1

Question 1

A Stabilised Approach is defined as:
Select one:
a. An approach which is flown in a controlled and appropriate manner in terms of fuel and passenger loads from a pre-determined point or altitude to landing
b. A visual manoeuvre accomplished by a pilot at the completion of an instrument approach to permit a straight in landing on a parallel runway not more than 1.2 miles to either side of the runway to which the instrument approach was conducted
c. An approach which is flown in a controlled and appropriate manner in terms of configuration, energy and control of the flight path from a pre-determined point or altitude to landing

Answer 1

c

Question 2

After being intercepted during the day, the intercepting aircraft circles an aerodrome, lowering its landing gear and over flies the runway in the direction of landing. This means:
Select one:
a. The intercepting aircraft is in distress
b. It is the intercepting aircraft home base
c. Land at this aerodrome

Answer 2

c

Question 3

An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft shall:
Select one:
a. Squawk 7600 and attempt contact on 121.50MHz
b. Not change Squawk but shall attempt contact on the current assigned frequency
c. Squawk 7700 and attempt contact on 121.50 MHz

Answer 3

c

Question 3

Aircraft is traveling at 150kts GS and with a rate of descent of 775 fpm. What is the aircraft descent gradient?
Select one:
a. 5.1%
b. 3.0% Incorrect
c. 2.5%

Answer 3

ROD (fpm) = % Gradient X Ground Speed (Knots)
ROD/GS= % Gradient
(775/150)/100)= Gradient %

a

Question 4

After being intercepted, the intercepting aircraft abruptly breaks away by climbing turning 90 degrees or more away from the path of your aircraft. This means:
Select one:
a. It is a manoeuvre to position themselves at the rear of the intercepted aircraft
b. They are gone to get more aircraft
c. You may proceed

Answer 4

c

Question 5

An aircraft losing two-way communication with ATC shall squawk?
Select one:
a. 7700
b. 7600
c. 7500

Answer 5

b

Question 6

Communication Failure. The following is true when “Transmitting Blind”:
Select one:
a. Transmit all messages twice and keep transmissions to the minimum so as not to interfere with other aircraft on the frequency
b. Transmit all messages twice with the prefix “Transmitting Blind” and include the addressee for which the message is intended
c. Transmit all messages once only but include the addressee for which the message is intended

Answer 6

b

Question 7

An IFR flight shall not be flown below the minimum flight altitude established by the State concerned, or where no such minimum is established, over high terrain or in mountainous areas the level will be?
Select one:
a. 2000ft where the obstacle is within 5m(8km) and elsewhere 1000ft within the same radius
b. 1000ft where the obstacle is within 5m(8km) and elsewhere 2000ft within the same radius
c. It is always 2000ft no mater of the location

Answer 7

a

Question 8

An intercepting aircraft shall normally position itself relative to the intercepted aircraft:
Select one:
a. At the same level abeam and to the right
b. Slightly below and abeam on the left
c. Slightly above, ahead and to the left

Answer 8

c

Question 9

Which of the following is true regarding communication failure?
Select one:
a. All countries have the same procedure.
b. Different countries may have a different procedure. c. All countries have different procedures.

Answer 9

b

Question 10

Communication Failure: On take-off from Dublin you experience a radio failure. Do you:
Select one:
a. Maintain the last assigned speed and level for a period of 5 mins
b. Maintain the last assigned level for 6 mins then continue with the flight plan
c. Maintain the last assigned level for 3 mins then continue with the flight plan

Answer 10

???, b or c

Question 11

Communication Failure: What is the ICAO/EUR procedure if you experience a radio failure under radar controlled airspace?
Select one:
a. Maintain last assigned speed and level or MSA if higher for a period of 7 minutes
b. Maintain last assigned speed and level or MSA if higher for a period of 5 minutes
c. Maintain last assigned speed and heading for a period of 7 minutes

Answer 11

a

Question 12

Emergency procedure: The pilot of an aircraft encountering a state of emergency shall squawk
Select one:
a. 7700
b. 7600
c. 7500

Answer 12

a

Question 13

GPS/GNSS approaches are:
Select one:
a. Are permitted provided the aircraft has a single FMC
b. Not currently approved for our aircraft
c. Are permitted provided LNAV is used for lateral guidance

Answer 13

???, not b

Question 14

Hijack: An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference shall squawk?
Select one:
a. 7600
b. 7700
c. 7500

