1 Flashcards
(3478 cards)
1
Q
True/False - Academy Cadets are exempted from FLSA.
A
False, a recent court ruling prohibited their exclusion from FLSA. Cant find
2
Q
According to GO 0.1, Department Mission Statement and Organizational Value, what is the Mission of the CHP?
A
The mission of the California Highway Patrol is to provide the highest level of safety, service, and security to the people of California. This is accomplished through five departmental goals.
3
Q
According to GO 0.1, Department Mission Statement and Organizational Value, the CHP mission is accomplished through five departmental goals, what are they?
A
- Prevent Loss of Life, Injuries, and Property Damage – To minimize the loss of life, personal injury, and property damage resulting from traffic collisions through enforcement, education, and engineering. To enforce the provisions of the California Vehicle Code and other laws to prevent crime.
- Maximize Service to the Public and Assistance to Allied Agencies – To maximize service to the public in need of aid or information, and to assist other public agencies when appropriate.
- Manage Traffic and Emergency Incidents – To promote the safe and efficient movement of people and goods throughout California, and to minimize exposure of the public to unsafe conditions resulting from emergency incidents and highway impediments.
- Protect Public and State Assets – To protect the public, their property, state employees, and the state’s infrastructure. To collaborate with local, state, and federal public safety agencies to protect California.
- Improve Departmental Efficiency – To continuously look for ways to increase the efficiency and/or effectiveness of departmental operations.
4
Q
According to GO 0.1, Department Mission Statement and Organizational Value, what are the Organizational Values of the CHP?
A
Respect for others, Fairness, Ethical practices, Equitable treatment for all.
5
Q
According to GO 0.1, Department Mission Statement and Organizational Value, what are the Organizational Values of the CHP?
A
Respect for others, Fairness, Ethical practices, Equitable treatment for all.
6
Q
According to GO 0.2, Departmental Management Philosophies, what does the Department’s overall philosophy of enhancing public safety and service through a participative management program involve?
A
(1) Public Responsibility.
(2) Leadership and Innovation.
(3) Organizational Development.
(4) Personnel Development.
(5) Command Accountability.
7
Q
According to GO 0.3, Courtesy Cards, Communications, and Badges, CHP personnel shall not issue which item(s) to anyone outside the Department?
A
CHP personnel shall not issue a badge or flatbadge resembling the official Departmental badge, or a courtesy card.
8
Q
According to GO 0.3, Courtesy Cards, Communications, and Badges, a souvenir pin must be smaller than ____ in diameter.
A
1½ inches
9
Q
True/False - According to GO 0.4, Designation of Alternate Commanders, all Division, office, section, and Area commanders shall designate a first and second alternate commander from within their immediate staff whenever possible. The alternate commander shall have full authority of the command and shall be responsible for its continued operation when acting for the commander.
A
True
10
Q
According to GO 0.4, Designation of Alternate Commanders, what is the procedure for designating an alternate commander?
A
Commanders shall designate a first and second alternate in writing, copies shall be sent to levels above and below the author and the alternate commanders shall assume command in established sequence.
11
Q
According to GO 0.4, Designation of Alternate Commanders, what are the procedures for providing on-call availability?
A
All commanders shall establish procedures to ensure that the commander or the designated alternate is available for telephone calls. Whenever commanders are away from their headquarters during duty hours and not in radio contact or available through a pager or cellular telephone, they shall leave an itinerary.
Field Division and Area commanders or alternates shall always be available for immediate contact through the appropriate communications center. The communications center shall be completely informed at all times regarding who is in command, and if the individual is available by radio, and the individual’s location, telephone, and pager numbers, when available.
Headquarters Division, office, and section commanders shall be exempt from designating an alternate that is available for telephone calls, providing they maintain a current telephone list available at the Sacramento Communications Center.
12
Q
According to GO 0.7, Citizen Oversight Committee (COC), the Citizens’ Oversight Committee serves as an advisory body to the Commissioner. The Committee reviews departmental policies, procedures, training, reporting, and controls to determine consistency with the demands of public safety as well as legal, moral, and public expectations. The primary focus is to examine the Department’s Use of Force policies and procedures. Additional areas of concern may include, but are not limited to:
A
(1) Citizens complaint investigations;
(2) Equal employment opportunity issues;
(3) Management and supervisory practices;
(4) Personnel practices including selection and hiring procedures.
13
Q
According to GO 0.7, Citizen Oversight Committee (COC), what is the Composition of the Citizens’ Oversight Committee?
A
The Committee is currently comprised of nine public members, one of which is designated as the Chairperson. In addition, the Commissioner appoints a Department Representative. The Representative will be at the rank of Assistant Chief or higher, active or retired. The Representative provides technical assistance, staff support, and serves as liaison with the Department; and does not have committee voting status.
14
Q
According to GO 0.7, Citizen Oversight Committee (COC), when does the Citizens’ Oversight Committee meet?
A
The Committee meets at least bi-annually, and at other times as directed by the
Commissioner or deemed necessary by the Chairperson. To enhance Citizens’ Oversight Committee Members knowledge, meetings may be held in conjunction with major Departmental events or activities.
15
Q
True/False - According to GO 0.7, Citizen Oversight Committee (COC), the Citizens’ Oversight Committee is authorized to inspect and review departmental files and documents necessary to achieve its responsibilities.
A
True, except where it is deemed inappropriate by departmental counsel. The obtaining of required information will be coordinated with affected commands by the Department Representative.
16
Q
According to GO 0.8, Professional Values, when are the Professional values reviewed?
A
New Hire, Transfer, Annual Evaluation.
17
Q
According to GO 0.8, Professional Values, what are the Professional values?
A
Courage, Honesty, Professionalism, Principles, Respect, Integrity, Dedication, Esprit De Corps (motto: CHP PRIDE)
18
Q
According to GO 1.5, Meetings and Briefings, what would be the most likely date for a top management meeting?
A
The third week of odd numbered months (e.g., January, March, May).
19
Q
According to GO 1.5, Meetings and Briefings, who conducts top management meetings?
A
Top Management Meetings are scheduled and conducted by the Commissioner/Deputy Commissioner.
20
Q
According to GO 1.5, Meetings and Briefings, the Office of the Commissioner will request agenda items via Comm-Net or e-mail on the _______ working day of the month prior to the next Top Management Meeting.
A
first
e.g., requests for January agenda items will be solicited on the first working day in December
21
Q
According to GO 1.5, Meetings and Briefings, agenda items for the top managers meeting are divided into 3 categories:
A
decision-making issues, problem solving issues, informational items.
22
Q
According to GO 1.5, Meetings and Briefings, what order are the various meeting conducted in to disseminate the information down to the rank and file?
A
Field Division Commanders Conferences (FDCC) will normally be held in conjunction with Top Management. If additional time is needed, FDCCs will be scheduled for one or two days on either side of the Top Management Meeting. Division, Area, and Staff meetings are scheduled by individual Chiefs/Commanders and generally, Division meetings of Area Commanders will follow a FDCC.
23
Q
According to GO 1.5, Meetings and Briefings, what are the reporting requirements for Area meetings?
A
A memorandum will be prepared which will include the following:
(a) Total work hours expended.
(b) Persons present, but not assigned to the Area command.
(c) Agenda items:
1 Comments on items from the Field Division Commanders Conference.
2 Comments on items from the Division Meeting of Area Commanders.
3 Items originated at the Area meeting.
4 Items derived from a Field Division Commanders Conference and a Division Meeting of Area Commanders need not be repeated or summarized. Reference to item numbers and titles is sufficient.
5 A signature block for the Area Commander.
Forward one copy of the meeting minutes to Division and a copy of Area meeting minutes is to be posted for five days in the respective Area office.
24
Q
True/False - According to GO 1.5, Meetings and Briefings, uniformed employees absent from an Area meeting shall be required to read and initial the posted copy of the Area meeting minutes.
A
True
25
What are the two top decision making levels in this Department?
Executive and Top Management.
26
According to GO 1.5, Meetings and Briefings, the decision-making model has how many categories of decision making?
Three
27
According to GO 1.5, Meetings and Briefings, what is a category 1 decision?
The Executive Management makes the decision without any input from Top Management.
28
According to GO 1.5, Meetings and Briefings, when Executive Management makes a decision without any input from top management it is a category _____.
one
29
According to GO 1.5, Meetings and Briefings, what is a category 2 decision?
The Executive Management obtains input from Top Management and then makes the decision.
30
When Executive Management makes the decision only after receiving and considering input from top management. What category is it?
two
31
According to GO 1.5, Meetings and Briefings, what is a category 3 decision?
The Executive Management states the decision will be made by consensus of all Top Management with Executive Management by the consensus of the group.
32
According to GO 1.5, Meetings and Briefings, when Executive Management States in advance that the decision will be made by the consensus of all top management members. What category is it?
three
33
True/False - Smoking is prohibited in ALL State owned buildings.
False, State law and the State Administrative Manual (SAM) require that smoking shall be prohibited in all state-owned buildings or leased space, but they do not apply to stateowned housing that serves as the primary place of residence for state employees.
34
True/False – Smoking is prohibited in all State owned vehicles with enclosed driver/passenger areas.
True, Smoking is also prohibited in all state-owned passenger vehicles and mobile equipment to include light and heavy duty trucks, cargo and passenger vans, buses, and any other mobile equipment with an enclosed or enclosable driver/passenger compartment.
35
True/False – Regarding smoking, Atriums, balconies, stairwells, and patios are considered within buildings.
True
36
When smoking is prohibited in a building what are the requirements for the signs?
All buildings where smoking is prohibited shall have clearly displayed signs at all
entrances/exits and other conspicuous locations (i.e., bathrooms, lunchrooms, etc.). The (1)
Signs must read “NONSMOKING BUILDING” or “SMOKING NOT PERMITTED IN THIS BUILDING.” The universal “no smoking” symbol may also be used in conjunction with other written signage. The signs shall be written in English. If management personnel discern a need for signs written in another language, they may be produced in both English and a maximum of two (2) other languages. The signs must be placed on building accesses, shall be written in bold print, and readable from a distance of 25 feet.
37
In what areas is smoking permitted?
Outside of buildings in areas where smoking is not otherwise prohibited, Outside of buildings, at least 20 feet or more away from an entrance, exit, ground level air intake structure, or operable window of a building, State-owned housing that is primary residence of an employee.
38
True/False – Smoke breaks and regular rest breaks are synonymous. Both breaks shall not exceed the time allocated for regular breaks.
True
39
Who is responsible for ensuring compliance with the smoking policy?
Managers and Supervisors
40
True/False - The commander may allow smoking in open breezeways and atriums.
True, if the restrictions of the smoking policy jeopardize the safety of smoking employees, the Commander shall take into consideration all available alternatives when designating smoking/non-smoking areas. This may be necessary if the Command is located in a high risk area due to geographical location, high-crime, transient population, etc. The
Commander shall use his/her discretion in allowing smoking in open breezeways, atriums, and fenced or similarly shielded areas for employee protection. The safety and security of all employees must be considered as well as adverse impacts to non-smoking employees.
41
All State offices are required to be open for the purpose of transacting business during the hours of:
0800-1700 except Saturdays, Sundays and legal holidays.
42
If a Commander desires to extend office hours beyond those mandated by the Department and the affected employees and their representatives do not agree, who makes the final decision?
Commissioner
43
In cases where staffing the office during a lunch or break period would require taking a sergeant or traffic Officer off patrol assignment, what procedures shall be taken?
The office shall be temporarily closed, a sign indicating opening hours and emergency telephone information shall be posted.
44
Who may authorize a lunch break to be less than one half hour?
Under no circumstances are lunch breaks to be less than 1/2 hour.
*Note - Personnel shall normally be assigned a one hour lunch period; however, commanders may schedule a shorter period at their discretion.
45
True/False - The federal law requires that a government agency which requests a social security number shall inform the individual whether or not that disclosure is voluntary or mandatory, by what statutory or other authority the number is solicited, and what uses will be made of it.
True
46
True/False - Officers normally should not be assigned as Acting Sergeant unless they are on the current Sergeants promotional list.
True
47
Officers assigned as acting sergeant which has the full range of sergeant duties and filling a void of an existing sergeant must be approved by _____________.
the Assistant Commissioner
48
An OIC shall only be appointed when ___ Traffic Officers will be on duty under his/her supervision.
two or more
49
Officers who perform as an OIC for _______ hours or more will receive a salary differential pay.
six
50
Acting Sergeants and OIC’s (are/are not) permitted to participate in the alternate work week
are not
51
True/False - In no event shall an off-duty Officer be assigned OIC on overtime status.
True
52
An OIC is not responsible for _______________.
the review process and/or signature approval of the CHP 415 or CHP 415D's
53
All hours as an OIC are to be entered on the CHP 415 under the regular work shift column in the "O.I.C. time on" box. Actual time spent performing supervisory duties should be taken under beat ____ in the activity time column.
822
54
True/False - Supervisors must provide an employee wishing to express breast milk for their infant child an enclosed room, other than a restroom, that is away from public view and provides privacy.
True
55
According to GO 7.1, Validation Process for the National Crime Information Center Report, the Federal Bureau of Investigation’s NCIC is a nationwide, computerized criminal justice information system accessible by any federal, state and local criminal justice agency. The information contained within the NCIC system includes:
(1) Wanted persons.
(2) Missing persons.
(3) Stolen property (e.g., vehicles, boats, or guns).
56
According to GO 7.1, Validation Process for the National Crime Information Center Report, the NCIC and the California Department of Justice Information System (CJIS) require a monthly validation of the records listed in the NCIC report by the originating agency identifier (ORI). The validation process is crucial in order to maintain the accuracy of the NCIC records. Records subject to validation are those which have been in the file for _______ days and records entered in the same month of prior years.
60 to 90
*Note - The Department is required to forward to DOJ a validation certification of all California Highway Patrol (CHP) records within 30 days. Should the validation be tardy, DOJ will purge the CHP records in the NCIC report for the time period being validated.
57
According to GO 7.1, Validation Process for the National Crime Information Center Report, as soon as the NCIC validation report is received by field commands, local NCIC coordinators are required to certify the status of each record by reviewing the source documents and verifying that all records are still outstanding and all information entered is accurate. In addition to verifying each record with the source documents, the validation of vehicle, boat, fugitive, and missing person entries require that local commands _____________ the complainant, victim, prosecutor, court, motor vehicle registry files, or other appropriate source or individual involved.
consult
*Note - In the event attempts to contact the victim or complainant are unsuccessful, the entering authority must make a determination based on the best information and knowledge available as to whether or not to retain the original entry in file.
58
According to GO 7.1, Validation Process for the National Crime Information Center Report, all records must be compared during an NCIC validation report, with originating case documents, regardless of the age of the case or location of the originating documentation; however, recent consultation with the victim or complainant is not mandatory for entries not related to __________________.
vehicles, boats, fugitives, and missing persons
59
Limited Duty Assignments shall be used for which officers?
Allowing members time to recover from temporary illnesses, injuries, pregnancy or posttraumatic incident stress, Preventing economic hardship when a member has exhausted all payroll credits while awaiting disability retirement, Removing a member temporarily from full duty while medical s of capability to perform full duty are resolved. Removing a member temporarily from full duty at the direction of the Office of the Commissioner pending completion of an investigation of alleged misconduct by the member.
60
Limited duty cannot exceed six months unless:
Application in progress for disability retirement and economic hardship exists, AA requires more than six months, unusually urgent and compelling charitable need (approved by Commissioner)
61
A uniformed member of this Department (may/may not) be assigned to a permanent limited duty assignment if the injury was work related.
may not
62
Limited duty assignments should normally be limited to __________.
6 months
63
Extensions of limited duty assignments must be approved by:
Commissioner’s Office or appropriate Asst. Commissioner
64
Non-uniform Employees must be available for transfer and reporting within ____ calendar days.
30
65
Commander cannot reassign non-uniform employees within command in excess of ____ calendar days without the appropriate Assistant Commissioner approval.
30
66
Regarding non-uniform employees, transfers to field supervisory positions are by _____________.
departmental seniority
67
Regarding non-uniform employees, transfers to headquarters and field Division office positions are normally by administrative decision because special skill, knowledge, or experience is required and the assignments can assist employees in achieving upward mobility or career goals EXCEPT:
Seniority transfers take priority over other hiring methods for Communications Supervisor (CS) I/II and (Motor Carrier Specialist) MCS II positions in field Divisions.
68
Regarding non-uniform employees, a ___ day advance written notice is required by Government Code Section 19994.1 for administrative transfers required by the Department where relocation of the employee is reasonably expected.
60
*Note - This requirement may be waived by the employee in writing. *Note - Does not apply to employees who apply for a position
69
Regarding non-uniform employees, represented employees are limited to ______ location choices on their CHP 220 unless otherwise specified by the employee’s collective bargaining agreement. Non-represented non-uniform employees, employees may have up to _____ choices on their CHP 220.
2, 4,
*Note - Bargaining Unit 12 employees shall submit a CHP 220 for each location requested.
There is no limit on the number of location choices.
70
To cancel a request of transfer, non-uniform employees shall ____________.
shall send an e-mail notifying the CHVP transfer coordinator and “cc” his/her commander of his/her decision to cancel.
*The CHVP e-mail address for cancellations is “CHP_220_Cancellations.”
71
What is the order of priority for transfers for uniformed personnel?
Needs of the Department (i.e. bilingual), hardship, and seniority.
72
Satisfactory performance during the past ______ month(s) shall be a consideration for all uniformed personnel transfers.
12
| *Note - Unsatisfactory performance may be cause for denial of a transfer request.
73
Lieutenant commanders and above will be required to remain a minimum of _______ in an assigned location, regardless of whether the assignment was the result of a transfer or promotion.
one year
74
Regarding uniformed personnel, Off-duty status (California Labor Code Section 4800.5 or sick leave) (can/can not) be grounds for denial of a transfer request and/or transfer.
can
*Note - The projected length of off-duty status and workload needs of the Area requested will be the primary concern. The final decision rests with the appropriate Assistant Commissioner.
75
In regards to uniformed personnel, who must complete probation prior to transfer?
Officers, Sergeants, and non-command Lieutenants.
76
True/False - Non-command lieutenants will be required to remain a minimum of six months in the assigned area.
False, uniformed personnel promoted to lieutenant or sergeant will be required to remain a minimum of one year in the assigned area.
77
Under the provisions of Department of Personnel Administration (DPA) Rule 599.676.1, lieutenant commanders and above who are required to relocate upon initial promotion may receive:
a two-step salary increase upon movement to the higher class.
78
In regards to uniformed personnel, designated managers (lieutenants and above) who relocate to a new assignment due to a transfer or promotion may be granted up to _____ days Administrative Time Off by their commander in order to move or attend to details associated with moving (e.g., locate housing, schools, sign mortgage or lease agreements, etc.). The time allowed need not be consecutive days.
five
79
Personnel Services Section (PSS) will not accept or process a CHP 220 (Request for Transfer, Annex B) from officers, sergeants, and non-command lieutenants more than ________ prior to the completion of their probationary period.
90 days
80
In regards to uniformed personnel, bilingual services position means a public contact position in departmental command locations where _______ percent or more of public contacts are with members of a group who either do not speak English or who are unable to effectively communicate in English because it is not their native language.
2.5%
81
Officers transferring on the basis of bilingual skills, where more senior officers have been bypassed in seniority, shall remain in the bilingual location for a minimum period of _____________.
one year
82
In regards to uniformed personnel, transfer requests shall be limited to ______ Area choices.
four
83
In regards to uniformed personnel, administrative assignments to headquarters are normally a minimum of ____months and a maximum of __________ months.
24, 48.
| *Note - May be extended to 60 months by the Headquarters Division Commander. Over 60 by Commissioner.
84
True/False - Upon completion of a headquarters assignment, uniformed Officers will be administratively transferred to their last permanent assignment regardless of current seniority standing for that command or its position vacancies.
True
*Note - Upon request, an officer will be administratively transferred to any field command with a current position vacancy for which he/she has seniority-based transfer rights under the Collective Bargaining Unit 5 Agreement.
85
True/False - Upon completion of a headquarters assignment, Officers who promote to the rank of sergeant while assigned to headquarters do not have a mandatory right of return to their former command. They will be administratively transferred to any field command with a current position vacancy for which he/she has seniority-based transfer rights.
True
86
True/False - Upon completion of a headquarters assignment, Lieutenants and sergeants will be administratively transferred to their last permanent assignment regardless of their current seniority standing for that command, if a vacancy exists. However, upon request, a lieutenant or sergeant will be administratively transferred to any field command with a current position vacancy for which he/she has seniority-based transfer rights.
True
87
Qualities required for promotion to Lieutenant would include:
Demonstrated ability to motivate subordinates to carry out the Department’s objectives and education beyond an associate arts degree or equivalent number of college units is desirable.
88
Qualities required for promotion to Sergeant would include:
Demonstrated belief in the Departments objectives as evidence by performance as a road patrol officer, an associate of arts degree or equivalent number of college units and experience as OIC, FTO, or other special assignment experiences are desirable.
89
The Driver License Pull Notice Program allows the department to be informed if the driver license of a uniformed employee has been ________________, _____________, or ___________________.
suspended, revoked, or restricted
90
According to GO 10.15, Departmental Response to Parole Hearings, the Board of Prison Terms or a family member will occasionally notify the Area of a pending parole hearing for a convicted murderer a CHP officer. Areas receiving notification from other than headquarters should immediately forward a copy of the notice through channels to the ___________________.
Office of the Commissioner
91
According to GO 10.15, Departmental Response to Parole Hearings, the Board of Prison Terms or a family member will occasionally notify the Area of a pending parole hearing for a convicted murderer a CHP officer. If notice is verbally received, the Area should obtain all pertinent information and immediately relay the information through channels to the Office of the Commissioner. The Area should attempt to determine the following information:
* The reporting party’s information (name, address, phone number, relationship to victim, circumstance of their notification/source of information, etc.).
* Name of the offender.
* The California Department of Correction’s prisoner identification number (located on the official notice form directly under the subject’s name), if the reporting party possesses the Board of Prison *Terms’ notice.
* Name of the victim.
* Date of the offense.
* Date of the scheduled parole hearing.
* Location of the parole hearing (name, address and phone number of the prison facility).
92
True/False - According to GO 10.15, Departmental Response to Parole Hearings, when the Department is notified of a pending parole hearing for a convicted murderer of a CHP officer. The Office of the Commissioner will respond to the Board of Prison Terms expressing departmental concerns. The prosecutor of the county from which the prisoner was committed is the “sole” representative of the people at the hearing.
True
*Note - Communication between the prosecutor and the Department is paramount. In addition to the headquarters' response, the Area commander or his/her designee shall personally contact the assigned prosecutor to convey departmental concerns.
93
True/False - According to GO 10.15, Departmental Response to Parole Hearings, attendance at the parole hearing for a convicted murderer a CHP officer is strictly limited by statute. Only the prosecutor, victim, next of kin and a designated “support” person may attend the hearing. CHP members are not permitted to attend parole hearings unless requested by the family as a “support” person.
True
*Note - Should a family member request a CHP member attend as a “support” person, attending personnel are reminded that comments and/or active participation are strictly prohibited. CHP members participating as “support” persons shall not wear the departmental uniform nor other indicia suggestive of departmental representation.
94
Location code consists of three digits:
1st digit = Division or Headquarters*, 2nd and 3rd digits = 2nd number is division & third is section or bureau or Field = 2nd and 3rd numbers designate Area. *Note - 01-19 are only used for Division Personnel, units and programs.)
95
According to GO 11.8, Payment of Membership Dues, what regulates the payment of membership dues for departmental employees?
The California Vehicle Code, Department of Personal Administration rules, and bargaining unit contracts.
96
According to GO 11.8, Payment of Membership Dues, per California Vehicle Code Section 2114, the Department is authorized to pay membership dues for organizations relating to law-enforcement, accident prevention, and subjects related to the powers and duties of the Department. Membership dues in community organizations (e.g., Mothers against Drunk Driving, Chambers of Commerce, etc.) or community service organizations (e.g., Rotary, Lions, etc.) (will/will not) be paid by the Department.
will not
97
True/False - According to GO 11.8, Payment of Membership Dues, per Department of Personnel Administration Rule 599.922.2, the Department is authorized to pay for membership dues of a professional organization which engages in activities directly related to a non-represented employee's scientific or professional discipline.
True
| *Note - Represented employees must refer to their current bargaining unit contract.
98
According to GO 11.8, Payment of Membership Dues, for payment of membership dues authorized by California Vehicle Code Section 2114, commanders shall determine whether the organization's objectives meet the following criteria:
(1) Discussion of mutual problems in the field of administration of justice through regular meetings.
(2) Coordination of efforts and activities of law enforcement agencies within their jurisdictions.
(3) Promotion of programs to develop a better understanding of problems of law enforcement officers.
(4) Promotion of continuing productive relationships among the organization’s members and their respective departments.
99
According to GO 11.8, Payment of Membership Dues, for payment of membership dues authorized by Department of Personnel Administration Rule 599.922.2, commanders shall determine whether the organization's objectives meet the following criteria:
(1) Must be job-related.
(2) Meets the best interest of the Department.
(3) Promotion of continuing productive relationships among the organization’s members and their respective departments.
(4) Discussion of mutual problems.
100
True/False - According to GO 11.8, Payment of Membership Dues, all uniformed employees are eligible to receive departmental funding for active membership in the CPOA.
True
101
True/False - According to GO 11.8, Payment of Membership Dues, the department will pay for a professional license fee (e.g., Certified Public Accountant) or membership in a job related professional society/association of the employee's choice in accordance with the employees bargaining unit agreement.
True
102
According to GO 11.11, General Services "Blue" Credit Card Requests, the General services charge cards are used for the following:
(1) To obtain a state vehicle from any of the state garages.
| (2) For taxi service in central Sacramento.
103
True/False - According to GO 11.11, General Services "Blue" Credit Card Requests, General Services credit cards are obtained by Accounting Section from DGS, Office of Fleet Administration. It is the responsibility of commands to maintain a record of the cards by billing code and serial numbers. Commands shall log the name of the person to whom the card is issued and ensure the card is returned after each use.
True
104
According to GO 11.11, General Services "Blue" Credit Card Requests, commands are required to complete an audit of cards issued to the Command annually. A CHP 23, DGS Credit Card Transmittal Log, shall be completed listing all cards issued to the command, returning unneeded cards and requesting replacement cards, if needed. The CHP 23s are due to Accounting Section _______.
June 1
105
According to GO 11.12, Operational Dial Telephone System, The Department of California Highway Patrol utilizes an Operational Dial Telephone (ODT) System, commonly known as the “__________,” as a supplementary method of communication.
green phone
106
True/False - According to GO 11.12, Operational Dial Telephone System, the “green phone” system is intended for the exchange of command level operational information during emergencies or natural disasters. The system is not intended to be a substitute for the service provided by the telephone company for conducting routine business.
True
107
True/False - According to GO 11.12, Operational Dial Telephone System, the Operational Dial Telephone (ODT) System is a state-owned system which uses the state microwave system and/or wire lines leased from the telephone company. The system consists of switchboards, installed at or near Division headquarters, and individual circuits installed at each Division and Area office and connected to the switchboards.
True
108
Departmental Succession is as follows:
Commissioner, Deputy Commissioner, A.C. Staff, A.C. Inspector General, A.C. Leadership Development and Communications, A.C. Field
109
According to GO 21.4, Notification of Kin, there is no statutory responsibility assigned to any specific entity for the notification to the next of kin of persons killed or seriously injured. However, the death or serious injury of a loved one presents an extremely emotional situation; therefore, departmental personnel (should/shall) assist in making notifications when appropriate.
should
110
True/False - According to GO 21.4, Notification of Kin, Area Commanders shall develop procedures for the prompt notification of the appropriate coroner's office in the event of a death within CHP jurisdiction. Commanders shall consult with local coroners’ offices in the development of these procedures.
True
111
According to GO 21.4, Notification of Kin, Commanders should, when appropriate, honor requests for assistance in making notifications if personnel are available, but (should not/shall not) voluntarily assume the duties or responsibilities of coroners or hospitals
shall not
112
According to GO 21.4, Notification of Kin, departmental personnel charged with making death or injury notifications shall take care to exercise good judgment. Whenever possible, death notifications (should/shall) be made in person. Injury notifications may be made in person or by telephone, commensurate with the nature and sensitivity of the injury and incident.
shall
| *Note - The notifying individual shall take extreme care to ensure that the proper person receives the information.
113
True/False - According to GO 21.7, Organizational Roster, CHP commands shall be responsible for checking the current roster and noting any command-level changes. These changes should be brought to the attention of the applicable roster OPI contact.
True
114
The Department (shall/should) cooperate with other agencies and may assist in notifying immediate family of people killed in traffic collisions investigated by the CHP. Injuries and death (shall/should) be promptly reported to CHP Communications Center for entry in the CHP 144 system.
shall, shall
115
Creation, abolition, or permanent changes in strength of resident posts will be approved by __________.
Office of the Commissioner
116
True/False - Assignment or transfer to a resident post shall be made from personnel within the Area having jurisdiction over the location.
True
117
An Officer requesting a transfer to a resident post within his/her command shall fill out a _________.
memo
118
The CHP 155, report of assigned personnel and equipment, should be submitted by the Area Commander to the Division by the ______ day of each month.
10th
119
Copies of the CHP 155 shall be retained in Area and Division files for what period of time?
Current year plus 1 year.
120
According to GO 22.5, which supervisor information shall be included on the CHP 155, report of assigned personnel and equipment?
Supervisors off duty and on limited duty will be included in the count on the front of the form and their names and status will be noted in the "remarks" section of the form.
121
According to GO 32.1, Live Scan Terminals, The Live Scan (LS) terminals are intended for the sole function of fingerprinting persons for certification, licensing, or employment purposes as required by the following departmental programs:
the School Pupil and Farm Labor Transportation Safety Program, Cadet Selection Program and Nonuniform Personnel Hiring, Freeway Service Patrol Program, RSPV programs, and Transportation Management Center Program.
*Note - The LS terminals shall not be used for any other purpose. No additional software shall be loaded on this device.
122
According to GO 32.1, Live Scan Terminals, Divisions and Area offices where Live Scan (LS) terminals are located shall designate a person at that location as the in-house LS Specialist. Divisions and Areas shall submit to Enforcement Services Division (ESD), Commercial Vehicle Section (CVS), the name of the LS Specialist no later than five days after designation. The in-house LS Specialist will have primary custodial responsibilities for, but not limited to:
the use, operation, security, maintenance, and Check-Out System of LS terminals. The LS Specialist will also have responsibility for the training of any Division or Area personnel who will be operating the LS terminals.
123
According to GO 32.1, Live Scan Terminals, Divisions and Areas with Live Scan (LS) terminals on-site must establish a Check-Out System to account for the use of LS terminals off-site. The system shall include, at a minimum:
The name of the person checking out the LS terminal, the location where the LS terminal will be used, the related program, and the expected date of return.
124
According to GO 32.1, Live Scan Terminals, All field Divisions shall forward reports by memorandum to Enforcement Services Division (ESD), Commercial Vehicle Section (CVS) regarding the use of the Live Scan (LS) terminals within that Division. Reports should be forwarded every six months for the first year; and then annually thereafter, no later than March 1 of each year. The report should cover issues associated with ___________the use of the terminal (e.g., number of times used by program, training, security, maintenance, problems encountered, problems resolved, benefits or disadvantages of the LS terminals).All requests for cooperation in research projects submitted by outside agencies shall be routed to which office?
Special Projects Section (SPS).
125
True/False - Caltrans speed surveys consist of 24-hour data collection sessions using automatic speed recording equipment instead of radar.
True
126
Enforcement action (should/should not) be taken on the basis of radar readings obtained during the Departmental speed monitoring process.
should not
127
What is the definition of the "85th percentile speed"?
The speed at, or below which 85 percent of all drivers operate their vehicles on a particular stretch of roadway.
128
Regarding speed monitoring, what is the definition of the “10 MPH pace?”
The 10 MPH range of speeds that contain the most vehicles. *Note - There are several ways to measure how variable the speeds are at which motorists travel. A common measurement of variability is the “pace” which is the 10 mph range of speeds that contains the most vehicles. This statistic is useful in estimating collision frequency because collisions are more common when motorists are traveling at many different speeds.
129
What is the definition of a “combined use highway?”
A portion of highway on which off-highway vehicles may travel.
130
According to section 38026 of the Vehicle Code (VC), which of the following agencies may designate a portion of highway for combined use?
A local authority, an agency of the federal government, or the director of the Department of parks and recreation (subject to CHP approval).
131
A highway segment, designated for combined use, cannot exceed ______ in length.
3 Miles
132
True/False - GO 40.6, Departmental Grants Program, is to provide alternative funding sources to conduct activities consistent with the mission of the California Highway Patrol.
True
133
True/False - According to GO 40.6, Departmental Grants Program, the Department will actively explore available sources of grant funding from federal and state only. Private sources of grant funding will not be utilized.
False, the Department will actively explore all available sources of grant funding: federal, state, and private.
134
According to GO 40.6, Departmental Grants Program, all headquarters and field commands (should/shall) develop a system for identifying programs to which grant funds can be applied.
should
135
According to GO 40.6, Departmental Grants Program, if an Office, Area, Section, or Division Commander becomes aware that another agency or organization is proposing or has submitted a grant application to a funding agency other than California Office of Traffic Safety (OTS) that appears to focus on traffic safety goals clearly within the jurisdiction of the Department (i.e., proposes to reduce collisions, provides child safety seats at checkups, bike helmets at bicycle rodeos, purchasing radar units for traffic enforcement in the county, etc.), what step(s) should be taken immediately:
Contact Grants Management Section (GMS) with basic information relative to the proposal, and notify Assistant Commissioner Field or Staff through channels as soon as possible.
136
True/False - According to GO 40.6, Departmental Grants Program, Highway Safety Act funds cannot be used for program maintenance, research, highway design, construction, or maintenance.
True
137
According to GO 40.6, Departmental Grants Program, the following are the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) priority program areas that have been identified as having the greatest potential for reducing collisions:
Alcohol and Other Drug Countermeasures (Impaired Driving), Police Traffic Services, Occupant Protection, Emergency Medical Services, Motorcycle Safety, Pedestrian and Bicycle Safety, Roadway Safety, Speed Control, and Traffic Records
138
True/False - According to GO 40.6, Departmental Grants Program, in approximately June of each year, the Grants Management Section (GMS) shall prepare a Management Memorandum to all commanders soliciting participation in the Department's Highway Safety Plan (HSP).
True, Participation may be in the form of submitting a traffic safety project which addresses a statewide problem or a problem indigenous to a particular Division or Area command.
139
According to GO 40.7, Golf Cart Crossing Zones and Transportation Plans, Section 21115.1 of the Vehicle Code (VC), as amended September 30, 1992, established criteria for permitting a local authority to establish crossing zones for use by golf carts. In unincorporated areas, establishment of these crossing zones is subject to the California Highway Patrol’s (CHP) approval. Each crossing zone must meet the following criteria:
(1) Use of the crossing zone is prohibited during hours of darkness.
(2) The posted speed on the highway crossed does not exceed 45 mph.
(3) The highway is immediately adjacent to a golf course.
(4) The crossing is at an angle of approximately 90 degrees to the direction of the roadway.
140
According to GO 40.7, Golf Cart Crossing Zones and Transportation Plans, effective January 1, 2005, cities and counties may adopt golf cart transportation plans by ordinance or resolution after receiving prior approval by the appropriate transportation planning agency. Golf cart transportation plans shall not include the use of any state highways or portion thereof, except that a crossing of, or a golf cart lane along, a state highway may be included in the plan, if authorized by the ____________________ and the law enforcement agency having primary traffic enforcement responsibility of that highway or portion thereof.
California Department of Transportation
141
According to GO 40.7, Golf Cart Crossing Zones and Transportation Plans, all requests for approval of golf cart crossing zones or golf cart transportation plans received by an Area command shall be forwarded to the appropriate field Division commander within ________ days. The request will be accompanied by comments and recommendations from the Area commander concerning potential traffic safety hazards.
28 calendar
142
According to GO 40.7, Golf Cart Crossing Zones and Transportation Plans, request for approval of golf cart crossing zones or golf cart transportation plans will be accompanied by comments and recommendations from the Area commander concerning potential traffic safety hazards. The Area commander shall also:
(1) Ensure that the appropriate traffic engineer has been consulted and concurs with the Area commander’s recommendation. This consultation shall be documented and the documentation shall be retained in file to minimize any future liability on the state’s part.
(2) Include a proposed letter of reply from the Division commander to the county administrator.
* Note - Any request initially communicated to CHP Headquarters or a field Division will be forwarded directly to the appropriate Area command for the comments and recommendations.
143
If a pursuit results in a collision involving a pursuing unit, a ___________, is also required.
CHP 208, Accident Prevention Report
144
True/False - According to GO 40.10, Pursuit Reporting Procedures, in order for an Area to start documenting pursuit minutes and mileage, the pursuit must be within Area boundaries and have at least one officer from that Area involved or be the only Area involved in a pursuit out of the officers home Area boundaries. That Area will continue to document the pursuit miles and minutes (whether or not the pursuit leaves the Area) until another Area/agency meets the criteria to start documenting. If the initiating officer is out of Area, that officer’s home Area will document time and mileage until another Area or agency meets the criteria stated in this paragraph.
True
145
According to GO 40.10, Pursuit Reporting Procedures, When a pursuit includes an allied agency, their involvement shall be documented on the Area Specific Information page and within the Summary of the CHP pursuit report, by the applicable CHP Area. When involved in a multi-agency pursuit, the involved CHP Area supervisor (should/shall) remind the allied agency representative of their responsibility to submit a CHP 187, Pursuit Report.
shall
146
According to GO 40.10, Pursuit Reporting Procedures, Area commanders shall review each pursuit report entered into the Pursuit Reporting System (PRS) to determine compliance with Department policy. The Area review process shall include review of supporting documents to ensure concurrence with the pursuit report and be completed within ________ days following the date of occurrence. Notification shall be made to Division once the report has been approved by the Area commander and coded as Pending Division Review (PD) in the PRS.
10 calendar
147
According to GO 40.10, Pursuit Reporting Procedures, each Area shall include routing and notification procedures in the Area Standard Operating Procedures, and conduct ______________ Pursuit Reporting System (PRS) audits for pursuits occurring within their respective Areas to ensure pursuits are completed within the given time frames.
quarterly
148
US and CA Flags (shall/should) be displayed at all offices. The CHP flag may be displayed Except in inclement weather, flags should be flown from ____________.
sunrise to sunset
149
True/False - A flag may be flown at night under certain conditions.
True, if illuminated and the office is open.
150
Whenever the National Anthem is played, the correct procedure for Officers in formation is:
all Officers in the formation will remain facing toward their original front. The Commanding Officer will render the hand salute for the members of the formation
151
True/False - Flags shall be flown at half-mast on Memorial Day.
True
152
When present at official functions, but not in formation, uniform members shall hand salute the Colors. The salute shall be rendered when the approaching Colors are approximately ______ feet away and shall be held until the Colors have passed.
18
153
Each Division (shall/should) have a Special Honor Detail Squad with a minimum of _____ sergeants and _________ officers.
shall, two, 20
154
According to GO 70.3, Funerals and Special Ceremonies -- CHP Participation, Departmental representation and/or Special Honors Detail functions may be requested for the funeral/memorial service of the following personnel:
(1) Active or retired uniformed and nonuniformed employees.
(2) Immediate family members of active uniformed and nonuniformed employees.
(3) Other law enforcement officers.
(4) Public officials.
(5) Other official requests.
155
According to GO 70.3, Funerals and Special Ceremonies -- CHP Participation, how many uniformed and/or non-uniformed employees may attend a funeral for an immediate family member of a CHP employee on State time?
Four
156
According to GO 70.3, Funerals and Special Ceremonies -- CHP Participation, when shall a CHP 415 shall be submitted by uniformed employees at funerals?
(1) Honor guard.
(2) Escort duty.
(3) Active pallbearer.
157
According to GO 70.3, Funerals and Special Ceremonies -- CHP Participation, overtime and/or travel expenses (are/are not) allowed for funerals.
are
*Note - When directed by the Commissioner to perform as a Departmental representative, Honor guard or escort duty, Active pallbearer.
158
CHP participation at funerals: Upon notification of funeral services for a deceased employee, an employee of a rank __________________ than the deceased shall attend the funeral to represent the Department.
equal to or greater
159
(T/F) - According to GO 70.4, Participation in Community Events by Department Employees, it is the responsibility of the commander to ensure participation is consistent with the organizational values established and supported by the Department. Participation will normally be approved only for events with a direct relationship to the mission of the CHP.
True
160
According to GO 70.4, Participation in Community Events by Department Employees, CHP employees (shall/shall not) participate while on-duty in parades, community or organization celebrations, or advocacy events without prior approval of their commander.
shall not
161
According to GO 70.5, CHP Pistol Team, official team participation shall be limited to _____ in-state matched for the blue team and _____ in-state matches for the gold team.
4, 2
162
According to GO 70.5, CHP Pistol Team, each pistol team member will be allowed up to ____day(s) State time for each of the selected matches.
2
163
According to GO 70.5, CHP Pistol Team, The __________ is responsible for the Department-level competition.
Office of the Academy (Academy)
164
According to GO 70.11, Television and Graphic Services, requests for routine work may be submitted directly to the Television or Graphic Services Unit supervisors for the service desired. Routine services are defined as:
those which require no overtime hours or less than eight hours of staff time to complete. Requests will be acted upon in the order received.
165
According to GO 70.11, Television and Graphic Services, requests for any graphics, photographic, or video production services requiring more than eight hours or use of overtime by Academy staff to complete shall be made by memorandum or e-mail and routed to the Departmental Training Division (DTD) commander. These request are deemed as:
"Major Projects"
166
True/False - According to GO 70.11, Television and Graphic Services, mounted, 16” x 20” color or black and white photographic prints can be produced, by the Television Services and Graphic Services Units, for display in office areas accessible by the public such as a lobby.
True, the number of photographs which will be provided is determined by the amount of public wall space available. Requests for wall photographs shall be submitted by memorandum through channels to the Academy Graphic Services Unit.
167
According to GO 70.11, Television and Graphic Services, the Academy has a limited inventory of equipment available for loan including video, slide and overhead projectors, tape recorders, and public address systems. Generally, the maximum period of time equipment will be loaned to commands is __________.
two weeks
168
According to GO 70.11, Television and Graphic Services, when a videotape is used to record subject matter pertinent to criminal prosecution, the tape constitutes factual data and is to be treated the same as other evidence collected in the investigation. All videotapes used as evidence shall be identified with the ________________________.
date of recording, location, subject, and the name and I.D. number of the camera operator.
169
According to GO 70.11, Television and Graphic Services, the Department (will/will not) maintain, repair, or replace privately owned non-safety equipment.
will not
*Note - Personal audio-visual items such as cameras, video camcorders, and audio tape recorders should not normally be taken on routine patrol. Employees electing to use their own equipment do so at their own expense and risk.
170
According to GO 70.14, Police Officer Standards and Training, how many classroom hours of police training are required to make one training point towards a POST certificate?
20
171
According to GO 70.14, Police Officer Standards and Training, what is the minimum period of time required as a full time peace Officer for a basic POST certificate?
1 year
172
According to GO 70.14, Police Officer Standards and Training, how many college semester units are required for a supervisory certificate?
60
173
According to GO 70.14, Police Officer Standards and Training, how many college semester units are required for a management certificate?
60
174
According to GO 71.3, Cadet Ride-Along Program, each CHP cadet shall complete_______ 8 hour Area ride-along during a ride-along week as part of academy training.
one
175
True/False - According to GO 71.3, Cadet Ride-Along Program, CHP cadets shall ride in an Area assigned by academy staff.
False, cadets will ride as observers in the CHP Area office of their choice, commensurate with Area scheduling, availability, and the concurrence of the Academy.
176
According to GO 71.3, Cadet Ride-Along Program, ______ weeks prior to the ride-along week the academy will provide involved Areas with a memorandum listing the cadets assigned for the ride-along program.
Five
177
According to GO 71.3, Cadet Ride-Along Program, Cadets will be required to complete a memorandum describing their ride-along experience. The memorandum will be submitted to the Staff Office, no later than when?
0800 hours, two days after returning from the ride-along weekend.
178
According to GO 81.6, Investigative Informational Database Systems, due to the sensitive and confidential nature of the information within investigative informational database systems, a number of databases have been deemed:
right-to-know, need-to-know access only.
179
According to GO 81.6, Investigative Informational Database Systems, the CAL-Gangs Network System provides access to gang information via a secured Intranet access and maintained by?
Department of Justice
180
True/False - According to GO 81.6, Investigative Informational Database Systems, all uniformed personnel from the Department are allowed to obtain information from CALGangs and formal training is required to enter gang members into the system.
False, all uniformed personnel from the Department are allowed to obtain information from CAL-Gangs, but only personnel authorized and who have completed the required training through DOJ may actually access the system.
181
True/False - According to GO 81.6, Investigative Informational Database Systems, El Paso Intelligence Center Network cooperative effort established to collect, process and disseminate intelligence information concerning illicit drugs and currency movement, alien smuggling, weapons trafficking and related activity.
True
*Note - Access is generally limited to personnel assigned to FSS, ISU, drug task force members, PSD, and personnel assigned to other investigative duties. Uniformed personnel not authorized access, but who require information from EPIC, may contact their Division ISU local drug task force or FSS.
182
True/False - According to GO 81.6, Investigative Informational Database Systems, National Insurance Crime Bureau has an online data base.
True, NICB Online was established by insurance industry carriers to effectively assist law enforcement and the insurance industry in combating insurance fraud and vehicle theft activities nationwide.
