however she comes to you for complaints of difficulty in sleeping. Which of the following changes in the elderly would be expected from Lola Sepa except?
a. increased in REM
b. decrease in slow wave sleep
c. increased sleep onset latency
d. increased early awakenings
e. none of the above
a. increased in REM
187
Understandingoftheevaluationofdiagnostictestsis essential in the practice of ORK. Which of the following is true?
a. negative predictive value varies directly with prevalence or pretest probability
b. positive predictive value varies inversely with prevalence or pretest probablity
c. High sensitivity test is used for screening in diseases with high prevalence
d. high specificity test is used for confirmation after a positive screening test
e. none of the above
d. high specificity test is used for confirmation after a positive screening test