Answer 14

c

Question 15

ICAO Runway Markings: The ‘Aiming Point Markings’ are located at:
Select one:
a. 400 m from the threshold when the runway is >= 2400m and 300m for a runway < 2400m but >=1200m
b. 311 metres from the threshold in all cases
c. 1,000 feet from the threshold when the runway is >= 2200m and 700 feet for a runway < 2200m but >=1000m

Answer 15

a

Question 16

If asked by ATC to hold at FL80 at a present position hold, what is the maximum speed and time you can hold at in non-turbulent conditions?
Select one:
a. 1 min legs / 230kts
b. 2 minute legs / speed 280kts
c. 1 min legs / speed 200kts

Answer 16

a
Holding altitude 14000’ or below - 230 KIAS
Holding altitude above 14000’ to 20000’ - 240 KIAS
Holding altitude above 20000’ to 34000’ - 265 KIAS
Holding altitude above 34000’ - Mach .83
Holding patterns restricted to Category A and B aircraft only - 170 KIAS

Question 17

On a NPA approach, within how many degrees of the inbound track should you be to start descent?
Select one:
a. 25 degrees
b. 5 degrees
c. 10 degrees

Answer 17

b

Question 17

Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA) provides:
Select one:
a. 2000 ft obstacle clearance within 10nm radius of the navigation facility
b. 2000 ft terrain clearance within 25nm radius of the navigation facility
c. 1000 ft obstacle / terrain clearance within 25nm radius of the navigation facility

Answer 17

c

Question 17

Navtech SID clearance reads: ‘At or Above FL080; Climb 6000ft, at CALTA cleared FL080’. What altitude is set in the MCP window?
Select one:
a. 6000
b. 8000
c. 2000

Answer 17

a

Question 18

On a racetrack procedure turn joining from sector 2 (offset) the time spent on the 30 degree offset leg for a racetrack procedure turn will be:
Select one:
a. exactly 1min 15 seconds
b. no more than 1min 30 seconds
c. always 1min

Answer 18

b

Question 19

Runway Lights: The abbreviation ALSF-II stands for:
Select one:
a. Approach Light System with sequenced Flashing Lights CAT 1
b. Approach Light System discharge lights
c. Approach Light System with sequenced Flashing Lights CAT 2

Answer 19

c

Question 20

Runway Lights: The abbreviation ‘CLL’ stands for:
Select one:
a. Climb and Level off Limitation
b. Converging Level Limitation
c. Centreline Lights

Answer 20

c

Question 21

Runway Lights: The abbreviation ‘HRCLL’ stands for:
Select one:
a. High Intensity Runway Centre Line Lights
b. High Intensity Runway End Lights
c. High Intensity Runway Edge Lights

Answer 21

a

Question 22

Runway Lights: The abbreviation ‘REIL’ stands for: Select one: a. Runway Entry Identification Lights b. Runway Approach End Identifier Lights (threshold) c. Runway Approach End Identifier Lights (green)

Answer 22

b

Question 23

The effect on a CATIII A approach (DH50’) of unserviceable ‘Approach Lights’ is: Select one: a. The approach is not permitted b. No effect for either a CATII approach (DH100’) or a CATIIIA approach (DH 50’) c. No effect on a CAT IIIA, however a CATII is not allowed

Answer 23

c

Question 24

The effect on a CATIII A approach of one RVR reading (mid point or stop end) being uavailable due to failed equipment is: Select one: No effect RVR requirement for touchdown zone increases to 300 metres The approach is not permitted

Answer 24

no effect

Question 25

The Final Approach Fix (FAF) is defined as: Select one: a. A Maltese Cross for NPA’s and OM/4DME point for an ILS b. A Maltese Cross for NPA’s c. A Maltese Cross for all approach types

Answer 25

b

Question 26

The maximum Circle to Land speeds and dimensions for the B737-800 are: Select one: a. 185kts/4.20nm b. 180kts/4.20nm c. 185kts/5.28nm

Answer 26

???, not a

Question 27

What does the abbreviation RAIM stand for in relation to GPS/GNSS approaches? Select one: a. Random Aircraft Instrument Monitor b. Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring c. Real Aircraft Integrated Match