183
True/False - According to GO 81.6, Investigative Informational Database Systems, NICB Online provides information relative to insurance claims, manufacturers’ shipping records, vehicle histories (including purged stolen vehicle records) and Vehicle Identification Number (VIN) locations for various manufacturers.
True, Access is generally limited to personnel assigned to ISU, VIN officers, Salvage Vehicle Inspection Officers, Area follow-up investigators, PSD personnel, and personnel assigned to other investigative duties. Uniformed personnel not authorized access, but who require information from NICB, may contact their Area VIN officer, Division ISU or FSS.
184
According to GO 81.6, Investigative Informational Database Systems, the Public Records Information Database System provides public information relative to:
Social Security numbers, bankruptcies, judgments, liens, real property ownership, corporations, and limited partnerships, as well as civil and criminal court docket scans.
185
According to GO 81.6, Investigative Informational Database Systems, __________________ allows authorized users to obtain parolee information in two ways from an extract of California Department of Correction’s Parole and Community Services Division Statewide Parolee Database.
Parole Law Enforcement Automated Data System (Parole LEADS). This system has been deemed a need-to-know, right-to-know system; therefore, personnel authorized to access Parole LEADS will be approved by their respective Divisions. Personnel authorized direct access will generally include those assigned criminal investigative duties.
186
According to GO 81.6, Investigative Informational Database Systems, The geographical area covered by Western States Information Network/Regional Information Sharing System (WSIN) includes the following states EXCEPT:
Nevada (includes: California, Oregon, Washington, Alaska, and Hawaii.)
*Note - WSIN maintains the Automated Criminal Intelligence Index, which provides its member agencies with quick access to accurate and timely intelligence information. Access is generally limited to personnel assigned to FSS, ISU, drug task force members, PSD personnel, and personnel assigned to other investigative duties.
187
True/False - According to GO 81.6, Investigative Informational Database Systems, California Photo Mugshot and Department of Motor Vehicles Image System (Cal-Photo) utilizes the secure DOJ communication network and adheres to the CLETS Policies, Practices and Procedures (PPPs). Users of Cal-Photo must have DOJ network connectivity.
True
188
True/False - According to GO 81.6, Investigative Informational Database Systems, All participants, non-uniformed and uniformed personnel, must be fingerprinted and have a fingerprint check response on file prior to being granted access to Cal-Photo.
True, additionally, it is required that each employee having access to Cal-Photo, sign the CLETS Employee/Volunteer Statement Form prior to operating or having access to CalPhoto.
189
True/False - According to GO 81.6, Investigative Informational databases, personnel authorized to use Cal-Photo may inquire into their own record or have someone inquire for them.
False, access to information through Cal-Photo is on a right-to-know and need-to-know basis. Authorized personnel SHALL NOT inquire into their own record or have someone inquire for them. Accessing and/or releasing Cal-Photo information for non-law enforcement purposes is prohibited and is subject to administrative action and/or criminal prosecution.
190
True/False - Cal-Photo is currently in early stages of development and only contains a limited number of mugshot photos to go along with the DMV photographs.
False, by combining DOJ’s more than 381,767 mugshot photos with the millions of local agency photographs and the 32 million DMV photos, Cal-Photo is one of the most expansive databases in the nation.
191
According to GO 85.1, Motorcycle Certificate of Compliance, Section 12804.9(f) CVC allows the DMV to accept a certificate of competence issued by a law enforcement agency _______________.
for its officers who operate class M vehicles in the performance of their duties in lieu of the skills test.
192
According to GO 85.1, Motorcycle Certificate of Compliance, members of this Department below the rank _______________ shall not issue a letter of competence stating that an employee is qualified to operate class M vehicles.
Assistant Commissioner
193
According to GO 100.3, Reporting Threats Against State Officials, where is the Protective Services Division (PSD), Dignitary Protection Section, (DPS) Threat Assessment Unit (TAU) located?
Los Angeles and Sacramento
194
According to GO 100.3, Reporting Threats Against State Officials, any action taken in response to a threat against a state official beyond initial response (should/shall) be coordinated through Protective Services Division (PSD), Dignitary Protection Section, (DPS) Threat Assessment Unit (TAU)
shall
195
According to GO 100.3, Reporting Threats Against State Officials, the responsibility for reporting any perceived threat against a state official lies at what level of command?
Any CHP employee
196
According to GO 100.3, Reporting Threats Against State Officials, Penal Code_____ makes it a felony to threaten a state official.
76 P.C.
197
According to GO 100.5, Regulated Devices, "The Department has adopted regulations in Title 13 California Code of Regulations (13 CCR), that establish standards and specs for lighting equipment listed in California Vehicle Code Section 375 ,_________ , safety glazing, safety _______ and sirens.
safety belts, helmets
198
According to GO 100.5, Regulated Devices, in 30 V.C. legislative policy states that
_________ and __________ are restricted to Authorized Emergency Vehicles (EAVs).
red lights, sirens
199
According to GO 100.5, Regulated Devices, other types of vehicles engaged in activity that creates hazards on the freeway should be equipped with ________ lights.
flashing amber warning
200
According to GO 100.5, Regulated Devices, "All Authorized Emergency Vehicles must have steady red light to the front," _______ V.C.
25252
201
"Special Relationships" are established when peace officers:
(1) place a person in ______ or;
(2) effect or increase the risk of harm to a person by specific conduct or;
(3) make an _________ to undertake specific conduct on behalf of an individual member of the general public.
peril, expressed promise
202
When uniformed personnel have established a "Special Relationship" they (should/shall) remain at the scene until one or more of the following occur:
(1) They are properly relieved by departmental personnel.
(2) They have relinquished the _______ responsibilities to an on-scene representative of the governmental agency having primary responsibility for the incident.
(3) They have learned of a reasonably apparent emergency requiring their immediate attention elsewhere.
(4) They have received direction from a supervisor to assume duties elsewhere.
(5) Peace officer assistance and/or protection is no longer reasonably necessary.
should, scene management
203
Uniformed personnel shall not place motorists, passengers, or pedestrians in a position of ______________ from either traffic or other potentially hazardous factors after contact has been established.
foreseeable danger
204
Nothing in this Order shall be construed as requiring an officer to remain with a disabled motorist or other person ___________________, so long as there exists no reasonably foreseeable danger to the individual or other traffic.
after all reasonable steps have been taken to resolve the incident
205
Uniformed personnel are to exercise ________ for others once a Special Relationship has been established.
reasonable care
206
Every Area office (should/) shall participate in the Department’s CPS program by providing traffic safety presentations, conducting CSS check-up events, and operating Area Child Safety Seat Fitting Stations to better educate the public on child passenger safety.
shall
207
True/False - According to GO 100.10, Automated Photo Red-Light Enforcement, Commanders shall ensure adequate supervisory involvement and oversight of the program to ensure compliance of all other departmental policy and procedures.
True
208
According to GO 100.10, Automated Photo Red-Light Enforcement, Upon learning of any governmental agency interested in pursuing an automated photo red-light enforcement program within CHP jurisdiction, Area commanders shall ensure:
(a) The governmental agency understands the CHP has primary traffic enforcement jurisdiction at all intersections within the unincorporated county area.
(b) Division commanders are notified.
(c) The regulatory VC Sections listed in Annex A are reviewed.
(d) Communication with interested agencies is maintained.
(e) An initial assessment of the impact of the proposed automated photo red-light enforcement program is performed.
(f) The governmental agency is made aware of any limitations of implementing an automated photo red-light enforcement program before jointly undertaking a program proposal.
(g) All departmental prerequisites and conditions are satisfied before automated photo redlight enforcement may be implemented.
(h) A proposal for implementing an automated photo red-light enforcement program is prepared and submitted through the chain of command to the Office of Assistant Commissioner, Field (ACF).
209
True/False - According to GO 100.10, Automated Photo Red-Light Enforcement, Prior to implementing an automated photo red-light enforcement program, Area and Division commanders shall ensure that violation criteria are established specific to the photo system to be used in the program.
True
210
According to GO 100.10, Automated Photo Red-Light Enforcement, Areas which implementing an automated photo red-light enforcement program shall develop an internal SOP which includes, but is not limited to:
(1) Preparing the automated notice to appear after receiving the photographs from manufacturer/supplier via a secure internet program.
(2) Mailing the notice to appear to the violator via registered mail within 15 days. A copy is sent to the appropriate court for prosecution.
(3) Amending a notice to appear from the registered owner and re-issuing it to the identified driver of the vehicle, once the information provided by the registered owner is verified.
(4) Weekly site inspections to ensure no unapproved system changes have occurred and that the required signage is still in place.
(5) Scheduled independent calibration checks on cameras.
(6) Reporting procedures for the automated Notice to Appear, and CHP 415.
(7) Development of needed local forms.
(8) Retention schedules and filing procedures for forms.
211
The CHP 100, Officer’s Evaluation/Activity Summary, is the primary means of regularly ___________.
recording job performance and training needs
212
HPM 40.71, CHP 415 User’s Manual, requires recording enforcement and service activity on beats 1-799 only. For purposes of the CHP 100 _______officer ___________ shall be recorded, regardless of beat.
all, activity
213
When are general duty helmets worn?
While performing activities that indicate the need for maximum head protection.
214
In addition to general duty helmets, uniformed employees assigned to _________ shall be issued a helmet.
motorcycle officer or flight officer
215
Uniformed personnel assigned to flight duty shall wear a flight helmet ____________.
during actual operation of Departmental aircraft
216
Where protective vests are covering badges and nameplates, I.D. numbers shall be printed ________________.
on the front of the helmet
217
What kind of marker shall be used when placing I.D. on exterior of general duty helmet?
Yellow grease pencil
218
When placing I.D. numbers on exterior of general duty helmet the numbers should be at least _____ high.
1 inch
219
True/False - Motorcycle & flight helmets shall have names permanently affixed inside
False, motorcycle & flight helmets SHALL NOT have names, initials, or ID numbers permanently affixed inside. Additionally uniform employees shall not fix their names, initials, or other means of identification to the exterior of helmets, except as provided in policy.
220
True/False - Employees shall be required to be available to receive notice of court cancellations during non-working hours.
False, employees shall not be required
221
The Area commander shall develop clerical procedures to ensure the status of a scheduled court appearance is confirmed on the _____________________, in anticipation of cancellations or postponements of scheduled court appearances.
last business day preceding scheduled attendance.
222
It is the responsibility of who, to determine if an employee’s attendance at court has become unnecessary?
Area Commander.
223
Employees who have been unavailable for court cancellation notification shall contact their office within ______________.
24 hours of the scheduled court appearance between 0800 and 1700 hours, Monday through Friday, excluding legal holidays
224
True/False - Collect telephone calls will be accepted for purposes of notifying employees of court cancellations.
True
225
True/False - If an employee reports to the office, court or hearing room in response to a subpoena or other official process, without having learned of the cancellation or postponement, and he/she has not confirmed the appearance as required, no overtime compensation or travel expenses will be approved.
True
226
True/False - Supervisors shall accept subpoenas for subordinates on the day of an appearance.
False, unless they have received prior notice, supervisors shall refuse to accept subpoenas for subordinates on the day of the designated appearance except in those cases when the Area commander deems the attendance to be critical, and he/she has reason to believe the employee can be contacted.
227
Employees shall accept subpoenas served directly on them by any lawful means.
True
228
Which State owned vehicles will be allowed passage on State owned toll bridges without monetary payment of the toll when an "s pass ticket" is surrendered to the collector or when the vehicle is equipped with a FasTrak transponder?
Distinctively marked class e black-and-white patrol vehicle, specially marked patrol vehicles, Headquarters sworn personnel in an unmarked vehicles, Field personnel assigned to Golden Gate, Southern, and Border Division offices who might regularly use a S-pass book or FasTrak transponder.
229
True/False - Distinctively marked black-and-white or SMPV vehicles assigned to Areas having traffic control jurisdiction on various State-owned bridges or other black-and-white vehicles having occasion to cross State-owned toll bridges with reasonable frequency will carry S Pass Books or a FasTrak transponder.
True
230
True/False - S Pass Tickets may only be presented without the book by black-and-white or SMPV vehicles.
False, passes are only valid when attached to the pass book.
231
True/False - Headquarters personnel as well as Golden Gate, Southern, and Border Division personnel who regularly use a State-owned toll bridge while operating an unmarked car will only be permitted passage with an S Pass Book or FasTrak transponder.
True
232
State toll bridge pass book are assigned to _________________.
specific vehicles by make, model, and license number
233
State toll bridge passes assigned to specific vehicles are only valid _________________.
when attached to the pass book
234
All commands are required to report public contact data on the CHP A415. It is to be completed by all _____________ assigned to road patrol duties, commercial enforcement personnel, and inspection facility officers/sergeants, when engaged in a recordable activity. Special duty personnel working an enforcement shift shall be considered road patrol for the purposes of this GO.
officers and sergeants
235
True/False - In the case of partner officers, only one officer is to record the public contact data on the CHP 415D?
True
236
___________________ means patrol of a highway by an officer on duty and assigned to patrol, or available to respond to assignments on that highway.
24-hour road patrol
237
__________________ means assignment of an off-duty officer to respond to emergency calls during those hours, usually at night, when traffic flow volumes and calls for service do not justify 24-hour road patrol.
On-call assignment
238
Area commanders shall maintain 24 hour road patrol coverage on all ________________________.
Interstate highways, U.S. 101, US 50 and SR 99
239
The Area Office initiates the preparation of the JUS 8715, Disposition of Arrest and Court Action unless:
precluded by the policy of the booking agency.
240
After a recordable arrest, what must be submitted to DOJ in addition to the JUS 8715?
Two sets of fingerprints.
241
Per DOJ recordable offense criteria, a JUS 8715 or JUS 8716 is not to be initiated on the following:
(1) 647(f) PC - UNDER THE INFLUENCE OF ALCOHOL.
| 2) Any offense for which incarceration is not a possible punishment (e.g., infractions, nonspecific charges
242
True/False - According to GO 100.30, Closing of Highways for Salvage Operations, officers are authorized to temporary closed highways or to detour traffic and emergency in order to protect the lives and takings of motorists; however, Officers are not authorized to close highways or detour traffic for commercial salvage operations.
True
243
True/False - According to GO 100.30, Closing of Highways for Salvage Operations, Officers are not authorized to halt or provide a break in traffic for commercial helicopter operations when external loads are being transported over congested highways.
True
244
True/False - According to GO 100.30, Closing of Highways for Salvage Operations, roadways shall be kept open for traffic during minor salvage operations when traffic will not be impeded or endangered.
True
245
According to GO 100.30, Closing of Highways for Salvage Operations, commercial salvage operations on state highways may be conducted only under authority of, and in compliance with, an encroachment permit issued by the California Department of Transportation (Caltrans) when:
The operation cannot be completed within 30 minutes and the blocking or partial blocking of the highway is necessary.
*Note - Commercial salvage operations are defined as those methods utilized by commercial salvage agencies or tow truck operator to remove wrecked, damaged and disabled vehicles, displaced loads, or other property considered valuable or having further usefulness.
246
True/False - According to GO 100.30, Closing of Highways for Salvage Operations, commander shall deny request provide a break in traffic for commercial helicopters transporting external loads during salvage operations.
True, Federal Aviation Administration regulations prohibit helicopters from flying over congested areas, such as freeways, while engaged in external load operations, unless FAA approval has been obtained and the flight path has been coordinated with locals state transportation agencies.
247
According to GO 100.30, Closing of Highways for Salvage Operations, encroachment permits shall not be required for closing of highways when:
The lives or safety of occupants of a vehicle or recovery of bodies of victims are involved; wrecked vehicles or other hazards are blocking a highway and constitute an immediate hazard to other traffic; it is necessary to detour or reroute traffic due to an accident, fire, or other emergency.
248
According to GO 100.31, Stopping of Trains, Employees (should not/shall not) attempt to actuate railroad block signals to stop trains in an emergency. When it is necessary to stop railway traffic (if time permits) advise the appropriate communications center of: the name of railroad, nature of the problem, and location.
should not
249
True/False - According to GO 100.31, Stopping of Trains, stopping distances for trains vary with the train type (e.g., light-rail commuter, freight), speed, weight, and the percent of grade. According to the Department of Transportation, Division of Rail, an average freight train traveling 30 mph on level ground requires a minimum distance of one-half mile to stop. An average freight train traveling 60 mph on level ground requires a minimum distance of one and one-half miles to stop.
True
250
True/False - According to GO 100.31, Stopping of Trains, employees shall take appropriate action to stop railway traffic during situations when its continued operation would be hazardous to persons or property.
True
251
True/False - According to GO 100.31, Stopping of Trains, slowly swing a visible object (e.g., flag, handkerchief, emergency yellow blanket, lighted flashlight) horizontally, in a back and forth motion at knee to hip height, at a right angle to the track signals the locomotive engineer to make a full emergency stop.
False, it signals the locomotive engineer to make a normal stop.
* Note - The locomotive engineer will acknowledge this signal with two whistle blasts and stop the train as quickly as practical.
252
True/False - According to GO 100.31, Stopping of Trains, rapidly swing a visible object (e.g., flag, handkerchief, emergency yellow blanket, lighted flashlight) horizontally, in a back and forth motion at knee to hip height, at a right angle to the track signals the locomotive engineer to make a full emergency stop.
True
*Note - Use a full emergency stop only when a train cannot be signaled at a sufficient distance from the hazard, to permit a normal stop. Be aware that full emergency stops may endanger passengers, train crews, property, and equipment.
253
If time and access allows, place one thirty-minute lighted fusee, between the rails, but not directly on a wooden railroad tie, in advance of the rail-highway grade crossing or hazard in both directions of travel. The lighted fusee should be placed 2,000 feet (minimum) to over two miles in advance of the hazard.
True
*Note - After the locomotive engineer stops the train, he/she will continue to observe and monitor the lighted fusee. If the fusee burns out, or if 10 minutes have elapsed and the fusee is no longer visible, the locomotive engineer will proceed at restricted speed until the train is one mile beyond the fusee location. When a fusee is placed over one mile from a hazard, additional lighted fusees should be placed less than one mile to the hazard. This will allow sufficient time for the locomotive engineer to be warned of an approaching hazard.
254
According to GO 100.33, Notice to Remove Encroachment, officers should, in conjunction with other enforcement obligations, cooperate with the Department of Transportation (Caltrans), by issuing a CHP 357, Notice to Remove Encroachment (NRE), for property which type of property?
Property left on a state highway right-of-way without proper authorization or permit.
255
True/False - A CHP 357, Notice to Remove Encroachment (NRE), may be issued to owners of the encroaching property, vehicle operators, and owners or lessees who are required to remove property, reduce vehicle loads or remove a load which is purposely or by accident deposited on a state highway right-of-way.
True, the NRE is also used whenever property or a vehicle load is deposited on a state highway and then moved to another portion of the right-of-way to prevent it from becoming, or continuing as, a traffic hazard.
256
True/False - A Notice to Remove Encroachments (NRE) is used to notify encroaching property owners, vehicle operators, and owners or lessees, that they have five days from the issuance of the NRE to remove the load or partial load from the commercial vehicle enforcement facility or other location on a state highway right-of-way.
True
257
True/False - According to GO 100.33, Notice to Remove Encroachment, when a CHP 357, Notice to Remove Encroachment (NRE), is issued to a driver the officer is required to obtain a signature.
False, officers should attempt to obtain the vehicle operator’s signature next to the “X” at the lower left side of the form, acknowledging receipt of the NRE. If the vehicle operator refuses to sign the NRE, write “Refused to Sign.”
*Note - The vehicle operator is not legally required to sign this form.
258
True/False - According to GO 100.34, Use of Civilians for Local Traffic Control, if a local authorities wish to train civilians to perform local traffic control, where the Department exercises jurisdiction for traffic law enforcement, they must have a training program approved by the Commissioner.
True
259
True/False - According to GO 100.34, Use of Civilians for Local Traffic Control, if a local authorities wish to train civilians to perform local traffic control, where the Department exercises jurisdiction for traffic law enforcement, the local Area Office is not responsible for the training of the civilians.
True, assistance may be provided to the local authorities in the development of their individual training programs.
260
According to GO 100.35, Exempt Railroad Grade Crossings, When an application is made for an exempt railroad grade the Area Commander will assign an officer to ________.
physically inspect the crossing
261
According to GO 100.34, Exempt Railroad Grade Crossings, the Area performing the inspection on the exempt railroad grade crossing shall forward copies of all correspondence through channels to _______.
Research and Planning Section
262
According to GO 100.36, Disposition of Livestock, officers (should/shall) make reasonable efforts to notify owners of killed, injured, or loose livestock on public highways and ensure the removal of such animals to restore highway safety.
Shall
263
According to GO 100.36, Disposition of Livestock, officers (should/shall), as soon as practical, make a reasonable efforts to notify owners of damage livestock fences that could potentially allow livestock to affect highway safety.
Shall
264
According to GO 100.36, Disposition of Livestock, loose livestock found upon roadways surrounded by fenced property may be considered a public nuisance. The authority for removing such livestock is located in the where?
In the Civil Code
| *Note - Officers shall make a reasonable effort to locate the livestock owner before ordering animal removal.
265
When the owner cannot be located and it becomes necessary to confine an injured animal or store a dead animal carcass, who must be notified?
Secretary of Food and Agriculture (advise the local state brand and hide inspector)
266
Areas shall use the ___________________________ for the assignment of case numbers for all felony, misdemeanor and miscellaneous cases.
Area Information System (AIS)
267
According to GO 100.38, Assignment of Case Numbers, The assignment of “S” numbers, for those cases that have been entered into the __________________, continues to be the responsibility of the Communication Centers.
Stolen Vehicle System (SVS)
268
True/False - According to GO 100.38, Assignment of Case Numbers, once the case number has been assigned, it will not be changed because the charge has been either upgraded or downgraded as a result of subsequent investigation or filing by the city or district attorney.
True
269
What is the method of assignment for AIS file numbers?
The AIS file number consists of the calendar year followed by the report number assigned. *Note - It is not necessary to indicate the classification of the charge by preceding the file number with and “F” or an “M”.
270
According to GO 100.38, Assignment of Case Numbers, stolen vehicles and parts remain in the SVS for ________.
4 years plus current
271
According to GO 100.38, Assignment of Case Numbers, stolen license plates remain in the SVS for ________.
1 year
272
According to GO 100.38, Assignment of Case Numbers, stored, impounded, or recovered vehicles remain in the SVS for ________.
30 days
273
According to GO 100.39, CHP 202, Driving Under the Influence Arrest-Investigation Report, CHP 216, Arrest- Investigation Report, a CHP 202 shall be prepared for each arrest or investigation involving driving under the influence of alcohol, drugs, or any combination thereof.
True, This includes arrests of subjects who have committed another violation (e.g., Section 10851 of the Vehicle Code [VC], Vehicle Theft) in addition to a violation of driving under the influence (DUI).
274
A CHP 216, (should/shall) be prepared for all non-DUI, in-custody arrests, and all nonDUI, felony criminal investigations. A CHP 216 may be prepared for misdemeanor or infraction criminal investigations not involving DUI as directed by the Area commander to satisfy local Area needs.
shall
275
True/False - According to GO 100.39, CHP 202, Driving Under the Influence ArrestInvestigation Report, CHP 216, Arrest- Investigation Report, criminal investigations involving stolen or recovered vehicles are not reported on the CHP 216 when the only information available is contained on the CHP 180, Vehicle Report.
True, A legible copy of the CHP 180 bearing the case file number, assigned as specified in GO 100.38, Assignment of Case Numbers, will suffice.
276
True/False - According to GO 100.39, CHP 202, Driving Under the Influence ArrestInvestigation Report, CHP 216, Arrest- Investigation Report, In criminal cases where a DUI offense is charged as a result of a traffic investigation, all elements supporting the investigating officer’s opinions and conclusions regarding the cause of the traffic collision will be documented in the collision investigation report (CHP 555, Traffic Collision Report).
True, The CHP 202 will contain a description and all elements necessary to support the charges filed which are not included in the CHP 555 (e.g., performance on field sobriety tests, chemical test results, arrest and booking information). The CHP 202 narrative should make reference to the corresponding CHP 555 and a copy of the CHP 555 should be attached to the corresponding CHP 202.
277
True/False - According to GO 100.39, CHP 202, Driving Under the Influence Arrest-Investigation Report, CHP 216, Arrest- Investigation Report, a CHP _________, Photographic Lineup Admonishment, should be used, when appropriate, for photographic lineups.
CHP 202H, Photographic Lineup Admonishment. If utilized, the CHP 202H shall be attached to and filed with the completed CHP 202 or CHP 216. Area commanders shall ensure that the photographic lineup is preserved in its original form. This shall be accomplished by either booking the photographic lineup as evidence (pursuant to HPM 70.1) or attaching the lineup to the original arrest investigation report. If a signed CHP 202H is obtained and no arrest is made, the CHP 202H and photographic lineup shall be submitted to the Area and retained in an established case file for three years.
278
Ride-alongs from private citizens without a specific need to observe (should not/shall not) be approved.
shall not
279
When do off-duty CHP officers need approval to ride-along with allied agencies?
When they are armed. Armed officers shall not participate in a voluntary off-duty ridealong with an allied a law-enforcement agency without first receiving written approval from their respective commander.
280
A CHP 428, Waiver of Liability, shall be signed by ________ prior to a ride-along.
all non CHP employees
281
True/False- Peace officers from allied agencies shall have approval from their commander prior to a CHP ride-along if they are to be armed.
True, this point shall be clarified before a ride-along is authorized
282
True/False -During a CHP ride-along, allied law-enforcement officers must be advised that the role as a ride-along participant shall be as an observer only, and that involvement in any situation shall be limited to that action essential to officer safety.
True
283
True/False - According to GO 100.43, Joint Operational Policy Statement Department Of Transportation/California Highway Patrol, it is the intent of both Departments that personnel at all levels work collaboratively, coordinate their efforts on behalf of the public, and cooperate in identifying and resolving mutual problems.
True
284
According to GO 100.43, Joint Operational Policy Statement Department Of Transportation/California Highway Patrol, the search for bombs on state highways is the responsibility of __________.
CHP
285
True/False - According to GO 100.44, Median Barrier Openings, highway median barrier openings will be provided by Caltrans upon request at those locations identified as essential for departmental operations.
True, except for emergency passageways in median barriers, median openings are not allowed on freeways.
286
According to GO 100.44, Median Barrier Openings, the use of median barrier openings shall be kept to a minimum and carefully located to provide good stopping sight distance to and from the opening along the freeway. Adequate stopping sight distance is approximately ____________ feet.
2,000
287
True/False - According to GO 100.44, Median Barrier Openings, emergency passageways may be appropriate for I will patrol vehicles and other emergency service vehicles such as tow trucks, ambulances, firefighting apparatus, and maintenance of equipment.
True
288
According to GO 100.44, Median Barrier Openings, the need for barrier openings/emergency passageways and their location shall be established by the Caltrans District incorporation with the local CHP Area office. Generally, median barrier opening shall not be located more frequently than approximately _________ mile intervals.
three
289
According to GO 100.44, Median Barrier Openings, narrow medians, those less than ____ feet in width, are usually equipped with concrete barriers. Openings for motorcycles within narrow mediums will be provided upon request. Passageways for large vehicles in narrow medians are provided only in rare instances.
36
290
According to GO 100.44, Median Barrier Openings, when the Area Commander becomes aware of a vital need for an emergency opening which is consistent with Caltrans criteria, he/she shall submit a proposal and justification to the ___________. Upon approval, theater commander may submit a formal request to the appropriate Caltrans District Director.
appropriate Division
| *Note - The Area Commander shall keep Division informed of the progress and final completion date.
291
According to GO 100.45, Assistance to Pedestrians and Occupants of Disabled Vehicles, Response Protocol, and Inspection of Unoccupied Vehicles, officers assigned to road patrol duties (should/shall) be aware of the Departments lawful and moral obligation to provide public assistance.
shall
292
Uniformed personnel operating enforcement vehicles while assigned to patrol duties (should/shall): (1) Stop to assist persons who are in apparent need regardless of geographical location. (2) Provide reasonable assistance (including transportation) to persons who express concern for their safety or have an obvious compelling need within the geographical area of the Department's primary responsibility.
shall
293
True/False - Road patrol officers shall take all reasonable steps to accommodate the transportation needs of persons who have expressed an immediate concern for their personal safety and who are in need of transportation assistance.
True
294
Officers performing patrol duty shall check all vehicles which appear to be unattended or disabled upon state highways (including freeways), unincorporated roadways, and other major traffic arteries within the geographical area of the Department's primary responsibility; as such vehicles may actually be occupied or disabled. Vehicles should be promptly removed from the freeway or roadway whenever _______.
authorized by law
295
Upon notification of vehicles off the roadway or vehicle collisions, officers shall practice due diligence to locate the vehicles by _____________.
conducting a thorough search of the area
296
True/False - Upon locating a vehicle that has been involved in a collision and is unoccupied, officers shall practice due diligence by conducting a thorough search of the area and ____________.
attempt to contact the registered owner of the vehicle to determine the whereabouts of the occupants of the vehicle.
297
True/False - According to GO 100.45, Assistance to Pedestrians and Occupants of Disabled Vehicles, Response Protocol, and Inspection of Unoccupied Vehicles, requests for assistance from outside the Department’s jurisdiction should be referred to the responsible agency.
True, this policy shall not preclude the Department from rendering assistance to individuals, when resources are available. If, for any reason, there will be an excessive delay in providing service, the applicable officer or field supervisor shall be notified by the Public Safety Dispatcher.
298
True/False - According to GO 100.45, Assistance to Pedestrians and Occupants of Disabled Vehicles, Response Protocol, and Inspection of Unoccupied Vehicles, Departmental personnel operating enforcement vehicles are not required to provide transportation when other forms of transportation are reasonably available, and based upon professional judgment there is no foreseeable danger to the person making the request.
True
299
True/False - According to GO 100.45, Assistance to Pedestrians and Occupants of Disabled Vehicles, Response Protocol, and Inspection of Unoccupied Vehicles, officers shall provide or summon assistance for pedestrians and occupants of disabled vehicles as necessary when a person appears to need help
True, officers shall take all reasonable steps to accommodate the transportation needs of persons who have expressed an immediate concern for their personal safety and who are actually in need of transportation assistance. (a) The most important consideration in providing such assistance is the immediate physical welfare of pedestrians, motorists, and the public, as well as the officer. (b) Officers shall use sound professional judgment to determine when assistance should be provided. Officers should not only rely on a request to determine if assistance is needed, but should also consider, among other things, the person's maturity, mental and physical condition, weather, and traffic conditions. (c) Officers shall transport or remain with occupants of disabled vehicles if they (the officers) believe a foreseeable danger exists, and no higher priority emergency requiring their attention exists.
300
True/False - According to GO 100.45, Assistance to Pedestrians and Occupants of Disabled Vehicles, Response Protocol, and Inspection of Unoccupied Vehicles, requests for transportation other than those provided within normal patrol activities should be referred to a supervisor.
True, determining whether transportation will be provided requires assessment of: (a) The person's compelling need. (b) Available alternatives. (c) The potential for hazard to the person if transportation is not provided. (d) Availability of Department personnel to provide service.
301
True/False - According to GO 100.45, Assistance to Pedestrians and Occupants of Disabled Vehicles, Response Protocol, and Inspection of Unoccupied Vehicles, when transportation assistance is not indicated for a pedestrian or occupant of a disabled vehicle or a higher priority emergency precludes providing them with immediate transportation assistance, officers shall warn them of any reasonably foreseeable hazards.
True
| *Note - Officers shall also inform them of precautions that may be taken to lessen their exposure to those hazards.
302
According to GO 100.45, Assistance to Pedestrians and Occupants of Disabled Vehicles, Response Protocol, and Inspection of Unoccupied Vehicles, when officers are delayed in providing assistance within departmental jurisdiction because of other duties, assistance should be coordinated with other service providers such as:
allied agencies, juvenile authorities, and public or private social service organizations
303
According to GO 100.45, Assistance to Pedestrians and Occupants of Disabled Vehicles, Response Protocol, and Inspection of Unoccupied Vehicles, when an officer receives a report of a vehicle off the roadway or vehicle collision, officers shall make every reasonable effort to locate the vehicle. In order to conduct a thorough search, officers should consider ___________________.
Recontacting the reporting party to obtain more specifics of the reported incident. Utilizing other resources (e.g., air support, canines, adjacent Area personnel, and search and rescue teams).
304
A CHP 422, Vehicle Check/Parking Warning/Highway Damage Report, (should/shall) be completed and attached to all unoccupied vehicles which appear to be abandoned, unlawfully parked, or disabled within the area of the Department's primary jurisdiction.
shall
*Note: If a vehicle is in a hazardous position, officers shall immediately move the vehicle to a safer location or store it.
305
According to GO 100.45, Assistance to Pedestrians and Occupants of Disabled Vehicles, Response Protocol, and Inspection of Unoccupied Vehicles, uniformed personnel operating enforcement vehicles but not assigned to patrol duties shall, using sound professional judgment, either ____________________________.
Stop and assist pedestrians or occupants of disabled vehicles OR ensure that the need for departmental assistance is relayed in a timely manner to the appropriate departmental personnel responsible for providing such assistance. In determining the appropriate course of action, factors to be considered include: (1) The degree of hazard to the pedestrian, motorist, or the public. (2) The frequency of beat coverage. (3) The nature of the uniformed officer's current assignment. (4) Accessibility of service providers to the pedestrian or motorist. (5) The availability of radio or emergency equipment in the vehicle.
306
True/False - According to GO 100.45, Assistance to Pedestrians and Occupants of Disabled Vehicles, Response Protocol, and Inspection of Unoccupied Vehicles, an available beat unit may be dispatched to an occupant of a disabled vehicle or pedestrian, on a highway/freeway with call boxes, when neither the person nor the disabled vehicle is in a hazardous location or foreseeable danger and a reliable tow service or other appropriate non-departmental service has been dispatched to the scene.
True
307
True/False - According to GO 100.45, Assistance to Pedestrians and Occupants of Disabled Vehicles, Response Protocol, and Inspection of Unoccupied Vehicles, nonuniformed employees driving marked vehicles or unmarked state vehicles with departmental radios who become aware of a pedestrian or a motorist in need of assistance shall ensure that the need is relayed to the appropriate departmental personnel having responsibility for providing or arranging such assistance.
True
*Note - Non-uniformed employees who drive marked vehicles or unmarked state vehicles with departmental radios shall be trained in procedures and protocols for using those radios.
308
True/False - According to GO 100.45, Assistance to Pedestrians and Occupants of Disabled Vehicles, Response Protocol, and Inspection of Unoccupied Vehicles, Area commanders should discuss these policies and procedures with allied law enforcement agencies and other service providers. Area commanders may enter into written agreements of understanding for the purpose of carrying out their intent.
True
309
According to GO 100.45, Assistance to Pedestrians and Occupants of Disabled Vehicles, Response Protocol, and Inspection of Unoccupied Vehicles, Area commanders shall _________________________________.
(1) Incorporate departmental and Area transportation policies and procedures into their standard operating procedures (SOP).
(2) Ensure that all employees under their command are familiar with the procedures required by this policy and the related Area SOP.
(3) Incorporate response protocol into their Area SOP based on the Area’s unique need, and coordinate with their dispatch/communication center.
(4) Notify the appropriate dispatch/communications center of Area procedures.
310
According to GO 100.46, Reporting of Highway Conditions, any actual or potential highway condition that may affect the safe and efficient flow of traffic (should/shall) be reported to the responsible highway authority by the most expeditious means.
shall
*Note - Personnel of this Department shall only report on existing hazards or potentially hazardous conditions. Personnel of this Department shall not publicly comment on conditions where proper analysis would require expertise in highway design and/or maintenance engineering.
311
According to GO 100.46, Reporting of Highway Conditions, Area commanders shall establish procedures for the immediate reporting of actual or potential highway conditions that may ____________.
affect the safe and efficient flow of traffic
312
According to GO 100.46, Reporting of Highway Conditions, notification procedures shall include an initial oral notice to ____________, followed by a brief memorandum. In areas that have a Transportation Management Center (TMC) responsible for monitoring an affected highway, notification should be made to the TMC through the communications center.
the appropriate agency
313
True/False - According to GO 100.46, Reporting of Highway Conditions, notification process shall also include a procedure for subsequent confirmation from the appropriate agency.
True, however, confirmation is unnecessary if the highway authority immediately responds to the scene while an officer is present and the arrival of highway personnel is recorded at the communications center or Area office.
314
According to GO 100.46, Reporting of Highway Conditions, Copies of this type of correspondence, including the commander’s memorandum pertaining to the situation, shall be sent to Division. Commanders are to request a response within _______ from the appropriate highway authority.
30 days
315
Any officer who observes a highway condition involving public safety that cannot be corrected with resources immediately available shall notify the _________- through the proper chain of command.
Area commander
*Note - Any significant obstruction or restriction to normal traffic flow, or significant changes in such conditions, shall be verbally reported as soon as possible. (b) All other conditions requiring examination shall be reported by a brief memorandum.
316
According to GO 100.46, Reporting of Highway Conditions, upon receipt of information relating to a significant obstruction or restriction to normal traffic flow on a major state route, the concerned commander shall:
(1) Report such condition by MIS Comm-Net message jointly to the Division, adjacent Division(s), and the Assistant Commissioner, Field.
(2) Contact should be established with Caltrans to report highway condition information for inclusion on the Caltrans Highway Information Network (CHIN) tape recording. (3) Commands are also responsible for contacting the communications centers with information on significant weather conditions and/or highway emergencies in the most expeditious manner possible.
317
According to GO 100.50, Explosive Security and Storage, permanent or long-term storage of explosive training aids is governed by the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms (BATF) regulations as outlined in what?
Organized Crime Control Act of 1970 (Title XI) and Section 12151 of the California Health and Safety Code (HSC)
*Note - additionally, Section 12151 HSC requires all explosives to be stored as specified in regulations (Title 19, California Code of Regulations [CCR], Chapter 10) adopted by the State Fire Marshal (SFM).
318
According to GO 100.50, Explosive Security and Storage, separation, packaging, and transportation of individual compounds shall be accomplished as outlined in Annex 5-A of HPM 70.7, Departmental Canine Program Manual. Training aids shall be stored in a Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms (BATF) approved __________ explosives magazine.
indoor or outdoor Type 2
319
According to GO 100.50, Explosive Security and Storage, there are two explosive magazines at the CHP Academy dedicated to the storage of high explosive compounds. The magazines have a Type 2 rating and are maintained by the Capitol Protection Section (CPS). Each magazine is rated for a maximum of _____ pounds of explosives. Only the OCP canine officers and the Special Weapons and Tactics breacher shall have access to the training aids. The remaining keys shall be kept sealed with the Protective Services Division commander.
250
*Note - For all other magazines, only canine officers and the canine supervisor or other supervisory personnel, as designated by the commander, shall have access to the secured training aids.
320
According to GO 100.50, Explosive Security and Storage, an explosive magazine entry log will be kept within the explosive magazine. Who shall ensure all personnel complete the necessary information on this log when entry is made into the magazine?
Commanders
*Note - Commanders shall be responsible for ensuring access logs and authorized personnel lists are current and on file at all times. Access logs shall be stored inside the explosives magazine and authorized personnel lists shall be stored in the Area command’s files.
321
According to GO 100.50, Explosive Security and Storage, initial and annual inspections of magazine storage locations to ensure compliance with state fire regulations, shall be accomplished utilizing the services of the State Fire Marshal's (SFM) office. Upon successful completion of the final magazine location inspection, the SFM should issue a ___________. Commanders shall ensure any new magazine locations are inspected by the SFM’s office and a ______________, to be filed at the magazine location and in the Area command’s files, is issued prior to use.
letter of compliance, letter of compliance
*Note - Commanders should request that the representative from the SFM’s office respond to inspect the proposed magazine storage location prior to installation. This will minimize complications associated with storing explosives on a semi-permanent basis. A representative of the local fire jurisdiction likely to respond to an incident should also participate in the inspection process. This will serve to alert the agency to the presence of explosive training aids at the facility as well as encourage interagency cooperation.
322
According to GO 100.50, Explosive Security and Storage, Commanders shall ensure that all magazines under their control are inspected by the canine supervisor at least every ________ days.
seven
*Note - This inspection need not be an inventory, but must be sufficient to determine whether there has been an unauthorized entry or attempted entry into the magazines, or unauthorized removal of the contents of the magazines.
323
According to GO 100.50, Explosive Security and Storage, the canine officer and canine supervisor shall ensure that training aids are secure in order to prevent accidental ingestion, damage, contamination, and/or loss of the compounds. Lost or stolen training aids shall be reported to the canine supervisor _______.
immediately
324
According to GO 100.50, Explosive Security and Storage, a __________ inspection shall include confirming the amount of explosives present and ensuring their structural integrity. Commanders shall ensure that the inventory report is forwarded to Investigative Services Section (ISS) as outlined in HPM 70.7.
quarterly
*Note - Training aids should be destroyed per Federal Bureau of Investigation training and Hazardous Device Detail (HDD) guidelines, and replaced as needed due to contamination or integrity loss. In the event a training aid is lost or damaged, the canine officer shall immediately notify the canine supervisor. The canine supervisor shall immediately notify the commander who will make proper notifications.
325
According to GO 100.50, Explosive Security and Storage, In the event of a discrepancy between the inventory log and the materials in the magazine, the canine supervisor shall immediately notify the commander. If the commander cannot resolve the discrepancy, the commander shall treat it as _______.
lost or stolen material
326
According to GO 100.50, Explosive Security and Storage, if the commander determines there is lost or stolen material, the commanders shall notify:
(1) their respective Division commanders who in turn shall notify ENTAC.
(2) the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms (BATF) is notified within 24 hours of discovery
(3) appropriate local authorities.
327
Assignment of one-officer units between 2200 to 2400 or 0400 to 0600 requires approval of the _________.
Division Chief
328
According to GO 100.61, Use of Mobile Video/Audio Recording Systems, the use of mobile video/audio recording systems (MVARS) videotapes has been demonstrated to be a valuable tool for law enforcement officers as evidence in the prosecution of violators, a defense against claims of officer misconduct, a deterrent to suspects who have a tendency to become violent, and as a training and self-evaluation device. The videotapes (will/will not) routinely be reviewed to generate monthly and/or annual employee performance evaluations.
will not
329
According to GO 100.61, Use of Mobile Video/Audio Recording Systems, all uniformed personnel who operate an enforcement vehicle equipped with a video camera shall video and audio recorded in their entirety the following enforcement actions:
(1) Enforcement contacts.
(2) Pursuits.
(3) Code 3 responses.
(4) Vehicle searches (excludes vehicle inventories).
* Note - During enforcement stops, pursuits, code 3 responses, and searches, uniformed personnel are expected to record an entire event or at least as much as their involvement will allow.
330
True/False - According to GO 100.61, Use of Mobile Video/Audio Recording Systems, all completed videotapes shall be kept in a secure location and/or maintained according to HPM 70.1, Evidence Manual, and the guidelines established in this GO.
True
331
According to GO 100.61, Use of Mobile Video/Audio Recording Systems, the MVARS will use six-hour videotapes which will be issued by a supervisor. Uniformed personnel (should/shall) use only videotapes provided by the Department.
shall
332
According to GO 100.61, Use of Mobile Video/Audio Recording Systems, prior to use, a videotape label shall be affixed to the spine of each videotape and shall contain the sequential videotape number (e.g., 001-99 would be the first videotape for calendar year 1999), ___________, _________, _____________ it was placed in the recorder. This information shall be completed in black or blue ink.
the patrol vehicle number, Area name/location code, and the date and time.
*Note - The same information as well as officer ID number shall be annotated on the Master Videotape In/Out Log.
333
True/False - According to GO 100.61, Use of Mobile Video/Audio Recording Systems, once a new videotape is inserted into the recorder, it is to remain in the recorder until 30 minutes or less of recording time remains or upon occurrence of a significant incident as required by local Standard Operating Procedures (SOP).
True
334
According to GO 100.61, Use of Mobile Video/Audio Recording Systems, at the start of a shift, a spare videotape and recorder vault key will be issued to each uniformed member assigned a patrol vehicle with a video camera. ___________ will be responsible for ensuring a videotape is replaced when there are 30 minutes or less of recording time remaining.
Uniformed personnel
*Note - If the videotape does not require replacement during the shift, the spare videotape issued at the start of shift, along with the recorder vault key, shall be returned to the shift supervisor at the end of the shift.
335
According to GO 100.61, Use of Mobile Video/Audio Recording Systems, Commands (should/shall) ensure procedures are placed in their SOP to identify and issue/return each wireless microphone/transmitter and track accountability for broken or lost microphone/transmitters.
shall
336
True/False - According to GO 100.61, Use of Mobile Video/Audio Recording Systems, the video camera should be zoomed back to its widest angle of view and positioned to record events. For night operation, the autofocus should be shut off.
True
337
According to GO 100.61, Use of Mobile Video/Audio Recording Systems, uniformed personnel will identify each new videotape upon initial use by entering a videotape identifier that will be superimposed on the videotape and displayed on the video monitor as follows
(1) The sequential videotape number (e.g., 001). The year need not be added since it is already included in the superimposed date.
(2) The patrol vehicle number (e.g., E123456).
(3) “CHP” followed by the three-digit Area location code (e.g., CHP265).
338
According to GO 100.61, Use of Mobile Video/Audio Recording Systems, Once the MVARS is activated, the audio shall also be activated and (should/shall) remain activated until the video is turned off. Once recording has begun, uniformed personnel are to ensure that there are no obvious obstructions to prohibit capturing an enforcement action on videotape (e.g., raising the hood of the patrol vehicle). Personnel shall ensure that no confidential information is discussed while the audio is activated.
shall
*Note - Uniformed personnel shall follow existing officer safety policies when conducting enforcement stops as outlined in HPM 70.6, Officer Safety Manual. Of particular importance, uniformed personnel are to ensure they do not position themselves or the violator between vehicles for the purpose of capturing the event on videotape.
339
According to GO 100.61, Use of Mobile Video/Audio Recording Systems, it is not necessary for employees to volunteer the fact that the enforcement contact is being videotaped. However, if asked, employees shall advise persons as to whether the MVARS is in the record mode. Uniformed personnel (are/are not) required to cease or initiate recording an event, situation, or circumstance solely at the demand of a citizen, involved party, or suspect.
are not
340
True/False - According to GO 100.61, Use of Mobile Video/Audio Recording Systems, uniformed personnel will be responsible for removing the videotape from the locked recorder vault. The date and time the videotape was removed will be annotated on the label affixed to the videotape spine. The completed videotape shall be turned in to the supervisor at the end of the shift, who will annotate the Master Videotape In/Out Log with the date and time the videotape was removed from the recorder.
True
341
According to GO 100.61, Use of Mobile Video/Audio Recording Systems, if a determination has been made not to retain the videotape as evidence for criminal or civil proceedings, the tapes shall be kept in a secure location for ____________.
12 months
* Note- At the end of 12 months, videotapes which are in good condition must be degaussed (demagnetized) prior to being used again. The degausser shall be kept by a supervisor, and only a supervisor or his/her designee shall degauss tapes for future use (up to five times).
342
According to GO 100.62, Verbal Notice of DMV Action By Peace Officer - DL310, if an officer stops a driver who is in violation of Section 12591(a) VC, the officer (should/shall) query CLETS to obtain the driver’s record and determine if his/her driving privilege has been suspended or revoked.
should
343
True/False According to GO 100.62, Verbal Notice of DMV Action By Peace Officer - DL310, if the driver’s record indicates that his/her driving privilege is suspended or revoked, and the record indicates that the driver has been notified (served), the appropriate enforcement action shall be taken in accordance with departmental policy and the vehicle may be impounded in accordance with departmental policy.
True
344
True/False - According to GO 100.62, Verbal Notice of DMV Action By Peace Officer - DL310, if the driver’s history record indicates that the driver has not been notified, the officer should complete the DL310 form, verbally notify the driver of the suspension, and issue a CHP 215 for violation of 12951(a) VC and the white copy of the DL310 to the driver and release the driver, if appropriate.
True
*Note - The officer should attempt to obtain the signature of the driver on the DL310; however, refusal to sign this form will not invalidate the notification process. The completed pink copy of the DL310 should be attached to the CHP 215 and turned in at the end of the shift. The canary copy should be retained with the officer’s green copy of the CHP 215
345
True/False - According to GO 100.63, Follow-Up Procedures - California Vehicle Code Section 12951 Violation, Area commanders shall establish, with the local district attorney(s) or the local court(s), complaint process procedures to upgrade a violation of Section 12951(a) VC to the appropriate VC section. Pursuant to departmental policy contained in Chapter 1 of HPM 100.9, Enforcement Documents Manual, a CHP 411, Notice of Correction and Proof of Service, shall be utilized.
False, a CHP 411, Notice of Correction and Proof of Service, shall not be utilized to upgrade an infraction to a misdemeanor. A citation issued for violation of Section 12951(a) VC should be upgraded to the appropriate VC section utilizing established complaint procedures.
346
True/False - According to GO 100.63, Follow-Up Procedures - California Vehicle Code Section 12951 Violation, in every instance where the arresting officer has recorded a violation of Section 12951(a) VC on a CHP 215, it is the responsibility of the Area commander to ensure departmental personnel contact DMV regarding the status of suspected violators.
True
347
True/False - According to GO 100.63, Follow-Up Procedures - California Vehicle Code Section 12951 Violation, during the complaint process procedures to upgrade a violation of Section 12951(a) VC to the appropriate VC section and the identifying information is insufficient to positively identify the person, the computer may provide a list of up to 15 possible matches. Each DL number should be run through CLETS until the person is identified.
True
348
According to GO 100.63, Follow-Up Procedures - California Vehicle Code Section 12951 Violation, if during the complaint process procedures to upgrade a violation of Section 12951(a) VC to the appropriate VC section and the person can not be identified through CLETS or the DMV’s database contains more than 15 possible matches, a request should be submitted by mail to DMV utilizing an _____________.
INF 252 form (Rev. 4/1997), Law Enforcement Request for Driver License/Identification Record Information
349
True/False - According to GO 100.64, Beat Descriptions, all high occupancy vehicle (HOV) lanes on freeways or expressways (excluding the on-ramps for HOV lanes) shall be assigned a separate beat number.
True
350
True/False - According to GO 100.64, Beat Descriptions, if a beat is assigned to a resident post, the entire beat must be so assigned.
True
351
True/False - According to GO 100.64, Beat Descriptions, beats numbered 1 through 798 shall be indicated primary if the roadway is identified as a primary roadway by the Area and its respective Division.
False, the beats are numbered 1 through 698.
352
According to GO 100.64, Beat Descriptions, beats shall be numbered dependent upon the needs of the Area. Beat numbers shall not exceed three digits. Numbers ________ shall not be used as the last two digits of any beat number. Except for the “specified beats,” no beat number shall exceed 698.
33, 36, and 99
353
True/False - According to GO 100.64, Beat Descriptions, Area commanders will provide a memorandum to __________ of explanation to accompany all beat descriptions submitted. Such a memorandum should explain what beats are being added, deleted, or revised and the reasons for such action.
Division
| *Note - It should also contain the name of a person who can be contacted regarding any s on the beat descriptions.
354
According to GO 100.64, Beat Descriptions, beat descriptions shall be reviewed annually. If changes are necessary, beat revisions shall be submitted to Division offices prior to _______ and shall be dated and become effective on January 1 of the following year.
October 1
355
According to GO 100.64, Beat Descriptions, beat revisions necessitated by addition, loss, or change in patrol responsibility shall be submitted to Division at least __________ prior to the date they are to become effective. They shall be effective upon the date of acquisition, loss or change, and only if approved by Assistant Commissioner, Field.
60 days
356
DMV has combined the DL412 (request for re-exam) and the (priority re-exam) into ___________.
the DMV DS-427 form
357
True/False - When issuing a DS-427 a citation required to be issued.
False, it is only required for priority re-exam.
358
True/False - In the case of a priority re-exam the driver is required to sign the form.
False, it should be requested but if they say no just write in refused to sign.
359
The primary mission of the CHP is the management and regulation of traffic to achieve _______, _________ and _________ use of the State Highway Transportation System.
safe, lawful, efficient
360
Section 2400 V.C. provides that the ______ shall enforce all laws regulating the operation of vehicles and the use of highways.
CHP Commissioner
361
Section 225 of the Streets and Highway Code provides that _____ may enact rules and regulations governing roadside rests/vista points and that the regulations may be enforced by employees authorized by ______ and all peace officers.
Caltrans, Caltrans
362
The Departments shall retain the underlying responsibility to ensure that general as well as traffic law enforcement, is provided in all areas under its jurisdiction, however the Department recognizes the concurrent authority and primary jurisdiction of _______________________________ upon freeways and freeway-related facilities
local law enforcement agencies
363
True/False - The Department shall provide traffic law enforcement services for all freewayrelated facilities. This includes park-and-ride lots, safety roadside rest areas and vista points.
True
| *does not include private park and ride lots
364
True/False - Private sector toll highways are required to contract with and reimburse the CHP for all traffic enforcement services.
True
365
In an effort to be more responsive to the needs of the public the Department made a toll free number available______________.
1-800-TELL-CHP
366
If a request for emergency medical and life saving transportation run is deemed not an emergency _________________.
the requester shall be advised and assisted in finding alternative transportation
367
When a blood relay involves another area, who is responsible for coordination of the relay to its conclusion?
The originating command.
368
The code to be used for the continuation of a blood relay is to be determined by ______________.
the accepting command
369
True/False - According to GO 100.74, Dealer Responsibilities and Violations, enforcement of the provisions of Vehicle Code Section 24007 (selling a new or used vehicle that is not in compliance with the Vehicle Code) shall be limited to investigation and prosecution on a criminal complaint basis.
True
*Note - The purpose of any investigation related to violations of section 24007 V.C. shall be to determine the validity of the allegation and establish facts necessary for the prosecution of dealers.
370
According to GO 100.74, Dealer Responsibilities and Violations, complaints against dealers alleging violations of Vehicle Code Sections 28050.5, 28051, and 28052, all of which relate to fraudulent odometer readings and the new motor vehicle warranties, shall be referred to the ______________________.
Investigations and Audit Division, Department of Motor Vehicles, *Note - The filing of administrative actions against automobile dealers' licenses for these violations is at the discretion of the DMV. A CHP 348, Initial Complaint of Dealer's Responsibility, shall not be completed for these allegations.
371
According to GO 100.74, Dealer Responsibilities and Violations, individuals who wish to file a complaint, for Vehicle Code Section 24007 (selling a new or used vehicle that is not in compliance with the Vehicle Code), at Area offices during business hours shall be provided assistance in completing the ___________________.
CHP 348, Initial Complaint of Dealer's Responsibility
*Note - Investigations shall not be initiated until the complainant completes and signs the
CHP 348
372
True/False - According to GO 100.74, Dealer Responsibilities and Violations, once a complaint has been filed alleging a violation of Vehicle Code Section 24007 (selling a new or used vehicle that is not in compliance with the Vehicle Code), in the complaint shall only be investigated after a dealer has refused to correct the alleged safety equipment defect(s) or when the seller refuses to install a required pollution control device.
True
373
True/False - According to GO 100.74, Dealer Responsibilities and Violations, complaints alleging a violation of Vehicle Code Section 24007 (selling a new or used vehicle that is not in compliance with the Vehicle Code), which involved vehicle sales between private parties, shall not be investigated except those involving pollution control devices.
True
*Note - Violations involving pollution control devices shall be investigated for possible prosecution against the seller, and to assist the buyer in applying for a transfer of registration within the statutory 10-day period.
374
According to GO 100.74, Dealer Responsibilities and Violations, complaints which allege dealer responsibility violations regarding vehicle safety equipment items, such as brakes or tires, shall be carefully screened prior to the investigation to ensure that ___________ would not prevent establishment of the corpus delecti.
vehicle mileage and/or elapsed time
*Note - Area commanders should contact their respective district Attorney offices and establish reasonable purchase elapse times and/or vehicle mileage operation criteria applicable to dealers responsibility violations.
375
True/False - According to GO 100.74, Dealer Responsibilities and Violations, once a complainant completes and signs a CHP 348, Initial Complaint of Dealer's Responsibility, the investigation shall be completed on a CHP 216.
True
376
According to GO 100.74, Dealer Responsibilities and Violations, once a complainant completes and signs a CHP 348, Initial Complaint of Dealer's Responsibility, and an investigation has been initiated the complaint may be terminated for which of the following reasons:
there are two ways to terminate an investigation, the complaint indicates no further interest in pursuing the complaint or the complaint is unavailable during investigation and a regional effort fails to establish contact with the complaint.
377
According to GO 100.74, Dealer Responsibilities and Violations, the CHP 216 shall include the results of the investigation, into Vehicle Code Section 24007 (selling a new or used vehicle that is not in compliance with the Vehicle Code), in a closing statement indicating the complain was:
the complaint findings are: founded, of a civil nature, terminated by the complainant, terminated by the unavailability of the complainant, or a substantiated violation. If the finding was substantiated violation the following must be indicated: a criminal complaint has been filed, or a criminal complaint was requested and subsequently denied by the City or District Attorney.
378
According to GO 100.76, Special Alert and/or Wanted Bulletins, When the Protective Services Division (PSD), Dignitary Protection Section (DPS), Threat Assessment Unit (TAU) identifies and individual who may pose a threat to a state official, staff member, or state facility, or has the potential to physically approach an official or staff in an inappropriate manner, TAU many distribute a __________ to CHP personnel, officials and if necessary, allied law enforcement agencies.
Special Alert Bulletin
*Note - Special Alert Bulletins shall not be displayed in public view, nor shall the contents of the bulletin be discussed with persons not directly involved in the investigation.
379
True/False - According to GO 100.76, Special Alert and/or Wanted Bulletins, Wanted Bulletins may be prepared and distributed to aid an Area command in developing information regarding a wanted individual, where an arrest warrant has been issued or a wanted vehicle is still outstanding. Wanted Bulletins may also be used to identify wanted vehicles involved in crime related incidents. Area personnel may prepare and distribute Wanted Bulletins to allied law enforcement agencies and to the public to solicit assistance in locating the person and/or vehicles.
True
380
True/False - According to GO 100.76, Special Alert and/or Wanted Bulletins, A Wanted Bulletin may only be disseminated upon approval of an Area sergeant.
False, a Wanted Bulletin may only be disseminated upon approval of the Area commander or designee
381
According to GO 100.76, Special Alert and/or Wanted Bulletins, Wanted Bulletin shall include the following information:
(1) A bulletin number beginning with the calendar year issued, CHP location code and followed by a sequential number, e.g. 00-252-001. The sequential number shall be assigned by the Area command.
(2) Name, address ,and physical description of the subject and a recent photo if available.
(3) List of warrant(s) and charge(s) for which the subject is wanted.
(4) Crime information: Narrative explaining the purpose of the bulletin and the conduct of the subject, and any officer safety issues that are applicable. Specific instructions if the subject is located (e.g., detain and notify the appropriate CHP Area).
(5) Name and telephone number of investigating officer.
(6) Expiration date or length of time the bulletin is to remain in effect.
382
According to GO 100.80 - Report of Unusual Occurrences, while determining if an unlisted event should be reported, the following should be considered:
(1) If the occurrence may reflect favorably or unfavorably upon the Department.
(2) If the circumstance may require administrative action at headquarters or direction by Executive Management.
(3) If the magnitude of the incident may necessitate the dissemination of information to allied agencies, governmental organizations, or news media.
383
According to GO 100.80 - Report of Unusual Occurrences, in the event a telephone notification is required after normal business hours (1700 to 0800 hours), on the weekend, or during holidays, the notifying Division shall contact the on-call designee for the appropriate Assistant Commissioner. In the event contact cannot be made to the affected Assistant Commissioner or on-call designee, contact ___________.
ENTAC
384
GO 100.82, CHP 302A - Field Interview Card and Electronic Field Interview System, establishes policy and procedures for all field personnel regarding the use of the Department’s CHP 302A - Field Interview card, the Electronic Field Interview System (Mobile Digital Computer [MDC] Field Interview [FI] System), and _______________.
Mask Menu Screen #111
385
According to GO 100.82, CHP 302A - Field Interview Card and Electronic Field Interview System, _______________ utilizing field interview cards and/or electronic databases shall develop standard operating procedures relative to their specific needs.
Divisions and Areas
386
According to GO 100.82, CHP 302A - Field Interview Card and Electronic Field Interview System, entries into the MDC FI screen or Mask Menu Screen #111 derived from CHP 302As shall include “302A” as the initial entry in the ____________ field.
Miscellaneous
387
True/False - According to GO 100.82, CHP 302A - Field Interview Card and Electronic Field Interview System, Field interview cards shall be maintained in a secure environment with access restricted to authorized personnel. Access to electronic databases shall be restricted to those authorized by the commander who have both a legal right and a need to know. This is to ensure the security and confidentiality of the information stored and to ensure the protection of the individual’s right to privacy.
True, information shall only be released on a right to know or need to know basis.
388
According to GO 100.82, CHP 302A - Field Interview Card and Electronic Field Interview System, field interview cards shall be stored and sorted by ____________. This would facilitate any necessary future research of the card and ensure timely purging of the files. Stored information concerning CHP 302A Field Interview Cards should be reviewed annually for reclassification or purged in order to ensure that the file is current, accurate, and relevant to the needs and objectives of the Department.
year, month, and day
389
According to GO 100.82, CHP 302A - Field Interview Card and Electronic Field Interview System, all information retained in a criminal intelligence file shall be maintained as such until the case is adjudicated (if applicable) or is no longer needed. Once the information is deemed as no longer needed, it shall be destroyed. There are two categories relating to the retention of gathered information:
Permanent Status and Temporary Status
390
True/False - According to GO 100.82, CHP 302A - Field Interview Card and Electronic Field Interview System, the separation of public information from criminal intelligence files can better protect the confidentiality of the criminal file. If a request is made for public records (e.g., subpoena, court order, etc.), an agency can release the public file and leave the intelligence file intact.
True
391
According to GO 100.83, Confidential Address Program, Government Code Section 6205 authorizes the Secretary of State to establish a Confidential Address Program ("Safe at Home") for victims of _____________.
domestic violence, sexual assault, and stalking
392
True/False - According to GO 100.83, Confidential Address Program, under the Confidential Address Program ("Safe at Home") individuals must complete an enrollment process at a designated domestic violence or victims assistance program facility and be certified by the Secretary of State.
True
393
According to GO 100.83, Confidential Address Program, one certified in the Confidential Address Program ("Safe at Home"), individuals will be issued a laminated authorization identity card containing ________________.
participant’s name, Safe at Home address, enrollment and expiration dates, signature, and four-digit authorization ID number.
394
According to GO 100.83, Confidential Address Program, California Highway Patrol personnel shall except in the Confidential Address Program ("Safe at Home") Card in response to request for their address. The substitute P.O. Box address must be excepted and used on whatever document/report is being completed. In addition to the address, the ____________ authorization identification number should be included on the document/report.
four-digit
*Note - Should personnel need to verify the status of a Safe at Home participant,The confidential address of a Safe at Home participant may be obtained by submitting a Law Enforcement Exemption Request form to the Secretary of State’s office. The form must state the bona fide administrative or statutory justification for requesting such information.
395
True/False - According to GO 100.83, Confidential Address Program, the street address on the back of a Confidential Address Program ("Safe at Home") participants authorization card can be used if a street address is required. The street address can also be used for mailing purposes.
False, the street address on the back of the participants authorization card can be used at if a street address is required; however, the street address can ONLY be used for NONMAILING purposes. When it is necessary to send correspondence to a Safe at Home participant, the correspondence must be sent to the P.O. Box address and the participants four-digit authorization identification number must be placed adjacent to the participants last name.
396
According to GO 100.84, Service of Search and Arrest Warrants Involving Entry into Residents, Businesses and Other Structures (Warrant Service Program), it is the policy of this Department that service of search and arrest warrants requiring entry into structures may be accomplished at the discretion of each _____________, based on his/her assessment of operational needs.
field Division commander
397
According to GO 100.84, Service of Search and Arrest Warrants Involving Entry into Residents, Businesses and Other Structures (Warrant Service Program), Area commanders or designee, with Division commander or designee approval, may authorize service of search and arrest warrants obtained as a result of investigations conducted by ____________________.
CHP Area personnel
398
True/False - According to GO 100.84, Service of Search and Arrest Warrants Involving Entry into Residents, Businesses and Other Structures (Warrant Service Program), All personnel engaged in warrant service activities shall comply with uniform requirements outlined in HPM 73.5, Uniform and Equipment Manual. The work uniform (tan) shall be the required uniform for all warrant service operations.
True, Exception: At the discretion and upon authorization of the Division commander, WST members may wear the departmentally approved blue utility (Rip Stop) uniform while engaged in WST activities, including training. When the blue utility uniform has been approved, every warrant service operation shall include at least one officer in a basic tan uniform to provide visible evidence of authority. An officer not a member of the WST may be utilized to meet this requirement. The wearing of undercover or plain clothes attire during warrant service operations is prohibited.
399
True/False - According to GO 100.84, Service of Search and Arrest Warrants Involving Entry into Residents, Businesses and Other Structures (Warrant Service Program), Area commanders are to ensure all personnel involved in warrant service activity receive departmentally approved warrant service training and that all Area personnel receive training in perimeter control responsibilities. Additionally, Area commanders shall provide their respective Divisions with all warrant service documentation
True
400
According to GO 100.84, Service of Search and Arrest Warrants Involving Entry into Residents, Businesses and Other Structures (Warrant Service Program), prior to service of a search or arrest warrant by Area personnel, a critical risk assessment must be completed in accordance with the GO. If any of the critical risk assessment criteria exists, the ____________ shall be utilized.
Division Warrant Service Team (WST)
*Note - In extreme circumstances, as outlined in the General Order, warrant service activity shall be referred to allied agency Special Weapons and Tactics Teams (SWAT).
401
According to GO 100.84, Service of Search and Arrest Warrants Involving Entry into Residents, Businesses and Other Structures (Warrant Service Program), Area commanders or designee shall evaluate all warrant service operations and complete a CHP 413, Warrant Service Report, following the operation. The warrant service report narrative shall include a summary, analysis and critique. When a warrant service operation meets the criteria of an unusual occurrence, a Comm-Net shall be prepared as required by GO 100.80. A completed CHP 413, Warrant Service Report, shall be submitted to the ISS WSP Coordinator within _____ days following the date of the warrant service operation.
30
402
True/False - According to GO 100.84, Service of Search and Arrest Warrants Involving Entry into Residents, Businesses and Other Structures (Warrant Service Program), all warrant service activity shall require a case number which will be obtained through FSS. When it is determined that a warrant will be served, it is the responsibility of the Area commander or designee to contact the WSP Coordinator in FSS to obtain a warrant service case number and ensure the case number is indicated on all documentation, prior to receipt in FSS.
True
403
According to GO 100.84, Service of Search and Arrest Warrants Involving Entry into Residents, Businesses and Other Structures (Warrant Service Program), All WST members shall attend mandatory training prior to team assignment and mission deployment. Training will be coordinated through ________. Proficiency must be demonstrated during initial training before certification as a team member is granted.
FSS
404
According to GO 100.84, Service of Search and Arrest Warrants Involving Entry into Residents, Businesses and Other Structures (Warrant Service Program), A minimum of one _________, per quarter, shall be utilized to provide training to WSTs..
eight-hour day
405
True/False - According to GO 100.85, Departmental Assistance to the Homeless, steps shall be taken to ensure all CHP officers are sensitive to homeless individuals unique needs. Further, officers are to be made aware of the types of assistance available to California’s homeless residents.
True
406
True/False - According to GO 100.85, Departmental Assistance to the Homeless, upon contacting a homeless person in need of assistance, officers typically refer to a list of available resources within the community and, if possible, either provide or arrange for transportation to the nearest homeless shelter.
True, However, officers should make every effort to determine that homeless persons do not pose a threat to public safety such as: carrying an illegal weapon, possessing narcotics, public intoxication, or having outstanding arrest warrants. If an existing warrant for arrest is confirmed, then officers are bound to duty to take the appropriate enforcement action.
407
According to GO 100.85, Departmental Assistance to the Homeless, Area commanders will be responsible for implementing standard operating procedures for the following:
a. Establish and maintain an Area jurisdictional list of telephone numbers and hours of operation for local shelters, agencies, and organizations that routinely provide assistance to the homeless.
b. Identify and maintain admittance criteria to all homeless shelters located within an Area’s jurisdiction.
c. Identify mechanisms of transportation available for use by homeless persons to nearby shelters and other agencies and organizations capable of providing health and human assistance.
d. Each quarter, verify all information relative to local homeless shelters and other assistance agencies and organizations and provide updated information to the assigned field Division and Communications Center serving the Area command.
e. Periodically disseminate the information to both uniformed and non-uniformed personnel within the Area during training days and daily field briefings.
408
According to GO 100.90, Deployment of Field Officers During Maximum Enforcement Periods, “deploy” means to:
place an officer in an enforcement role
409
According to GO 100.90, Deployment of Field Officers During Maximum Enforcement
Periods, “available officers” means every officer assigned to an Area, excluding officers in any of the following capacities:
(1) Annual pre-approved vacation
(2) Limited duty
(3) Injury status
(4) Military leave
(5) Administrative time off
(6) Bereavement leave
(7) Departmental mandated training
(8) Temporary assignment away from Area(9) Special duty
410
According to GO 100.90, Deployment of Field Officers During Maximum Enforcement Periods, “specified holidays” include:
(1) New Year’s Day
(2) Memorial Day
(3) Independence Day
(4) Labor Day
(5) Thanksgiving Day
(6) Christmas Day
411
According to GO 100.90, Deployment of Field Officers During Maximum Enforcement Periods, “Maximum Enforcement Periods” will coincide with the following holiday reporting periods as outlined in which HPM.
HPM 90.1, Public Affairs Manual
412
According to GO 100.90, Deployment of Field Officers During Maximum Enforcement
Periods, Area commanders are to determine which shifts during the Maximum Enforcement Period (MEP) significantly impact traffic safety within their jurisdiction and ensure deployment is maintained at ___% during those shifts. During the remaining shifts, Area commanders are to ensure deployment is maintained at no less than _____%.
80, 70
413
According to GO 100.91, Search and Seizure Policy, a ________ occurs when an expectation of privacy that society is prepared to consider reasonable is infringed; a _________ occurs when there is some meaningful interference with an individual’s possessory interest in that property; a __________ occurs when a peace officer physically applies force, or when a person voluntarily submits to a peace officer’s authority.
search, seizure of property, seizure of a person
414
According to GO 100.91, Search and Seizure Policy, a search is defined as:
The physical intrusion into one’s person or property to seek potential evidence or contraband that may be concealed. Merely looking at that which is open to view is not a search.
415
According to GO 100.91, Search and Seizure Policy, uniformed employees (may/shall not) request consent from an individual absent reasonable suspicion or probable cause.
shall not
*This does not preclude an officer from requesting consent when circumstances establish a threat to officer safety (i.e. Terry patdown).
416
According to GO 100.91, Search and Seizure Policy, the _________ Amendment assures the right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects against unreasonable searches and seizures which shall not be violated. No warrants shall be issued, except upon probable cause, supported by oath or affirmation, describing the place to be searched, and the persons or things to be seized.
Fourth
417
According to GO 100.91, Search and Seizure Policy, an individual may waive his/her Fourth Amendment right by permitting a law enforcement officer the ability to conduct a ________ search of his/her person, house, papers, and effects (including a vehicle). Therefore, a consent search is a lawful procedure utilized by law enforcement officers.
warrantless
418
According to GO 100.91, Search and Seizure Policy, in order for a consent search to be lawful, the following requirements must be met:
(a) Consent must be granted freely and voluntarily.
(b) The person granting consent must have “standing” over the items to be searched.(c) The scope or limitation of the search must be defined and cannot be exceeded by the officer.
(d) The person granting consent has the right and the ability to withdraw consent at any time.
419
According to GO 100.91, Search and Seizure Policy, a CHP 202D shall be completed for _______________, whether or not a search was conducted.
all requests for investigatory consent searches
420
True/False - According to GO 100.92, Misuse of the 911 Emergency Reporting Telephone System, effective January 1, 2005, Penal Code Section 653(y) authorizes law enforcement agencies to issue warning letters OR citations for non-emergency use of the 911 telephone system.
True
421
According to GO 100.92, Misuse of the 911 Emergency Reporting Telephone System, valid emergency calls for which the 911 system is intended include, but are not limited to, reporting the following:
(1) Highway accidents.
(2) Intoxicated, reckless or other erratic drivers.
(3) Traffic hazards (hazardous material spills, roadway blockage, wires down, spilled loads, etc.).
(4) Crimes in progress
(5) Concerns for personal safety
(6) Any incident that requires an officer to respond.
422
According to GO 100.92, Misuse of the 911 Emergency Reporting Telephone System, examples of the misuse of the 911 system are as follows:
(1) Asking for directions.
(2) Checking the time.
(3) Checking to see if their telephone is functioning.
(4) Other calls of a harassing nature.
423
According to GO 100.92, Misuse of the 911 Emergency Reporting Telephone System, upon receiving a misused 911 call with sufficient information to allow follow-up (at a minimum a telephone number), the public safety dispatcher shall document the information using the Computer Aided Dispatch (CAD) system. The information shall be forwarded to the ___________, along with a printout of the corresponding CAD log.
public safety dispatcher’s supervisor
424
According to GO 100.92, Misuse of the 911 Emergency Reporting Telephone System, once a public safety dispatcher supervisor receives information, regarding misuse of the 911 system, the public safety dispatch supervisor will review and forward the information to the commander of the host Area for the dispatch center to assign to ________ personnel for follow-up investigations.
uniformed
425
According to GO 100.92, Misuse of the 911 Emergency Reporting Telephone System, once the communications center commander, receives information, regarding misuse of the 911 system, he/she who may either:
(1) Assign follow-up investigations to uniformed personnel, or
(2) If no uniformed personnel are assigned to the communications center, forward this information to their Division Investigative Services Unit for follow-up investigations.
426
True/False - According to GO 100.92, Misuse of the 911 Emergency Reporting Telephone System, for the first or second violation misusing the 911 system, a written warning should be sent by mail within 10 days to the violator. For a third or subsequent violation, a citation may be issued to the violator.
True, a local tracking system shall be established and updated to reflect the corrective action for each incident of misuse of the 911 system for which follow-up investigations are possible.
427
True/False - According to GO 100.93, Withhold of Enforcement, a "Withhold of Enforcement" is a directive by the Commissioner to enforcement personnel to modify existing enforcement procedures and is not a circumvention or a nullification of existing statutes or regulations.
True
428
According to GO 100.93, Withhold of Enforcement, the CHP will consider a Withhold of Enforcement only when one or more of the following conditions exists:
1. Statutory authority, e.g., Vehicle Code Section 34501.2(c)(2).
2. Regulatory authority, e.g., Title 13, California Code of Regulations, Section 1202(e).
3. Court order or case law permitting or mandating such action.
429
According to GO 100.93, Withhold of Enforcement, Area/Division Commanders who wish to request a Withhold of Enforcement shall submit to the Commissioner through channels a memorandum that contains the following headings/information:
1. Proposed Withhold
2. Background
3. Justification
4. Authority to Issue Withhold
5. Consequences of Not Approving Withhold
430
The following Government agencies received T/C reports at no charge:
1) Peace officers in the performance of their official duties.
2) Coroner or his/her deputies (fatal collisions only).
3) District Attorney or Deputy District Attorneys.
4) Irrigation and municipal utility districts for collisions involving their vehicles or property.
5) Public defenders or public or quasi-public offices organized to provide free legal services to indigent persons.
6) Grand juries - limited to the investigation(s) within their respective counties.
7) County officers in charge of county highways. Information released shall be restricted to reports of collisions occurring at locations within their respective jurisdictions.
8) Public school districts for collisions involving their vehicles or property.
9) A county exercising rights to recover from third parties under Government Code Section 23004.1 (recovery of hospital, medical, etc., provided at the county’s expense), if authorized by the patient.
10) Public agencies exercising their rights to recover expenses for emergency responses under Government Code Section 53150 (a person under the influence or person(s) whose intentional wrongful conduct results in emergency response creating liability for expense of response).
431
Authority for release of accident reports in contained in ___________.
20012 V.C.
432
True/False – According to GO 110.2, Release of Collision Information, government agencies may receive a copy of a traffic collision report free of charge when the public agency is exercising their right to recover expenses for emergency responses under Government Code 53150 (a person under the influence or person(s) whose intentional wrongful conduct results in emergency response creating liability for expense of response).
True
433
True/False - Completed CHP 190’s request for accident report are for Departmental purposes only.
True
434
True/False - Before releasing any collision report, departmental employees shall make a reasonable determination that the person requesting the report is a person who has proper interest or represents a person with proper interest.
True
435
Responses to inquires made by telephone, written or in person, should be handled within _________.
48 hours
436
Discussions between patrol members and parties interested in a collision investigation shall be scheduled by:
Immediate Commander
437
Discussions in an AI interview (should/shall) be scheduled during the investigating officer’s duty hours for a ________.
shall
| 15-20 minute period
438
True/False - A citizen requests an AI interview with an employee and wishes to record the interview. Per policy parties shall not be allowed to record these interviews.
True
439
True/False - A party of interest may review a report in its entirety without charge.
True
440
True/False - Privately-owned copying machines may not be used to make copies of accident reports.
True
441
A motor vehicle traffic death is defined as a death which occurs _____ days or less after the collision
30
442
True/False - Area Commanders shall report motor vehicle deaths occurring on incorporated / unincorporated / private property daily.
True
443
True/False - According to GO 110.8, Photographs for Accident and Investigations, photographs may be loaned without charge to federal agencies, state departments, political subdivisions of the state, various news media, traffic safety groups, service clubs, and other interested organizations when such loan will be of assistance to the governmental agency or will further safety education efforts of the Department provided the evidence value of the photographs for possible court action is not jeopardized.
True
444
True/False - According to GO 110.8, Photographs for Accident and Investigations, the sale, loan, or gift of any accident photograph, except as provided for in the GO and without prior approval from Headquarters, is considered to be incompatible with departmental policy and constitutes grounds for adverse action as outlined in Internal Investigation Manual, HPM 10.2.
True
445
Area Commanders shall report all deaths in custody to the _______________ within 10 days after the death.
Attorney General
446
True/False - A heart attack during a traffic stop would constitute an "in-custody death."
True
447
Commanders shall establish Area policy to develop __________ security/welfare checks at the district office of each state elected official. Officers who perform security/welfare checks shall document that activity on the Daily Field Record, CHP 415.
monthly
448
Per the Key Contact Program, Commanders shall meet with assigned elected officials once a _______.
quarter
449
The ___________Chief is the Department’s appointed Merit Award Administrator.
Administrative Services Division (ASD)
450
True/False - The Associate Analyst in Administrative Services Division (ASD) coordinates the program.
True
451
The Commissioner is authorized to provide monetary awards up to $_________.
5,000
452
Employees appointed to Career Executive Assignments (CEA), or Exempt classifications with a collective bargaining designation of ___________ are not eligible for the Merit Award Employee Suggestion Program.
"managerial"
453
If a verbal suggestion to a supervisor was implemented and it can be proven it was because of your suggestion that the safety feature or procedure was implemented you have how long to submit a STD 645.
six months
454
A cash award, not to exceed ______ % of the savings may be paid to the suggester.
20
455
Awards of more than _______ require legislative approval and may never be more than ______.
$5,000, $50,000
456
True/False - Before an award is granted for an adopted suggestion, the suggestion must be implemented.
True
457
Does the Dept. have a Mentor Program?
Yes
458
True/False - Per the CHP Mentor Program are employees allowed time off to mentor.
True, but only after they have volunteered 40 hours off duty or by using vacation, annual leave or CTO credits within a calendar year in order for them to be able to get mentoring leave (40 hours per year) to be used to mentor during work hours. Mentor Leave cannot be used for travel to and from and must be requested and used before that calendar year.
459
Are employees involved in the mentoring program required to report time spent.
Yes, on a CHP Mentor Program Quarterly Report, turned in to the Division Mentor coordinator.
460
What is its purpose of the Mentor Program?
For the Dept. to support the Governor’s efforts by providing departmental employees volunteer opportunities with a “bona fide mentoring organization” (at risk youth).
461
Who manages the Governor’s security?
A new position was created, The Chief of Governor’s Security, who reports directly to the Commissioner or one of his executive officers.
462
Regarding PBOR legislation, how long does the public agency have to notify the employee of the imposed discipline?
within 30 days after the decision and has to include the date the discipline will be imposed, unless the employee is unavailable for discipline.
463
Regarding PBOR legislation, commander must ensure that an investigation is completed within __________________.
Regarding PBOR legislation, commander must ensure that an investigation is completed within one year (except for above exceptions), noticed re discipline and date within 30 days. ***what are the exceptions?***
464
Regarding PBOR legislation and investigations, Are the exceptions to the one year time frame?
Yes, (1) If the act, omission, misconduct, etc. is also the subject of a criminal investigation or criminal prosecution is still pending. (2) If the public safety officer waives the one year time period in writing. (3) If the investigation involves multi-jurisdictional investigation that requires a reasonable extension for coordination of the involved agencies. (4) If the investigation involves more that one employee and requires a reasonable extension. (5) If the investigation involves an employee that is incapacitated or otherwise unavailable. (6) If the investigation involves a matter in civil litigation where the public safety officer is named as a party defendant, the one year period shall be tolled while that civil action is pending. (7) If the investigation involves a matter in criminal litigation where the complainant is a criminal defendant the one year time frame is tolled during the period of that defendants criminal investigation and prosecution. (8) If the investigation involves an allegation of worker’s compensation fraud. (9) The one year time period can also be waived if new evidence is discovered that is likely to affect the outcome of the investigation (and could not have otherwise been reasonably discovered in the normal course of the investigation) OR the evidence resulted from the employees pre-disciplinary response or procedure.
465
Regarding PBOR legislation, what is the time frame to complete punitive action?
One year from the time the conduct was discovered by a person authorized to initiate an investigation of the allegation, act, omission, or other misconduct.
466
Who is responsible for material management functions regarding new badges and cap pieces, initiation of processing of purchase contracts, quality control, repairs, rank ribbon changes, and issuance of temporary badges?
Administrative Services Division, Business Services Section
467
What is the Dept’s 2000 Command Management Plan?
Reducing the MDR to 1.19, Improving Internal services (Recruitment), and Improving External Service (Congestion Relief, Accident Investigation, Commercial Enforcement, Community Outreach) REVISE!!!!!
468
The requirement for reporting the Dept’s 2000 Command Management Plan are?
Quarterly reports that summarize the highlights of the activities and results.
469
Per Assembly Bill 1127, Employee Safety Violations, the absence of an Injury and Illness Prevention Program (IIPP) is a violation.
Yes
470
Per Assembly Bill 1127, Employee Safety Violations, are state agencies exempt from safety violation penalties in the work place?
No, clarify
471
Assembly Bill 1127, Employee Safety Violations, increased the penalty for violations to what?
$25,000 for a serious violation to be levied against the Department, clarify
472
Who is now required to attend TAIT I (Techniques of Accident Investigation Training per the Department’s in-service accident investigation program?
All officers and Sergeants.
473
Who completes the career development plans for first line supervisors and what criteria are used?
Commanders complete using the 12-dimension criteria formerly used during the assessment center and include both strengths and developmental areas for the employees. Need to be completed prior to the end of their 1st probationary year.
474
True/False - Career development plans are required to be completed for first line supervisors
True
475
What are the 12-dimensions in the career development plans for first line supervisors?
Positive Influence, Planning and Organization Skills, Written Communication Skills, Initiative, Judgment, Flexibility, Sensitivity, Decision making Skills, Organizational Sensitivity, Verbal Comm. Skills, Problem Analysis, Performance Under Stress.
476
What is the policy concerning the Congestion Relief Strategies (re. Investigating officers and FSP)?
Officers are to coordinate with FSP tow drivers for the expeditious removal of vehicles involved in PDO type traffic collisions from the freeway lanes and/or shoulders to a location immediately off of the freeway/adjacent surface street.
477
Prior to leaving the scene, what are officers required to do re. congestion relief and use of
FSP?
Call a rotation tow and indicate a new or correct location. Transport motorists/passengers to the off freeway location by FSP and/or CHP to remain with their vehicle. ONLY CHP may determine the sobriety of the driver of vehicles that are to be pushed off of the freeway. Officers shall determine if there is any safety concerns at the off freeway location. If the driver wants to leave their vehicle at the off freeway location, officer shall advise them of the possibility of vandalism, theft, and parking restrictions.
478
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the CAHP has the right to represent its members before the state regarding:
wages, hours, and other terms and conditions of employment
479
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the CAHP also has the right to receive timely ______ notice of changes to, or adoption of, any rule or regulation directly relating to wages, hours, and other terms and conditions of employment.
written
480
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, if a request is made by the CAHP Area Representative to make changes in the current practice of scheduling shifts and days off, the Commander shall ______________.
meet and confer to discuss the requested changes
481
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, an authorized CAHP Representative refers to a CHP Officer designated as a (an) ____________.
CAHP Director, Defense Representative, Area Representative, Alternate Area Representative or paid staff member
482
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, a CAHP Representative’s “area of primary responsibility” shall be ___________.
the Division, Area, Section or Bureau which is the employee’s assigned work location
483
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, Directors, paid staff, and defense representatives may be called to represent members statewide.
True, however if outside the CAHP Representative’s area of primary responsibility, shall not be on State time except as otherwise noted by this agreement.
484
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, there shall be no more than one Area Representative and one Alternate Area Representative per work location.
True
485
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, a CAHP Representative desiring access to a work location must state the purpose and request approval from the Area Commander or his/her representative ___________.
within a reasonable amount of time prior to the intended visit
486
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the Area Commander or his/her representative may restrict access for reasons of ______________.
safety, security, or operational needs
487
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the CAHP agrees that its representative will not interfere with Department operations.
True
488
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, CAHP Representatives shall have access to employees to represent them. If a requested visit is denied, or access is restricted, other reasonable accommodations (should/shall) be made.
shall
489
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, an employee designated as an authorized CAHP Representative must obtain permission from his/her _______________ to engage, during duty hours, in business relating to this agreement.
immediate supervisor
*Note - in no instance shall the designee be a CAHP Representative. Permission to engage in such activity shall be granted promptly unless such absence would interfere with efficient operations. If permission is denied, an alternate time will be designated.
490
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, a CAHP Representative shall be allowed up to ________ hours of release time to assist an employee with a grievance or complaint at each level of the grievance/complaint procedure.
four
*Note - Provided it is in the CAHP Representatives designated area primary responsibility. This time may be extended with approval of the commander of Office of Employee Relations.
491
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, a grievant or a CAHP Representative may be allowed up to _______ hours of release time to assist the CAHP in preparing for arbitration.
eight
*Note - In no event will more than one individual be provided released time per arbitration. This time may be extended with approval of the commander of Office of Employee Relations.
492
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, a CAHP Representative may be allowed up to ______ hours of release time to review an Adverse Action file and to assist the employee in preparation and presentation of the "Skelly" response.
four
*Note - Provided it is in the CAHP Representatives designated area primary responsibility. This time may be extended with approval of the commander of Office of Employee Relations.
493
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, CAHP Representative shall be allowed released time to assist the employee during an Adverse Action interrogation. If representation is provided as a result of an internal investigation at a time other than the CAHP Representative's regularly scheduled shift, the regularly scheduled shift for the CAHP Representative (shall/shall not) be adjusted for the time actually spent in the representation.
shall
494
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, if representation is provided as a result of an internal investigation and is outside of the CAHP Representative’s area of primary responsibility, the only release time allowed will be __________.
the actual time spent in the interview
| *Note - Exceptions to this provision require approval from the commander of Office of Employee Relations.
495
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, employees on reimbursable paid leave shall waive any and all claims against the state for worker’s compensation and industrial disability leave.
True
496
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, employees using release time shall report such time on a _________.
CHP 610
497
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, employees shall be entitled to reasonable time off without loss of compensation to confer with a representative of the CAHP on representational matters at the work site, relating to grievance/complaint, arbitration, Skelly response, adverse action interrogation, during work hours. This is subject to the approval of _____________.
the employee's supervisor
498
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, with an employee’s written consent, an authorized CAHP Representative shall be permitted, upon request, to inspect the employee’s official Departmental personnel file during normal business hours.
True, such review shall not interfere with the normal business of the department. Other existing rules relating to personnel folders shall remain in effect.
499
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the CAHP may use existing employee organization bulletin boards to post information or materials concerning ___________________.
(1) Notices and results of any official Association Committee or Board of Director’s Meeting.
(2) Notices of association elections and their results.
(3) Notice of association recreational and social events.
(4) Notice of other official Association business.
500
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, any materials posted shall be _______________ and a copy provided to ________ at the time of posting.
initialed and dated, the Commander or his/her designee
*Note - the CAHP agrees that any material posted or distributed at work location will not be obscene, libelous, defamatory, or of a partisan political nature.
501
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the CAHP may distribute CAHP literature before or after work hours or ________.
during meal periods in areas which work is not being conducted
502
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the Department will permit CAHP to use State facilities for membership meetings and conferences, upon reasonable advanced notification.
True
503
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, CAHP Representatives shall have access without cost to State telephones.
True, however the use of state telephones shall not result in toll charges.
504
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, one CAHP representative at each Area office will be allowed ______ hour(s) of time released from duty to distribute and discuss the MOU. This time may be used in ________ hour increments __________ each quarter.
4 hours, ½ hour increments, twice each quarter
505
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the _____________ is used to process and resolve grievances under this agreement.
grievance procedure
506
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the purpose of the grievance procedure is to ____________________.
resolve grievances at the lowest possible level and to provide an orderly procedure for reviewing and resolving grievances promptly
507
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, a grievance is defined as ___________________.
a dispute of one or more employees, or a dispute between the State and CAHP involving the interpretation, application, or enforcement of the express terms of this Agreement
508
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the term "immediate supervisor" means:
the individual identified by the appointing authority who are signs, reviews and directs the work of an employee.
509
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the parties may mutually agree to waive any step of the grievance procedure.
True
510
According to the Memorandum of Understanding (Unit 5), a ___________ is a dispute of one or more employees or a dispute between the CAHP and the Department involving the application or interpretation of an existing written rule or policy. This procedure does not cover merit-related issues.
complaint
511
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the hourly rate shall be calculated using a Conversion Monthly Divisor of _______, which is the equivalent of a _____ hour work week, or _______ hour work period of 28 days.
184.17, 42½, 170
512
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, FTO differential of 5% of the daily rate of base pay per shift applies when an FTO is ________ training.
formally
513
Swing shift (pay differential) is ____ or more hour(s) of the regularly scheduled work shift between _______ and _____________.
4, 1800, 0100
514
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, to qualify for a swing shift differential ($1.00/hr.), the employee must work ____ or more hours of a regularly scheduled work shift between _____ and _____.
4, 1800 hrs, 0100 hrs
515
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, to qualify for a graveyard shift differential($1.50/hr.), the employee must work ___ hours or more of a regularly scheduled work shift between ____ and _____.
4, 2300 hrs, 0600 hrs
516
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, to receive an OIC differential the officer must perform OIC duties ____ hours or more during a shift.