Answer 27

b

Question 28

What does the highlighted line painted on a taxiway mean? _____________________________ □ □ □ □ □ □ □ □ □ □ □ □ □ □ □ _____________________________ Select one: a. The CAT II/III holding position where a closer NPA or CAT I taxi holding point is provided Correct b. Normal hold short position for runway in use c. Normally used CAT 1 hold short position

Answer 28

a

Question 29

What does the highlighted line painted on a taxiway mean? - - - - - - - - - - on crossed taxiways Select one: a. CAT 1 holding position b. Intermediate taxi-holding position at an intersection of two paved taxiways. c. Runway ahead warning line

Answer 29

b

Question 30

What does ‘G’ (Item 7) in the below diagram mean? Runway diagram Select one: a. Grooved Runway b. Grass Runway c. Concrete Runway

Answer 30

a

Question 31

What is an ‘Obstacle Clearance Height’ defined as? Select one: a. Height of the highest obstacle in a fixed area b. Is the highest height above the relevant runway threshold or aerodrome elevation, used in establishing compliance with the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria c. Is the lowest height above the relevant runway threshold or aerodrome elevation, used in establishing compliance with the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria

Answer 31

c

Question 32

What is the definition of a Fail Passive flight control system? Select one: a. In the event of failure there is no significant out of trim condition but the landing cannot be completed automatically b. In the event of failure there is no significant out of trim condition but the landing can be completed automatically c. In the event of failure there is a backup system which allows the aircraft to land automatically

Answer 32

a

Question 33

What is the missed approach point (MaPt) defined as? Select one: a. The point in an instrument approach procedure at or before, which the prescribed missed approach must be initiated in order to ensure the minimum obstacle is not infringed b. The latest point in an instrument approach procedure, in which the aircraft must be configured in order to land c. The point in an instrument approach procedure at or after, which the prescribed missed approach must be initiated in order to ensure the minimum obstacle is not infringed

Answer 33

a

Question 34

What is the range of Final Approach Speed that defines a Category C aircraft? Select one: a. 130/160 kts b. 100/130 kts c. 115/160 kts

Answer 34

c

Question 35

What is the range of Initial Approach Speed that defines a Category C aircraft? Select one: a. 185/250 kts b. 160/240 kts c. 120/180 kts

Answer 35

b

Question 36

What is the wake turbulence category for the B737-800? Select one: a. Medium (M), 7,000kg – 136,000kg b. Heavy (H) >136,000kg c. Light (L) >7,000kg

Answer 36

a

Question 37

What will ATC do in the event of severe turbulence, that is forecasted, in relation to RVSM airspace: Select one: a. ATC cannot cancel RVSM flights b. ATC shall determine whether RVSM should be suspended or not c. ATC shall determine which airlines can fly in severe turbulence

Answer 37

b

Question 38

When an aircraft is unable to communicate due to receiver failure it shall use the prefix Select one: a. “Radio Failure” b. “Transmitting Blind” c. “Transmitting Blind due to Receiver Failure”

Answer 38

c

Question 39

When you are in a procedure turn and a descent is required after the inbound turn, how close must you be established in order to descend: Select one: a. Plus or minus 10 degrees of the outbound track b. Plus or minus 15 degrees of the inbound track c. Plus or minus 5 degrees of the inbound track

Answer 39

c

Question 39

When looking at a landing distance on Navtech approach chart as seen below, what do the number in the brackets (Item 2) mean? V3.0(54) Select one: a. Missed approach height b. Maximum Eye Height over threshold c. Minimum Eye Height over threshold

Answer 39

c

Question 40

When on a precision approach, when is it allowable to descend with the glide path in relation to the localiser? Select one: a. Half scale deflection b. Full scale deflection c. The localiser is not required for descent

Answer 40

a

Question 41

Whilst completing a procedure turn (45degrees/180 degrees) in a B737-800, when shall the timing begin and for how long? Select one: a. At the start of the turn for 1 min b. At the end of the turn for 1 min and 15 sec c. At the start of the turn for 1 min and 15 sec

Answer 41

c

Question 42

You are asked to hold at FL160, how long would your outbound timing be and what speed would you maintain in normal conditions? Select one: a. 90 seconds and 240 kts b. 90 seconds and 230 kts c. 60 seconds and 240 kts

Answer 42

a

Question 43

‘Standard’ (STD) altimeter setting is Select one: a. 1013.2hPa (29.92 in) b. 1012hPa (29.29 in) c. 1015hPa (29.92 in)

Answer 43

a