6
517
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, a work period is a regular and recurring _____ consecutive-day period for CHP Officers.
28
518
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, business telephone calls outside the employees work hours of less than _____ minutes duration shall receive $10 compensation. The employee is limited to this benefit _____ time(s) per day.
30 minutes, 1
519
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, an employee’s work period starts __________ and ends _________.
at the employee’s shift start time and ends 28 consecutive 24-hour periods later
520
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, business calls longer than _________ are credited as overtime.
30 minutes
521
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the workday for an employee shall start at _________ and end _________.
the beginning of the employee’s shift and end 24 hours later
522
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, overtime is authorized time worked in excess of ____________.
8½ hours per work day or order work on scheduled days off
523
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, employees will be required to expend one hour of vacation or CTO that is not worked by employees when standard Time changes to daylight savings time.
False, no charge for time off is made (e.g. the employee still claims an 8 hour day but only worked 7 hours)
524
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, overtime is credited for the additional hour worked by employees when daylight savings time reverts to standard time.
True
525
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, officers whose total work hours exceed 171 hours in a 28 day work period (except admin. positions) are assigned to Work Week Group (WWG) _____.
2
526
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, overtime is credited in ____________________.
¼ hour increments with a full quarter hour credited if half or more of the period is worked
527
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the paid overtime rate is ____________ the hourly equivalent of the employee’s total monthly compensation, ____________.
1½, including specialty pay
528
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, When is CTO required?
While in travel status is not connected with enforcement duties, such as travel to or from the Academy or other schools for the purpose of training.
529
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, employee CTO balances shall not exceed _____ hours.
480
530
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, CTO may be used only in units of ____________.
¼ hour or multiples thereof
531
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, CTO earned must be used within 12 months
False, there is no time limit; however, the time when CTO may be taken shall be at the discretion of the employee's commander.
532
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, when an employee is called back for overtime other than prescheduled voluntary overtime, and an additional trip to the work location is required, the employee will be compensated, up to a maximum of __________, for travel time.
one and one-half hours each way
*Note - An employee shall not be subject to this limit when he/she is required to attend court in an Area other than where he/she is currently assigned.
533
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, if an employee who has completed a normal work shift and is called back to work, without having been notified prior to completion of the work shift, they shall be credited with ______________
a minimum of four hours work time
534
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, an employee who has completed a normal work shift and has received notification of a call back prior to completion of their work shift, they shall be credited with a minimum of four hours work time if the work begins more than _________________.
three hours after the completion of the work shift
535
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, when an employee is called back within four hours of the beginning of a previous call or an additional call is received while still working on earlier call, the employee shall not receive an additional four hours credit.
True
536
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, if an employee is on an authorized day off, when order back to work, they shall be credited with __________.
a minimum of four hours work time
537
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, call back overtime which extends beyond the four hour callback shall be credited in _____.
units of ¼ hour increments
538
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, if an employee is called back to work, completes the callback situation, and returned to his/her home only to be called out again, more than four hours after receiving the first call, he/she is entitled to an additional four hour of callback time.
True
539
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, callback due to court appearances shall be limited to one four hour call back period. If an employee is scheduled for two court appearances in one day, call back time shall be credited from the beginning of the first appearance through the completion of the second; except that when a second appearance in more than _______ hours from the end of the first appearance, a minimum of four hours credit for each appearance shall be given.
six
540
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, when an employee is called back within four hours of the beginning of the next shift, 4 hours callback credit shall be received.
False, they are paid only for the hours remaining before the next shift.
541
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, when there are ______ hours or less between the end of the shift and the time an employee must leave from the office for a court appearance, an employee shall receive overtime for the intervening period. Employee is entitled to and shall receive overtime whether or not he/she works during the interval.
three
*Note - Departmental policy provides that the employee may be scheduled to work during this period. If the employee is not scheduled to work and he/she chooses to leave the work site, time for travel and appearance will still be computed based upon departure from the office.
542
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, an employee who is required to appear in court while on leave of absence without pay or suspension does not receive salary payment for the court appearance and does not accumulate call back time or overtime for such appearance.
True.
543
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, an employee should not normally be called back to duty while an injury status. If an employee called to court while on injury status he/she will be compensated with _______.
regular time
544
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, employees who must make court appearances while on military leave, including routine annual leave of 30 calendar days or less, (is/is not) entitled to callback time or overtime for such appearance.
is not
*Note - Regular salary payment is made only to the extent that the employee is eligible for payment for the first 30 calendar days of active duty.
545
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, employees shall not normally be called back to work from a scheduled vacation. In the event an employee is required to appear in court during a scheduled vacation and the court appearance is _______________, employee shall be compensated in accordance with callback provisions of this section
outside the employee's normal scheduled shift
546
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, work schedule shall not be adjusted to accommodate an employee's court appearance on either a criminal or civil matter simply to minimize overtime earnings. However, in a situation where an employee will be too fatigue following a court appearance to work his/her schedule shift a supervisor may determine a change of schedule is appropriate in this type of situation to protect the employee from the possible consequent of being overly fatigue.
True
547
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, when an employee has completed a normal shift or is on an authorized day off, and is required to testify telephonically in response to a subpoena issued by the Department of Motor Vehicles, he/she shall be credited with _____________.
two hours of overtime
*Note - If the employee elects to respond in person to the assigned work location, the employee shall be compensated in accordance with four hours of overtime. Additionally, if an employee expends more than two hours of preparation and telephonic testimony, the employee shall receive overtime for the actual time worked.
548
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, short Notice cancellations (less than 24 hours) of court appearances or reimbursable contracts entitle employees to ________.
$50
549
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, employees who are on standby and can respond to work within one and one-half hours shall be compensated at the rate of _________________.
one hour of pay or CTO for each 4-hour period of standby
550
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, full time employees are eligible to receive a total of ________ hours of holiday-in-lieu credit each calendar year.
164
551
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, employees assigned to administrative positions shall be required to expend holiday-in-lieu credits on the day the holiday occurs.
True, unless the employee is directed to work on the holiday.
552
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the maximum vacation leave credits for an employee is ___ hours.
816
553
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the maximum sick leave credits for an employee is ______ hours.
no limit
554
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, sick leave verification may be required after the ______ consecutive day of sick leave usage.
2nd
555
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, family sick leave is limited to _______ per fiscal year.
48 Hours
556
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the Department may require a doctor's certificate or other verification of illness for every sick leave absence, regardless of length.
True, if it appears that sick leave is being used improperly and discussion with employee has shown no positive results.
557
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, sick leave is used in _________ increments.
½ hour
558
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the maximum annual leave credits for an employee is ___ hours.
816
559
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, bereavement leave shall be authorized for up to _____ eight hour days in a fiscal year.
3 *eight-hour days; 3 days per occurrence for immediate family or same residence, nolimit on occurrences per year; only one occurrence per year authorized for extended family
560
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, _____ additional days of bereavement leave is authorized if the employee is required to travel over _____ miles one-way.
2 days, 400 miles
561
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, a Department head or his/her designee shall grant a permanent female employee’s request for unpaid leave of absence for purposes of pregnancy, childbirth, recovery there from, or care for the newborn child for a period not to exceed ___________ including a paid leave taken for said pregnancy, childbirth, recovery or care for the newborn child.
one year
| *Note - The same applies to males and for adoptions.
562
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, sick leave credits can transferred for catastrophic leave.
False, only annual leave, vacation, CTO, and holiday credits
563
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, donations for catastrophic leave must be a minimum of _____ hours and in increments of whole hours thereafter.
2
564
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the total leave credits received by an employee shall not exceed ___________, however, if approved by the appointing authority, total leave credits received may be ____________.
6 months, one year
565
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, when approved by the Commissioner, time donated by sworn members of the Department for use by other sworn members of the Department may be converted into direct financial assistance for the employee qualifying for catastrophic leave assistance.
True
566
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, to be eligible for a second disability benefit for the same or related cause or condition (under the Annual Leave Program), an employee must have returned to work for at least ______ consecutive work days.
10
567
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, NDI benefits are paid at a rate of ______ of their gross salary for a period of _______ to employees participating in the Annual Leave Program.
50%, 26 weeks
568
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the waiting period for NDI benefits is ___________.
seven days unless confined to a hospital or nursing home
569
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, an employee on NDI may supplement with annual leave, sick leave, or partial payment to provide for up to ______ income replacement.
100%
570
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, an employee is required to exhaust leave credits before using NDI benefits.
False, the employee may elect to use annual leave for sick leave credits prior to receiving NDI payments, once NDI is approved the used leave credits will be restored.
571
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, an employee who is medically certified as able to work limited duty may be required to do so by the employer.
True, as long as the limited duty assignment is at the employee’s headquarters. If the employee refuses a limited duty assignment at his/her headquarters, the NDI benefits will be terminated.
572
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, an employee, offered a limited duty assignment at a location not his/her headquarters, may be compelled to accept the assignment.
False, IS NOT compelled to accept the assignment. If the employee refuses a limited duty assignment at other than the employee's headquarters, the NDI benefits will remain in effect.
573
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, an employee will be eligible for NDI benefits on the first day of the monthly pay period following the completion of _________ hours of compensated work.
960
574
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, all appeals of an employee's denial of NDI benefits shall only follow the procedures in the Unemployment Insurance Code and Title 22. All disputes relating to the denial of NDI benefits are not grievable or arbitrable.
True
575
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, an employee who is eligible to receive NDI benefits and who is medically certified as unable to return to his/her full-time work during the period of his/her disability, many upon the discretion of his/her appointing power work those hours (in hour increments) which when combined with the NDI benefit will not exceed 100% of their regular "full pay."
True
576
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, employees who supplement their NDI benefits at 75% will receive service and annual leave credits at ______ of the rate of those who supplement at 100%.
one-half
577
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, employees not on annual leave will receive ________ per week NDI benefit.
$135
578
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, NDI benefits are paid at a rate of ______ per _____ to employees participating in the vacation/sick leave program.
$135 / week
579
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, Unit 5 employees will receive up to _______ counseling services per problem per fiscal year.
seven
580
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, an employee ______ years of age or older is entitled to __________ to attend a retirement seminar.
50, one shift
*Note - To attend a retirement seminar prior approval from his/her commander must be obtained. No overtime is to be allotted and no expenses are to be provided. An employee may only utilize this provision once.
581
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the initial boot allowance for Category I motorcycle riders and their alternates is _________ while pilots and flight officers receive ____________.
$255 (motorcycle riders), $100 (pilots and flight officers)
582
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, subsequent boot allowance for Category I motorcycle riders is _____ while pilots and flight officers receive __________. Alternate motorcycle riders receive ________.
$85 (motorcycle riders), $50 (pilots and flight officers), $0.3269 per day ridden (alternate motorcycle riders)
583
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, employees working in areas served by mass transit (including rail, bus, or other commercial transportation license for the public conveyance) shall be eligible for a ______% discount on monthly public transit passes sold by State agencies up to a maximum of ________ per month.
75%, $65 per month
584
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the primary driver of a vanpool will receive _______ per month.
$100
585
If an employee agrees to reimburse the Department for the loss or damage of safety and police protective equipment or, any other Department issued equipment, the Department _______ not initiate an adverse action against that employee for the loss or damage.
shall
586
True/False - According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, If an employee, through neglect, loses their departmentally issued firearm and elects to reimburse the Department for the loss, the department may initiate an adverse action against that employee for the loss.
False, if an employee agrees to reimburse the Department for the loss or damage of safety and police protective equipment or, any other Department issued equipment, the department shall not initiate an adverse action against the employee for the loss or damage. This includes through neglect or misuse. However, the MOU reads the Department may allow an employee to reimburse...
*Note - If of the employee agrees to such reimbursement, it shall be at the current replacement cost.
587
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, annual, interim, or transfer performance appraisal is grievable up to the ______ level.
third
588
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, if a State-ordered medical examination is not scheduled on an employee’s regularly scheduled work hours, the employee will attend on ___________. In no event will an employee earn overtime compensation for this examination.
paid leave of absence
589
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, the odor of alcohol or marijuana on an employees breath or clothing _________ be the sole basis for determining “reasonable suspicion.”
shall not
590
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, information on an employee’s medical condition (unrelated to illegal or unauthorized drug use) secured through a substance abuse test or conversations with the Medical Review Officer may be used to order a _________________.
fitness for duty test
591
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, in regards to completing a substance abuse test utilizing urine, _______ sample(s) will be collected and preserved.
two
| *Note - This is done by collecting it in one container then separating it into two containers, prior to shipping it.
592
According to the Bargaining Unit 5 agreement, upon giving ______ prior notice, an employee shall be permitted to participate in a State Civil Service Exam during the employee’s work hours if said exam is scheduled during a period.
48 hours
593
A CHP Officer makes a traffic stop and finds a plastic baggy container, what he/she believes to be "Rock" cocaine in the vehicle. What is minimum amount of the substance required for the vehicle to be seized?
14.25 grams
The requirements outlined in 11470 H&S: 14.25 grams or more of heroin or cocaine base as specified in paragraph (1) of subdivision (f) of Section 11054, or a substance containing 14.25 grams or more of heroin or cocaine base as specified in paragraph (1) of subdivision (f) of Section 11054, or 14.25 grams or more of a substance containing heroin or cocaine base as specified in paragraph (1) of subdivision (f) of Section 11054, or 28.5 grams or more of Schedule I controlled substances except marijuana, peyote, or psilocybin; 10 pounds dry weight or more of marijuana, peyote, or psilocybin; or 28.5 grams or more of cocaine, as specified in paragraph (6) of subdivision (b) of Section 11055, or methamphetamine; or a substance containing 28.5 grams or more of cocaine, as specified in paragraph (6) of subdivision (b) of Section 11055, or methamphetamine; or 57 grams or more of a substance containing cocaine, as specified in paragraph (6) of subdivision (b) of Section 11055, or methamphetamine; or 28.5 grams or more of Schedule II controlled substances.
594
Departmental policy is established or changed by the Commissioner and is contained in:
General Orders, Manuals, or temporarily, in Management Memorandums and Comm. Nets.
595
For the purpose of this publication, policy is defined as written statements that establish ______ toward the accomplishment of departmental objectives.
direction
596
Requests for more than 10 courtesy copies of Departmental publications shall be approved by ___________________.
Assistant Commissioner, Staff
597
OPI's must review publications every ___________.
6 months
598
Comm-Net messages which contain policy and procedures shall be placed in the appropriate publications within ________ from date of issue.
45 days
599
_______________ provides a means for writing temporary directives, policy, and regulatory material.
Management Memorandum
600
Management memorandums contain expiration dates not to exceed ___________ from their effective dates.
nine months
601
Which type of Departmental publication is intended for public use?
HPH's (Highway Patrol Handbooks)
602
___________ disseminate information only and contain no directives or policy
Information Bulletins
603
Any policy or direction contained in Staff, Board, committee, conference minutes will expire __________ after the meeting.
6 months
604
In 1979 a California Appellate Court decision, Northern California Police Practices Project vs. Craig, determined that the CHP can exclude (exempt) from public disclosure material contained in manuals, guides, orders, etc. when it relates to ____________.
officer safety and/or internal security.
605
Officer safety/Internal security materials are exempt from disclosure per what Code?
Government Code
606
The approved font that shall be used for all Departmental Publications is _____________.
Arial (Universal no longer allowed)
607
The font size that shall be used in the body and text is _______ point type. Major headings shall be______ point type in bold and the footers shall be in 12 point type.
12, 12
608
Information Bulletin is the required medium for transmitting communications which are strictly _________________ in nature.
informational
609
A distribution designation of "G" indicates distribution to _____________.
Executive Offices and all headquarters commands (Division and section offices
610
A distribution designation of "D" indicates distribution to _____________.
all uniformed employees
611
A distribution designation of "A" indicates distribution to ___________.
Field Commands
612
A distribution designation of "F" indicates distribution to _____________.
all personnel.
613
Publications ___________ be reproduced locally.
may reproduce small numbers to fill special need
614
Who is accountable for the maintenance and number of copies of publications in each command?
the Commander
615
Route slips are not correspondence and may be used ___________ departmentally.
intra
616
The quality, content, and format of correspondence is the responsibility of the _______.
signer
617
Publications Transmittals, Management Memos, and Information bulletins are governed by which Departmental Manual?
Publications Management Manual, HPM 1.1
618
Communications which contains directives or information shall be issued as _________________.
either Management Memorandums or Information Bulletins.
619
Correspondence does not include ___________ Memorandums.
Publications Transmittal
620
Correspondence includes all communications on ________________.
Departmental Letterhead and Memorandum (CHP 51).
621
File information copies ___________ require a signature.
do not
622
True/False - All correspondence shall be signed in ink.
True
623
If a reply to correspondence is required and the desired information cannot be furnished within ______ working days from the date of receipt, the correspondence shall be acknowledged.
15
624
All written communications shall be written in plain, straightforward language, avoiding technical terms as much as possible, and using a coherent and easily readable style per ____________.
Government code 6215
625
A copy of all informative correspondence to or from a member of Congress or the President's Cabinet shall be prepared for _____________________.
the Governor's Washington D.C. office
626
All suggested replies shall be _____________ spaced.
double
627
Masculine or feminine terms _______ be used when referring to groups which may include both sexes.
may not
628
A copy of all correspondence to State Legislators shall be coordinated with ________.
the Office of Special Representative
629
Category 2 correspondence is prepared on ___________________.
CHP Letterhead
630
Category 1 correspondence is used for individuals or agencies _______ State Government.
inside
631
Category 2 correspondence is used for individuals or agencies ________ State Government.
outside
632
Category 2 correspondence shall be used within state government for the following:
commendations or letters to the Governor, Lieutenant Governor, State Legislators, judges and justices (elected officials).
633
Category 1 correspondence is prepared on _____________.
Memorandum, CHP 51
634
True/False - The use of file numbers mandatory for Areas.
False, it is mandatory on HQ correspondence, but only optional for Areas.
635
When may abbreviations be used in the inside address correspondence?
State names and directions (NE, SW, etc.), always spell out street names
636
The _____________ system of time expression shall be used in interdepartmental and letterhead correspondence (category 2).
American
637
On multiple page letters or memorandums, correspondence is resumed _________ below the date.
four line spaces
638
The second and each succeeding page of a letter or memorandum shall be headed with the name of the addressee(s) as it appears in the inside address, the page number, and the date ___________ from the top, flush with the left margin.
one inch (six line spaces)
639
"Enclosures" is used for _____________.
letters
640
"Attachments" is used for ___________.
Memorandums
641
Other categories of U.S. Postal Service mail (second-class, third-class, and fourth-class) (are/are not) used by MSU.
are not
642
What is the purpose of Department Employee Relation Program?
Encourage harmonious relations between the Department and its employees, and establish procedures for the equitable and peaceful resolution of differences on employee relations matters.
643
What is the key to increased job satisfaction?
Open communication.
644
Under SEERA, elected representatives of the rank and file deal as equals with the employer in determining _________________.
wages, hours, terms and conditions of employment
645
If there is a conflict between Departmental policy and the provisions of a negotiated labor agreement, which is controlling?
labor agreement
646
Managerial employees are ___________ the definition of “Represented Employees.”
excluded from
647
Employees representing themselves individually may use a personal advisor from an organization which competes with the exclusive bargaining unit.
False
648
Once an employee organization is certified to represent an employee group, an individual employee ___________ refuse to join or participate.
may
649
True/False - An employee may represent themselves individually in their relations with management.
True
650
The Dills Act addresses the formation of bargaining units, exclusive representatives, and labor agreements for supervisory employees.
False, rank and file employees only.
651
Managerial employees have all of the rights of “State Employees.”
False
652
Managerial employees have the right to use the grievance and appeal procedure set forth in HPM 9.1 (Chapter 8).
True
653
Managerial, supervisory, and confidential employees are examples of ___________.
excluded employees
654
Who may represent a managerial employee?
Another excluded employee, personal advisor, legal counsel.
655
“Meet and Confer” means that the employer shall consider as fully as it deems reasonable presentations made by the employee organizations on behalf of its supervisory employees. Under this process the final decision rests with _____________.
the employer
656
Management authority is absolute.
False
657
The _____________ is/are responsible for developing sound, positive employee relations and ensuring that Departmental policies, procedures, and the terms of the negotiated labor agreements are administered properly and consistently.
managerial and supervisory employees
658
Who is link between management/employees?
The supervisor
659
A bona fide association is an organization that (does/does not) have as their purpose the representation of employees.
does not
660
Officials and representatives of employee organizations (should/shall) be permitted access to work locations to meet with Departmental employees.
shall
661
An employee designated as an authorized employee organization representative must obtain permission from his/her immediate supervisor to engage, during work hours, in business relating to representational matters. Permission shall be granted in what manner?
promptly
662
A recognized employee organization may use an existing bulletin board to post organization notices.
True
663
If doubt exists as to the propriety of material posted, what must be done before removal?
Consult with Office of Employee Relations.
664
Use of Departmental A/V equipment by employee organizations may be _________.
permitted
665
After requesting and being granted access, when may a recognized employee organization may distribute organizational literature?
Before or after work or during meal periods.
666
Use of the State and Department's internal mail system to distribute employee organization material is ___________.
prohibited
667
Release time may be granted to __________ meet and confer.
attend
668
Shift or schedule changes (may/may not) be made to provide for release time.
may not
669
If an employee elects to meet with an employee organization representative off-site, release time (is/is not) granted.
is not
670
An employee and his/her representative may use a reasonable amount of release time at each stage or review level to prepare and present a grievance. ____ hours are authorized at each level of review.
four
671
True/False - An employee who is representing him/herself in a grievance or appeal has the right to 4 hours release time for preparation.
False, there is no release time.
672
When an employee transfers to another command all grievance and complaint documents are forwarded to the new command.
False, only active grievances or complaints.
673
Grievance records shall be retained in the affected command for ________ year(s) following the date of final action.
three
674
Where are grievance and complaint records filed?
In a separate confidential classification.
675
Complaint records shall be retained in the affected command levels for _______ year(s) following the date of final action.
one
676
A ________ is a dispute involving the application or interpretation of a statute, regulation, policy or practice under the jurisdiction of DPA or involving the express terms of a bargaining unit agreement.
grievance
677
The first step of the grievance process is the informal discussion. Following the informal discussion between the employee and the immediate supervisor a decision or verbal response shall be provided to the employee within ____ working days.
5 for excluded employees, 7 for represented employees
678
Failure of the Department to respond in a timely manner _____________.
permits filing to the next level
679
In the event the grievance alleges a reprisal, the employee shall forward a copy to _________.
2nd level of appeal
680
A third party settlement of disputes between groups or individuals outside a court of law is __________.
arbitration
681
Efforts by a third party to bring parties to an agreement on their own is ________.
mediation
682
Mutual obligation to personally "negotiate" promptly, upon the request of either party and continue for a reasonable period of time in order to exchange opinions and endeavor to reach an agreement is the definition of __________.
good faith
683
Copies of proposed change and written notice shall be _______.
forwarded to Office of Employee Relations
684
Commanders contemplating a change in policy which affects working conditions, or that has a significant impact on terms and conditions of employment, shall, prior to the implementation:
(1) Give written notice to employee representative
(2) Discuss change with employee rep and majority of affected employees
(3) Advise employee rep of final decision.
685
Copies of the proposed change and notice, along with employee comments shall be retained for _________ after the effective date of the change.
6 months
686
________ is the state agency responsible for enforcing the collective bargaining law covering employees in state civil service.
Public Employment Relations Board (PERB)
687
According to the National Institute on Drug Abuse (NIDA), the most common health hazard in today's work place is __________.
the abuse of drugs
688
The ________ plays the most important role in any successful substance testing program.
first line supervisor
| *Note a supervisor is in the best position to assess any changes in job performance and/or employee behavior/appearance.
689
For a substance test to be effective, each supervisor must ensure that ________.
(a) Reasonable suspicion is supported by proper documentation;
(b) The sample is properly collected;(c) The chain of custody is maintained; and (d) The employee's rights are not violated.
690
True/False - In addition to supervisors, policy requires the involvement of a specified mangers in all substance tests to act as a confirming official before a sample can be collected.
True
691
What are the five elements that are critical for the drug program to be successful? (hint 5
C’ s)
Consistency, Confirmation, Collection, Chain of Custody, and Control of Quality
692
Before any sample is obtained for substance testing, the supervisor’s foundation for reasonable suspicion must be approved by _________.
a specified departmental manager (confirming official).
693
True/False - Liability arises when it can be shown that a supervisor failed to supervise his/her subordinates appropriately due to negligence and the negligence resulted in an injury to a co-worker and/or the public. Since the potential for such liability clearly exists, Departmental supervisors must act quickly and reasonably when dealing with employees whom they suspect are abusing alcohol and/or drugs. In the area of substance abuse, the Department can be criticized for inaction as well as inappropriate action.
True
694
Department of Personnel (DPA) policy only addresses _________.
on-duty impairment
695
No state employee who is on duty or on standby for duty shall ___________________.
(1) Use, possess or be under the influence of illegal or unauthorized drugs or other illegal mind-altering substances; or
(2) Use or be under the influence of alcohol to any extent that would impede the employee's ability to perform his/her duties safely and efficiently.
* Note - For the purposes of this policy, standby for duty occurs when an employee is designated on-call and must thereby be available to respond to an incident within a specified period of time. This would include situations such as planned protest demonstrations, special events, or unplanned natural disasters.
696
Only employees serving in ___________ positions shall be subject to substance testing.
sensitive
697
A stipulated agreement for periodic DRUG testing may be offered to ____________ as a _________.
non uniformed employees only, condition of continuing employment
698
Periodic drug testing may be chosen as a condition for continued employment by _____ employees. Periodic alcohol testing is available to __________ employees.
non uniformed only, both uniformed and non uniformed
699
Periodic testing shall not exceed a period of one year and shall not be offered without permission of ________.
the Assistant Commissioner.
700
The retention period for the original stipulated agreement for periodic drug testing settlement and a copy will be ________ beyond the termination date of the stipulated settlement.
12 months
701
True/False - Prescriptions taken in excess of amounts prescribed would be considered unauthorized and subjects the employee to testing.
True, No employee shall attempt to perform duties which, because of drugs taken due to a LEGAL prescription, he/she cannot perform without posing a threat to the health and safety of the employee or others. Employees who are so restricted may be subject to reassignment, medical examination or other actions specified by applicable statutes and regulations.
702
When a conflict between DPA policy and a negotiated MOU, _______ is controlling.
the MOU
703
An employee from voluntarily submitting to a substance test after being involved in a significant incident (i.e., combat shooting, major traffic accident, etc.) for the purpose of establishing his/her sobriety at the time of the incident as protection in the event of future litigation. While an employee may ask for a test or a supervisor (may/may not) suggest a test.
may
*Note - No action can be taken against the employee for not participating in a test unless there is reasonable suspicion of substance abuse. In this voluntary situation, an employee's decision not to be tested shall not be documented as a refusal since it is at the employee's option.
704
If an employee voluntarily submits to a substance test after being involved in a significant incident (i.e., combat shooting, major traffic accident, etc.), for the purpose of establishing his/her sobriety at the time of the incident as protection in the event of future litigation. The Department will pay for it and the test can be administered according to these established Departmental procedures. The supervisor is to ensure the employee provides some form of documentation, including their signature, to substantiate the voluntary nature of the test. What should the supervisor do with the document once it is received?
The supervisor should date and initial the document, the original shall be maintained in the field folder for 12 months, and a copy provided to the employee.
705
According to the Unit 5 Substance Abuse Contract Provision, the odor of alcohol or marijuana on an employee’s breath or person ______ be the sole basis for determining "reasonable suspicion" in ordering the complete drug test panel.
shall not
706
True/False - According to the Unit 5 Substance Abuse Contract Provision, Information on an Officer's medical condition (unrelated to illegal or unauthorized drug use) secured through a substance abuse test or conversations with the Medical Review Officer may be used to order a fitness-for-duty test.
True, provided the “reasonable suspicion” which led to the drug test was based upon objective symptoms.
707
According to the Unit 5 Substance Abuse Contract Provision, in performing any substance abuse test, the state will agree that _____ samples will be taken.
two
708
The Unit 7 Substance Abuse Testing Side Letter states, "procedures (for collecting the sample) may include direct observation of the employee giving the sample by a medical clinician or other appropriately trained person of the same sex. This person shall not be the ______________."
employee's immediate supervisor, or the designee
709
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, only those individuals in positions designated as ________ by the DPA may be tested according to the provisions of this manual.
sensitive
710
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, a “sensitive” position is defined as ________________.
any peace officer and any other position in which drug or alcohol or drug affected performance could clearly endanger the health and safety of others
711
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, what characteristics must be present in the non-peace officer positions for them to be designated sensitive?
(1) Duties involve a greater than normal level of trust, responsibility for or impact on the health and safety of others; and
(2) Errors in judgment, inattentiveness or diminished coordination, dexterity or composure while performing duties could clearly result in mistakes that would endanger the health and safety of others; and
(3) Employees in these positions work with such independence or perform such tasks that it cannot be safely assumed that mistakes such as those could be prevented by a supervisor or other Departmental employee.
712
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, subject to DPA approval the _____________ designates the sensitive positions within our Department.
Commissioner
713
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, the Commissioner has designated which positions as “sensitive?”
(1) All peace officers.
(2) All cadets.
(3) Automobile Mechanic.
(4) Automotive Technician series.
(5) Commercial Vehicle Inspection Specialist I and II.
(6) Communications Operator I and II.
(7) Communications Supervisor I and II.
(8) Gunsmith.
(9) Heavy Truck Driver.
(10) Lead Automobile Mechanic.
(11) Lead Motorcycle Mechanic.
(12) Motor Carrier Specialist I, II and III.
(13) Motorcycle Mechanic.
(14) School Pupil Transportation Safety Coordinator.
714
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, DPA rules do not permit the mandated substance testing of nonsensitive positions. Despite this requirement, there is nothing in the rule which precludes a nonsensitive employee from voluntarily submitting to a substance test. With this in mind can a supervisor request a substance test from a nonsensitive employee?
NO, such a test will be limited to instances where the Department receives an UNSOLICITED request for a test FROM a nonsensitive employee.
715
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, should a supervisor suspect on-duty substance abuse or intoxication of an employee in a nonsensitive position, prompt action is still required. While the employee cannot be ordered to submit to a chemical test, there is a need for a thorough investigation into the actions/circumstances which led to the reasonable suspicion. Such an investigation and any subsequent action taken shall be done in accordance with _____________.
HPM 10.2 Internal Investigations
*Note - If the event which leads to the reasonable suspicion is from a complaint from a citizen, the complaint should be investigated consistent with HPM 10.4, Citizens' Complaint Manual.
716
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, Supervisors who suspect substance abuse by nonsensitive employees are encouraged to establish reasonable suspicion utilizing the same criteria used to establish reasonable suspicion for sensitive positions. Especially since a chemical test may not be part of the investigation, it is essential that the reasonable suspicion be based upon:
(1) Articulable facts; (2) Close observation; and
| (3) Good faith.
717
True/False - According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, as part of the internal investigation, supervisors will be required to carefully document their observations. Since there will not be a mandated test result and there may not be a voluntary test result to confirm the reasonable suspicion, supervisors must be especially accurate and complete in their documentation of reasonable suspicion. Reasonable suspicion is to be documented utilizing the Reasonable Suspicion Report outlined in Chapter 11, Documentation.
True
718
True/False - According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, adverse action shall not be sought when there is reasonable suspicion for substance abuse on the part of a nonsensitive employee.
False, even for a nonsensitive employee, adverse action should be sought when there is reasonable suspicion for substance abuse. The requested penalty should be consistent with the specific described circumstances surrounding the abuse. The report, a CHP 202, outlining the reasonable suspicion will be included as an exhibit in the final request for adverse action.
719
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, reasonable suspicion is a good faith belief based on ____________.
(1) Specific articulable facts or evidence that an employee may have violated the substance abuse policy; and
(2) Substance testing could reveal evidence in support of a violation.
720
True/False - According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, reasonable suspicion exists only after the appointing power or his/her designee (confirming official) has also considered the facts and/or evidence and agrees that they constitute a finding of reasonable suspicion.
True
721
True/False - According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, reasonable suspicion must be based on specific, identifiable facts and/or evidence.
True
722
True/False - According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, initial suspicion could include any of the following: An industrial accident, unusual demeanor or appearance, atypical behavior, abnormal work performance.
True, when substance abuse cannot be ruled out, a closer observation should be made. The nature of this observation will depend on the particular qualifications of the involved supervisor and attendant circumstances.
723
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, a positive test for alcohol requires a B A level of _________.
.04%
*Note - This does not prevent the Department from taking adverse action against the employee for violating the inconsistent and incompatible activities which mandates a zero tolerance for on-duty employees.
724
True/False - According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, it is suggested that nonuniformed supervisors seek the assistance of a uniformed supervisor to corroborate reasonable suspicion whenever possible.
True
*Note - In any situation, a second opinion will help to ensure all factors are considered and put into proper perspective. A second opinion will also strengthen the State's case in any potential appeal or litigation.
725
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, an anonymous tip regarding employee substance abuse _________ sufficient cause to initiate drug testing.
is not
*Note - This only gives cause for closer observation. Irrespective of whether or not a test is ordered, an internal investigation may be initiated pursuant to the procedures outlined in HPM 10.4, Citizens' Complaint Manual, if appropriate.
726
A reliable informant is defined as?
A peace officer who is willing to publicly testify on behalf of management, should it become necessary
727
True/False - DPA policy requires that when using a reliable informant to develop “reasonable suspicion” the employee shall be told who the informant is.
True
728
True/False - According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, reasonable suspicion is a good faith belief based on specific articulable facts that the employee has violated this policy and that testing could reveal evidence of that violation. Depending upon the circumstances, information from a reliable informant alone could be the foundation for reasonable suspicion.
True, supervisors must be extremely careful when basing reasonable suspicion on information of this nature.
729
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, a “Confirming Official” is _______.
first designated manager in the supervisor’s chain of command
*Note - In the event the aforementioned manager is unavailable, the chain of command shall be followed until another manager is contacted to act as the confirming official. In no event shall the confirming official be the suspected employee's immediate supervisor or the individual who made the initial observation leading to reasonable suspicion.
730
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, the role of the confirming official shall be to:
(1) Consider the facts and/or evidence and agree they support reasonable suspicion;
(2) Ensure accurate and proper application of the rules;(3) Provide guidance and direction; and
(4) Authorize the substance test.
731
True/False - According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, substance testing is to determine current impairment as well as past abuse.
False, current use only impairment.
732
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, the substance abuse test to be used is for suspected drug use is _______.
a urine test
733
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, the supervisor/confirming official should carefully consider the following before deciding where the sample will be collected:
(1) Sex of the employee and availability of a supervisor of the same sex to collect of the sample;
(2) Some MOU's prohibit the collection of a sample by the employee's supervisor;
(3) A breath test can be administered for an employee who is suspected of abusing alcohol; and
(4) Employee's willingness to provide a sample at the work location.
734
True/False - According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, from the moment reasonable suspicion is developed until the time the employee provides a sample, he/she should be under continual supervisory observation. The employee should not be allowed to go to a car, locker or desk without supervision. Additionally, to secure the best possible sample, the employee SHOULD NOT be allowed to void his/her bladder until the collection of the sample.
True
735
How many ounces of urine are required to be considered an adequate sample?
Two fluid ounces (60 milliliters)
736
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, supervisors should realize that an employee may not be able to provide a urine sample immediately. A reasonable waiting period should be allowed for the employee to provide the sample. If, however, after a reasonable period of time the employee is still unable to provide a sample, this will be treated as a refusal, which constitutes a presumption of impairment. Employees (are/are not) permitted to drink water for the purpose of aiding them in providing a sample.
are, so long as it is supervised
737
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, if the supervisor does not collect the sample at the work location, then the urine sample may be collected by authorized medical or custodial personnel. This individual must be of the same sex and will actually __________.
watch the urine leave the employee's body
*Note - The supervisor is to confirm that the sample will be collected under direct observation. If for some reason, authorized medical or custodial personnel refuse to collect the sample, the supervisor will personally collect the sample.
738
True/False - According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, if the supervisor is not the sex as the employee, the supervisor must get another supervisor (uniformed or nonuniformed) of the same sex to obtain the sample.
True
739
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, when the laboratory testing is completed (usually ______ after the sample's arrival), the results will be communicated to the Department which is then responsible for providing the employee with the test results as soon as possible. The initial contact by the Medical Review Officer will be by telephone. This will provide the supervisor and employee with the results in the most timely manner. Written confirmation will follow all tests.
24-48 hours
740
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, negative results will be communicated directly to the Medical Review Officer, who will immediately relay this information to the Department in the following order until the Department receives the notice:
(1) Directly to the employee's Commander; or
(2) Directly to the Division Commander; or
(3) Directly to the appropriate Assistant Commissioner; or
(4) The Bureau of Professional Standards.
741
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, the substance abuse test to be used is for suspected alcohol use is _______.
a breath test
*Note - If the breathalyzer results are .00/.00, a urinalysis test should be secured to determine the cause of impairment.
742
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, the substance testing process is a very serious procedure, and the first-line supervisor will be dealing with the involved employee from the time reasonable suspicion first arises until the results of the test are known. Throughout that period, which may span several days, the supervisor should base his/her actions on concern for all of the following:
(1) Safety of the employee and others;
(2) Potential disciplinary action up to and including dismissal;(3) Proper enforcement of the State's substance abuse rules; and
(4) Employee rights and privacy.
743
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, once a decision to test has been made, the employee is placed on _____ for remainder of his or her shift.
dock time
744
True/False - According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, Employees suspected of drug use should be placed on Administrative Time off until the test results are known.
True, initially, on dock for remainder of their shift, subsequent days on Administrative Time off. If only alcohol is suspected the employee will be on dock for remainder of their shift can return to work the next day if they are fully recovered from its effects.
745
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, following testing, for suspected use of drugs uniformed employees shall be ______________.
stripped of peace officer powers, forfeit authorization for secondary employment, and be required to turn in State property.
746
Provisions of the POBR extend to ______ employees and requires that employees tested be provided ______ once tested.
all members of the Department whether or not they are peace officers, all copies of results *Note - Employees may exercise their option to retest the urine sample (at own expense), and may also file mitigating information with the Medical Review Officer.
747
True/False - Employees shall not be entitled to representation during testing.
True, Unit 5 employees are entitled to representation only during interrogations, either prior to or after testing. DO NOT INTERROGATE DURING TEST! If MOU other than Unit 5 check their MOU.
748
Expenses resulting from employee requests for sample re-testing are borne by _____.
the employee.
749
True/False - According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, all positive tests will be sent to a medical review officer for review.
True, The person who replaced Dr. Smith is the designated medical review officer.
750
True/False - According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, It is possible that the urinalysis could result in the identification of some other medical condition which the employee and/or the Department may or may not have previously known. Some of these conditions could jeopardize the employee's continued employment. Yet, the State has a responsibility to further evaluate these latter conditions. Should such a condition be revealed through the substance test, the employee will be directed to complete a fitness-forduty examination.
True, additionally, any other substances detected which are not screened according to the DPA rules shall be reported to the Department by the Medical Review officer for consideration and/or action.
751
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, records, and any other information pertaining to an employee's substance test, must be considered confidential and shall be released only to:
(1) The employee tested.
(2) An individual designated in writing by the employee tested.
(3) The Medical Review Officer.
(4) DPA as necessary to effectively administer these rules.
(5) Individuals who need-the records or information to properly supervise or assign the employee determine, or assist in determining, what action the Commissioner should take in response to the test results, respond to appeals or litigation arising from the substance test or related actions.
752
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, in an effort to minimize the stigma attached to a substance test, negative results should not be included in the employee's personnel file. Therefore, negative test results and the documentation regarding reasonable suspicion for the test shall be maintained apart from the employee's personnel folder unless the employee requests otherwise. This information shall be forwarded to Headquarters Office Services Unit as confidential material. This information will be maintained in a separate file for _______ or until such time as any litigation arising from circumstances leading to the test has concluded, whichever is longer.
five years
753
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, positive test results and the documented reasonable suspicion will become part of ___________. This information will be maintained for a period of five years and handled consistent with Office of Internal Affairs guidelines for these files.
the request for adverse action file
754
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, DPA rules require that the observations which lead to reasonable suspicion be documented and a copy of this information provided to the affected employee. While the rules are not specific, this information should be provided to the employee within ________ except when not reasonably possible or where other time frames are dictated by the applicable MOU.
48 hours
755
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, supervisory observations which lead to substance testing are documented on what form?
The report is to be prepared on a CHP 202 and marked "confidential."
756
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, after completing the report (CHP 202), the supervisor must sign the document and submit it to the manager who approved the substance test. The ___________ must then sign the document indicating his/her review and concurrence with the reasonable suspicion.
confirming official
757
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, the completed report (CHP 202) must be signed by the involved employee and a copy provided to them within _______.
48 hours
| *Note - If the employee refuses to sign, this fact shall be noted and initialed by a witness.
758
According to HPM 9.2, Substance Testing Manual, the following four elements are considered essential to a complete and comprehensive report:
(1) A detailed description of the incident and/or circumstances initiating the reasonable suspicion.
(2) The fact that substance abuse could not be ruled out after considering other possible causes, if any.
(3) Supporting evidence resulting from closer observation of the employee's appearance and demeanor. This includes the results of any field sobriety tests, Portable Alcohol Screening (PAS) device, drug evaluations and/or medical screenings.
(4) Names of other supervisors, employees or, witnesses who can verify or support the reasonable suspicion.
759
True/False - The terms inefficiency and incompetency are interchangeable.
False, must be competent on task before can be considered inefficient.
760
The role of a dismissal review panel is to review dismissal actions which have been approved by the appropriate Assistant Commissioner. The panel will evaluate the evidence and determine __________.
if the offense warrants dismissal or a lesser offense
761
An employee lacking basic qualities/abilities necessary for effective action can be charged with __________.
incompetence
762
To charge Neglect of Duty, the action/lack of action must be __________ and without __________.
intentional or grossly negligent, lawful excuse or justification.
763
Charges of Dishonesty are normally only included in an investigation if the recommended penalty will be for __________.
dismissal or rejection during probation
764
True/False - The investigator of an act of insubordination should not be the supervisor against whom the act was committed.
True
765
True/False - Employee sobriety should be determined through use of a chemical test.
True
766
To be charged with intemperance, it must be shown to have an adverse impact on the employee's __________.
job
767
The definition of Moral Turpitude is:
Conduct contrary to justice, honesty, modesty or good morals.
768
True/False - When charging discourtesy, it must have occurred on duty.
False, on or off-duty.
769
Levels of approval for Adverse Action penalties are:
Division: Written reprimand up to and including 5 days
A.C. Field: 6 - 20 days, plus removal of specialty pay for field positions
A.C. Staff: 6 - 20 days, specialty pay positions for HQ positions, plus cadet rejections The Commissioner or Deputy Commissioner: 20+ days, dismissals, demotions, and rejections during probation, (except rejections of cadets).
770
As the appointing party, ____________ has the final approval authority for all AA penalties.
the Commissioner
771
The POBR applies to probationary and permanent personnel who are __________.
peace officers.
| *Note: By policy, the Department has extended POBR rights to all employees except cadets.
772
When information is obtained or uncovered involving acts or omissions by an employee that could result in adverse action or rejection during probation, the commander will ensure an investigation is completed. After completion, it will be submitted as either _______________.
a request for adverse action, rejection during probation, anonymous complaint, or miscellaneous investigation.
773
By policy, POBR applies to all Departmental employees except __________.
cadets
774
True/False - All cadet rejections and AA’s are processed through OIA.
False, Only rejections and AA’s involving misconduct are processed through OIA. Rejections for performance related deficiencies will be processed through Personnel & Management Division.
775
True/False - Internal Affairs will conduct or assist in investigations only when requested to do so by the Commissioner.
False, May be requested to assist in any investigation if unusually complex or sensitive. Request through channels to the appropriate Assistant Commissioner.
776
Any _______________ or designee is authorized to initiate rejection during probation with the concurrence of the next level of command.
commander
777
Types of Adverse Actions include __________.
dismissals, demotions, suspension/reduction in pay and written reprimands. *Does not include Form 2, Memo of Direction/correction or supervisory counseling verbally or in writing
778
Adverse Actions can be initiated by a commander with concurrence of __________.
next level of command.
779
Commanders should consider reassignment to administrative duty or a Leave of Absence with or with out pay for AAs if __________.
dismissal/rejection is probable
780
Commanders should consider relieving employees of assigned duties if rejection during probation is probable and __________.
assign them to administrative duties removed from the public
781
Leave with pay is authorized by __________.
Office of the Commissioner
| *Note - Notify DPA if over 5 days.
782
If a leave of absence with pay will exceed __________, the Department (BIA) must obtain approval from __________.
30 work days, DPA
783
Leave with out pay is authorized by the __________.
appropriate Assistant Commissioner
784
True/False - Peace officer powers may be removed by an employee's immediate Commander.
False, must first be approved by appropriate Assistant Commissioner.
785
True/False - When an employee resigns in lieu of an AA, the Commander need not complete the investigation.
False, The investigation shall be completed, the report sent to BIA, and included in the employees personnel file.
786
Commanders (may/shall) accept a resignation submitted voluntarily in lieu of an adverse action.
shall
787
The commander may terminate a leave of absence by giving the employee __________ hours notice ___________.
48, in writing
788
Internal investigations may be initiated as a result of __________.
any source of information
789
The objective of an internal investigation is to:
to gather facts which will clear the employee, provide a basis for corrective action, or lead to adverse action.
790
An internal investigation includes investigations of any Departmental employee for ___________.
alleged misconduct or substandard performance
791
An ___________ is defined as an inquiry by departmental personnel concerning alleged misconduct or substandard performance on the part of any departmental employee which leads to or may lead to adverse action.
internal investigation
792
When an employee of this Department, including the subject to investigation, learns that another agency is conducting an investigation involving CHP personnel, he/she shall immediately ____________________.
Notify his/her commander.
793
Interviews should be written in ___________except when quotations are used.
third person
794
All copies of completed investigations shall contain ____________ photographs.
original (not photocopies)
795
All original documents, negatives, video tapes, etc., _______ be entered into evidence and a CHP 36, Evidence/Property Receipt/Report, completed in accordance with HPM 70.1, Evidence Manual.
shall
796
True/False - Interrogations of an employee shall be recorded.
True
797
True/False - Employees shall be provided copies of all previously taped interrogations with a bearing on their investigation.
False, must request, and only of their own interrogations.
798
The “Administrative Interrogation Record” side of the CHP 8 will be read in all cases where the interrogation __________.
could lead to Adverse Action
799
At what stage should administrative investigations be conducted if the incident has warranted a criminal investigation?
After criminal investigation is completed.
800
Statements resulting from an administrative interrogation may only be used in a criminal proceeding if __________.
employee was advised and waived Miranda rights
801
Where an employee's conduct is criminal in nature, what is the correct procedure with regards to conducting an investigation?
Contact allied agency to conduct investigation, use their investigation as a starting point in the investigation. Once complete, their investigation shall be included as an exhibit in the administrative file.
802
If Criminal Charges are possible, the Area shall contact the Office of Commissioner __________ contacting the appropriate prosecuting authority.
prior to
803
True/False - Departmental policy requires that involved employees cooperate with authorities investigating civil rights violations.
False, decision to interview is up to employee.
804
Evidence gathered during an administrative investigation (should not/shall not) be released to an agency doing a parallel criminal investigation.
shall not
805
True/False - The productivity of an employee can be judged solely through comparison with other employees.
False, but comparisons of others performing like tasks under similar circumstances may be considered.
806
Civil rights interviews conducted on __________ time, a __________ will be present.
state, supervisor
| *Note - It will also be taped.
807
Internal investigations which do not result in a recommendation for adverse action or rejection during probation shall be disposed as follows:
Forwarded to OIA and retained in Command for 3 years.
808
True/False - The Public Safety Officer's Procedural Bill of Rights is extended to all permanent Departmental employees.
True, by policy
809
Policy restricts the number of interrogators to a maximum of __________.
two
810
Prior to interrogation, employees shall be informed of __________.
all persons to be present
811
Interrogations should normally be scheduled during __________.
normal work shift
| *Note - If interrogated while off-duty, compensated with overtime.
812
An officer who refuses to respond to s during an interrogation shall be informed __________.
that failure to respond may result in an AA. (3303(e) G.C.)
813
May an employee bring his/her own recording device to an interrogation?
The employee being interrogated shall have the right to bring his/her recording device and record any and all aspects of the interrogation (3303(g) GC).
814
An employee is entitled to have representation when __________.
an AA is involved
815
Is an officer’s representative required to disclose information received from the officer who is under investigation for a non-criminal matter?
No
816
Employees have __________ days to respond in writing to adverse comments in their personnel files.
30
817
A search of an employee's Departmental property (i.e. locker) is authorized when:
(a) In his/her presence.
(b) With his/her consent.
(c) After a valid search warrant has been obtained.
(d) Where the employee has been notified that a search will be conducted. This applies only to lockers or other space which is owned or leased by the Department and assigned to the employee.
818
True/False - Officers can be ordered to take a polygraph examination.
False
819
True/False - An employee can be forced to submit to a lie detector test against his/her will.
False, an employee can be forced to submit to a lie detector test against his/her will and no disciplinary action or other recrimination shall be taken against an employee refusing to submit to a polygraph examination, nor shall any comment be entered anywhere in the investigator's notes or anywhere else that the employee refused to take a polygraph examination, nor shall any testimony or evidence be admissible at a subsequent hearing, trial, or proceeding, judicial or administrative, to the effect that the employee refused to take a polygraph examination (3307 GC).
820
If during an investigation, a Commander feels a polygraph would be desirable, approval to ask the employee to volunteer must be obtained from __________.
the Commissioner
821
An employee's desk can normally be entered by a supervisor when looking for work produced except:
when the command has allowed a reasonable expectation of privacy, such as issuance of a key to the desk, then the provisions of GC 3309 would apply.
822
An employee’s representative may be someone other than a union representative, but shall not be ________?
Anyone in his immediate chain of command
823
Skelly requires that employees be allowed __________ days to respond to the hearing officer.
5 working days (10 working days for managers)
824
True/False - Regarding Bargaining Unit 5 members who lose or damage State equipment, the employee may reimburse the State for current replacement or repair cost with no AA.
True
825
When a censurable Form 2 is issued for the same incident as the AA, it should be rescinded, with the date issued and the rescinded date documented in the investigation file. It should normally not be rescinded if more than __________ old.
30 days
826
What is the most important part of the investigative file?
The exhibits. They provide the proof necessary to substantiate the charges.
827
Copies of adverse action investigative files shall be retained for ______-- years from the effective date of the action taken.
five
828
Who prepares the notice of Adverse Action/Rejection during probation?
BIA prepares all then sends to original Command for service.
829
Suspensions resulting from AA are computed on a __________ work day.
24 hour / 8 hours worked per day basis.
830
With the exception of dismissals, the effective date of the adverse action should not be less than ______ calendar days from the date of service.
25
831
The employee must be allowed a minimum of _____________ between the service of the final notice of adverse action and the predisciplinary hearing date (Skelly) to respond to the hearing officer.
5 working days
832
In accordance with Government Code Section 19590, managerial employees must be notified ______ days prior to the effective date of the adverse action and allowed _____ days to respond to the Predisciplinary Hearing Officer.
20, 10
833
Whenever possible, the Notice of Adverse Action shall be served on the employee personally. If not possible, service by ____________ can be used.
certified mail
834
Service of a Notice of Adverse Action/Rejection during probation should be served to employee in person by __________.
a disinterested party
835
A Predisciplinary or rejection hearing provides the affected employee with an opportunity to respond ________ to the imposition of discipline, rejection during probation, or termination / reassignment for medical reasons as required by Title 2, California Code of Regulations (CCR) 52.3.
prior
836
Employees may appeal to SPB within __________ calendar days after effective date of rejection during probation.
15
837
Not later than __________ calendar days after service of an AA, employees may file an appeal with SPB.
30
838
An appeal must be filed no later than __________ days after service notice of AA or __________ days after effective date of rejection.
30 calendar, 15 calendar
839
Failure to file an appeal or to appear at a hearing will cause the action taken by the appointing power to be __________.
final
840
True/False - PC 832.7 requires that evidence gathered from an administrative investigation be released to Allied Agencies, to Grand Juries or D.A.s investigating police conduct. The information should not be released prior to contacting Legal Coordination.
True
841
True/False - The specifics of an AA are not subject to disclosure at any time.
False, notice and the specifics become public record once served.
842
The four types of exams are:
promotional, open statewide, open with continuous filing, spot in a specific County location
843
Examinations are administered by ________________.
Selection Standards and Examinations Section (SSES)
844
A candidate testing for Communications Operator II may take the test no more than ___________.
once in any consecutive 24 month period
845
A candidate for Cadet, CHP may have only _________________ during any six-month testing period.
one active application
846
For promotion to Assistant Chief, CHP and Deputy Chief, CHP, a minimum of _________ is required in the previous rank.
One year. *Applicants who have completed six months of service performing the duties of an Assistant Chief, CHP, will be admitted to the examination, but they must satisfactorily complete one year of experience performing the duties of an Assistant Chief, CHP, before they can be considered eligible for appointment.)
847
For promotion to Lieutenant, CHP and Captain, CHP, how much time is required in the previous rank?
Two years.
848
During the process of filling a vacancy, the applicant flow data chart, CHP 440A, shall be completed to note ethnicity and gender, as well as any disability among the applicant group considered. The information is acquired through __________.
visual observation
849
True/False - s regarding convictions are permitted of any applicant for any position.
True
850
A check of the applicant's background shall be made _______ a commitment to hire.
after
851
Medical clearances are obtained __________ a commitment to hire.
after
852
The Rule of One Rank:
Identifies that the selection must come from the first rank only.
853
The Rule of Three Names:
Identifies that appointments may be made from the top three names.
854
The rule of 3 Ranks:
Selection shall be made from the top three ranks. Those who achieve the same percentage score rounded to the nearest while point will be placed in the same rank.
855
True/False - It is Departmental policy to fingerprint all employees new to the Department.
True
856
A person considered for appointment to a non-uniformed position (is/is not) required to be a U.S. citizen or a California resident.
is not
857
On an Open List:
Appointment may be made using the Rule of Three Ranks process.
858
All applications and files of applicants not selected for hire must be retained for a minimum period of ____________.
two years
859
Per the Government Code, persons retired from PERS are permitted to work up to ______ hours in a calendar years without reinstating from retirement.
960
860
A limited term appointment is for less than _________.
two years
861
An individual may not work more than __________ months in any consecutive 12 month period in a TAU appointment.
nine
862
Retired Annuitants shall be appointed to a classification in which the person had, could have emoted to, or could have transferred to prior to retirement. They shall be paid at a rate substantially the same as other employees performing comparable duties. In no case shall the new salary step_________________.
exceed the salary step the employee was receiving at the time of retirement.
863
Temporary assignment or loan of an employee, within or between Departments, may not exceed 2 years. Temporary assignments or loans of employees between jurisdictions may not exceed ____ years.
four
864
True/False - Any person having probationary or permanent status, has the privilege of reinstatement.
True, it is not a right though. This applies if he or she was separated: by resignation; by service retirement; by termination from a limited term, temp, or career executive assignment or exempt appointment; by AWOL; without a break in State service to accept another Civil Service or exempt appointment.
865
The Department has the right to accept or deny any request for permissive reinstatement made within three years from the date of separation. Reinstatement during that period is solely at the discretion of the Commissioner. It will be the rare exception when approval is granted to begin the reinstatement process.
rare exception
866
Reinstatement of uniformed employees is normally _______ the step at the time of separation.
one salary step below
867
Reinstatement of a former uniformed employee to a uniformed position shall be within _________.
3 years
| *Note - The process does not have to be completed in that time frame.
868
Reinstated employees must pass PPT, a Psych, a medical exam, and background investigation. Those requesting reinstatement after _________ months of his/her last full duty assignment will: _______________.
six, be required to attend the Academy Reinstatement Training Course.
869
Mandatory reinstatements are for ___________________.
medical or mental reasons when the disability no longer exists
*Note - Return from a disability retirement must not be within 6 months of turning 60.
870
Employee shall be given a written notice of transfer ____ days in advance of the effective date of transfer.
60
Note - Only if the transfer is mandatory and requires the employee to move his/her residence. There is no set date for voluntary transfers.
871
The _____ Code gives the Commissioner the power to administratively determine the geographic area of residence of any member of the Department.
Vehicle
872
All employees, except for _________, shall take and subscribe to the “Oath of Allegiance.” This also applies for reinstatement following permanent separation.
Sergeants and designated alternates are authorized to administer the Oath.
873
Merit salary adjustments (MSA) are increases equal to one step in the salary range, which may be ranted an employee annually if he/she ________ the standards of efficiency required for his/her position
meets
874
Time during which an employee is absent because of holidays, sick leave, vacation, or CTO shall be considered as ________________.
time worked
875
An employee who has _____ or more working days of service in a monthly pay period shall be considered as having a complete pay period.
11
876
Regardless of the probationary period length, an employee will receive ____ evaluations during the period. Most classes require a six month probationary period.
three
877
An employee serving a 12-month probationary period must work a minimum of _____ hours during the 12-month period.
1680
878
In determining the total hours worked, vacation, sick leave, military leave or other leaves of absence, CTO, suspension, (shall/shall) not be considered working time.
shall not
879
Veterans Educational Leave is also available for those who __________.
served in the military.
880
A regular leave up to _____ may be granted by the Department.
one year
*A one-year leave may be extended up to one additional year if approved by the appropriate commissioner prior to the expiration of the original one-year leave.
881
Temporary Leave without pay does not exceed_____ calendar days.
30
882
A spouse/domestic partner or parent who is a permanent employee shall be granted a leave of bsence without pay for a period not to exceed ________- to care for the newborn child.
one year
883
An employee who has had _____ qualifying pay periods of State service without a break is entitled to pay for the first 30 days of a short term military leave.
12
884
Short-term military leave is ____________ or less in length.
six months
885
Long term military leave is more than six months but not exceeding ___________.
five years
886
The employee should notify his/her commander of a military leave at least ____ days prior to the date of leave.
30
887
To be eligible for FMLA/CFRA benefits, an employee must have at least 12 months of state service; and, have worked at least ______ hours during the prior ____ months.
1,250, 12
888
An employee who becomes disabled may be eligible to receive Non-industrial Disability Insurance (NDI). NDI payments may be authorized for a maximum of ______.
26 weeks
889
What are the two categories of separation?
Temporary and permanent.
890
How many categories of separations are there?
two
891
A resignation may be _______ or ______.
written, oral
892
Dismissal (is/is not) the result of an adverse action.
is
893
Automatic resignation is the separation of an employee after absence without leave (AWOL) for _____or more ________ working days.
5, consecutive
894
On all types of separations, it is important that the commander notify ________ immediately.
PSS
895
If a recommendation against rehire or adverse comments are made in the record of exit interview, the employee has ____ days to reply.
30
896
Departmental seniority of an employee who is reinstated (does/does not) include credit for prior Departmental Service.
does
897
The ________ specifies mandatory retirement for uniformed patrol members at age 60.
Government Code
898
Regarding transfer of leave credits for an excluded employee, a family member is defined as:
mother, father, husband, wife, son, daughter, brother, sister, domestic partner (registered with the ecretary of State), or any person residing in the immediate household of the employee at the time of the catastrophic illness or injury.
899
Regarding catastropic leave, a catastrophic illness is:
a severe illness or injury which is expected to incapacitate the employee or a qualifying family member and which creates a financial hardship because the employee has exhausted all of their leave credits.
900
True/False - Catastrophic Leave may be granted as the result of a natural disaster even though the employee or any family member were not injured.
True
901
Requests for catastrophic leave credits made in accordance with DPA rules are reviewed and approved by _________.
the employees immediate commander
902
Catastrophic leave donations of Annual leave, vacation, CTO, personal leave, and or holiday credits can be credited to the employees account in _______ increments after a minimum donation of ________.
1 hour, 1 hour (excluded) / 2 hours, 1 hour (Unit 5)
903
True/False - A non-represented employee may donate eligible leave credits to either a nonrepresented employee or represented employee.
True
904
For an excluded employee, Use of catastrophic leave may not exceed a maximum of ______ continuous months for any one catastrophic illness or injury. For an employee impacted by a natural disaster, use of catastrophic leave may not exceed ________ continuous months for any one occurrence; however, if approved by the appropriate Assistant Commissioner, use of catastrophic leave may be for _____ continuous months.
12, 3, 6
905
True/False - A non-represented employee may receive donated leave credits from a represented employee.8/21/9
False, they may not receive donated leave credits from a represented employee.
906
(T/F) - If the employee feels the decision to deny a secondary employment request is improper or discriminatory, they may appeal the decision through the complaint/grievance procedure.
True
907
When secondary employment is approved for more than __________ or is denied, a copy of the CHP 318 shall be forwarded to the next level of review.
30 calendar days
908
Requests to engage in secondary employment shall be reviewed __________.
annually
909
When an employee is on sick leave, injury status, or limited duty, CHP 318s are __________________.
automatically suspended
910
Employees shall submit memorandums of cancellation within ________ whenever they are no longer employed.
10 calendar days
911
Incident reports are used to record _________ and ___________ acts.
Commendable, Censurable
912
A employee may file a written response within __________.
30 days
913
True/False - An act or incident for which a Form 2 has been issued may not subsequently be made a part of an adverse action.
False, the Form 2 shall be removed from the file and destroyed, but may be used as an exhibit in the AA.
914
Employees required to file an annual statement of economic interests shall do so not later than _______.
April 1
915
Seniority within a classification shall be computed on the basis of continual departmental service within that that classification. Temporary separations are included if they result in _______. Time while serving in a parallel classification or a higher classification within the Department is also included.
mandatory reinstatement
916
(T/F) - Employees must surrender all State property to the State for a leave of and kind.
True
917
State-sponsored dental plans are administered by _________.
DPA
918
Each Area and Division office will appoint a _____________.
health benefits assistant
919
Public employees’ health benefits are administered by _____.
Public Employees Retirement System (PERS)
920
True/False - Membership in an employee organization is not a requirement for enrollment in a State-sponsored plan (except the CAHP Health Benefits Trust Plan).
True
921
An employees child loses eligibility the first of the month following the _____ birthday. Except those mentally or physically incapable of self support.
23rd.
922
True/False - If an employee is enrolled in a State-sponsored health benefits plan, the enrollment will be automatically continued into retirement.
True
923
If an employee desires to have others on the Department informed of his/her medical condition, a ______ shall be completed.
CHP 369
924
When a medical appointment for evaluation of an on-duty injury is scheduled during other than the employees regular shift, the employee will attend on __________.
Leave of Absence with pay
925
Under 4800 time provisions, time lost on the shift on which the injury occurs will be handled as ___________.
work time
926
Sick leave and bereavement leave are governed by the ___________.
Government Code.
927
An employee may use sick leave while on scheduled vacation if:
(1) The employee becomes injured or ill and is unable to continue his/her vacation activities. The ortion of the vacation during which the employee is incapacitated may be charged to sick leave.
(2) The employee has a dental, eye, or other physical or medical examination or treatment by a icensed practitioner.
928
Exposure to contagious disease is a valid reason for sick leave if ____________________.
it requires absence from work
929
For chronic health conditions requiring the use of sick leave, the supervisor _______ have the employee supply a licensed physician’s certification at reasonable intervals of time.
should
930
An employee (may/may not) use sick leave for a family member who goes to the hospital for surgery or a serious injury or illness, if the employee’s presence is needed.
may
931
Sick leave for family care (is/is not) authorized for the care of well children, for household duties, or imply to provide companionship.
is not
932
Non-represented bereavement leave not to exceed ____ days shall be granted to an employee. If the death occurs out of State, 2 additional days may be granted without pay or charged to sick leave credits.
three
933
True/False - If it appears that an employee is using sick leave improperly, the commander may require a Doctor's certification for all illnesses.
True
934
A commander may require a _________ or other verification of injury or illness for every sick eave absence, regardless of length, if it appears the employee is using sick leave improperly, and iscussions with him/her have shown no positive result.
doctor’s certificate
935
A disapproved sick leave request as a result of evidence of an employee falsifying a sick leave claim or attempting to willfully misuse sick leave, is reported as _________.
dock time (Leave of absence without pay)
936
Vacation is charged in increments of _________.
15 minutes
937
Once an excluded employee elects to enroll in ALP, the employee may not elect to enroll in the sick leave/vacation program until ______ has elapsed from the date of enrollment.
24 months
938
Annual leave may be used in increments of _____ for vacation purposes and _____ for sick leave purposes.
15 minute, 15 minute
| *Note - The exception is WWG E and SE
939
For nonuniformed employees the maximum vacation accumulation for employees is ________.
640 hours
940
Employees are allowed a minimum of _____ and a maximum of _____ for lunch.
½ hour, 1 hour
941
Lunch time should be granted no earlier than ____ hours after the beginning of the employee's shift and no later than ____ hours before the end of the shift.
three, three
942
Commanders may grant employees a rest period of ____ minutes or less for each four hours of work, not to exceed a total of ____ minutes for a full work shift.
15, 25
943
A ____ day notice is required by an employee prior to taking a personal holiday.
five
944
An employee may not carry over or cash out more than ___ personal holiday(s) in any fiscal year.
two
945
With Division approval, Commanders that have employees working staggered work hours may start work as early as ________ and may work as late as _________ as long as an eight hour work day is completed.
0700, 1800
946
Commanders shall establish core hours, the period each day that employees are required to be at their work station.
True
947
True/False - The minimum lunch period is 30 minutes, to be taken between 1130 and 1330 hours.
True
948
The work day for all employees shall commence at the start of the employee's shift and end _______ hours later.
24
949
Overtime is credited in _____ hour increments.
¼
950
Overtime for employees in uniform classes is defined as all hours worked in excess of ___ hours in a 28-day work period.
170
951
Employees (should not/shall not) accrue overtime in the same day as scheduled leave credits are used.
should not
952
An employee who has completed a normal work shift, when ordered back to work shall be credited with a minimum of _____ hour(s) work time, provided that the call back to work is without having been notified ______ completion of the normal work shift.
4, prior to
953
When an employee is called back within four hours of the beginning of the next shift, call back credits shall be received ________________.
for the time remaining until the shift begins
954
Overtime credit for attendance at funerals (may/may not) be allowed for employees assigned to honor guard, escort duty, or pallbearer.
may
955
If an employees absence is not considered by the commander as an appropriate charge against accumulated credits, the employee may be considered _______.
absent without pay
956
Dock for tardiness is charged at a minimum of _______ hour(s).
1/10 (6 minutes)
957
True/False - An AWOL absence is reported on a STD 634.
False, Dock time is reported on the 634.
958
Uniformed personnel who are required to perform jury duty shall be granted a leave of absence with pay provided the employee requested and was denied the exemption and they ____________.
remit all jury duty fees received to the Department
| *Note - Non-uniformed must do the same; however, they cannot not get the request an exemption from the court.
959
True/False - If an employee performs jury duty while off duty, on scheduled vacation, Annual Leave, Overtime credit, or on a holiday, where it is not a regularly assigned day, they are on their own time and do not remit fees.
True
960
An employee shall be allowed to take a State Civil Service exam and be absent with pay, provided the employee gives the supervisor at least ___ days notice.
two
| *Note - This also applies to SPB board hearings and State Civil Service employment interviews
961
Employee will receive a maximum of ___ hours of work time to vote if there is insufficient time to vote outside of work hours.
two
962
Employees may be granted up to 5 days of Leave of Absence with pay if they live or work in a County where a state of Emergency was declared by the Governor. The Commander who identifies a need will request approval of the Commissioner’s officer. The use will always be at the discretion of the commander. To qualify:
The office must be temporarily closed or Reasonable routes to and from the office are difficult or The emergency presents an immediate or grave peril to the employee’s immediate family or a person at their residence or The employee is actively involved in a formal organized effort to protect the health and safety of the general public (sandbagging, aux. Fire or police). The employee needs time to apply for FEMA and their hours don’t permit it.
963
Managers and supervisorial employees who have been offered managerial employment positions, may get up to _____ days ATO (admin. time off) granted by the commander to move or attend to moving details. They need not be consecutive days.
five
964
Employees who are assigned RDO’s other than Saturday and Sundays are considered __________________ employees.
irregular workweek
965
For the 4/10 workweek, the day off (may/may not) vary from week to week.
may
966
State regulations prohibit authorization of ___________ to receive and distribute warrants.
attendance clerks
967
Commanders shall not release warrants until an employee has _________.
completed work for the pay period
968
No adverse comment shall be entered in any personnel file without the employee ___________.
reading and signing the document *Note - This does not apply to cadets.
969
When an employee is being transferred, his/her personnel folder shall be forwarded to the new commander so it will arrive _________.
one week before reporting date
970
Grievance records shall be filed in separate confidential files and shall be retained at the affected command levels for _______ subsequent to the final action.
three years
971
All applications and files of applicants not selected for hire must be retained for a minimum of _______.
two years (by calendar year, alphabetical order).
972
The bilingual program was adopted to provide compensation for employees that use blingual skills on a continuing basis, average of (what percent) of their work time?
10%
973
True/False - Relocation expenses will be paid for training and development assignments.
False
974
All out-of-class (OOC) assignments will be made in writing and must have the advance approval of the Commissioner or appropriate __________ and _____________.
Assistant Commissioner, Selection Standards and Examinations Section, Classification, Hiring, and Validation Program (CHVP)
975
Out-of -Class assignment wmade ill be made in writing and will have advance approval of the _________.
Commissioner or appropriate Assistant Commissioner and Selection Standards and Examinations Section, Classification, Hiring, and Validation Program (CHVP).
976
It is expected that in no case should an Out-of-class assignment exceed ______ days.
120
977
Confidential, supervisory, and excluded employees are eligible for out-of-class compensation if the assignment lasts over ____ consecutive working days.
15
978
An employee who believes they have been working out of class may file a claim during the assignment or within _____ days of the cessation of the out-of class duties.
30
979
Managerial employees (may be/are not) eligible for out-of-class compensation.
may be
980
The _____________ procedure shall be utilized if the employee attempted the informal process with the supervisor and that does not produce adequate agreement.
grievance
981
What is the Department's philosophy on how the citizens complaint process should be utilized.
The citizens’ complaint process should be utilized as a management tool to provide the highest level of public service. The public must have faith in that the Department accepts and investigates complaints in an unbiased manner.
982
By investigating complaints objectively, supporting employees when allegations are proven invalid, and taking corrective action when necessary, the Department provides a means of:
monitoring employee conduct and attitudes toward the public, and allows for improved operational procedures through the review and analysis of complaint trends.
983
When a citizen complains to the Department, either verbally, in writing, or in person, the complaint will be___________; an ___________ will be initiated, and the complainant will be __________.
acknowledged investigation
| notified (of findings and actions taken)
984
Category I complaints allege __________.
physical contact, excessive force, and/or criminal, racial, sexual, or immoral conduct.
985
Category II complaints allege __________.
verbal misconduct, nonverbal misconduct (not involving actual physical contact), and/or complaints regarding matters not related to an employee's conduct.
986
Complaints which may contain Category I or II allegations but which also meet the definition of one of the following: Departmental, Citation Validity, Rescinded, or Frivolous Complaints are categorized as __________.
other complaints
987
A citizen's expression of concern regarding a specific traffic problem is classified as a __________.
```
traffic complaint (non complaint)
*Note - Issues brought to the attention of the Department which are not normally considered citizens’ complaints for the purpose of investigation and documentation in accordance with this manual. Examples of such non-complaint issues include: Traffic, Vehicle Storage/Impound, Validity, Other Agency, Off-duty conduct
```
988
There are __________ types of findings to citizen complaint investigations.
five (Sustained, Exonerated, Departmental, Undetermined/No Finding, and Unintentional
Error)
989
A finding of sustained indicates that the alleged incident __________.
did occur and was improper
990
When an investigation indicates that an employee made an honest error not related to misconduct, the complaint finding shall be __________.
unintentional error
991
A Departmental findings indicates that employee actions were __________.
in compliance with Departmental policy.
* but the policy or procedure itself is found to be erroneous or is the cause of the complainant’s concerns.
* Departmental is also the only allowable finding for Departmental complaints.
992
An exonerated finding indicates that __________.
employee conduct was proper/no misconduct occurred, or did commit the act and it is deemed to be proper or within policy
993
A complaint brought by any person or group, who is not a witness or party to an alleged incident is classified as a __________. This includes complaints by non-involved relatives, parents of children over 18 years of age, and attorneys acting on behalf of a client.
third party complaint
| *Note - The parent or guardian of a minor child would be a first party complaint.
994
CHP 240A, Complaint Control Log
What CHP form __________ shall be maintained and used as a control log for complaints?
995
What CHP form __________ describes the Department's complaint process?
CHP 240B, Citizens' Complaint Information
996
Complaints should be received by an individual at the rank of __________.
supervisor or above
997
When a complaint is lodged at other than the originating command, proper procedure is to __________.
complete the Area’s 240 and 240A with a note in the remarks section indicating who was contacted at the responsible Area and when the Area was contacted. Forward it with a memo to the proper command and send a copy to the next level of command.
998
All complainants shall be acknowledged by correspondence within ______business days of the Department’s notification of the complaint.
five
*As an exception, interim correspondence is not required if the complainant originally contacted the Department in person and the requisite information normally contained in an interim letter was provided at that time. (Incluidng 240B/240D)
999
An acknowledgment to any type of complaint is required __________.
within five business days of the Departments notification of the complaint.
1000
If a commander receives a third party complaint, is the commander required to attempt to contact the allegedly aggrieved party.
Yes
1001
True/False - An employee's off-duty conduct should be investigated when his/her actions involve the Department or he/she interjects the Department into his/her conduct.
True
*Note - Most Complaints are not investigated simply if complainant is aware of employer and there is no nexus to the department.
1002
The citizens' complaint process (may/shall not) be utilized to document internal complaints or grievances.
shall not
1003
Normally, legislative complaints will be forwarded to commands by the Bureau of Internal Affairs (BIA), and the initial correspondence to the legislator will _________________.
have already been accomplished
*In the event a command receives a legislative complaint that was not forwarded from BIA, the command, in coordination with the Department’s Office of Special Representative, shall also send a response letter directly to the legislator or other originating entity.
1004
In a third party complaint, if the third party is a federal or State elected official, responses are coordinated through __________.
Office of Special Representative.
1005
The Department (will/will not) accept and investigate complaints against uniformed employees submitted through the Internet.
will
*Investigators shall ensure that a standard CHP 240B is provided to such complainants, to ensure that the proper Penal Code advisory has been complied with.
1006
What rank shall the primary investigator be?
The primary investigator shall be a supervisor or of one rank higher than the person being investigated. Lower ranking personnel with specific qualifications (PMA, DRE, EMT, MAIT etc.) may assist by providing expert opinion.
1007
Normal suspense period for legislative complaints is ______ days.
30
1008
The normal suspense period for complaints received at the command, or forwarded from BIA is ______ days.
60
1009
If a complaint is generated while an employee is attending training at the Academy, who will be responsible for the investigation?
the Academy Commander
1010
When a complaint involves individuals from multiple commands, which command is responsible for overall coordination of the investigation, and issuing the control number?
The primary investigating command.
*Note - In most instances, this will be the command with the employee who has the most serious allegations, or the command with the greatest number of employees involved.
1011
Who is responsible for the conduct and quality of the compliant investigation including documentation and correspondence with the complainant?
Primary Investigator
1012
Normally, an interview with the involved employee should be conducted ______ gathering all other available information.
after
1013
If, during the course of a routine interview in which the employee does not have representation, information surfaces which indicates the employee may be faced with adverse actionthe interview _____ be suspended and the employee _____ be informed of his/her right to representation.
should, shall
1014
Statements by complainants and witnesses ________ be recorded in potentially serious cases, as determined by the commander.
shall
*Given the inherent advantages of having a completely objective version of the event, the recording of statements and interviews should be considered in virtually all instances.
1015
The employee’s complaint history (may, should, shall) be examined in order to determine the existence of previous complaints which would be relevant to the current investigation.
shall
1016
All complaints with allegations of criminal misconduct which have a finding of sustained or unintentional error shall be referred to whom?
District Attorney
1017
Allegation findings shall be based on a preponderance of evidence adequate to lead a _______ and _______ person to reach the same conclusion.
reasonable and prudent
1018
Multiple occasions of the same allegation will be addressed with how many findings?
Only one finding for similar allegations.
1019
If during the investigation the complainant indicates a wish to withdraw the allegations, the commander may __________.
elect to accept or decline the request based upon reasons for the request. This does not relieve commander from responsibility to determine if misconduct exists, and following it to conclusion. A closing correspondence is required either way
1020
When an investigation reveals a deviation from policy that is not part of an allegation, Commanders shall __________.
initiate corrective action and comment in recommendations section.
1021
If the complaint investigation uncovers any actual or alleged damage to property, or injuries to persons which may result in a claim against the state, a CHP 268, Potential civil litigation Report, shall be completed. The CHP 268 ___________ be attached to the complaint investigation.
shall not
1022
(T/F) - The Bazemore Admonition shall not be included in any CHP 2.
True
1023
The Bazemore admonition shall be included in all _______________ which are counseling or remedial in nature.
Memorandums of Findings or Direction
1024
True/False - A Form 2 may serve in lieu of a closing documentation to the officer for corrective action.
True
| * May also be request for AA, MOD, or MOF
1025
In instances where the corrective documentation is being issued solely as a result of a finding of ___________, the inclusion of the Bazemore admonition should be left to the discretion of the commander.
Unintentional Error
1026
The following statement is known as the ______________.
"Your conduct on this occasion [these occasions] was unacceptable and will not be tolerated by this Department. If you engage in similar conduct in the future, the Department may take Adverse Action against you based on the incident[s] cited in this documentation, as well as any future incidents."
Bazemore admonition
1027
A Category I complaint's closing letter is delivered once __________.
Division approves the file
| *Note - Divisions may establish local procedures for Category II complaints.
1028
Category I complaints are approved by __________.
BIA
1029
Category II complaints are approved by __________.
Area Commanders
| *Note - Division commanders may reserve approving authority as they deem necessary.
1030
How may employees unsatisfied with the outcome of an investigation interject objections?
Write a written response per G.C. 3306 within 30 days.
1031
A copy of any corrective documentation issued to an employee may only refer to allegations with findings of _____ or _____.
Sustained, Unintentional Error
*Other closing documentation issued to an employee shall remain as an exhibit in the complaint investigation, but shall not be placed in the field personnel folder.
1032
Any corrective documentation issued to an employee as the result of a complaint investigation, shall be removed from the employee’s field personnel folder after a period of ____ years, commencing from the date of issue.
three
1033
Complaint investigations shall be retained for a period of __________ years beginning on the date the complaint was received by the Department.
five.
1034
When an employee transfers, all complaint files shall be ________ to the new command.
transferred
1035
Complaint investigations (are/are not) discoverable under the Public Records Act.
are not
1036
Personnel investigations may be released to the Attorney General if __________.
the Attorney General is defending the Department/Employees
1037
Commands are required to provide statistical information to BIA by MIS or memorandum NLT __________.
January 20th of each year
1038
An investigation may be amended at any time before or after __________.
closing notification to complainant and/or division and prior to review with the employee
1039
Changes made to a complaint that has already been closed shall be made by __________.
attachment of memorandum, complete an amended 240, review with the employee *Note - The original complaint may not be altered.
1040
Civil Code Section 47.5 allows a peace officer to __________.
sue individual who files false complaint
1041
The Information File is for what purpose?
The Information File is a catalog of complainants who have demonstrated a propensity towards the filing of frivolous, spurious or specious complaints.
1042
If the complainant is in the information file does the commander have to investigate the complaint?
Yes
1043
Upon learning that a departmental employee is the subject of an allied agency investigation, a Commander shall __________.
notify BIA through channels and, if appropriate, begin separate internal investigation
1044
Civil rights violations are identified in federal statutes and are _______ in nature.
criminal
1045
The decision to consent to an interview with an outside civil rights investigator shall be at the _____________.
sole discretion of the employee
* If such an interview is conducted on state time, a departmental supervisor shall be present and shall tape recorded any interview.
1046
Section 832.5 of the __________ Code requires that all law enforcement agencies set up a system for complaint investigations.
Penal
1047
(T/F) - Prepaid professional counseling sessions are only available for work related personal issues.
False
| *wide range of personal issues (family, marriage, etc...)
1048
The Purpose of the Employee Assistance Program (EAP) is to provide _________________.
confidential, professional assistance to any employee with behavioral or personal problems which may impair his/her job performance, attendance, or conduct.
1049
____________, including supervisors, may inform other employees of the availability of EAP services.
Any employee
1050
Unit 5 and 7 employees and their families are entitled to ________ for each unrelated problem type per year.
7 sessions
1051
True/False - Peer support can be considered a substitute for professional counseling.
False
1052
True/False - The Peer Support Program does not take the place of the mandatory debriefing following a shooting incident.
True
1053
(T/F) - No records will be maintained which identify employees who utilize the Peer Support Program
True
1054
Employees shall be advised that confidentiality shall be maintained except in the following three circumstances:
illegal activity, when a PSO/PSCO is subpoenaed, when a PSO/PSCO believes that the employee is a danger to him/herself or others.
1055
If an employee requests assistance prior to becoming the subject of an adverse action for misconduct involving alcohol or prescription drug abuse, his/her request shall be treated in a _________.
confidential manner
1056
Commanders shall refer officers who have been involved in a traumatic incident to a single post-incident debriefing session within _______ hours.
72
1057
True/False - An employee may arrange for a mandatory critical incident debriefing with a licensed clinician of their choice at their own expense.
True
1058
The department is ________ and _________ responsible for the safety of its employees.
legally and morally
1059
To be effective, an occupational safety program needs ___________ to prevent or mitigate injuries, illnesses, and exposures, and reduce or eliminate accidents and loss or damage to departmental property.
employee participation
1060
Occupational Safety Committees assist commands in administering safety responsibilities, achieving compliance with safety requirements and resolving local health and safety issues. Members of the committees represent _________________ as well as _________
all collective bargaining units, local management within commands
1061
_________________ is responsible for investigating all complaints alleging unsafe and/or unhealthy conditions in the workplace.
Department of Industrial Relations, Division of Occupational Safety and Health (DOSH)
1062
Commands are to respond to all contacts from DOSH alleging unsafe or unhealthy conditions in the workplace. Commands should coordinate their response with the ______________.
Health and Safety Section, Occupational Safety Unit
1063
The _____________ provides a framework for establishing and maintaining safe work practices and healthy conditions in the workplace.
Injury and Illness Prevention Program (IIPP)
1064
According to the Hazardous Substances Program, affected employees are to be provided with information including:
This includes labeling of all hazardous substances routinely used in commands and posting warning signs as necessary, ensuring applicable Material Safety Data Sheets are available, and training of employees and its documentation.
1065
______________ is required to be given to employees who are required to drive routinely on official business.
Defensive driver training
1066
True/False – With regard to hazardous environments in the workplace, personal protective equipment shall be used only when all other forms of corrective measures are exhausted.
True
1067
__________ are responsible for minimizing the incidences of employee accidents, injuries, exposures and loss or damage to departmental property.
Commanders or their designees
1068
______________ have the authority and responsibility to oversee the work efforts of supervisors to ensure attainment of the command’s safety goals and compliance with healthy and safe work practices. They are also responsible for ensuring that the appropriate health and safety training is received.
Managers
1069
Accidents usually are unexpected results of operational and/or management errors. Responsibility for control of these errors is a ______________ .
management function at every command level
1070
______________ are responsible for ensuring that their subordinates receive appropriate health and safety training, monitoring employee job performance, and ensuring that employees follow healthy and safe work practices.
Supervisors
1071
Measures to correct deficiencies within divisions are implemented through the ________, preferably at the lowest level.
Division Occupational Safety Committee
1072
The DOSB is the policy-level occupational safety organization within the department and reports _________.
Assistant Commissioner, Inspector General (ACIG)
1073
The Chairperson for the DOSB is the ___________.
Assistant Commissioner, Inspector General (ACIG)
1074
An ______________ serves as the Chairperson for each Division Occupational Safety Committee.
Assistant Chief
1075
Minutes of DOSB meeting are prepared by ___________.
the Occupational Safety Unit (OSU) staff, who shall also be responsible for the distribution 933
1076
The DOSB shall meet at least _____________.
quarterly (Division and Departmental Occupational Safety Committee).
1077
A ____________ serves as an ex-officio member of the DOSB.
Director of the California Association of Highway Patrolmen
1078
Minutes of the Division Occupational Safety Meetings shall be prepared in a timely manner and forwarded to ____________ and ____________.
the appropriate Assistant Commissioner and OSU
| *Note - Action items shall be highlighted in the meeting minutes.
1079
Determining "Preventability" is the responsibility of ____________.
the local commander
1080
Members of the COSC shall conduct periodic inspections, at least ________, of facilities and equipment to identify potentially unsafe work conditions, practices or situations.
semi-annually
1081
The members of the COSC may review the findings of the commander for a recommendation on ___________.
preventability
1082
Command Occupational Safety Committees (COSC) assist the commander in achieving ___________________.
compliance with occupational safety requirements and resolving health and safety issues within the local command
1083
Participative management techniques are highly productive in accident prevention at this level and operate on the highest plane when they are __________.
proactive rather than reactive
1084
Copies of minutes shall be sent to _________.
Division with the action items highlighted
1085
The COSC shall meet at least _________.
quarterly
1086
The major emphasis of the COSC must be on __________________.
skill techniques and procedures which minimize operational hazards and which must be utilized by personnel who perform a wide variety of tasks under difficult stress situations
1087
Suggestions from an individual should be channeled to the _____________. When such recommendations have departmental application, they should be forwarded to ________.
the local command safety committee for considerations, the appropriate Assistant Commissioner to DOSB
1088
The Division Health and Safety Coordinator shall be responsible for carrying out the directions of the Division commander in support of the Division’s occupational safety program. The Division Health and Safety Coordinator reviews __________, _______, _______, _____________ and prepares the Division reports for submission to Health and Safety Section.
CHP 208, Accident Prevention Report, CHP 121, Employer’s Report of Occupational Injury or Illness, CHP 113, Accident and Injury Report, OSHA No. 200, Log and Summary of Occupational Injuries and Illnesses
1089
The _______________________ maintains current Material Safety Data Sheets for immediate access by all departmental personnel.
Assistant Commissioner, Inspector General (ACIG)
1090
___________ and ________ are the primary safety instructors for the department.
Supervisors and Managers
1091
Supervisors and managers shall receive general training from ___________ to familiarize themselves with the safety and health hazards to which personnel may be exposed.
Departmental Training Division, Occupational Safety Unit (OSU)
1092
True/False – The safety performance of the supervisor’s or manager’s respective units shall be an element in the annual performance appraisal of the supervisor or manager.
True
1093
By ________ of each year, Areas, Sections, the academy, and communication centers shall submit their proposed goals and action plans to their respective Divisions.
the 15th of December
1094
By ________ of each year, Executive Offices, Protective Services Division, Air Operations, Program Management shall prepare consolidated goals and submit them to the appropriate Assistant Commissioner.
the 15th of January
1095
Following negotiations and upon approval, finalized goals and action plans shall be included as an annex to the command’s ______________ and retained for ______.
IIPP, the current year plus three years
1096
Commanders may use the past as a guide for setting future goals, but not as __________.
the primary basis to identify future performance
1097
The commander shall not consider _________ or ___________ when setting occupational safety goals.
illnesses or non-disabling injuries
1098
When an employee is involved in a personal injury, illness, hazardous exposure or vehicle/aircraft accident, the commander shall ensure that an __________ is conducted so that corrective measures may be identified and implemented.
adequate review
1099
The review process includes an examination of the employee’s ________ to aid in detecting unsafe practices, physical weaknesses and attitudes that may need modification.
CHP 442
1100
True/False – The COSC may review the commander’s findings in regard to preventability and change the finding.
False, They may only ask the commander to consider various factors in the assignment of the finding.
1101
If the employee disagrees with the commander’s finding, he/she may _________.
utilize the standard grievance procedure of the employee’s collective bargaining unit. If non-represented, follow the procedures in HPM 9.1, Employee Relations Manual
1102
When an accident, injury, illness or hazardous exposure is deemed to have been preventable, the commander shall _____________.
conduct an interview with the employee to ensure an understanding of the causative factors
1103
Corrective action must be taken when an employee does not follow safe or healthy work practices. This corrective action is documented in _________.
accordance with the command’s IIPP, Chapter 4
1104
True/False – Repeated poor motorcycle riding practices shall provide a basis for removal of a rider from motorcycle duty.
True
1105
Commanders shall schedule ___________ safety inspections of departmental facilities.
semi-annual
1106
Inspections shall proceed __________.
COSC meetings and shall be an agenda item
1107
Safety inspections and any discrepancies shall be documented on the _________.
CHP 113A, Safety Inspection Checklist.
1108
Accountability reporting is required _________ of all commands by submission of the _______.
Quarterly, CHP 113
1109
Each headquarters’ Division Health and Safety Coordinator shall prepare a composite CHP 113 for accidents and injuries occurring within their divisions. This report shall be forward to ________ no later than ____________. If applicable, Divisions shall submit a memorandum explaining why their goals were not attained to the _______ with a copy to _______.
OSU/
/the first day of the second month following the reporting period appropriate assistant Commissioner/
OSU
1110
Division, Area, Communications Center, Inspection Facility, and Academy CHP 113s shall be submitted to Division no later than __________.
the 15th day of the first month following the end of the reporting period
1111
The fourth quarter (year-end) report from field Divisions shall include the Division composite as well as _____________.
a copy of each Division’s subordinate commands’ fourth quarter CHP 113s
1112
A recordable vehicle accident is any _____________.
fleet motor vehicle accident as defined by the American National Standards Institute. A fleet accident is also generally defined as any accident involving any motor vehicle operated by Departmental personnel while on official business. This includes privately owned, rented, leased or General Services pool cars. It does not include privately owned motorcycles.
1113
True/False - Any accident involving any motor vehicle, not including privately owned motorcycles, operated by a CHP employee could be classified as a recordable accident.
True, if operated on official business.
1114
Accidents that occur to an employee on temporary assignment shall be charged to the command of temporary assignment unless ________________.
unless the assignment is for control of civil disturbance, then it is charged to the permanent command.
1115
Accidents that occur to an employee traveling to and from a temporary assignment shall be charged to ____________.
the command where the employee is permanently assigned.
1116
Accidents that occur to an employee while temporarily assigned to and/or under the direct control and supervision of an entity other than the Department shall be charged to ________.
the appropriate Assistant Commissioner
1117
The term "Preventable Accident" refers to _______________.
a recordable accident the commander has determined to have been preventable by the driver/rider
1118
Accidents which occur during training at other sites, including the Academy, shall be charged to the _______________.
command where the employee is permanently assigned at the time of the accident
1119
A "Disabling Injury or Illness" is documented as a __________ on the OSHA No. 200.
“Lost Workday” injury or illness
1120
An injury is defined as any cut, fracture, sprain, amputation or other event resulting from a work accident or exposure involving a __________. Conditions resulting from animal bites, such as insect or snake bites, or from one-time exposure to chemicals are considered to be injuries.
single incident
1121
An illness is any abnormal condition or disorder, other than one resulting from a workrelated injury, caused by _______________. Included are acute and chronic illnesses or diseases which may be caused by inhalation, absorption, ingestion, cumulative trauma, stress or direct contact.
exposure to environmental factors associated with employment
1122
able injuries or illnesses shall not be included until __________.
accepted by the State Compensation Insurance Fund (SCIF)
1123
Fitness injuries/illnesses are defined as any injury or illness which occurs or is manifested during ___________, ______________ or ______________.
pre-employment physical fitness examination, physical training at the Academy, or evaluation of any employee for physical fitness for the job
1124
Use of private vehicles on official business may be authorized by a commander only if the driver certifies ____________.
that the vehicle is and will be maintained in a safe condition and is covered by insurance.
1125
All employees who frequently are requested to drive on official business shall be trained in defensive driving techniques. Frequently means _______.
once a month or more
| *Note - Chapter 4 was the Injury and Illness Program which is now HPM 10.7
1126
When a complaint is received from DOSH, the command required to investigate the alleged incident and respond to the DOSH Compliance Office within ________.
14 calendar days
1127
Upon receipt of a complaint, the command shall immediately ____________.
forward a copy of the Complaint Letter to both its Division and the Departmental Training Division, Occupational Safety Unit (OSU).
*The command should coordinate its response with OSU.
1128
A copy of the Complaint Letter and a copy of the command’s response are to be posted in a prominent location in the command readily accessible for employee review for _______.
a minimum of three days or until the unsafe condition is corrected
1129
If the command does not satisfactorily respond to DOSH within 14 calendar days upon receipt of the Complaint Letter, ___________________________.
the DOSH, Compliance Office will conduct the inspection
1130
DOSH Compliance Officers should conduct the inspection jointly with ________.
the highest-ranking manager or supervisor on the site
1131
True/False – Employees who are requested to be interviewed by the DOSH Compliance Officer may decline to do so.
True
1132
True/False - Employees who agree to be interviewed by DOSH may do so in private.
True
1133
The California Labor Code requires that fire or police agencies responding to accidents involving ______________________________ shall immediately notify DOSH by telephone.
death, serious injury or illness or overnight stays in the hospital for other than observation *Note- The exceptions are: Accidents that occur on a public street or highway, or any serious injury, illness, or death caused by a violation of a Penal Code violation, except PC Section 385 (illegal operation of equipment adjacent to high-voltage overhead conductors)
1134
True/False - A CHP vehicle parked in a restaurant parking lot is struck by a DUI suspect leaving the lot. This is a recordable accident.
False, fleet motor vehicle accidents exclude properly parked vehicles.
1135
True/False - An officer is pushing a disabled vehicle off the freeway. In the process the patrol car push bumper smashes the motorists tail light. This is a recordable accident.
False, fleet accidents do not include deliberate acts or push bumper operational damage.
1136
Each Commander must post a list of hazardous substances used, assure that containers are labeled, and obtain _____________.
Material Safety Data Sheets.
1137
True/False - Uniformed commercial officers are required to have commentary driver training?
True, all uniformed employees which includes uniformed commercial officers are required to have commentary driver training annually for one hour completed with a supervisor. Non uniformed personnel who frequently drive on official business shall have between 30 minutes and one hour annually.
1138
Uniformed employees will receive _______ of commentary driving each year.
one hour
1139
Non-uniformed employees will receive __________ of commentary driving each year.
30 minutes to one hour
1140
Non-uniformed employees who frequently drive on official business will receive multimedia driver training course every _______ year(s).
four
1141
___________ mandates that employees be protected from potentially harmful exposures to hazardous conditions, substances, or forms of energy found in the work environment through the use of appropriate engineering and/or administrative controls.
California Code of Regulations, Title 8, General Industrial Safety Order 5141 (GISO)
1142
Commanders are to ensure that pregnant employees are made aware of the risks associated with firearms training. Pregnant employees should _________.
confer with their medical care provider regarding the advisability of the employee participating in, or performing duties associated with firearms training
1143
If an employee sustains a serious or fatal injury involving a body part protected by personal protective equipment (PPE), the command shall ensure the equipment is preserved as _______________.
evidence
1144
Program objectives are:
Provide appropriate benefits to qualified disabled employees.
Provide for prompt and effective reporting of injuries within designated time frames.
Return disabled employees to work as soon as medically appropriate. Maintain on-going communication with injured employees
1145
A ____________ designation applies for those injuries which do not require any first aid, medical treatment.
record only
1146
An employee who is injured while on duty and goes home for the remainder of the shift but reports back to work (full or limited duty) the next scheduled work shift has a ___________ injury.
non-disabling
1147
When an employee is unable to return to work on the next scheduled work shift the injury or illness is considered __________.
a disabling injury or illness
1148
The four types of injury or illness designations are:
record only, first aid, disabling, non-disabling
1149
An employee carries a mattress at home the day before claiming an injury at work. The employee is checked by a doctor and returns to limited-duty the next day for a period of two weeks. This would be considered a ________ _________ injury.
nondisabling, able
1150
A serious injury is one which requires, __________________, a lengthy disability status or retirement.
overnight hospital care other than for observation
1151
A hazardous exposure is defined as ____________________.
exposure to any chemical, biological, or physical agent which does not result in an injury or illness
1152
A recurrence of an injury is defined as a spontaneous recurrence (with/without) a new causative incident.
without
1153
An aggravation of a prior injury has an identifiable new ______________ and shall be processed as a new injury.
incident of injury or illness
1154
An injury or illness claim to which there exists substantial evidence to whether the injury or illness is employment (job) related is considered a(n) _____________.
able injury or illness
1155
Four separate injury related notices are to be posted in each work location. These are
STD 621 - Injury procedures and potential sources of medical care
OSHA - "Safety and Health Protection on the Job"
CAL-OSHA S-11 - "Access to Medical and Exposure Records"
OSHA NO. 200- “Log and Summary of Occupational injuries and illnesses
1156
True/False - Commanders shall ensure injury and illness claims are not deemed able simply because they are not witnessed or are a result of cumulative trauma. If, based on facts and information obtained during preparation of the employee’s CHP 121, Employer’s Report of Occupational Injury or Illness, there is reason to whether the injury or illness is work related, the claim should be deemed able pending SCIF’s decision of acceptance or denial.
True
*Note - Reasons for ing the claim shall be documented in detail on the employee’s CHP 121. Any additional supporting documentation shall be attached to the CHP 121.
1157
Commanders (should/shall) revoke a uniformed peace officer powers and secure all stateissued firearms whenever the uniformed employee is off duty as a result of a psychological reason, to include stress.
shall
*In those instances where commanders identify extenuating circumstances, the commander may provide justification through channels to the Office of the Commissioner, requesting a waiver.
1158
Commanders (should/shall) direct uniformed employees who are off duty, as a result of an industrial or non-industrial injury or illness where a physician has diagnosed that the employee is not capable of performing the 14 critical tasks, should avoid engaging in any activity requiring the use of peace officer powers.
shall
1159
True/False – Commanders shall authorize medical expenses if preventative medicine or post-exposure testing is conducted relative to the hazardous exposure incident which did not result in employee injury or illness.
True
1160
Commanders shall maintain an open line of communication with employees who are ____________.
off duty pending retirement
1161
Commanders shall notify Division if it appears as though an employee in not making a good faith effort toward prescribed medical rehabilitation and make recommendations toward the course of action to be taken. They may also consult with _____________ regarding possible courses of action to assist in formulating recommendations
Disability and Retirement Section (DRS)
1162
Commanders shall guard against the fraudulent use or abuse of the worker’s compensation system. The presence of several indicators, while suggestive of possible fraud, does not mean that fraud has been committed. Indicators should be considered __________ only and not actual evidence that fraud has been committed. Commanders shall notify ___________, through the chain of command, if fraud is suspected.
"Red Flags," the Bureau of Internal Affairs if fraud is suspected
1163
Commanders may suspend secondary employment requests if medical care provider’s written response indicates the secondary employment ___________.
may impede ability to recover
*Note - Commanders may reinstate secondary employment if medical care provider indicates secondary employment will not impede the employee’s ability to recover.
1164
Commanders shall maintain a ___________ for all employees assigned limited duty or who are off duty.
CHP 121D
1165
The Commander (or designee) shall notify the appropriate Assistant Commissioner, Division Commander, and Disability and Retirement Section (via comm net message) of any employee off duty as a result of an industrial injury on the first day following _____
CHP 121D
1166
The Commander (or designee) shall notify the appropriate Assistant Commissioner, Division Commander, and Disability and Retirement Section (via comm net message) of any employee off duty as a result of an industrial injury on the first day following _____
the first 30 calendar days
1167
Upon notification of an injury, illness, or hazardous exposure, the supervisor shall _____________.
conduct a comprehensive review of the facts surrounding the incident
1168
Supervisors if practical shall accompany employees to the initial medical appointment but in no event shall supervisors attempt to be present when ____________.
the employee is being examined by the doctor
1169
Regarding death, serious injury or illness, immediate __________ must be made to Division and the _________________________.
notification, appropriate assistant Commissioner by telephone
1170
If notification to the commissioner’s office cannot be made, ___________ shall be contacted _____________________.
the Supervising Watch Officer at the Sacramento Communications Center, to assist with making notification through the pager system
1171
In the event of a death or serious injury, a Comm-Net message shall be sent to the ________ and _________ within ________ of the occurrence.
the appropriate assistant Commissioner, DRU, eight hours
1172
In the event of a death or serious injury, notification shall be made to SCIF by telephone _____________.
as soon as possible
1173
CHP 121 documentation for job applicants shall indicate the salary as ________ and the occupation as ____________.
"None," "Job Applicant"
1174
True/False – Injuries and illnesses to job applicants shall be included in the departmental occupational safety statistics.
False, they shall not be included.
1175
True/False – Volunteers are considered employees and are entitled to worker compensation benefits.
False, they are not considered employees (California Labor Code) but if the governing agency adopted a resolution declaring the volunteer to be an employee of that agency, the volunteer may be eligible for worker’s compensation benefits.
1176
Within ________ an employee must prepare a memorandum for a recurrence of an injury or illness.
24 Hours
| *Note - If the employee is unable to prepare within 24 hours, prepare as soon as possible.
1177
Information identifying ___________ shall be included within the memorandum documenting the recurrence of an injury or illness. Additionally, __________ shall be attached to the memorandum and the original shall be forwarded to SCIF.
the employee’s medical care provider, medical documentation and available information identifying the prior injury or illness
1178
The CAL/OSHA 300, "Log and Summary of Occupational Injuries and Illnesses", requires the entry of each occupational injury or illness within working ____ days.
six
1179
All able injuries (unless record only or first aid) and illnesses shall be entered on the Log and ___________ if subsequently denied by SCIF.
line out
1180
Cadet injuries are initially recorded on the Academy Log and upon graduation they are ___________.
forwarded to the command of permanent assignment
1181
A Cal-OSHA number shall be assigned to every injury and illness which is recorded on the Log except _________.
except able injuries and illnesses until accepted by SCIF
1182
True/False - If no recordable injuries or illnesses have occurred in the previous year, a OSHA 300A Log should not be prepared.
False, The OSHA 300A (Summary of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses) shall be prominently posted at the work site by February 1st of the year following the year covered by the Log, and shall remain posted until April 30th. Negative reports SHALL be prepared and posted.
1183
Commands must save the OSHA 300 Log, the privacy case list (if one exists), and the annual summary for how long?
Five (5) years following the end of the calendar year that the records cover.
*Note - CHP 121s shall also be maintained five years for each injury or illness recorded on the Log.
1184
hat are the Supervisor’s duties within the 24 hours of an injury or illness to an employee?
To provide the employee with a CHP 600 and CHP 601; to complete and have employee sign CHP 121 and CHP 121A; to initiate SCIF 3301 and to provide a copy to the employee; to prepare status change Comm-Net Message.
1185
If an injury/illness occurs to an employee while he/she is temporarily assigned to another command, who will be responsible for filing the CHP 121, Employer’s Report of Occupational Injury or Illness?
The temporary command.
| *The command where the employee is permanently assigned shall be responsible for subsequent case management.
1186
Injuries shall be reported to a supervisor at the earliest opportunity. A CHP 121 and 121A must be prepared within _____________.
24 hours by a supervisor
1187
Reports of injury must be submitted to the State Compensation Insurance Fund (SCIF) within ___________.
five days
1188
If necessary a ______ completed CHP 121 may be submitted to SCIF containing available information and stating that supplemental information will follow.
partially
1189
In even of a hazardous exposure claim, does the Supervisor fill out and complete both the CHP 121 and CHP 121A?
No. Only the 121A and within 24 hours.
1190
In event of an injury, illness or exposure, what forms must the employee sign?
1) CHP 121 (This form and the 121A shall be initiated by the Supervisors.)
2) CHP 121A
3) CHP 121B (This form the employees initiate themselves)
4) CHP 121C, Medical Information Release Authorization
1191
As soon as possible after notification of an employee’s injury/illness requiring medical treatment beyond first aid, the Supervisor shall provide the medical care provider with a form to assist in determining if the employee may perform full or limited duty. What is that form?
CHP 225, CHP Patrol Officer Task Statements.
1192
The form which the Supervisor provides the medical care provider after notification of a non-disabling injury or illness which requires assignment of limited duty is which form?
CHP 443, Approval of Limited Duty Assignment.
1193
On what form should a Supervisor report any change in status involving an injury/illness?
CHP 442, Individual Accident, Injury and Safety Recognition Program, within three days.
1194
The Supervisor is responsible for initiating a SCIF form and providing the employee this form for all injuries or illness other than Record Only or First Aid. What is this form?
SCIF 3301, Employee’s Claim for Workers’ Compensation Benefits, within 24 hours.
1195
When must the Supervisor give the employee, who is injured or ill, forms CHP 600, Right of Privacy Instructions Relative to Occupational Injuries/Illness and Vehicle Accident Reports, and CHP 601, Coping with Your Injury?
Within 24 hours.
1196
__________ may be contacted to obtain a list of authorized medical care providers and facilities serving the command’s geographical location.
SCIF
1197
Commanders shall prepare a memorandum advising employees of _________.
authorized medical care providers and facilities
1198
True/False – A medical care provider may be removed from the list if either the employee or the employer reports unsatisfactory service.
True, SCIF shall be notified
1199
An employee has the right to predesignate a preferred medical care provider by listing the provider on the CHP 102. If the preferred medical care provider was not documented prior to the injury or illness, SCIF may designate a medical care provider. After _______, the employee may select another medical care provider. The employee must notify SCIF of any such changes.
30 days
1200
True/False – SCIF may order a fitness-for-duty examination that is equivalent of a Department-ordered fitness-for-duty exam.
True
1201
A fitness-for-duty exam may be requested by the Commander _______________ whether the employee has a previous or current related injury or illness claim on file with SCIF.
whenever it is deemed appropriate (Commissioner’s policy)
1202
A __________ shall be used when ordering a fitness for duty exam.
CHP 121C
1203
Commanders shall ensure that temporarily disabled employees return to work in a limited duty capacity as soon as medically appropriate. A vacant employment position _____ exist when assigning limited duties.
need not
1204
Uniformed employees on limited duty shall have public contact limited to __________ or _______.
non-enforcement, limited enforcement encounters (watch officer, scale facilities, special investigations etc.)
1205
True/False – Commanders may specify if a uniformed employee on limited duty can drive an enforcement vehicle.
False
| *While on limited duty, employees shall not wear a uniform, display a badge, or operate an enforcement vehicle.
1206
Commanders shall discuss the limited duty assignment with _______ and ________.
the employee and the employee’s supervisor
1207
Proposed limited duty assignments shall be documented in detail on the ______.
CHP 443
1208
Under no circumstances will limited duty extend beyond ________.
24 months
1209
Limited duty supervisor responsibilities: Supervisor shall notify the commander when _______.
it appears an employee is not making a good faith effort towards medical rehabilitation or of any significant change in the status of an employee’s injury or illness
1210
Termination dates may be identified as ___________________.
date of return to full duty, the date of off-duty placement for scheduled surgery, commencement of maternity leave or other reasons
1211
Commanders shall request authorization from the ________ to extend limited duty assignments beyond _________.
appropriate Assistant Commissioner, one year
1212
Commanders may authorize limited duty assignments of __________.
less than one year
1213
Limited duty assignments will not be authorized if the medical care provider fails to _______.
specify a termination date
1214
Commanders and supervisors are responsible for ___________ with temporarily disabled employees and for _______________ when medically appropriate.
ongoing communication, arranging for a return to full duty
1215
Officers absent from full duty for __________ shall be retrained and recertified at their local commands.
one year or less
1216
Upon authorization from the Office of the Commissioner or appropriate assistant Commissioner, employees who have ___________ and are waiting for a disability retirement may be assigned to limited duty until such decision is rendered.
depleted all leave credits
1217
Employees absent from work for more than _______, but less than _______, are to be scheduled to complete Reresher Training at the Academy prior to resuming field related duties at their assigned command.
more than one year, two years
1218
If the disability retirement of an employee on limited duty is denied, the commander shall immediately _________________.
contact the employee to discuss employment options
1219
If an employee, injured on the job, is capable of performing limited duty but declines to do so, ___________.
the Commander will request the appropriate Assistant Commissioner expeditiously render a departmental decision to order the employee to perform the limited duty
1220
If the employee refuses to perform medically approved AND Department-ordered limited duty, _______________.
the employee shall be removed from pay status and action to terminate his/her employment shall be initiated
1221
Refusal of Limited Duty by Employee: In addition to requesting a department order for the employee to perform limited duty, the commander shall _______________.
advise the employee that all absences subsequent to his/her refusal to perform limited duty will be covered by vacation, annual leave or sick leave credits until the Department issues an order to perform limited duty and the employee refuses or until SCIF determines if worker’s compensation benefits will continue.
1222
Officers absent from full duty for more than two years are to complete Reinstatement Training at ___________.
the Academy
1223
An employee shall be returned to full duty if the Public Employees Retirement System has denied a request for disability retirement unless __________.
the denial is being appealed
1224
The four Units in the Health and Safety Section are:
Occupational Safety Unit
Disability and Retirement Unit
Physical Standards/Wellness/Reinstatement Unit
Employee Assistance Unit
1225
SCIF is a ______________ funded by ________________.
California state agency, the premium payments from those organizations it insures
1226
Commanders are required to maintain ongoing communication with SCIF to _______.
cooperatively manage injury and illness cases
1227
An employee who has retained the services of an attorney may not discuss the case with SCIF adjusters unless _________.
the employee’s attorney has given his/her permission
1228
The Workers’ Compensation Appeals Board (WCAB) is a __________ within the Department of Industrial Relations.
semi-judicial organization
1229
True/False – An employee is precluded from contacting the Workers’ Compensation Appeals Board (WCAB) to obtain impartial advice relevant to his/her occupational injury or illness.
False, they may contact Workers’ Compensation Appeals Board (WCAB).
1230
True/False – An employee or his/her attorney may contact the Workers’ Compensation Appeals Board (WCAB) to request a hearing or a trial to resolve disputes between the employee and SCIF.
True
1231
Commanders receiving an employee’s application for a Workers’ Compensation Appeals Board (WCAB) hearing or trial from any other source other than the _____________ shall forward a copy of the application to the Disability and Retirement Section and Division as soon as possible and inform them if urgent or unusual issues are involved.
Disability and Retirement Section
1232
Departmental representation at a Workers’ Compensation Appeals Board (WCAB) hearing is not legally required unless specifically requested by ________.
SCIF
1233
An employee who is attending his/her own Workers’ Compensation Appeals Board (WCAB) hearing or trial, or who attends on behalf of the claimant employee (is/is not) eligible for the use of state time?
is not
1234
Absences solely for attendance at a Workers’ Compensation Appeals Board (WCAB) hearing or trial are not eligible for coverage by ________________________.
Government Code Section 4800, industrial disability leave or sick leave
1235
True/False – Employees are not prohibited from utilizing 4800 time, industrial disability leave or sick leave on the day a hearing WCAB hearing if they were already to be off-duty on the day of the hearing.
True
1236
State transportation is authorized for use by an employee who is attending a Workers’ Compensation Appeals Board (WCAB) hearing or trial as a departmental representative. The employee is reimbursed by __________.
submitting a CHP 262, Travel Expense Claim
1237
The commander (should/shall) arrange for departmental representation upon notification of a scheduled Workers’ Compensation Appeals Board (WCAB) trial.
shall
1238
Prior to a Workers’ Compensation Appeals Board (WCAB) hearing or trial date, commanders (should/shall) arrange for the SCIF attorney to meet with departmental witnesses to review the case in detail and prepare the witnesses for trial.
shall
1239
The Annual Fitness Challenge is an event involving five physical tasks that are designed to accomplish increased physical fitness. These tasks have been validated by __________.
the Cooper Institute for Aerobic Research
1240
Participation in the Annual Fitness Challenge is ________________.
voluntary
1241
Each employee will be evaluated based on age and gender in the following physical tasks:
1.5 mile run sit and reach for flexibility
300 meter run
timed sit-ups and push-ups
1242
An alternate task for employees unable to participate in the 1.5 mile run is ________.
the 3.0 mile walk
1243
Each uniformed employee may participate in _________ event per calendar year.
only one Annual Fitness Challenge
| *Note - The employee may not participate in two if he/she transfers to another command.
1244
The Annual Fitness Challenge will be administered at approximately _______ intervals within each command.
12 month
1245
A Fitness Pin may be awarded to an employee who meets the recommended minimum fitness level. Minimum fitness means the employee must reach the ____________.
fifty percentile range in four of the five events
1246
All employees participating in the Annual Fitness Challenge shall complete a _____.
prescreening naire
1247
The resting heart rate is measured after the employee has _______________. Heart rates and pulse are taken for 30 seconds and multiplied by two. The resting heart rate must be __________ or less.
been sitting for a minimum of five minutes in a relaxed, comfortable position while monitoring the heartbeat with a stethoscope or taking the pulse from the carotid or radial artery
90 beats per minute
1248
Resting heart rates above 90 beats per minute will preclude the employee from participation that day. The Division Fitness Coordinator should check the employees resting heart rate for _______ consecutive days at the same time every day.
five
1249
Resting blood pressure is taken is taken after the employee has been sitting in a relaxed and comfortable position for five minutes. Resting blood pressure may not exceed ________.
140/90
1250
If blood pressure is _________ systolic or _________ diastolic, it should be suggested that the employee consult a physician.
160-179, 95-119
1251
If blood pressure is _______ systolic or _______ diastolic or above, the employee should notify a physician immediately and schedule a diagnostic evaluation within 24 hours.
180, 120
1252
The AFC event shall not begin without having ________________ at the site of the event.
A Department EMT with O2 and an EMT bag available.
1253
Employees preparing for the challenge do so on their own time. Injuries sustained as a result of off-duty exercise in preparation for the challenge are the sole responsibility of ________.
the employee
1254
Employees injured during __________ in the challenge are covered.
"Actual Participation"
1255
Any injury sustained while participating in the Annual Fitness Challenge shall be reported immediately to Division Fitness Coordinator/Area Fitness Coordinator immediately. Late reported injuries will be considered ______.
able
1256
Commanders shall ensure that an employee will not participate in the Annual Fitness Challenge while an adverse action is pending in which the recommendation is for the ______________________.
the termination of employment with the Department
1257
Commands (are/are not) required to disseminate wellness information to all command employees.
are
1258
True/False - All physical activity events organized through the departmental wellness program should be conducted on state property, and during on duty time.
False, shall be off state property and off duty.
1259
CHP employees' participation in strikes/job actions is ___________.
incompatible.
1260
A job action includes:
Strikes, sick ins, slow downs/speed-ups, picketing, other concerted activities.
1261
Upon receiving information regarding job actions, commanders should investigate the nature and reasons, notify appropriate command levels, coordinate with Division, document activity of those involved and _______________.
initiate a system of review to detect increase/decrease in work efforts/improper absences
1262
Who determines the legal course of action to pursue against employees engaged in job actions?
Upon direction of the Office of the Commissioner, OER will consult with DPA for a determination.
1263
Should an employee job action take place it will be essential that the commander have a(n) _____________.
operational plan.
1264
True/False - The use of State facilities for employee meetings is normally identified in Bargaining Unit M.O.U.s. This use cannot be denied even in the event of a job action.
False (Use prohibited during job action)
1265
In the event of Departmental labor strike, commanders shall maintain a daily record of events associated with the labor strife. Supervisors should carry _________ to record events as they occur.
3X5 cards
1266
The use of the State communications network or facilities to advocate or promote a job action is cause for ______.
adverse action
1267
A temporary stoppage of work or a concerted withdrawal from work by employees to express a grievance or enforce demands is know as a ____________.
strike
1268
In the event of a wildcat strike, the commander should attempt to obtain a _____________ concurrence of Division and the approval of the Commissioner.
court restraining order
1269
Employees failing to notify of a strike, who fail to show up for work, are considered _______.
AWOL
1270
Prior to the strike, each employee is to be contacted and asked not to participate and told that _____________ and their actions are unlawful.
disciplinary action may result
1271
Each employee is to be provided _____________.
an order to report/return to work
1272
Each employee suspected of participating in a strike shall be interrogated by a supervisor. This interrogation can occur _________ or ________ the strike.
during, after
1273
When a sick out is suspected, employees shall be directed to obtain ___________.
medical verification
1274
The ___________ shall advise the employee that if he/she cannot support the illness they should return to work.
supervisor
1275
Docking (does/does not) preclude punitive action.
does not
1276
If you request verification of an illness and an employee refuses to go to a private doctor or claims that they are too sick for travel, the commander, with the concurrence of Division may ___________.
transport by ambulance for examination
1277
Employees who fail to provide medical substantiation will be ___________.
docked
1278
Punitive action to be taken after an employee returns to work should be taken only after ______________.
consultation with division
1279
Commanders should meet with employees involved in a speed-up/slowdown. The meeting should be held in a _____.
positive and noncritical environment
1280
When it becomes apparent that employees have engaged in a slowdown or speed-up, the commander should ________.
notify division
1281
If the positive approach fails, supervisors shall interrogate each employee and after any admitted slow down, the employee shall __________________.
be ordered both verbally and formally, by means of a memo of direction or form 2, to resume to full duty
1282
A concerted effort to be overly strict in enforcement efforts in an attempt to cause public indignation as a means of forcing demands is called ___________.
an enforcement speed-up
1283
In the event of a speed-up, commanders shall initiate a judicious review of __________.
all enforcement documents
1284
An officer who issues a able document as the result of an enforcement speed-up should be interviewed. If it appears that the documents are inappropriate, the employee will be ordered in writing to ______.
comply with Departmental enforcement policy
1285
When developing "Job Contingency Action Plans", the commander must assure continuation of critical; programs and services. The primary are:
communication, automotive servicing, clerical, traffic functions
1286
During a job action, work weeks should be ______ days and shifts _______ hours in length.
7, 12
1287
True/False - During a job action, the use of allied agencies is not to be considered.
False, may be used as a last resort.
1288
The FTEP consists of ______ weeks of individualized training which has been divided into _____ phases.
11, 4
1289
Trainees effectiveness is evaluated and documented through performance ratings captured on the _______ in conjunction with a set of well defined rating guidelines.
CHP 115A Daily Observation Report (DOR)
1290
The DOR was designed so that each of the _______ is embodied in one or more of the DOR’s performance rating categories.
9 critical tasks
1291
The key principle guiding the program’s evaluation system and termination procedures is the requirement that __________ be based on ___________.
all evaluations and employment decisions, quantifiable job-related criteria
1292
It is the responsibility of the __________________ to initiate the rejection during probation process for those trainees who do not meet the program's minimal performance standards.
Area Commander
1293
Each Field Area assigned one trainee shall provide an Area Coordinator. When a Field Area is assigned ______ trainee(s) the area will also provide an Alternate Area Coordinator.
more than two
1294
Area Coordinators and their alternates are ________ who administer Area Training operations as collateral duties.
sergeants
| *Note - They should not be probationary.
1295
The program’s training curriculum consists of a progressive sequence of job-related __________ that all STOs must possess in order to effectively and safely carry out their duties.
knowledge, skills and abilities (KSA)
1296
The program’s training periods and duration consist of _________ each of which emphasize a particular set of structured __________.
four phases, KSAs and tasks
1297
A crucial aspect of Phase I (Introductory Phase) is molding the Trainee’s ____ towards the program as an ______, rather than “something they have to get through.”
attitude, opportunity
1298
During Phase II the FTO must acknowledge the Trainee’s growing assertiveness and be constantly aware of the ________, guarding against ____________.
workload, under loading or overloading
1299
The __________ of Phase I and the ________ each of Phases II and III are referred to as “Limbo” periods during which the CHP 115As and DORs are not completed for trainees.
first six days, first day
1300
Normal training duration is 55 training days. However, trainees still experiencing significant problems may be given a ______ extension to overcome those problems.
ten-day
1301
Typically, only one extension is allowed. However, when special or unusual circumstances exist the _______, with _____ concurrence, may approve a second ten-day extension period.
Area Commander, Division’s
1302
The decision to extend is optional and is to be made by the Area Commander based upon the recommendations made by the _______ and _______.
Area Coordinator, FTO
1303
The trainee cannot miss more than _____ of the program’s scheduled training days during a phase without that training phase being increased for the same number of days, beyond the _____, that the trainee missed.
two, two
1304
The decision to extend a trainee will be made _______ the trainee’s phase IV (test evaluation) begins.
before
1305
The decision to extend a trainee must be based on whether or not the problem area is _______.
able to be remediated or corrected
1306
The CHP 115, Trainee Checklist, is divided into ______ to correspond to the ________.
three parts, first three training phases
1307
Final evaluation is a five-day __________ period that will occur during Phase IV. If the trainee is extended beyond Phase III, the final evaluation occurs _______.
evaluation only, after sucessful completion of the ten-day extension
1308
The trainee (should/shall) be assigned to a different FTO for each training phase.
shall
1309
The trainee and FTO are initially assigned to a _______ shift during Phase I.
one-officer
1310
During final evaluation, the trainee assumes the role of ________.
lead officer
1311
If program training does not take place on a scheduled training day, a DOR is ____ submitted with the __________ box marked followed by a brief reason.
still, “no program training”
1312
T or F. When the FTO determines that a trainee is not responding to training in any performance category, then the “NRT” entry, under the DOR’s “not responding to training” column, is marked for that category.
True
1313
The CHP 115A, DOR, captures trainee ratings on ____ performance categories.
38
1314
An “NRT” (should/shall) be given when a trainee, after having been instructed in a task enough times that improvement or accomplishment is expected, fails to improve.
shall
1315
Whenever an “NRT” entry is marked, this _____ be explained on the reverse side of the DOR in the ________ section.
shall, “General”
1316
A rating of _____ is the lowest acceptable performance rating for any category.
four
1317
When remedial training exceeds ______ for any category, then the total number of minutes spent on remediation shall also be entered with and “R” under the “time” column.
15 minutes
1318
On each DOR, the FTO shall provide narrative descriptions and explanations for the performance categories on that shift where __________ and ___________ performance occurred.
the single most acceptable, the single least acceptable
1319
At the end of _______ the Area will ship the original CHP 115As, DORs, to the ______.
each training cycle, Statewide Program Coordinator
1320
The CHP 115C, End of Phase Report, _____ completed after _______ and any _______.
shall be, each training phase, extended training
1321
Retention periods for program files are _____ and for field folders are _____.
five years (Academy), one year (Area)
1322
The purpose of Management Interviews is to insure that Field Training is conducted in an environment that is free of __________________.
sexual harassment or other forms of discrimination
1323
While Area Coordinators are encouraged to accompany trainees on ride-alongs during each training phase, they, or the alternate Area Coordinator, _____ participate in at least one _____ ride-along.
shall, Phase III
1324
The Area will arrange for all trainees to be interviewed by either the Area Commander, or an Area management Level designee at the end of the ____ and ____ phases of training.
first, third
1325
FTOs must always be aware that they are primary ___________.
role models
1326
FTOs who have not been active in the program for the past ______ must successfully complete the ______ hour POST FTO Update Course prior to training new officers.
36 months / 24
1327
The five main functions of the FTO are:
Role Model, teacher, evaluator, leader, and counselor.
1328
The three routes to termination of an employee under this program are:
Adverse Action, Rejection during Probation, and resignation.
1329
The Department’s Equal Employment Opportunity (EEO) Program addresses any identified statistically-significant underutilization of which groups?
Women
Minorities
Persons with disabilities
*Note - In addition, the department’s EEO Program addresses: Upward mobility and procedures for handling counseling and investigating discrimination complaints.
1330
With regard to the departments EEO Program, it is a major goal of this Department to achieve and maintain what?
a work force representative of the relevant labor force and the community it serves for all occupation and at all levels.
1331
The authority for coordinating, monitoring, evaluating, and reporting on EEO activities has been assigned to whom?
To the Department’s Office of Equal Employment Opportunity (OEEO) Commander.
1332
It is the responsibility of all managers and supervisors to continue to support, implement, and carry out the Department’s EEO policy to assure that what four criteria is conducted consistent with the policy?
(1) hiring
(2) promotion
(3) assignment
(4) training of personnel
1333
What is the Department-wide, long-range goal with regard to the EEO Program?
To achieve a workforce that is representative of the state’s relevant labor force in all occupations and at all levels.
1334
A workforce analysis is conducted __________ in order to provide direction for the Department’s EEO Program.
annually
1335
Commanders will adhere to ________________ when implementing the Department's EEO Program by widely advertising vacant positions and hiring qualified persons for those positions.
merit principles
1336
All managers and supervisors are responsible and accountable to the appropriate Division Chief for personnel practices consistent with the Department’s EEO Program. Managers and supervisors (should/shall) assure the dissemination of EEO Program information to all current and new employees within their jurisdiction.
shall
1337
The Upward Mobility Program is designed to provide equitable access and Departmental assistance to permanent full-time employees with a demonstrated interest and ability to advance to ______________________.
higher paying jobs
1338
Upward mobility is defined as movement from low paying classifications with minimal career opportunities into higher paying classifications within the Department that have broader career opportunities. For the purposes of administering upward mobility training programs, low-paying occupations are classifications and groups of classifications identified in the _____________.
California State Civil Service Pay Scales
1339
The upward mobility program is designed to assist employees in meeting the minimum qualifications (MQs) for ________________.
entrance into an examination
1340
True/False - Upward mobility programs provide in part for movement between classifications in the same occupational series.
False, not when minimum qualifications can be met through experience in that classification (i.e., Office Assistant to Office Technician).
1341
Supervisors should review the participating employee’s upward mobility plan as part of the _______ performance evaluation to ensure compliance with program eligibility and continuation.
annual
1342
Training and Development assignments are utilized to ____________ by acquiring skills which cannot be learned in the present assignment. Training and Development assignments may be certified as qualifying experience for meeting qualifications for an examination.
broaden employee experience
1343
(T/F) - Lateral transfers facilitate upward mobility by allowing employees to transfer from one classification to another without meeting the MQ for the new classification.
True
1344
True/False - A Training and Development assignment is utilized to broaden employee experience by acquiring skills which cannot be learned in the current assignment.
True
1345
True/False - The Department's Upward Mobility Program is designed to support the employee's efforts to compete for better paying jobs in State government.
False, it is designed to support the employee's efforts to compete for better paying jobs in the Department.
1346
The request to conduct an annual language survey and hire bilingual persons is contained in the California Bilingual Services Act as incorporated into the __________________.
Government Code (Sections 7292-7299)
1347
The Department will evaluate the need for establishing bilingual positions when any operation within a command experiences a _____ percent or more contact rate with nonEnglish or limited-English speaking persons.
2.5%
1348
The established parity for disabled persons is _________%.
16.6%, based on the 2000 census
1349
The Departments disabilities program has two major objectives to comply with both federal and state law. First is to reach, attract, and employ qualified persons with disabilities. Second is to ensure that all qualified individuals with physical and or mental impairments have _________ to any programs, services, and/or activities under the jurisdiction of the Department for which they are eligible.
access
1350
a person with a disability is someone who has a physical or mental impairment which ______ one or more of that person's _________; has a record of such impairment; or is regarded as having such an impairment.
limits, major life activities
1351
Not all physical and mental impairments qualify as disabilities under State and Federal laws. It must substantially limit a person’s ___________________.
major life activity
1352
An experienced Office Assistant who had a prominent facial scar was passed over for promotion to a Receptionist position. The supervisor promoted a less experienced Office Assistant because s/he believed that members of the public would not want to look at this person. How was she discriminated against?
An experienced Office Assistant who had a prominent facial scar was passed over for promotion to a Receptionist position. The supervisor promoted a less experienced Office Assistant because s/he believed that members of the public would not want to look at this person. How was she discriminated against?
1353
The Department may not discriminate against a drug addict who is _______ and has been _________.
Discrimination is illegal when actions are based on a history of drug addiction. *NOTE: The law allows employers to terminate or refuse to hire a person with a past history of illegal drug use, even if the person no longer uses drugs, in specific occupations, such as law enforcement, when that organization can show that its policy is job-related and consistent with business necessity.
*ALSO NOTE: An individual who is currently engaging in illegal use of drugs is not an "individual with a disability" when the employer acts on the basis of this illegal use.
1354
The Department may not discriminate against a drug addict who is not currently using drugs and has been rehabilitated. Discrimination is illegal when actions are based on a history of drug addiction.
* NOTE: The law allows employers to terminate or refuse to hire a person with a past history of illegal drug use, even if the person no longer uses drugs, in specific occupations, such as law enforcement, when that organization can show that its policy is job-related and consistent with business necessity.
* ALSO NOTE: An individual who is currently engaging in illegal use of drugs is not an "individual with a disability" when the employer acts on the basis of this illegal use.
1355
Can the Department discipline, discharge, or deny employment to an employee who is an alcoholic?
Yes, if the alcoholic’s job performance or conduct is impaired to the point that he or she is not a “qualified person with a disability”.
1356
Logical adjustments made to job and/or the work environment which enables a qualified person with a disability to perform the essential duties of his / her position is known as ________________________.
reasonable accommodation
1357
It is the department’s policy to ____________ any medical inquiries of job candidates or applicants prior to making a conditional offer of employment.
prohibit
1358
Federal and state laws prohibit the Department from making inquiries into an applicant’s medical status/history prior to making a conditional offer of employment. This prohibition is necessary to assure that qualified applicants are not screened out because of their disability before their actual ability to do a job is evaluated. After making a conditional offer of employment and before an individual stats work, the department (may/may not) conduct a medical examination or ask health-related s, providing that all candidates who receive a conditional job offer in the same job category are required to take the same examination and/or respond to the same inquiries.
may
1359
Limited Examination and Appointment Program (LEAP) candidates undergo a competitive exam where their education, experience, and personal qualifications are evaluated to determine readiness for employment. Candidates are ranked (on a scale) with an assigned one of ______ qualifying scores.
six
1360
A Commander shall render a decision within _____________ after a CHP 163 (Reasonable Accommodation Request) is submitted.
10 days
1361
Can an employee with a mobility impairment who finds it difficult to maneuver during peak periods on public transportation request to be allowed to start his working shift earlier or later?
Yes. This is an example of reasonable accommodation.
1362
The Department shall operate its programs so that, when viewed in their entirety, they are ________ and usable by persons with disabilities.
readily accessible
1363
The State “Fair Employment and Housing Act (FEHA)” prohibits discrimination in employment of individuals over the age of _______.
40
1364
The Federal Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA) prohibits employers from discriminating against individuals between what ages?
40 to 70
1365
True/False - 70 years of age is the maximum age that an employee can compete in open or promotional exams.
False, individuals age 70 or older may compete in open as well as promotional examinations. This provision does not include, law enforcement positions.
1366
Courts have recognized two types of Sexual Harassment under Federal and State Law. These include:
(1) Quid pro quo harassment occurs when, "submission to or rejection of (unwelcome sexual) conduct by an individual is used as the basis for employment decisions affecting that individual," per EEOC guidelines.
(2) In contrast, a "hostile work environment" claim may arise where unwelcome sexual conduct unreasonably interferes with an individual's job performance or creates an intimidating, hostile, or offensive working environment, even if it does not lead to tangible or economic consequences.
* NOTE: Hostile work environment may also occur on the basis of other protected characteristics, such as; race, disability, national origin, etc.
1367
Sexual Harassment is defined unsolicited and unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal, physical or visual conduct of a sexual nature which occurs when:
1. ) Submission is made either explicitly or implicitly as a term or condition of employment. 2.) Submission to or rejection of such conduct by an individual is used as the basis for employment decisions affecting such employee; or
3. ) Such conduct has the purpose of or effect of unreasonably interfering with an individual’s work performance and/or creating an intimidating, hostile or offensive working environment.
1368
In determining whether unwelcome sexual conduct rises to the level of a “hostile environment” the central inquiry is whether the conduct unreasonably interferes with an individual’s work performance or creates and intimidating, hostile or offensive working environment. In order for conduct to be determined to have created an intimidating, hostile, or offensive work environment, what three criteria must exist?
1. ) The behavior in must be of a sexual nature.
2. ) The behavior must be unwelcome.
3. ) The behavior must be severe and/or pervasive enough to create a hostile, intimidating, or offensive work environment.
1369
A hostile environment sexual harassment can occur toward the direct recipient of sexual behavior or to an _______recipient. (A third party who is present and indirectly subjected to the sexual behavior, such as seeing inappropriate touching or sexual items, or hearing jokes of a sexual nature directed towards another person could lodge a complaint of sexual harassment based on hostile environment).
indirect
1370
True/False - Sexual Harassment undermines the integrity of the employment relationship. It can have economic consequences for both employees and employers. It can result in excessive absenteeism and turnover, loss of morale, polarization of staff, and a decrease in management credibility, all resulting in a decrease in productivity.
True
1371
Who is responsible for assuring a favorable working atmosphere for all employees free from sexual harassment or other discriminatory practices?
Managers and Supervisors
*Note - The working environment should be businesslike and assure fair, courteous treatment for employees and the public we serve. Incidents of sexual harassment when observed by or brought to the attention of supervisory personnel shall be given serious attention and appropriate action taken to remedy the situation in a timely manner.
1372
If an employee feels threatened or has difficulty expressing disapproval, he/she is encouraged to first seek informal assistance and counseling from an EEO counselor or appropriate supervisory or management personnel. In addition, the office of EEO is available.If this does not produce effective results what may the employee do?
employees may file a discrimination complaint. They may also file a discrimination complaint with EEOC (Federal) within 300 calendar days of the last discriminatory incident or with the California Department of Fair Employment and Housing within 365 calendar days of the last discriminatory incident.
1373
True/False - It is the policy of the Department to provide an internal process to resolve complaints that allege discrimination or retaliation in departmental employment practices covering recruitment, selection, appointments, compensation, transfer training, and other terms and conditions of employment.
True
1374
True/False - Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) (federal) complaints include; race, color, national origin, religion, age, disability, and or retaliation.
True.
*Note - EEOC discrimination complaints may be filed within 300 days of the last incident or notification of the alleged discriminatory act.
1375
Department of Labor (DOL) complaints include the Family Medical Leave Act. In what time frame must discrimination complaints be filed from the last incident or notification of the alleged discriminatory acts?
The victim must file within two years
1376
Discrimination Complaints filed externally (bypassing the Departments Internal Discrimination Complaint process may also be filed with the Department of Fair Employment and Housing (DFEH) complaints include; race, color, ancestry, national origin, religion, age, sex, physical or mental disability, marital status, sexual orientation, medical condition (cancer), denial of family or medical care leave and/or retaliation. DFEH complaints must be filed within how many days of the last incident or notification of alleged discriminatory acts?
365 days
1377
State Personnel Board (SPB) allows (how many days) to file a complaint? The covered basis includes: race, color, ancestry, national origin, age, sex (includes sexual harassment), physical or mental disability political affiliation/opinion, marital status, sexual orientation, medical condition, and/or retaliation.
365 days to file
1378
The Department of Industrial Relations (DIR) is yet another entity where discrimination complaints may be externally filed. The covered basis includes protections provided to employees or applicants for employment under the Victims of Domestic Violence Leave Act of 2001. Complaints filed with DIR must be filed within ______days.
365 days
1379
An employee (may/may not) file concurrent complaints under both the Grievance and the Discrimination Complaint process from the same set of facts.
may not
1380
A ____________ is defined as a dispute involving interpretation, application, or enforcement of the expressed terms of respective bargaining unit agreements.
Grievance
1381
Per the Government code, allegations of discrimination in AA’s must be submitted no later than 30 calendar days after the notice of rejection during probation, or _____ days after the effective date of rejection.
15
1382
Per the Government code, allegations of discrimination in AA’s must be submitted to SPB not later than (how many days) after the service of the notice of Adverse Action?
30 calendar days
1383
Per the Government code, allegations of discrimination in rejections during probation must be submitted to SPB within (how many days) of the effective date of rejection?
15 calendar days.
1384
The ______________ is the final level of appeal in the Departments internal Discrimination Complaint process.
SPB
1385
Any allegation of discrimination arising from an AA or rejection during probation, must be filed directly with the ________. These appeals are not handled through the discrimination complaint process, but are resolved through an evidentiary hearing process.
SPB
1386
All employees / applicants are assured of the following (13) rights when filing internal complaints of discrimination:
1)The right to a full, impartial prompt investigation by a trained EEO Investigator when a formal written complaint is filed.
2) The right to be assisted by a representative of their own choosing at all stages of the process.
3) The right to a reasonable amount of work time (employees only)? To make an informal presentation of their complaint to an EEO Counselor.
4) The right to remain anonymous
5) The right to file directly with the Division Chief if the informal complaint is not resolved to the complainant’s satisfaction
6) The right to file an appeal of the Division Chief’s determination with the appropriate Assistant Commissioner
7) The right to appeal the Department’s (Commissioner’s) decision to SPB in addition to filing charges with other appropriate state or federal compliance agencies, or to file a civil action in the appropriate court.
8) The right to freedom from restraint, interference, coercion or reprisal.
9) The right to expect a final departmental decision within 155 working days, unless deadlines are negotiated otherwise with written confirmation
10) The right to file a discrimination complaint directly with SPB when the allegations involve executive management assigned to the Office of the Commissioner.
(11) The right to file a complaint that alleges retaliation directly with SPB, instead of filing through the internal discrimination complaint process, if the complainant does not want to file their retaliation complaint with the Department.
(12) The right to file concurrent complaints with EEOC, DFEH, SPB, or to file a civil action in the appropriate court.
NOTE: Complaints alleging violations of the Victims of Domestic Violence Leave Act of 2001 can only be filed with DIR.
(13) The right to file directly with the SPB when the Department has exceeded the 180 days time frame for completion.
1387
A ____________ complaint is the point in the internal or external process where an investigation is conducted by an EEO investigator regarding discrimination charges and allegations.
formal
1388
True/False - The assigned EEO investigator shall be at least one rank higher than the alleged discriminatory employee.
True
1389
The ___________________ are responsible for selecting and maintaining a sufficient number of trained EEO investigators and counselors.
Division Chiefs
1390
CHP 415 must be retained for a period of ____________ years. The ______________ is stored at the local field office.
3 years, current year
1391
A fiscal plan of operation detailing proposed expenditures for a given period and the proposed means of funding them is a _______.
budget
1392
A formal request to the Department of Finance (Finance) to make changes to the authorized level of service approved in the baseline budget is called a _________.
budget change proposal
1393
In California State government, a fiscal year runs from ____ through the following _____.
July 1, June 30
1394
Budget expenditures includes all costs for __________.
salaries, employee benefits, operating expenses, and equipment
1395
Purchases of land, land development, and major and minor construction and acquisition of certain equipment in connection with construction is known as _____.
capital outlay
1396
Income is divided into ________, __________, and ________.
reimbursements, revenues, and abatements
1397
The focus of a budget is _________.
the amount of funds necessary to carry out the department's goals and missions.
1398
Instructions and required forms for budget preparation are issued by Finance ____ to ____ months prior to the convening of the Legislature.
six, nine
1399
The ________ and _________ require the Governor to present to the Legislature a budget for the ensuing fiscal year.
California Constitution, Government Code
1400
Departmental budgets must be formulated from __________ to ___________ months before the fiscal year for which they are intended.
12, 18
1401
Divisions shall submit a budget concept request transmittal to Budget Development Unit for all Commands by __________.
April 1
1402
True/False - Savings from one allotment may be used to offset deficits in another.
True
1403
Travel expenses incurred by an employee for any type of interview (are/are not) reimbursable.
are not
1404
True/False - A Headquarters must be established for every employee. Resident posts are considered an employee's headquarters.
True
1405
For the purposes of travel reimbursements, headquarters is defined as __________.
where employee spends most time or location to which he/she returns upon completion of assignment
1406
An ____________________ is the actual dwelling place of the employee and shall be determined without regard to any other legal or mailing address.
Residence
1407
(T/F) - Travel status is at least 50 miles from Headquarters and more than 50 miles from the primary residence determined by normal commute distance.
True
1408
The minimum travel advance request is ____ dollars with the maximum not to exceed estimated expenses for ______days.
$25, 30 days
1409
_______________________ consist of charges for telegrams, emergency purchases of equipment and supplies, and other actual charges necessary for the completion of official state business. Receipts are required for expenses over _______ dollars.
Business Expenses, 5
1410
A long-term assignment is any assignment of ________ days or more to a given location other than headquarters and not considered permanent due to the temporary nature of the assignment.
31
1411
Permission must be granted by whom to utilize vacation or CTO prior to, or following travel status?
Commander
1412
When an employee is granted sick leave while away from headquarters on State business, the employee may claim reimbursement for travel expenses up to ______ day(s).
```
3 day(s).
*Note - This time limitation may be exceeded in unusual cases with the approval of the commander.
```
1413
If a trip for which a travel advance has been made is canceled or postponed indefinitely, the advance must be returned _______________.
immediately or not more than 30 calendar days from the issuance date of the travel check.
1414
Travel advance requests shall be submitted no earlier than ____________________ prior to the date of the travel.
two weeks
1415
A properly prepared travel expense claim to substantiate the travel advance must be submitted as soon as possible _________ or at least ___________.
after the trip(s), once a month
1416
True/False - An employee on travel status shall be reimbursed actual expenses for lodging, meals, and incidentals.
True
1417
True/False - Incidentals include items such as taxicab fares, lodging taxes, telegram, and/or telephone calls?
False, these items are not considered incidentals.
1418
Employees become eligible for overtime meals if shift is extended __________ beyond or before normal shift.
two hours
1419
Represented employees (are/are not) required to provide receipts for overtime meals.
are
| *Note - Receipt must show amount, date, and establishment. If no receipt available, approving officer must verify.
1420
Employees should not normally operate a State vehicle in excess of ________ hours. Employees may volunteer to drive up to an additional __________ hours.
8, 4
1421
True/False - Mileage reimbursement may be claimed if on travel status, called back to work or working on a scheduled day off on a voluntary overtime detail.
False, may not claim mileage if overtime is voluntary.
1422
The use of a privately owned bicycle to conduct official State travel is reimbursed at the rate of ______ per mile.
$0.04
1423
True/False - Privately owned motorcycles used on State travel are reimbursed at 1/2 the rate paid for automobile travel.
False, motorcycles are not authorized for State travel.
1424
When employees are directed to report to the Academy (i.e., in-service training), and the distance traveled is less than 50 miles from the employee's headquarters, the employee may claim __________ mileage.
only that mileage exceeding their normal commute from home to their headquarters
1425
When an Academy class is _______ or longer, the attendee is entitled to one round trip to their residence at state expense.
three weeks
1426
Employees will submit no more than _____ travel claim(s) per month.
one
1427
Travel Expense Claims can only be submitted for ______________ and _____________.
the current year, two prior fiscal years
1428
When completing a travel expense claim and doing airfare comparisons the mileage rates used for Bargaining Unit 5 is _________.
$0.55 per mile
1429
True/False. Relocation per diem rules differ from travel per diem rules.
True, rules further differ from non-represented and represented employees.
1430
When are employees are eligible for moving expense reimbursement?
When a move occurs on the official reporting date to a new headquarters, and a change in residence is reasonably required.
1431
To be eligible for moving expense reimbursement the move must be a minimum of _________ miles plus the number of miles between the old residence and the old headquarters.
50
*Note - The Department may determine, in advance, that it is in the best interest of the state to reimburse all or part of the relocation expenses.
1432
Employees who qualify for relocation status may claim relocation per diem allowance for a maximum of ______ days, and only while ____________________.
60, actively engaged in a search for a new residence in their new headquarters
1433
True/False: Time spent in assigned travel for official state business away from the new headquarters is not counted toward the 60 per diem allowance.
True, expenses must be submitted on a separate TEC.
1434
The State will pay expenses incurred enrollee to the new headquarters _________.
only once
1435
Relocation expenses are terminated once __________.
employee obtains utility services other than telephone, has household goods moved to new residence, exhausts 60 days of expenses, it is determined that employee has no intent to relocate or terminates search for new residence
1436
Sale of a residence must occur within ____________ of date of transfer.
two years
1437
Move of employee's household effects are limited to __________ pounds.
23,000
1438
A carbon or reproduced copy of a counter report (is/is not) an official document.
is not
| *Note - An official document is $10.00.
1439
A fee of ______ per page for regular copies, and ______ per page for copies larger than 8.5 x 14 or of microfilm shall be charged for records released to an individual under the Public Records Act.
30 cents, 50 cents
1440
Field commands are authorized to sell discarded tires, junk batteries and used rotors. At least _____ separate bids shall be secured. All bids shall be submitted on a CHP 265.
three
1441
A ___________ shall be issued to record each miscellaneous sale, except for credit card and EFT payments
counter receipt
1442
Any CHP employee may bid on or purchase surplus, used, or unclaimed State property offered for sale to the public except _____________.
automobiles awarded to the CHP by court order
1443
Counter receipts _________ be issued in numerical sequence.
shall
1444
For the transmittal of coin and currency to accounting, a cashiers check or postal money order shall be purchased. __________ shall be utilized to purchase the check or money order.
petty cash
1445
Collections for sales, payments, and/or witness fee deposits, shall be transmitted to Accounting Section, Cashiering Unit when: _______ in cash receipts _______ in total receipts, or close of business each _____.
$1000, $10,000, Thursday
1446
A change fund shall be furnished to each Field Office upon written request from the ______ to _________.
the Commander, FMS
1447
_________shall be responsible and accountable for the change fund.
The Commander
1448
Shortages due to fraud, embezzlement, burglary, or robbery shall be reported in writing to _________. Shortages of six dollars ($6) or more must be reported in writing no later than the _______.
FMS, Cashiering Unit, first business day following the discovery of the shortage
1449
For services estimated to be _______ or less per occasion, commands shall contact their respective Division for approval to enter into a _______, and assignment of an RSA sequential number.
$50,000, CHP 465
1450
For services estimated to be over _______ per occasion the command shall prepare a _______ and submit it through the appropriate channels for approval to _____ to prepare an agreement. Commands are not required to get an RSA number from the Division Coordinators for services over $50,000 per occasion.
$50,000.00, CHP 78R, CSU (Contract Services Unit)
1451
True/False - An investigation shall be made of every accident involving a vehicle being used on State business.
True
1452
True/False - Investigations shall be conducted of all accidents which involve vehicles used on State business regardless of whether or not physical contact was made.
True
1453
An accident which results in serious bodily injury shall be reported to
_________________ by phone, then followed by a STD 270 within ____________.
Department of General Services - Office of Risk and Insurance Management, 48 hours
1454
Individuals or insurance companies making inquiries or requesting forms to be completed in connection with an accident or claim shall be referred to _________________.
DGS, Office of Insurance & Risk Management
1455
No report required if damage due to:
Action of the elements: Damage to glass (unknown cause); Birds; Objects propelled from the roadway by other vehicles (no injury); Motorcycle falling off kickstand; Push bumper usage (CHP vehicle only); Unintentional OR malicious damage sustained by acts of persons (not vehicles) in custody.
1456
Reportable accident:
Vehicle being used on State business involved in an accident resulting in injury, property damage or both; Vehicle being used on State business is the proximate cause regardless whether or not contact was made; Discovery of damage not previously reported; includes other than State employee as driver (garage mechanic); legal intervention.
1457
CHP 208 - Accident Prevention Report is required to be submitted within __________ for all incidents requiring the form.
48 hours
1458
A patrol vehicle is involved in a non-injury collision while initiating a traffic stop. What forms are required?
CHP 555/556, CHP 208, Accident Prevention Report, and STD 270, Report of Vehicle Accident.
*CHP 208 & STD 270 required within 48-hours
1459
True/False - A CHP 208 is completed in all cases where STD 270 Report of Vehicle Accident is completed.
False, not completed when STD 270 completed for liability purposes only (non-collision incidents).
1460
At any time that a member is involved in an accident or incident while wearing a helmet and head injury occurs or the helmet is believed to have prevented injury, and if a commnet is distributed, a copy shall be forwarded to ________________.
Disability and Retirement Section, Occupational Safety Unit
1461
Accidents involving an employee's private vehicle while driven on State business (may/may not) be considered against driving record by insurance companies.
may
| *Note - T/Cs in patrol vehicles may not.
1462
True/False - The CHP 268 should be completed in every situation where there is potential for a civil claim/lawsuit.
True
1463
True/False - The CHP 268 shall be completed when accidents (non-motor vehicle) or incidents involving the public which could foreseeably result in liability to the State, occur on State property, or involve State employees or equipment.
True
*Note - Examples of the above would be whenever a firearm, baton, OC spray, personal weapon, carotid hold (currently suspended from use), or other defensive instrument is used in a tactical enforcement situation. (Use should be interpreted as actual use vs. display or threatened use).
1464
True/False - Should a 268 be completed when there is only a complaint of pain or injury stemming from the use of a control hold or handcuffs.
True, do a 268 when the above use results in apparent injury, complaint of injury, or a subsequent claim of injury.
1465
True/False - A 268 needs to be completed when high risk or felony procedures are used and the subject is later found to be an innocent party.
True
1466
The CHP 268 should be completed within ___ hours of the incident.
48
1467
All claims for $1000.00 or more against the State to recover an alleged loss are filed with the ___________________________.
Victim Compensation and Government Claims Board (VCGCB)
1468
Upon receipt of a VCGCB claim directly from a claimant in excess of $1,000, commanders shall ensure immediate transmittal of the document(s) to the _______, indicating the date of such receipt.
Office of Risk Management (ORM)
1469
True/False - A personnel complaint investigation may be initiated as the result of a VCGCB claim being filed.
True
1470
When an individual claims to have suffered a loss $1,000 and under they shall be provided with a CHP ___,
287
1471
True/False: No departmental employee other than those specifically authorized shall accept any summons, complaint, writ, or other legal document for service on the state of California, the Department, or the Commissioner as a defendant or a witness.
True, authorized recipients are as follows, service naming State of California to the Attorney Generals Office; service naming the CHP to the AG's for summons and complaints and to CMU for legal documents other than summons and complaints; service naming the Commissioner to CMU.
1472
True/False - If an individual employee is named on summons or complaint for a lawsuit (civil) resulting from an official act, a supervisor may accept service.
True; however, the service is not personal service, it is considered "substituted service"
1473
The ________________ provides legal counsel for eligible Departmental employees in civil lawsuits arising out of an act or omission occurring within the scope of their employment, provided the employee, in writing, requests such representation.
Attorney General
1474
The Attorney General’s office has the authority to negotiate out of court settlements that do not exceed _____________.
$35,000.
1475
Upon receipt of any Constitutionalist documents by an Area office or the involved employee, the Area shall immediately contact _____. The original documents received, including the envelope if the documents were mailed, shall be immediately forwarded to CMU. Copies of all documents received shall be _____ in the Area office.
CMU, retained
1476
_________________ shall be immediately notified of the criminal investigation of an officer by a local agency or the FBI.
Office of General Counsel, Case Management Unit (CMU).
1477
The maximum amount of any indemnification claim is limited to ___________.
$10,000 plus reasonable attorneys fees.
1478
The _______________ provides for the indemnification of private citizens for any injury, death, or damage sustained while assisting law enforcement.
Government Code
1479
An employees attendance at out of state criminal or civil proceedings require _________________.
prior approval
1480
Officers traveling to and from court in a State vehicle are required to have ___________.
an approved weapon immediately available
1481
True/False - Civil subpoenas for former employees are to be accepted and forwarded to Staff Services Section.
False, don't accept, don't give out address or phone. Refer requester to LCS.
1482
In civil cases, the party who issues the subpoena agrees to pay all ________, _______, and _________.
salary, benefits, travel expenses
1483
A civil subpoena requiring an appearance in federal court in California is responded to on state time and at state expense if the employee subpoenaed is:
(1) Within the court district.
(2) Outside the court district, but within 100 miles of the court.
(3) Required to attend, by the court, regardless of boundaries or distance.
1484
There is no obligation to comply with a ________requiring an appearance in a Federal Court outside of California.
civil subpoena
1485
If the court in which the appearance is required is out-of-state, uthorization must be obtained through channels from the appropriate _________ in advance of the trip.
Assistant Commissioner
1486
CHP 90 is submitted in duplicate and within __________ after the appearance.
24 hours
1487
A Subpoena Duces Tecum requires that __________ be produced at the location named in the Subpoena.
records
1488
As a result of a Subpoena Duces Tecum, certified copies of records shall be delivered within ___ days for a criminal action and ____ days for a civil action.
5, 15
1489
True/False - Within the constraints of records management, blank forms and stocks of publications are considered records.
False
1490
Local records retention schedules are submitted to the records management coordinator (RMC) for approval. Revised schedules shall be submitted _____ when new forms or records are created which must be added to the schedule or every ________ when no changes have occurred.
annually, five years
1491
Shelf files are State equipment and required to be bolted back to back or to a wall, not more than _______ shelves high.
six
1492
Booking slips and arrest reports (are/are not) criminal offender record information.
are not
1493
Each person designated to release criminal offender record information shall maintain a CHP 263B. Each entry shall be maintained for a period of _______________.
three years
1494
Criminal offender record information received via comm. net will be maintained for ______________ along with a notation of the individual making the request and the operator handling the request.
90 days
1495
Purging of sealed juvenile records shall take place _____ after the records were ordered sealed.
five years
1496
Sealed juvenile records shall be destroyed _____________ after the date of arrest, if a factually innocent petition has been granted.
three years
| *Note - In the event that civil action has been filed against the officer or agency, no records will be destroyed.
1497
Records of arrest for certain laws relating to marijuana offenses (possession of less than 1 oz., present where it’s used, and using or being under the influence) are subject to a maximum retention of _____________.
two years.
1498
California Government Code establishes the right of anyone to access information concerning the conduct of the People's business without establishing a need to know. The exemptions to these laws are:
Preliminary drafts, Library & Museum material, Pending litigation, Records exempt by law, Personnel & medical files, Licensing files, Test s, exam data, Collective Bargaining records, Officer Safety-related, home address & phone of employees, licensing investigaitons (ambulance, school bus, etc), victim of sex crimes.
1499
Upon any request for copies of records, a determination as to whether to provide the records must be made within ____ days.
10
1500
An individual has the right to purchase copies of any records inspected. The statutory fee is _____ per page for photo copies and ______ per page for micro film and computer records.
10 cents, 20 cents
1501
Individuals have a right to request access to CHP records pertaining to themselves. A request for records by the data subject must be honored within ___ days or within ___ days if in storage.
30, 60
1502
True/False - If an individual wants a copy of an arrest report, individuals should be referred to the district attorney's office or city attorney's office. If the district attorney's office or city attorney's office has refused to provide the arrestee with a copy of an arrest/investigative report a copy will be provided upon proof of identity and payment of a fee of 10 cents per page.
True
*NOTE: Home addresses and telephone numbers of victims and witnesses shall be deleted from the report pursuant to Penal Code Section 841.5 and 1054.2 prior to release of the report to the arrestee. This information shall not be deleted if the report is provided to the subject's attorney.
1503
Vehicle registration records are subject to disclosure to the public by _______.
DMV
1504
Facilities are acquired by ________, ___________, or _______.
lease, purchase or construction.
1505
The procurement cycle for facility acquisition averages _______.
4 1/2 years.
1506
Janitors are required to clean the entire facility including the carport and paved parking areas. In some facilities, state janitors may be required to maintain small landscaped areas, replace light bulbs and air conditioning systems filters, and perform minor maintenance. Complex maintenance items are accomplished by means of __________.
service agreements or contracts
1507
It is the responsibility of the involved Area or Division to notify _______________ of any fire and/or explosion occurring on State property.
State Fire Marshal
1508
Interior air shall not be heated above ____° nor cooled below ____°.
68, 78
1509
Water heater thermostats are to be set at ________ max.
105 Fahrenheit
1510
A driver's maximum liability under the DUI Cost Recovery program is $______.
12,000
1511
The Department will only attempt to recover DUI costs when:
(1) CHP is primary investigating agency
(2) Offender is arrested for 23152 or 23153, alcohol and/or drugs
(3) The arrested party was determined to have caused a response to an incident.
(4a) Evidential test with BAC at least .08%, or (4b) Commercial driver at least .04%
OR
(1) CHP is primary investigating agency
(2) Offender is CONVICTED for 23152 or 23153, alcohol and/or drugs
(3a) BAC under .08%, OR (3b) Chemical test (+) for drugs only, OR (3c) No supporting BAC (refusal)
*NOTE: A case plea bargained to a lesser offense IS NOT considered a conviction for this program; a plea of nolo contendre IS considered a conviction for this program.
1512
Area offices are responsible for completing the CHP 735 and _________________________.
tracking the court case
1513
Staff hours on the CHP 735 are recorded to the nearest ___________.
10 minutes.
1514
True/False - The time spent by a Sergeant, Lieutenant, or Captain assisting at an accident scene can be included on the CHP 735. This includes their supervision time.
False, supervision time not included.
1515
Payment in advance of services rendered (is/is not) normally permitted.
is not
1516
Service, construction, and consulting contracts with a dollar value of ________ must be advertised in the California State Contracts Register (CSCR).
$5,000 or more
1517
The Department’s responsibility in preparing contracts is to ensure that the best interests of this Department and the State are preserved through compliance with laws, rules, and regulations as set forth by the State. This responsibility is assigned to the ____________.
Contract Services Unit (CSU).
1518
X numbers are authorization numbers provided verbally to contract for services and repairs which are less than _______.
$5,000.
1519
Areas are prohibited from issuing more than one X Number or splitting an invoice when the total amount of the service or repair exceeds __________.
$4,999.99
1520
Areas are prohibited from using X numbers for rental of any type of equipment for longer than __________.
one month
1521
Three quotes are required for services estimated to cost $______ or less. If a certified business (small, micro, and/or DVBE) is solicited, only one quote is required. If the one quote seems unreasonable, a second quote shall be obtained for comparison purposes.
4,999.99
1522
“Emergency” X Numbers which are a sudden, unexpected occurrence that creates a clear and imminent danger requiring immediate action to prevent or mitigate the loss or impairment of life, health, property, or essential public services. They are _______ from competitive quotes.
exempt
1523
Commands (shall/shall not) state or promise a specific payment date to a vendor.
shall not
1524
Commands must forward payment invoices to the Accounting Section within ___ day(s) of receipt.
three
1525
Invoices shall be _______ by Commands upon receipt. Additionally, the envelope shall be attached to the invoice.
date stamped
1526
Commands shall forward approved invoices to Accounting Section within ___ business day(s) of receipt.
three
1527
Invoices shall be billed to California Highway Patrol, not _____.
CHP
1528
The Commander or designee approves invoices by signing _____ and and by placing the 3 digit location code, date of approval, and his/her rank and ID number.
the original invoice
1529
Classified material transmitted by U. S. Mail shall be placed in ____________.
two envelopes, an inner and outer.
1530
The petty cash fund shall be for “minor” purchases (up to _____, excluding sales tax, per purchase) that are necessary for the daily operation of the command, consistent with the goals of the Department. This fund is for reimbursing departmental employees for petty cash expenditures.
$50.00
1531
The total petty cash fund is limited to _______.
$200
1532
Although overall responsibility for control of the petty cash fund rests with the commander, (s)he may designate one person to handle day-to-day transactions including fund replenishment. Reimbursement checks will be issued in the commander’s name unless otherwise indicated. The person to whom the checks are issued is the ___________ and is personally liable for the petty cash fund.
primary custodian
1533
When a change occurs which affects responsibility for the petty cash fund or the issuing of reimbursement checks, a memorandum must be sent to _____________. It should include an effective date, what the change is (e.g., new commander, change in name on reimbursement checks, etc.), and a statement that all cash and receipts, including items in transit, have been accounted for.
FMS, Travel/Revolving Fund Unit
1534
True/False - Authorization for petty cash purchases shall be obtained from the petty cash custodian prior to use.
True
1535
True/False - Authorization for petty cash purchases shall be obtained from the petty cash custodian prior to use.
True
1536
True/False - Violations of the rules regarding use of petty cash will result in denial of reimbursement and, if repeated, may result in withdrawal of the petty cash fund.
True
1537
Which one of the following area authorized to be purchased, by the petty cash fund?
Items listed below are types of authorized purchases for the petty cash fund, but are not limited to:
(1) Payment of postage due (receipts are required).
(2) Rental of post office box. If box rental is over $50.00 refer to HPM 11.1, Chapter 24 for procedures.
(3) Outgoing freight charges for shipping items such as cannibalized parts, MIS equipment, etc., (receipts are required). Incoming freight charges shall be paid with petty cash (CHP is generally not liable for these charges).
(4) Appointment books/diaries used for special purposes (e.g., recording court appearance/continuance dates, vehicle identification number [VIN] inspection appointments, resident post/scale daily log information, etc.) and which have a unit cost of $10.00 or less. An explanation must be included describing the intended use. Refer to Chapter 7 for departmental policy and normal ordering procedures.
(5) Key making.
(6) Self-service car washes.
(7) Replacement of automotive hand tools.
(8) The purchase of engraved signs (plastic material) that are essential to departmental operations (i.e., signs concerning safety, command direction, and duty status boards). Petty cash may be used providing a statement of justification is written on the CHP 264.
(9) Oxygen refills, only if vendor refuses an X number for the service, and the invoice is less than $50.
(10) Lock repairs, only if vendor refuses an X number for the service, and the invoice is less than $50.
(11) Photo development, only if low volume, otherwise monthly direct billing should be used.
(12) Postage for the meter that is needed in an emergency. Petty cash may be used provided prior approval is obtained from Accounting Section, Travel/Revolving Fund Unit. An explanation and the person’s name giving approval, including the date approval was given, must be written on the CHP 264.
1538
The fund will be audited periodically, and surprise audits will be conducted ________. The total amount of cash, receipts on hand, and receipts in transit must equal the total fund at all times.
quarterly
1539
Purchase receipts shall be obtained from the vendor whenever possible. How many copies will be necessary to replenish the petty cash fund? The receipt must identify the item purchased and the vendor.
Two copies of the receipt (original plus one copy)
1540
When using the petty cash fund and the purchase receipt does not identify the item purchased or the vendor, or if no receipt is provided, ___(form)_______ must be used.
STD. 439, Disbursement Voucher
| *Note - The STD. 439 must be completed in duplicate and signed by the commander or fund custodian.
1541
Each command shall report shortages in the petty cash fund immediately to FMS, Travel/Revolving Fund Unit. All shortages whether due to theft or clerical error, must be reported in writing no later than ________________. An original plus one copy of all reports will be submitted to FMS, Travel/Revolving Fund Unit.
the first business day following the discovery of the shortage
1542
The report(s) for a petty cash fund shortage shall include the following information:
(a) The total amount of the cash shortage and the period covered.
(b) Whether or not the person having custody of the money used due diligence and followed recognized good practices in handling and safeguarding the money.
(c) Whether or not the cash shortage might reasonably be expected in the regular course of business and was not due to the employee’s dishonesty or carelessness.
(d) A detailed explanation showing date, place, and complete circumstances of the incident which caused the shortage, shall be reviewed and signed by the commander.
* Note - If a theft is involved, attach a copy of the CHP 216, Arrest Investigation Report, and CHP 216S, Crime Data Supplemental, State Property and Employees.
1543
Petty cash fund overages shall be forwarded to Accounting Section, Cashiering Unit, using CHP 230, Transmittal Record, for deposit as _____________.
miscellaneous revenue
1544
To replenish the petty cash fund, the Area must complete a CHP 264, Reimbursement - Petty Cash Request. Attached to the CHP 264 is a list of receipts and/or STD. 439, Disbursement Voucher, in triplicate. Two sets of the CHP 264 with supporting receipts/vouchers must be forwarded to FMS, Travel/Revolving Fund Unit for reimbursement how often?
at least monthly if over $10.00, quarterly if under $10.00, and on June 30 of each fiscal year.
1545
The CAL-Card Program improves access to supplies and materials needed to perform state jobs, and makes prompt payment to suppliers, encouraging California certified _____________ businesses to trade with the state.
small, micro and disabled veteran-owned
1546
True/False - The CAL-Card cardholder is the person whose name is on the credit card. The cardholder is the ONLY person authorized to use the credit card for buying commodities on behalf of the command and should be familiar with state and departmental procurement procedures and policies.
True
1547
The CAL-Card cardholder’s supervisor shall ensure that all monthly documentation is accurate, obtain commander’s signature on the CHP 317, CALCard Log, and forward documents to the _________. The supervisor will also coordinate requests for new or replacement credit cards and ensure the prompt collection and cancellation of cards from transferring or terminating cardholders.
approving official
1548
Commanders (should/shall) implement internal controls to effectively ensure CAL-Card cardholders are making prudent purchases using the credit card. The commander shall appoint judicious staff as cardholders for the command and pre-approve all credit card purchases. The commander shall also review monthly bank statements and sign each CHP 317,317, CALCard Log.
shall
1549
The approving official is the person who reviews the monthly bank statements for all commands within the Division prior to authorizing payment for the CAL-Card. The approving official verifies that purchases comply with program requirements and that cardholders submit proper documentation. The approving official (may/may not) be a cardholder and (may/may not) delegate his/her responsibilities to a Division cardholder.
may not, may not
1550
All requests for new or replacement credit cards will require that a _________ be submitted by the command to the Division commander for approval.
memorandum
| *Note - Division will then forward the approved memorandum to BSS, CAL-Card Program Activity Coordinator for processing.
1551
The CAL-Card may be used to purchase commodities necessary for the daily operation of the command, and when the requisition process (CHP 43, Purchase Requisition) is not feasible. The CAL-Card Program is the primary method for obtaining ___________ from certified suppliers.
office and janitorial supplies
1552
If the estimated value of a CAL Card transaction is under $5,000, buyers (cardholders) shall obtain at least two price quotations from responsible suppliers whenever there is reason to believe a response from a single source is not a _________.
fair and reasonable price
1553
CAL-Card Purchases are limited to _____________ per purchase.
$1,000
| *may vary
1554
The CAL-Card shall not be used for shipping/freight charges that exceed _______. Shipping/freight charges over $50 must be supported with documentation from the supplier. Freight charge documentation shall be attached to the corresponding supplier merchandise receipt/invoice.
$200
1555
True/False - When an item is returned to the supplier due to damage or error, request a chargeback receipt. Keep chargeback receipts until the credit transaction appears on the CAL-Card bank statement. Chargeback receipts do not need to be attached to the bank statement.
False, chargeback receipts should be attached to the bank statement.
1556
For able or disputed items which appear as transactions on the CAL-Card bank statement, the cardholder should:
(a) Contact the supplier for resolution.
(b) Complete the Cardholder Statement of ed Item form and attach it to the CHP 317. The Accounting Section will pay the invoice in full. Cardholder shall monitor the discrepancy until dispute with supplier is resolved and a credit appears on the next bank statement.
(c) Follow up with supplier on these items until resolved.
* Note - If a supplier dispute is not resolved within 60 calendar days, contact the CAL-Card Program Activity Coordinator in BSS for assistance.
1557
Each CAL-Card cardholder will receive an individual bank statement. Within three days of receipt of the bank statement the cardholder must perform the following:
(1) Retain the postmarked envelope and attach it to the bank statement.
(2) Reconcile the bank statement with the CHP 317, CAL-Card Log, and supplier receipts/invoices.
(3) If the receipts/invoices are not itemized, enter the name, quantity and unit price of purchased item(s) on the bank statement’s “Description” line below the applicable merchant’s name.
(4) Attach the corresponding receipts/invoices to the bank statement in the order listed on the bank statement.
(5) For able or disputed items which appear as transactions on the bank statement, the cardholder should:
(a) Contact the supplier for resolution.
(b) Complete the Cardholder Statement of ed Item form and attach it to the CHP 317, CAL-Card Log. The FMS will pay the invoice in full. Cardholder shall monitor the discrepancy until dispute with supplier is resolved and a credit appears on the next bank statement.
(c) Follow up with supplier on these items until resolved.
(6) When an item is returned to the supplier due to damage or error, request a chargeback receipt. Keep chargeback receipts until the credit transaction appears on the bank statement. Chargeback receipts should then be attached to the bank statement.
(7) If a supplier dispute is not resolved within 60 calendar days, contact the CAL-Card Program Activity Coordinator in BSS for assistance.
(8) Approve, sign, and date the bank statement and CHP 317, CAL-Card Log.
(9) Forward the bank statement with attachments (sales receipts, VISA receipts, invoices, dispute forms) and CHP 317, CAL-Card Log, to the cardholder’s immediate supervisor for review and approval.
(10) Retain a file copy of the entire package for at least three years, plus current.
1558
If a CAL-Card is lost or stolen, the cardholder will immediately contact the bank and approving official and provide the complete cardholder name (as shown on the credit card), credit card number, and date reported to the police (if applicable). It is imperative to contact the bank card contractor within 48 hours of the loss of the card to limit the Department’s liability to $50. The bank card contractor has a 24-hour customer service number. A memorandum shall be sent to the ________________. In addition to providing the above information, include information regarding any purchase(s) made on the day the card was lost or stolen and the date the bank was notified.
BSS, CAL-Card Program Activity Coordinator, with a copy to the Division approving official
1559
Upon receipt of the CAL-Card bank statement, attachments, and CHP 317, the supervisor should within three calendar days:
(1) Review, approve, initial and date the CHP 317; sign and date the bank statement below the cardholder’s signature.
(2) Ensure the CHP 317, bank statement, and all attachments are accounted for.
(3) Submit paperwork to commander for review and approval.
(4) Forward paperwork to the appropriate Division approving official.
1560
True/False - The commander shall review the monthly CAL-Card expenditures for verification of pre-approval and compliance with departmental policies and procedures, sign the CHP 317, and return the paperwork to the cardholder’s supervisor for forwarding to the Division approving official.
True
1561
The commander shall ensure the physical security of the CAL-Cards. Cardholders (should not/shall not) retain the cards after work hours unless extenuating circumstances occur and the commander gives prior approval. The cards should be kept in a secure area accessible only to persons who have purchasing duties.
should not
1562
The commander (should/shall) pre-approve all purchases prior to the transaction to ensure that the purchase is in keeping with departmental policies and procedures. This may include checking with appropriate OPI’s for able items that may fall within their area of expertise. Commanders shall also develop written local procedures for preapproving credit card purchases. The written procedures shall be available for audit review.
shall
1563
All Supply Services Catalog requisitions shall be numbered consecutively with a new series at the beginning of __________. In case of multiple-page requisitions, the page number shall be placed at the upper right hand corner of each page.
each fiscal year (July 1)
1564
True/False - Items from the Supply Services Catalog can be obtained by completing a CHP 41, Supply Requisition.
True
1565
Emergency supplies are defined as items necessary for the continuance of critical daily operations, functions or when an emergency condition exists involving public health, welfare and safety. Supplies, from the Supply Service Catalog, required because of an emergency shall be coordinated with Business Services Section, Supply Services Unit (SSU). Prior to submitting the requisition for obtaining emergency supplies the requester shall:
(a) Contact SSU by telephone to verify stock availability.
(b) Fax a completed requisition/justification with a fax cover sheet to SSU. On the cover sheet, identify the SSU contact person.
(c) Emergency "walk-in" requisitions for immediate stock pick-up will be processed following telephone contact from the originating office to SSU.
1566
The CHP 43 shall be used to acquire commodities, supplies, or equipment using federal grants, asset forfeiture, or any other reimbursable special-funded sources. The use of asset forfeiture funds requires Executive Management’s approval of a spending plan. Federal grant expenditures require approval from the Grants Management Unit. Trailers, motor vehicles, and mobile equipment require approval of Fleet Operations Section (FOS). The approvals _______ be obtained prior to submitting the CHP 43 to PSU for processing.
shall
1567
Government Code Section 14600 centralized the procurement function allowing the state to leverage its buying power by consolidating departments’ requirements on a statewide basis. The __________ program enables Department of General Services (DGS), Procurement Division (PD), to streamline purchases by removing repetitive, resource intensive, costly and time-consuming bid processes by state agencies.
Leveraged Procurement Agreement (LPA)
1568
What type of items can be ordered with the CHP 43, Purchase Requisition?
a. Special Funded Items.
b. Equipment.
c. Leveraged Procurement Agreement Contracts.
d. Computer Equipment, Software and Components.
e. Information Technology Related Equipment
f. Publications and Subscriptions.
g. Prescription Safety Glasses.
h. Business Cards.
i. Automotive Items.
j. Police Protective Equipment/Supplies.
k. Soft Body Armor
l. Prison Industry Authority (PIA) Manufactured Products.
m. Promotional/Premium Items.
n. Service Awards.
o. Applicances
1569
Publications and Subscriptions, in the interest of cost efficiency, the headquarters Library shall act as a clearinghouse for the acquisition of books, subscriptions, and other publications for all headquarters requesters. Field requests for publications and subscriptions are not handled by the headquarters Library. Division Chiefs shall review and approve all field requests. All CHP 43, Purchase Requisition, for books, publications, and subscriptions shall reflect the appropriate authorization, along with a complete justification, prior to submission to Business Services Section (BSS), Purchasing Services Unit (PSU) for processing. Subscription requests shall also include the supplier’s renewal notice form, the term of the subscription with the beginning and ending dates, and should be submitted for renewal no earlier than _________ weeks prior to the expiration date.
eight
*Note - The following items are of special concern and must be ordered according to established limitations below:
(1) Kelly Blue Books. This publication is limited to Motor Transport Section, Accounting Section, Investigative Services Section, Vehicle Theft Unit, and CHP Areas with VIN officers. CHP 43s require Division approval and a justification stating that the Kelly Blue Book is for use by one of the above commands or staff.
(2) Thomas Brothers Guides. These are street maps which may be ordered on a CHP 43 by any command. Division approval is required. Guides/maps should be ordered on an asneeded basis but not more frequently than every two years.
1570
Which of the following "Automotive Items" items can be acquired through a CHP 43, Purchase Requisition?
(1) Tires. Tires can be requisitioned at any time and no justification is required except when ordering white sidewall tires. White sidewall tires are restricted to undercover vehicles located at Division offices.
(2) Filters. Automotive oil and air filters are available on Statewide Contracts, can be requisitioned at any time and no justification is required.
(3) Oil and Transmission Fluid. Automotive oil and transmission fluid are available on Statewide Contracts, can be requisitioned at any time and no justification is required. *Note - Specialized transmission fluid used in the Class E sedans is available from Supply Services Unit (SSU) and can be obtained by completing a CHP 41, Supply Requisition.
1571
True/False - The Prison Industry Authority (PIA) is a self-supporting program deriving its revenues solely from the sales of a wide variety of products and services. PIA operates productive enterprises employing prisoners from institutions under the jurisdiction of the California Department of Corrections. Their diverse manufactured products include wood and metal office furniture; modular furniture; metal file cabinets, wardrobe lockers, storage cabinets, and shelving; binders and decals, and textiles, such as silk-screened t-shirts. State agencies are not legislatively mandated to obtain commodities and equipment from PIA to support its operations.
False, State agencies are legislatively mandated to obtain commodities and equipment from PIA to support its operations.
1572
Promotional/premium items are products given free to the public to promote recruitment and public safety awareness programs such as the _____________ Programs. Most promotional and premium items acquired by the CHP are funded by grant or asset forfeiture. Regardless of the funding source, promotional/premium items should be requisitioned with detailed specifications and descriptions provided to ensure the receipt of quality products. They are acquired utilizing a CHP 43, Purchase Requisition.
Buckle-Up, Driving Under the Influence, Vehicle Theft and Highway Safety
1573
Police Protective Equipment/Supplies, most departmentally-approved police protective equipment and supplies are stocked at Business Services Section (BSS), Supply Services Unit (SSU) and are acquired by the completion and submission of a CHP 43, Purchase Requisition. This includes such items as motorcycle and riot helmets, soft body armor, cold weather boots and caps. Sizes not listed in the Supply Services Unit (SSU) Supply Catalog are considered “special order” and may be obtained by completing a _____ specifying the description and exact size needed.
CHP 43, Purchase Requisition
*Note - For SSU backordered items that are of an immediate need, a CHP 43 should be completed and submitted to PSU for processing as outlined in paragraph 13 of this chapter.
1574
Service Awards, pursuant to HPM 150.1, Departmental Awards Manual, employees may be entitled to receive ___________ service awards and/or retirement awards. When ordering these awards, CHP 43s shall identify the employee’s name, effective date of the award, description of the award, price, and, if applicable, size and color of award (e.g., color and size of watch band). The award choices and applicable prices are available from either the Personnel Services Section, Roster Unit, or the appropriate field Division at the time of eligibility. They are acquired utilizing a CHP 43, Purchase Requisition.
25-year
1575
The Department of General Services (DGS), Procurement Division (PD), has established that unauthorized acceptance of samples violates terms and conditions of our departmental delegated purchasing authority and could result in its reduction or revocation. CHP employees shall neither accept sample products from suppliers or manufacturers nor ask any business enterprise to manufacture samples or prototypes unless such request results from the issuance of a purchase order. To acquire samples or prototypes for evaluation, commands shall:
(1) Submit a CHP 43 to Business Services Section (BSS), Purchasing Services Unit(PSU) for the initiation of a purchase order.
(2) Ensure all requests contain a justification for the samples and are authorized by Division.
(3) Ensure acquired samples or prototypes are retained by the designated Office of Primary Interest (OPI).
* Note - An alternative and the preferred method of acquiring samples is to request that PSU incorporate into the purchase order or bid solicitation process a request for a preproduction sample. This method allows the OPI to evaluate whether the commodity meets the Department’s needs prior to the issuance of a purchase order or delivery of the entire shipment and completion of the purchase.
1576
Ford Automotive Parts are not acquired through the utilization of the CHP 43, Purchase Requisition. Annually, PSU is responsible for the development and issuance of contracts for the acquisition of Ford automotive parts through the competitive bid process. The contracts are used by all commands with fleet maintenance responsibility. The PSU notifies commands of the current approved suppliers by providing:
(1) Instructions regarding how to place an order for Ford automotive parts.
(2) Instructions regarding submission of invoices for payment.
(3) Direction that commands only need to contact PSU if changes are required.
Newspaper subscriptions should be ordered on an annual or semi-annual basis.
Invoices must be approved pursuant to direction outlined in HPM 11.1, Chapter 24, Payment of Invoices.
1577
Petty cash or the CAL-Card (should not/shall not) be used to pay for subscriptions.
shall not
1578
True/False - Commands are not required to submit a CHP 43 as PSU will coordinate ordering for the entire Department. The BSS will provide copies annually to commands identified on the established distribution list.
True
1579
True/False - Gasoline, Propane, and Automotive Batteries are not acquired through the utilization of the CHP 43, Purchase Requisition. Annually, when Department of General Services (DGS), Procurement Division (PD), renews the Statewide Contracts for gasoline, propane, and automotive batteries, PSU will automatically generate a blanket purchase order for each command with fleet maintenance responsibilities. The command will receive a STD. 65, Purchasing Authority Purchase Order, denoting the supplier and phone number, the product description, instructions for maintaining a log sheet, and the purchase order number required on each invoice.
True
1580
All CHP 43s shall be numbered consecutively, starting anew at the beginning of _______. In case of multiple-page requisitions, the page number shall be placed at the upper right hand corner of each page.
each fiscal year (July 1)
1581
True/False - Purchasing Services Unit (PSU) is forwarded two photocopies of the CHP 43, Purchase Requisition, and the original remains in the command.
False, The CHP 43 is available in FormFlow only. The CHP 43 shall be submitted to PSU with original signatures. Photocopies are not acceptable and will be returned unprocessed to the OPI. Facsimile copies will be accepted in EMERGENCY situations with the original CHP 43 forwarded to PSU as soon as practicable with the statement “Confirming Copy Faxed (Date)” and a statement of the emergency typed on the CHP 43.
1582
State agencies shall obtain ______ price quotes from responsible suppliers for the acquisition of goods estimated to cost less than $5,000.
two
1583
Purchasing Services Unit (PSU) is responsible for conducting all solicitations for acquisitions with a value of $_______ or more.
5,000
*Note - Commands shall obtain pricing, for estimation purposes only, from a supplier able to provide the needed product(s).
1584
When are the two price quotes not required?
(a) Items available from statewide commodity contracts and PIA.
(b) Non-competitive bid acquisitions with a cost of $5,000 or more.
1585
According to Materials Management Manual, Chapter 8 (Equipment), What are the commander's responsibilities in regards to equipment (e.g., office machines, furniture, etc.)?
(1) Initiating budgeted and unbudgeted equipment requests.
(2) Accounting for all state-owned equipment (major and sensitive) assigned to his/her command. Annual inventory reporting requirements for major and sensitive equipment are discussed in paragraph 14. of this chapter.
(3) Managing minor equipment responsibly to assure appropriate use of all state property. There are no reporting requirements for minor equipment.
(4) Ensuring that equipment is maintained in good working condition and that proper procedures are followed for repair or service.
(5) Identifying and properly disposing surplus equipment and supplies in compliance with the rules and regulations set forth in this manual.
(6) Commands with a property subsystem (e.g., Office of Research and Planning, Motor Transport Section) shall annually reconcile their respective system(s) to the property control system maintained by Accounting Section.
1586
According to Materials Management Manual, Chapter 8 (Equipment), equipment refers to all movable, free-standing items of nonexpendable property which have a normal useful life of __________ or more (including extended life due to repairs or improvements).
4 years
1587
According to Materials Management Manual, Chapter 8 (Equipment), some items fit the characteristics of minor equipment (less than $5,000) but require more stringent accountability controls (e.g. cassette recorders, video cassette recorders, TV/VCR combinations, cameras); these items are classified as _________.
sensitive
1588
According to Materials Management Manual, Chapter 8 (Equipment), equipment which has a unit cost of $5,000 or more (including tax, freight, etc.) is classified as "_______.”
major
1589
According to Materials Management Manual, Chapter 8 (Equipment), equipment less than $5,000 that does not require stringent accountability controls is classified as “_________.”
minor
1590
According to Materials Management Manual, Chapter 8 (Equipment), equipment is categorized as either _________.
major, sensitive, or minor
1591
According to Materials Management Manual, Chapter 8 (Equipment), numbered decals are used for __________ equipment.
major and sensitive
1592
According to Materials Management Manual, Chapter 8 (Equipment), unnumbered decals are used for _________ equipment.
minor
1593
According to Materials Management Manual, Chapter 8 (Equipment), certain equipment items are not under the control of Business Services Section but are the responsibility of sections. Some items have numbered decals while others have unnumbered decals. Some sections use special section-issued numbers instead of CHP-numbered decals. Which one of the following is a number not number the control of Business Services Section:
Telecommunications Section - Section-issued "R" Numbers issued for ing machine/Announcer, Cellular phone, Dispatch tape recorder/reproducer, etc.
Other Section - issued "F" numbers, for fuel tank (propane, diesel, and gas), generator, generator transfer switch, window air conditioner (for remote radio sites)
Network Management Section. Network Management Section (NMS) is responsible for all computer equipment such as:
Backup tape drive Modem, Central processing unit (CPU) Multiple access unit, Diagnostic unit Printer, Microcomputer Uninterruptible power supply.
NOTE: Monitors purchased after February 1994 will not have numbered CHP decals assigned to them.
Accounting Section (Section-issued "X" Numbers). Federally-funded equipment (e.g., EMT kit, aircraft, communications equipment).
Investigative Services Section (Section-issued “AF” Numbers). Equipment purchased with asset forfeiture funds is assigned an "AF" number by Investigative Services Section. Business Services Section (Section-issued “SF” Numbers). Surplus federal equipment received through the Federal Excess Property Program.
1594
True/False - All major, minor, and sensitive equipment must have prior budget approval and shall be supplied only if the Department has secured appropriate approval in the applicable fiscal year budget.
True
1595
True/False - All major, minor, and sensitive equipment require identification for accounting purposes.
True
1596
True/False - Missing items or discrepancies not resolved by the commander must be noted on the inventory printouts. A description of missing items and reasons why the items cannot be accounted for must be provided in the commander's certification memorandum. The item must also be listed by the command as a deletion on the CHP 24 in order to be removed from the Property Record (equipment printout). The memorandum should include explanations for any other discrepancies found during the physical inventory.
True
1597
Commands are required to submit a certification memorandum, CHP 24 and copies of their completed equipment, vehicle, and telecommunications printouts to Division by the __________.
day assigned by the ASD Inventory Coordinator
1598
Within ________ of receiving the command’s complete equipment printouts, certification memorandum, and CHP 24, Division will review, approve, and forward it to the appropriate Assistant Commissioner or Commissioner.
30 days
1599
For a command change, if possible, the outgoing commander should conduct a physical inventory prior to leaving and the incoming commander must complete a physical inventory within ___________. The inventory will consist of equipment (including telecommunications equipment) and vehicles. A copy of the inventory printouts, certification memorandum (with both outgoing and incoming commanders’ signatures), and CHP 24 shall be forwarded by the due date assigned by the Special Projects Manager to the appropriate Division.
30 days
*Note - Only one package will be sent for the change of command inventory. Both the outgoing and incoming commanders use the same package. Both commanders may sign one certification memorandum or separate certification memorandums can be prepared.
1600
Each command shall conduct a physical inventory of all items ordered through material services or CHP supply how often?
Annually and when there is a change of command.
1601
All inventory documents (including certification memorandum and acquisition/disposal documents) must be retained for ______________. These records must be available for review by Audit and Evaluation Unit and the command’s Division.
three years plus the current year
1602
If a change-of-command inventory has been completed within __________ prior to the scheduled annual inventory month, the change-of-command inventory can serve as both inventories.
90 days
1603
The Property Inspector (PI) of OISP, will conduct a random inspection of all commands within a ______ to independently verify the existence and match departmental numbers and serial numbers (if applicable) of equipment listed on the Department’s Property Record (PR).
three-year period
1604
When equipment is repaired at a vendor's place of business (including Department of General Services’ Office Machine Repair Service), commands shall request paperwork (if not automatically provided) from the vendor documenting repair of the machine. The documentation must contain __________ which is located on the CHP decal. All paperwork shall be kept in a "suspense file," pending return of the equipment.
the CHP equipment number X-number or contract
1605
Postage Meters and Mailing Machines. Contact the vendor if postage meters, postage scales, or mailing machines are covered under a _______________. If not covered, field offices should contact their Division X Number Coordinator for an X number prior to service or repair. Headquarters' offices should contact Contract Management Unit for an X number prior to service or repair.
master rental or maintenance agreement
1606
True/False - Field commands shall contact the Division X Number Coordinator and headquarters commands shall contact Contract Management Unit, for repair/service of any equipment not mentioned in this chapter such as chairs, lockers, hydraulic jacks, etc. If the field command determines the repair or service will be less than $1,000, the procedures for use of an X number must be followed as stated in Chapter 23 of HPM 11.1, Administrative Procedures Manual.
True
1607
According to Materials Management Manual, Chapter 8 (Equipment), audio-visual equipment includes:
all still cameras, television projectors and related remote controllers, audio and visual tape recorders, radios, microphone radio transmitters, television sets, receivers and monitors, television-related equipment, motion picture and slide projectors, projection screens, multimedia programmers and dissolve control units, public address systems and amplifiers, microphones, and other related equipment.
1608
A/V equipment shall be cleaned and checked regularly to ensure proper operating condition. Materials needed for minor preventative maintenance are available through the CHP Supply Catalog. All equipment should be serviced how often?
once each year
1609
concerning repair and maintenance of audio-visual equipment should be directed to the following Academy personnel:
(1) Audio-Visual Equipment Technician for all audio-visual equipment (other than still cameras and related equipment) and handheld cassette recorders.
(2) Senior Photographer for still cameras, still camera flash units, still camera lenses, and still camera tripods.
1610
Commanders are responsible for maintenance of audio-visual equipment assigned to their command. Establishing standards for selection of audiovisual equipment is the joint responsibility of ____________________. Determination of need will be the sole responsibility of each commander.
the commander and the Academy's Audio-Visual Unit
1611
Equipment, whether major, minor, or sensitive, no longer needed or used by a command is considered _______ to the command’s needs. In many cases, an equipment repair person will inform the command that due to excessive repair costs, replacing the item would be more economical. In other cases, the item has become functionally or mechanically obsolete.
surplus (or surplus equipment)
1612
Serviceable Equipment is equipment that is in a ______________.
usable condition, whether obsolete or not
1613
True/False- According to Materials Management Manual, Chapter 8 (Equipment), the serviceability of all equipment will be determined by the commander.
False, serviceability of surplus computer equipment will be determined by the commander, the LAN Administrator, and Network Management Section (NMS).
1614
Serviceability of surplus telecommunications equipment will be determined by the commander and the Telecommunications Section Property Inspector.
Serviceability of all other types of equipment will be determined by the commander.
1615
Unserviceable Equipment is equipment that __________________________.
can no longer be profitably used because it is in a poor or junk-like condition, i.e., battered, worn, broken
1616
True/False - Prior to disposal of any equipment, any state identification, including numbered tags must be removed.
True
1617
According to Materials Management Manual, Chapter 8 (Equipment), the acceptable methods for transfer or return of surplus/obsolete material, excluding computer equipment and telecommunications equipment, are:
a) Transfer/return to Supply Services Unit, Business Services Unit
b) Transfer between commands.
c) Donate to local agency (contact Accounting Section).
d) Parts for salvage (automotive parts, Motor Transport Manual)
e) Sale to wholesale copier distributor - replaced copiers only.
* Note - Computer equipment and telecommunications equipment are returned to their appropriate section or transferred to another command only.
1618
The annual inventory period is ________ through _________.
January, December
1619
Before any item can be purchased from federal grant funds, ________ approval must be received by the project director.
Office of Special Projects
1620
Repairs on equipment purchased on a federal grant is funded through ________ unless otherwise stipulated in the federal grant guidelines.
state expense
1621
Inspection and accounting of uniformed officer safety/protective equipment shall be conducted in conjunction with the ___________.
employee's annual performance appraisal
1622
The department will not repair or maintain privately-owned equipment except when the item is __________.
damaged in the line of duty
1623
Cold weather gear (sand goggles, cold weather caps, insulated boots) issued to officers experiencing adverse climatic conditions. To qualify it becomes the decision of the ____.
Division Chief
1624
True/False - Repairs on safety equipment have been discontinued because it is not cost effective.
True, except for the service pistol.
1625
Field office supplies of CHP forms should be consistent with the requirements of the command and shall not exceed a _____ month supply.
six
1626
Guidelines for disposing of unclaimed property coming into the custody of the Department are contained in __________.
Vehicle Code Sections 2414, 2415 and Code of Civil Procedures Section 1300.
1627
Nuisance weapons, as defined in HPM 70.1 shall be turned over to _______.
the Academy
1628
The _____________ is responsible to arrange for the safekeeping and eventual disposal of unclaimed property.
Commander or designee
1629
Nonperishable unclaimed property, unless claimed by the owner, shall be held at the Area / Division offices for _________.
90 days
1630
After holding the above item(s) for the specified period, forward to ________ for storage and disposition.
Supply Services Unit
1631
Found cash shall be forwarded to the _____________.
Fiscal Management Section (FMS)
1632
Copiers funded by the Department’s copier budget are __________ scheduled for replacement at the end of the copier’s useful life.
automatically
1633
If Departmental transportation is not available, ____________, is the preferred carrier for all overnight mail and packages to be delivered within California.
California Overnight (CAL Overnight)
1634
Freight bills from common carriers must be forwarded in duplicate to the _____.
Fiscal Management Section (FMS), Accounts Payable Unit
1635
Reimbursement from an employee for lost, stolen, damaged, or destroyed state property shall be ______________.
at the current replacement cost
1636
True/False - A Unit 5 employee's liability for the misuse of state property is limited to the actual costs to the state.
True
1637
Whenever an employee (non BU-5), through neglect, loses or damages departmentally issued equipment or property, reimbursement and/or ___________ for loss or damage shall be sought from the involved employee..
adverse action
1638
Reports of lost items shall be forwarded by the commander through proper channels to _________.
the appropriate Assistant Commissioner
1639
________________ determines the value of the loss or damage.
Business Services Section
1640
Employees responsible for lost or damaged state property have ____ to remit payment.
30 days
1641
The value of lost or damaged state owned property is considered to be _______.
depreciated replacement cost
1642
True/False - To register a privately owned laptop computer, the employee must prepare a memorandum to their commander indicating the necessity and intention to use a privatelyowned laptop computer to generate CHP documents. The memorandum must contain the make, model, and serial number of the equipment to be used. Additionally, the original purchase date and cost must be identified. The memorandum must also provide justification describing the specific on-the-job duties for which the equipment will be used. It must also state that the employee will regularly prepare CHP documents on the privatelyowned equipment. Lastly, the memorandum must document the encryption method used on the personally-owned laptop computer.
True
1643
Commanders or designee, (shall/shall not) be responsible for inspecting privately owned computer equipment.
shall
1644
Claims for damaged personal computer equipment (shall/shall not) be reviewed by the immediate commander.
shall
1645
Badges shall be forwarded by the command with a CHP 511 to BSS, Badge Repair/Replacement Coordinator, for repair or replacement when they:
(1) Are damaged or defaced.
(2) Are noticably discolored and luster cannot be restored.
(3) Show a high degree of detail loss.
(4) Show loss of enamel inlay.
(5) Have an unsafe pin/clasp.
1646
A command shall __________ the Badge Repair/Replacement Coordinator to request a temporary badge, indicating the affected officer’s name, badge number, and reason for temporary badge. The coordinator will issue a temporary badge along with a transmittal document. When the temporary badge is received by the command, the permanent badge and a completed CHP 511 shall be returned to the coordinator for processing.
email
1647
What should a command do with a badge when a person retires from the Department?
Commands shall send the badge and completed CHP 511 to BSS, Badge Repair/Replacement Coordinator.
*Badges will be held until determined the employee is retiring in good standing. The coordinator will ensure a “retired” ribbon is attached and that the badge is promptly returned to the command.
1648
What should a command do with a badge when a person separates (not retires) from the Department?
Commands shall send to BSS, Badge Repair/Replacement Coordinator, the badge and a completed CHP 511.
1649
A well organized office should have four devices operating:
Written job descriptions, specific desk task descriptions, grouping of related activities and position backups.
1650
Facilities should be repainted every ___________ years.
five
1651
A centralized secondary employment list should be maintained for what purpose?
To enable for prompt notification in case of an emergency.
1652
The MIS provides statistical reports as a source of information on enforcement _______ as a whole.
beat and Area
1653
Regulations requiring the posting of physical information, worker’s rights, etc. are contained in ________.
the Labor Code
1654
There are generally four reasons to plan:
To offset uncertainty/change, Focus attention on goals/objectives, Promote economic operation, Facilitate control.
1655
A good method of inspecting an officer’s enforcement is to review all documents the officer issues and compare this with his/her ___________.
CHP 100.
1656
The two types of evaluations for analyzing commands are __________ and ___________.
formal, informal
1657
When evaluations reveal deficiencies, corrective action and correction reports should be completed within _____ days.
30
1658
Two formal evaluations usually required by Division are ______ and _______.
Chapter 10 (Uniform and Equipment) and Chapter 17 (Officer Safety).
1659
How often are commanders encouraged to do voluntary (self) evaluations?
Every two years
1660
Informal evaluations are an excellent tool to __________________.
expose new supervisors and managers to the Area’s operations
1661
Emphasis should be placed on _________________.
Areas where Command Management Plan (CMP) objectives are not being met
1662
The summary statement portion of the Area management evaluation checklist may be submitted in ________ form.
handwritten
1663
Area checklists should be maintained chronologically in an evaluation file. It is recommended that they be retained for ____________.
current calendar year + 1.
1664
In-depth evaluations are usually initiated on the ___________ principle. Under this principle, attention is required only where there is a deviation from the norm.
exception
1665
In addition to positive employer-employee relations, the Department’s philosophy includes:
Management by results, Organizational development, Participatory management, Command Management Planning
1666
In Area management, emphasis should be placed on __________.
results achieved rather than on methods of achievement
1667
The six recognized functions of management are:
Planning, Organizing, Staffing, Directing, Controlling, Delegating POSDCD
1668
Why should Areas display organizational charts?
To provide employees with a clear delineation of authority and a sense of accountability (to whom they are accountable to and what their duties are).
1669
Why should Job descriptions be completed?
To provide for back up of positions and to lay out employee responsibilities.
1670
No more than _______ of area personnel should be absent from staff meetings.
10%
1671
Staff meetings should be held how often?
As often as needed, and ideally, just prior to Area meetings.
1672
Commanders should meet with non-uniformed personnel at least _________.
quarterly
1673
What is the primary publication for area procedures?
The area SOP.
1674
Evaluation of an area’s enforcement should focus on __________ and ____________.
accident reduction and compliance with the law
1675
Regulations/statutes which require a written plan for the protection of area employees/facilities are found in __________ and ___________.
the State Administrative Manual and HPM 50.1 - Emergency Response Manual
1676
A well organized office should have four elements operating:
Written job descriptions, grouping of related activities, position back-ups, a specific desk description that tells how to do the specific desk function.
1677
The designated person to release criminal offender record information must have had ____________________ training, with training documentation in field folder.
California Code of Regulations
1678
Who can release criminal offender record information?
Only a "designated" person.
1679
Who is responsible for ensuring timely transmissions and records of moneys transactions?
The Commander
1680
How long are commands required to keep a copy of inventory listings/inventory cards?
Four years or until audited by Accounting Section.
1681
If confidential or sensitive material is stored on a computer’s hard disk and it is not part of a network _________.
it must be password protected
1682
_______________ is of prime importance in fleet operations.
Cost effectiveness
1683
Vehicle inspections by supervisors are required how often?
After each 5,000 mile service.
1684
Ride-along waivers of liability are retained for ___________.
one year plus the current year
1685
Motor Transport Section should be provided how much notice for run-out replacement?
30 to 45 days
1686
Annual inventory of Automotive Technician tools is to be conducted by __________.
anyone other than the Auto Techs
1687
A spare set of each tire used by the command (should/shall) be mounted and balanced on spare wheels.
should
1688
Inventory cards are required for parts/supplies over _______ and for ________.
five dollars in value and for all fluids and filters.
1689
All parts, accessories and supplies on hand should be inventoried how often and by whom?
Quarterly, by other than those who dispense them.
1690
Daily gas reports should be reconciled how often, and to within how many gallons?
Daily, within two to three gallons.
1691
How often should fleet facilities be inspected?
Twice per year.
1692
Motorcycle training is required ___________.
quarterly
1693
Sergeants should be available when?
At the start and end of shift.
1694
The process of contemplating problems, considering alternatives, and developing logical conclusions is ________.
planning
1695
In a formal inspection, the maximum numbers of persons per rank is _______.
nine
1696
How often is the commander or designee required to physically verify the serial numbers of State-Owned Weapons?
Every other year
1697
Entries into the OSHA 200, Log of Occupational Injuries and Illness must be made within ________ working days of learning of the occurrence of the occupational injury or illness.
six
1698
OSHA 200. Log of Occupational Injuries and Illness shall be kept for _____ years, plus the current year.
five
1699
The files required to be maintained by the School Pupil Safety Officer are:
Driver Records, CHP 100E (Monthly Activity Vehicle Code and the CCRReport), School Bus Traffic Collision
Reports, Approved Stops List
1700
The _______ and ________ require the CHP to have approved stop lists for school buses.
Vehicle Code and the CCR
1701
ICS training is mandatory for which employees?
Uniformed supervisors, managers, OICs and Comm Operators.
1702
Captains and Lieutenants must maintain what level in enforcement tactics?
At least minimum.
1703
The acronym L.E.A.P. represents what affirmative action group?
Limited Examination and Appointment Program.
1704
Who is responsible for the annual language survey?
The Commander.
1705
Efforts to remove ________________ barriers are vital to the hiring of persons with disabilities, or the continued employment of current employees who become disabled.
real or artificial
1706
The CHP 246 serves as the _________________.
the monthly mileage report
1707
The ______________is the sole input document for costs, downtime, repair codes and premature failures.
The CHP 297A, Job Tag Report
1708
The _____________ establishes a record of the vehicle within the system.
CHP 57, Assignment and Transfer
1709
All CHP 297As and CHP246s are due at Motor Transport NLT the ___ calendar day of the following month.
eighth
1710
The CHP 297A must be forwarded within ____ working days after repairs are completed.
two
1711
Who is responsible and accountable for all motor vehicle equipment owned and operated by the Department of the California Highway Patrol (CHP).
The Commissioner
1712
Enforcement vehicles are Class _____ vehicles.
E
1713
Special Purpose Vehicles such as MRE trucks, 4X4’s, Suburban, etc., are Class _________.
C
1714
Trailers are Class _____ vehicles.
T
1715
Special Vehicles such as the Academy bus, water truck, asset forfeiture vehicles etc., are Class _________.
S
1716
The suffix "X" indicates that a vehicle is in a ____________.
federally funded program
1717
Transportation sedans such as transportation sedans, undercover sedans, and unmarked station wagons are Class ____ vehicles.
D
1718
Replacement of Class E vehicles are to be operated to _______ miles.
100,000
1719
Pickups, 4x4s, other Class "C" vehicles and undercover vehicles are to be operated to _______ if economically feasible.
125,000 miles
1720
Unmarked sedans used as pool vehicles, light and heavy trucks, motor carrier vans and other transportation or vocational vehicles are to be operated to _______ when economically feasible.
150,000 miles
1721
An under mileage survey of a motor vehicle requires the approval of motor transport section, _______
Fleet Operations Section (FOS)
1722
Motorcycles are replaced at _____________.
100,000 miles
1723
As a vehicle approaches its replacement mileage the approximate date of replacement will be calculated. A copy of the CHP 57 is sent to the Motor Transport Section _______ prior to the projected date.
45 days
1724
Between ______ and ______ Class “E” pool vehicles will be distributed to Divisions based on field Division size and past needs.
5, 10
1725
The vehicle credit card may be used for emergency services and parts. The limit on these purchases is __________.
$50.00
1726
The credit card (may/may not) be used for routine servicing.
may not
1727
A Chapter 6 inspection of an Area's entire motor vehicle fleet should be conducted __________.
at least once each year.
1728
Motor vehicle advisory board meetings are held at least ____________.
annually
1729
Final approval authority for home storage permits will remain with the ___________.
Office of the Commissioner
1730
Motorcycles stored at an employee’s residence shall be kept in a __________.
locked garage
1731
Routine vehicle inspections are recommended at intervals of ________. These inspections are conducted by a _________.
5,000 miles, supervisor
1732
Sirens and radios are to be repaired by technicians from _____________.
General Services, Department of Telecommunications
1733
A speedometer found to be more than ____ MPH inaccurate is to be replaced.
four
1734
Speedometers are to be checked for accuracy at least every miles _______or ______ days.
30,000, 90 days (Which ever occurs first)
1735
(T/F) - An alternate method of speedometer calibration is the use of a stopwatch and a measured mile.
False
| *no longer authorized
1736
Departmental policy requires patrol vehicle speedometers be calibrated every _____ days or __________ miles, using a radar gun or 5th wheel.
90, 30,000
1737
Equipment installed by the Department is not to be changed, modified or relocated without prior approval from _________.
FOS
1738
Biodegradable cleaners is the preferred method of engine cleaning.
True
1739
Repairs are classified as ___________ and _________.
operational and accident.
1740
Damage due to storms, legal intervention or damage beyond the control of the driver are coded as _________ on the Job Tag.
"not due to collision"
1741
Whenever possible, three estimates are to be secured for collision repairs estimated to exceed _____________.
$500.00
1742
Department motorcycles or vehicles involved in a fatality or serious injury to the operator or any involved party (shall/shall not) be repaired.
shall not
1743
True/False - In house servicing of vehicles is permitted.
True
1744
The primary consideration in conducting any vehicle maintenance and repair program is _____________.
personnel safety
1745
True/False - Storage tanks will be measured before and after all deliveries.
True
1746
Commanders shall ensure that a minimum gasoline order be requested which is ____ percent of tank size for underground storage tanks or ____ percent of tank size for above ground storage tanks.
80, 70
1747
CHP 33D, "Daily Record of Gas and Oil", and the CHP 33F, "Monthly Summary", and delivery invoices are retained for ___________.
life of the facility and the storage tank, or in accordance with the county’s requirements where the fuel storage tank resides, whichever is greater.
1748
It is the responsibility of the commander to ensure that a ______ supply of vehicle parts and supplies is maintained.
90 day
1749
quarter
quarter
1750
Inventory records shall be retained for ______ months after internal audit or ______ years, which ever occurs first.
six, three
1751
A tire inventory control utilizing serial numbers shall be maintained by each command.
False, do not use serial number.
1752
Who must approve email for charitable contributions other than for retirements, deaths or funeral arrangements, blood drives and solicitation requests for donations to employees or families in need. All solicitation requests may only be made on behalf of charities specifically sanctioned by the Department, United California State Employees Campaign, Us Savings Bonds, food drives and blood drives?
E-mail solicitation not meeting these criteria must be approved by the commander responsible for the immediate area(s) or section(s) subject to the solicitation. As such, if an e-mail is directed Area-wide, the affected Area Commander will serve as approval authority. If the e-mail is directed Division-wide, the Division Commander may approve it. The Commissioner’s office approval is required for Department-wide solicitations.
1753
True/False - Email can be used for charitable contributions.
True, e-mail system may not be used as a method to solicit donations for or participation in charity events, other than those which are departmentally sponsored and supported. Examples of sanctioned events include the United California State Employees Campaign, US Savings Bond Drive, Blood Drives, and Food Drives.
1754
__________ has management control of radio, telephone and digital telecommunications systems.
Assistant Commissioner, Staff
1755
______________ are responsible for telecommunications facilities/equipment at the area.
Area Commanders
1756
uniformed supervisor
uniformed supervisor
1757
Communications Supervisor I work for _________________.
Communication Supervisor II's or a uniformed supervisor
1758
Communication Operator I & II work for ________________________.
Communication Supervisor I's
1759
Information recorded on the radio station card, CHP 140, (is/is not) privileged information.
is not
1760
CHP 140/141 (Complaint-Dispatch-APB)
CHP 140/141 (Complaint-Dispatch-APB)
1761
FCC Regulations require base stations and mobile units to be identified every _____ minutes or __________.
30, at the end of each transmission
1762
Which form is used to document information on stored vehicles, incarcerated and injured persons?
CHP 144 (incarcerated, injured, vehicle report)
1763
The ________________ is used to record daily radio transmission data, and is submitted ________ to the Telecommunications Section.
CHP 255, Radio Transmission Tally, quarterly
1764
The radio broadcast sheet (CHP 223) is used to record broadcasts and cancellation of stolen and wanted vehicles and retained at the radio console for ____________. The form is destroyed after __________.
a 24 hour period, 90 days
1765
__________________ data is utilized in budget preparation to evaluate criteria for personnel and equipment needs in communications centers throughout the State.
Radio transmission key count
1766
The CHP 255, Radio Transmission Tally, is retained for _________________________.
the current year plus one
1767
CHP The release of criminal offender information is recorded on _______________
CHP 263B, Criminal Offender Record Information Release Log
1768
CHP form 263B is used to record the release of criminal offender record information obtained from DOJ. The completed form shall be retained for _____ years from date of release.
three
1769
Which form is used as a report of accident - new release?
CHP 288
1770
The CHP 288, News Release, is disposed of _____________.
three month rotation
1771
Communication/Phone tapes are public records and retained for _______.
180 days
1772
911 calls must be ed within __________, only transferred ________, and not ___________.
10 seconds, once, placed on hold
1773
ODT stands for ____________________.
ODT stands for Operational Dial Telephone.
1774
The operational dial telephone system (ODT) "green phone" is owned by __________.
the state
1775
Personal use of the lease line is prohibited by the ____________________.
State Administrative Manual
1776
Repairs/modifications of the communications system are arranged through the ______________.
Telecommunications Section
1777
__________________ require the identification of the radio frequency at ___________ intervals or at the end of transmission/series of transmissions.
FCC regulations, 30 minute
1778
True/False - The wearing of headsets by radio console operators is optional.
False
1779
If a local agency is unable to respond to a missing person report, the Department _________ conduct preliminary investigation, and if missing person is under ___________ shall immediately take necessary action.
shall, 12 years
1780
Call sign numbers 5000-5098 are reserved for use by _____________.
the Governor, Secretary of State, Secretary of Business, Transportation and Housing Agency, Supreme Court Justices, and their Staff.
1781
(T/F) - Personnel may carry and use privately owned non-public safety radio systems for the sole purpose of providing public safety aid to citizens, If approved by the commander.
True
1782
HPM 50.1 provides for what three plans?
Basic Emergency Plan, Employee and Property Protection, Hazard Specific Plans.
1783
In order to maintain readiness and test the effectiveness of their emergency plans, how often shall all field commands conduct or participate in emergency preparedness exercise.
annually
| *Note - All field commands shall annually conduct or participate in at least one emergency preparedness exercise.
1784
All commands shall develop a written command-specific ______ to provide for the effective use of California Highway Patrol (CHP) resources in response to emergency incidents which may affect the command.
EOP
1785
The Department uses the ___________ during the management and response to emergency incidents.
Incident Command System (ICS)
1786
The _____________ is the official advisory body to the Governor for emergency preparedness.
California Emergency Council
1787
The ______________ is the advisory body to the Governor on the coordination of State resources in response to emergencies. The Commissioner is a member of this council.
Governor’s Emergency Operations Executive Council
1788
Requests for assistance from the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) are coordinated by ________________.
Office of Emergency Services (OES)
1789
The _______________ provides staff assistance to the Governor on carrying out emergency preparedness responsibilities.
Governor’s Office of Emergency Services
1790
The first priority in the basic emergency plan is to save lives, the second priority is protection of property, and the third is to _____________.
restore essential services
1791
A Pre-Emergency Period has 2 phases they are:
The Normal Preparedness Phase and the Increased Readiness Phase.
1792
The phase where all command prepare plans, SOP's, etc. is called the ____________.
Normal Preparedness Phase
1793
The phase where commands review plans, increase public information efforts, accelerate training programs is called the _______________.
Increased Readiness Phase
1794
The emergency operational phases addresses operations during peacetime and war emergencies. The plan is divided into three operational phases. They are:
The Pre-Emergency Period, Emergency Period, Post-Emergency Period.
1795
The phase where an event has occurred and the concentration is on the well being of people impacted by the event is called the _____________.
Immediate Impact Phase
1796
The phase where Incident Command System (ICS) actions are precautionary such as moving people from a flood zone is called the ____________.
Pre-Impact Phase
1797
The phase where long term survival of the workforce and facilities is a priority is called the _____________.
Sustained Emergency Phase
1798
What is the Department's function in the sustained emergency phase?
Assume the Incident Command System (ICS) Command Role in event incidents fall within Departmental jurisdiction.
1799
An Incident Command System (ICS) Mission-Acceptance role where the CHP might accept specific subordinate missions from an Non-CHP ICS Commander is normally accompanied by a ________________.
formal request for Mutual Aid
1800
The 3 phases during the emergency period are called:
The Pre-Impact phase, Immediate Impact phase, and Sustained Emergency phase.
1801
During the post emergency period, there are three priorities, they are:
Continuation of emergency traffic regulation and control, Renderthreeing Mutual Aid in support of local law enforcement operations, Resuming normal departmental activities ASAP.
1802
The Office of Emergency Services (OES) has established _________ levels of emergency response during peacetime.
three
1803
A level _______ response is for minor to moderate incidents where local resources are available. A "Local Emergency" may or may not be proclaimed.
I
1804
A level __________ response is for moderate to severe incidents where local resources are inadequate and mutual aid may be required. A "Local Emergency" will be proclaimed and "State of Emergency" may be proclaimed.
II
1805
A level ________ response is for major disasters which have overwhelmed resources and state/federal resources are necessary. A "Local Emergency and a State of Emergency" will be proclaimed and a Presidential Declaration of an "Emergency" or "Major Disaster" will be requested.
III
1806
An _______ (No warning) indicates that a weapon has been detonated.
attack
1807
Under Nuclear emergencies, there are _________ warning conditions.
three
1808
A __________ indicates an attack has been detected. An Attack warning will be sounded and public announcement be made.
Tactical Warning
1809
Warnings will be broadcast from the National Warning System to the ________________.
Emergency Broadcast System (EBS)
1810
NAWAS is the National Warning System that is tied into California through the _______________.
Office of Emergency Services (OES) Headquarters
1811
What condition is in effect during peacetime?
Readiness Condition 4
1812
What condition is announced by the governor in response to declining international situations that could result in war? It should be considered to make preparations for inplace sheltering.
Condition 3
1813
A __________ indicates hostilities are imminent, warning time may vary from several hours to several days. It is a basis for initiating readiness.
Strategic Warning
1814
What condition is announced by the governor during international crisis?
Readiness Condition II
1815
In order to assure the orderly transition from peacetime to a war emergency status, four readiness conditions have been established. Readiness condition ______ assumes that war is inevitable.
I
1816
What condition is announced by the federal government in case of imminent attack?
Readiness Condition I
1817
If an Area's resources are taxed, they will request aid through ___________.
the appropriate Field Division
1818
True/False - During an emergency, Departmental functions remain under command and control of this Department.
True
1819
Upon initiation of emergency operations, an Area Command will activate the ___________.
Emergency Resources Center (ERC)
1820
The Department uses several types of exercises to maintain readiness, an Orientation Seminar involves __________.
lectures or multimedia (does not require student participation)
1821
The Department uses several types of exercises to maintain readiness, they are:
The Orientation Seminar, Table-Top Exercise, Functional Exercise, and Full Scale Exercise.
1822
A ___________ involves the simulated activation of the Emergency Response Center (ERC) and Incident Command System (ICS) components.
Functional Exercise
1823
A ___________ involves actual deployment.
Full Scale Exercise
1824
A __________ is an interactive discussion of hypothetical situations.
A Table-Top Exercise
1825
True/False - Upon the arrival at the scene of a down military aircraft, CHP have the authority to restrict entrance into the crash site.
True, per Penal Code section 409.5, CHP has the authority to restrict the area, however properly credentialed news media may not be excluded. If the news media chooses to enter the crash site their identity should be recorded.
1826
When can the CHP restrict all persons, including credentialed representatives of the news media, access to a military crash site?
Once the appropriate military commander establishes an National Defense Area (NDA) CHP officers are authorized to assist military authorities in excluding all unauthorized persons, including credentialed representatives of the news media.
*Note - Military personnel must be present at the scene of the downed aircraft for this to apply.
1827
During an emergency, the ________ granted the CHP an exemption of the 50 mile rule for meals and lodging.
DPA
1828
Emergency Highway Traffic Regulation (EHTR) centers are established at three organizational levels:
State, Division, Area
1829
The State Emergency Highway Traffic Regulation (EHTR) Plan is administered by ________.
CHP
1830
The States Emergency Traffic Highway Regulation (ETHR) plan will be activated by the Commissioner upon:
1) Declaration of the President.
2) Concurrent resolution by Congress.
3) Direction by the Governor.
4) In absence of specific direction when an national emergency has occurred due to an enemy attack or a localized emergency i.e. earthquake or fire.
1831
Within each Mutual Aid Region are operational areas. ___________ defines an operational area.
a county
1832
The Mutual Aid coordinator levels are:
1) Local Area Coordinators (Sheriff)
2) Operational Area Coordinators
3) Regional Coordinators
4) State Coordinators
1833
Upon mutual aid requests from the operational area coordinator, supervisors shall _______________.
notify the Commander who will request permission from the Commissioner
1834
All Mutual Aid requests for un-armed assistance (will/will not) be denied.
will
1835
For 11-99 calls, the degree of departmental response must be based on ___________.
the decision of the on-duty supervisor
1836
True/False - Local and state law enforcement personnel are prohibited from assisting in mutual aid situations within National Parks.
True
1837
There are _____________ mutual aid regions in California.
seven line load control roster(They are 1, 1A, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6)
1838
Essential Services phones will be able to receive calls during a disaster, but only those numbers listed on the _____________ will have the capability to make outgoing calls.
line load control roster
1839
True/False - Phone numbers listed by the Department on the line control roster are limited to CHP business and emergency lines.
False, includes the home phones of key personnel.
1840
______________ is defined as the combination of facilities, equipment, personnel, procedures and communications operating within a common organizational structure, with responsibility or assigned resources at an emergency incident.
The Incident Command System (ICS)
1841
CHP members may, upon request and with approval of the __________, fill supporting roles in allied agencies Emergency Response Center's (ERC), not normally assumed by the CHP.
next highest level of command
1842
Commanders shall ensure that ___________, and communications personnel who are likely to participate in emergency incident operations, are trained to initiate, staff, maintain, and adapt the ICS.
all uniformed personnel
1843
True/False - In incidents where the CHP has primary responsibility, the IC will only use CHP employees in section leadership roles.
False, Commanders shall ensure that assisting agencies are properly and promptly integrated in the system.
1844
The Incident Command System (ICS) structure develops depending upon the nature, size, and anticipated duration of event. This is known as a ________ organization.
modular
1845
The manageable span of control is normally limited to one supervisor to five subordinates, with a maximum of _______.
1:8
1846
What are the 3 status conditions of tactical resources?
Assigned, available, out of service.
1847
The PIO, Safety officer and Liaison Officer report to the ______________.
Command Section commander
1848
The five Major Incident Command System (ICS) Sections/Functions are the ___________________.
Command or Command Staff, Operations, Planning/Intelligence, Logistics and Finance
1849
Which Section carries out tactical functions at an incident?
Operations
1850
Which Section obtains and displays situational status and prepares alternative strategies?
Planning/Intelligence
1851
Which Section collects, evaluates and disseminates tactical information on the incident.
Planning/Intelligence
1852
Which Section develops communications and medical support plans, and provides for facilities, services, and materials in support of the incident?
Logistics
1853
Who is the only person who can commit CHP resources for Mutual Aid Support?
The Commissioner
1854
A Tactical Alert may be activated by ____________, if the threat appears beyond the capabilities of the on-duty command personnel.
the on-duty supervisor or OIC
1855
When are written action plans utilized?
At all complex or long term emergency incidents.
1856
When are verbal Incident Action plans utilized?
When the first officer establishes a command post.
1857
All agencies in multi-jurisdictional incidents contribute to decision making, if a decision cannot be collectively made, the _________ makes the final determination.
Incident Commander
1858
Which Section ensures documentation for injuries/claims?
Finance
1859
Where are employee and property protection plans usually contained?
Local EAP.
1860
At incidents involving bombs, there should be no radio and/or cellular phone transmissions within __________ of the bomb site.
300 feet
1861
The opening of vehicle doors, hoods or trunks and removing luggage from commercial to search for a bomb is called an ____________.
Entry Search
1862
The scanning of a room, vehicle, or structure to look for suspicious object to search for a bomb is called a ___________.
Visual Search.
1863
The scanning of a facility to include the opening of doors and listening to search for a bomb is called a _____________.
Facility Search
1864
When a facility search does not result in the discovery of a suspected explosive, _______ shall determine whether or not the building is safe.
the Commander
1865
Searches by CHP personnel are limited to ______________ searches.
visual and facility
1866
Commanders shall make arrangements with local EOD personnel to do _________________.
entry searches, disarming and removal of suspected explosive devices
1867
________________ are responsible for conducting facility searches at all CHP facilities.
Commanders/alternates
1868
_______________ are responsible for visual searches on state highways/related structures.
Commanders/alternates
1869
Commanders (should/shall) immediately notify CalTrans of actual or suspected incidents involving state highway or state owned structures?
should
1870
___________ shall initiate a stop and cause a visual search of vehicles suspected of containing illegal explosives in CHP jurisdiction.
Commanders/alternates
1871
Occupants of vehicles of vehicles suspected of containing illegal explosives in CHP jurisdiction are to be directed to a safe location at least ________ away.
300 feet
1872
At incidents involving bombs in vehicles, Officers should keep individuals at least _________ away from the vehicle/bomb site. Radios should not be utilized within ________ of the vehicle.
300 feet, 400 feet
1873
Divisions must ensure that _____________ are trained by the Academy in bomb incident instructor training.
two Sergeants
1874
A bomb incident is reported as ____________.
an Unusual Occurrence
1875
An employee and property protection is required by the ____________.
State Administrative Manual and General Industry Safety Orders
1876
HP personnel shall be briefed at least ________ on existing emergency procedures and responsibilities.
annually
1877
During occurrences of a continuing nature, Comm Net messages should be sent to A.C. Field at _________ intervals.
four hour
1878
A final Comm Net message for major emergencies shall be sent to ____________.
A.C. Field and Division
1879
Within ______ calendar days of the conclusion of an emergency operation which resulted
in a level 2 or 3 response, or when directed by the Division Chief, an after-action memorandum shall be submitted to the appropriate field Division Chief with copies forwarded to the Assistant ommissioner, Field and to ORP.
30 calendar
| *45 days for Level 4
1880
HPM 50.5, along with 50.1 (Emergency Incident Management Planning and Operations Manual), HPG 50.3 (Emergency Incident Guide), and HPM 70.6 (Officer Safety Manual) provide guidance and direction for _____________.
emergency incident response and mutual aid efforts at civil disturbances.
1881
In accordance with the Department's missions and objectives, the California Highway Patrol will normally respond to the following types of civil unrest/disobedience incidents:
(1) An incident which affects state or county highways where the Department has primary investigative authority.
(2) An official request for mutual aid assistance is made by an allied agency.
1882
All uniformed employees shall display knowledge of Operational Guidelines and Operational Modes __________.
quarterly
1883
An official request for mutual aid assistance is made by an _______________.
allied agency
1884
All uniformed employees shall display knowledge of all tactical formations and distraction techniques __________.
annually
1885
Departmental personnel committed to support local law enforcement agencies during civil disturbance or crowd control incidents shall remain under _____ command and control.
CHP
1886
The department shall use the _________________________________ as the personnel and management protocol for all emergency incidents occurring within CHP jurisdiction.
Incident Command System (ICS)
1887
All uniformed employees trained in the use of the wooden dowel shall display proficiency in distraction and control techniques __________.
annually
1888
Each uniformed employee present at a civil disturbance has the individual _______________ to escalate his/her operational mode for self defense or in defense of others.
responsibility and authority
1889
The PR-24 baton is the primary __________________________ tool used in squad formation.
defensive/offensive
1890
The purpose of _________________ is to provide on-scene personnel with the guidance necessary conduct civil disturbance and crowd control operations.
operational modes
1891
The four operational modes are:
Visible Presence Mode, Nonaggressive Contact Mode, Assertive Contact Mode, Forcible Contact Mode.
1892
The Visible Presence Mode is where uniformed personnel are present at locations where they are ______________ but there is no offensive or defensive posturing.
readily visible
1893
While in the Visible Presence Contact mode, the baton should ____________________.While in the Visible Presence Contact mode, the baton should ____________________.
remain in the ring or may be displayed in the Port Arms Position
*Note - The use of the baton is not expected to become necessary during the Visible Presence mode.
1894
The use of the baton (is/is not) expected to become necessary during the Visible Presence mode.
is not
1895
The Non-aggressive Contact Mode is where personnel employ non-injurious, low profile ___________________ intended to direct the movement of incident participants and crowds.
physical contact
1896
While in the Non-aggressive Contact Mode, the baton should be carried in the ___________ position and be used to physically cause movement without aggressive extension of the baton.
“port arms”
*Note - As an option the baton may be displayed in the basic “tuck” position. The officer’s weak hand/arm is extended to apply pressure to the upper torso area of the incident participant (pushing) to keep him/her at arm’s length. The baton is not used in this tactic.
1897
When the baton is in port arm position during _____________. The baton should be used as an extension of an officer’s hands/arms to physically guide participants/crowds by pushing, nudging, etc. By extending the arms while holding the baton at both ends, officers can apply pressure across a wide surface (pushing) while keeping incident participants at arm’s length.
Nonaggressive Contact Mode
1898
The Assertive Contact Mode is where personnel employ assertive, ______________ intended to direct the movement of incident participants and crowds.
physical contact
| *Note - This mode may be used as either a defensive or offensive posture, depending on the circumstances.
1899
The Assertive Contact mode can be used as defensive tactic to counter unlawful and physically aggressive participant behavior. When this mode is employed as a defensive posture, there (is/is not) a requirement that the participants be given either an order to disperse or a “use-of-force” warning.
is not
1900
The Assertive Contact mode may be used as an _______ tactic when participants have failed to disperse. When this mode is employed for the purpose of crowd dispersal, it is essential that the participants have an avenue of escape available, and that they have been given an order to disperse and a “use-of-force” warning. Participants’ failure to comply with others is interpreted as a willingness/desire to obstruct/delay/resist law enforcement personnel in the performance of their duties.
offensive
1901
The baton, while in the Assertive Contact Mode, should be carried in the “port arms” position and may be used with ______________ to cause controlled movement of participants when physically resistive contact by participants is encountered.
brisk extension
*Note - As an option the baton may be displayed in the basic “tuck” position. The officer’s weak hand/arm is extended in the form of forward thrusts directed into the torso using an abrupt, shoving motion.
1902
In the Forcible Contact Mode the baton should be used as an extension of the hands/arms to physically cause controlled movement. The brisk extension of the arms and baton, in the form of forward thrusts, is directed into the torso area. This is an abrupt, forceful or shoving motion using the _______ of the baton. This technique is used when some, or all of the participants, are standing and have an avenue of retreat available to them.
long extended portion
1903
The Forcible Contact Mode is where personnel may employ assertive physical contact which causes ________________ to gain compliance.
pain or discomfort
| *Note - This mode may also be used in self-defense.
1904
While in the Forcible Contact Mode, the baton should be carried in the ________ position to move physically aggressive participants/crowds. The “long extended” position uses the long extended end to forcefully deliver a forward thrust into the torso of the participant. Various baton techniques (e.g., chops, power spins, blocks, etc.) should be used for selfdefense, including situations where there is a threat to an officer and the threat is accompanied by an overt act such as the clenching of a fist as if to deliver a blow.
long extended (jab)
1905
In the Forcible Contact Mode the baton should be used to _______________________.
quell hostile and riotous behavior encountered while attempting to control participants’ activities; moving crowds; defending a fixed position; or in self-defense.
*Note - Regardless of the operational mode in effect, the head, neck, throat, sternum, groin, and spine are non-target areas for baton strikes, unless deadly force is justified.
1906
Personnel are (are/are never) justified in utilizing the PR-24 baton as described in the Assertive or Forcible Contact mode on seated or prone passive demonstrators.
are never
1907
Mere locking of arms or legs (is/is not) justification to strike demonstrators to cause them to disentangle.
is not
1908
There are two distinct planning process for civil disorder or crowd control events. For a spontaneous event, there is an Incident Action Plan. For a planned event, the is an _________ Plan.
Operational
1909
A ________________ may be initiated by a command to alert other commands to alert other commands that an event is occurring, or may occur, which may exceed the originating command’s resources.
tactical alert
1910
If information indicates that the threat is beyond the capabilities of on-duty command personnel to manage/control,The on duty ______________ may initiate a tactical alert.
supervisor or OIC
1911
The Incident Action Plan (IAP) reflects the objectives, strategy, and specific actions determined necessary by the incident commander to mitigate the emergency incident. The IAP may be ________________.
written or verbal
1912
Operational plans are primarily used for scheduled or anticipated events requiring the ____________ deployment of CHP personnel.
non-routine
1913
Crowd dispersal authority on State Property resides in the ______________.
Title 13, Chapter 11 of the California Code of Regulations and California Government Code as well as section CA Govt. code section 1861 and 11126.5
1914
Crowd dispersal where the CHP has primary investigative authority is located in section ________. Failure to disperse constitutes a violation of Section 2800 VC.
2410 of the Vehicle Code
1915
True/False - Part of the Departments mission regarding Civil Disturbance incidents it to protect lawful demonstrators rights, the primary mission is to ensure roadways are open for vehicular traffic. Given these two missions, incident commanders are to ensure there is a balance between the two.
True
1916
The Order To Disperse (does/does not) apply to authorized members of the Media.
does
1917
404 (a) PC. Any use of force or violence, disturbing the public peace, or any threat to use such force or violence, if accompanied by immediate power of execution, by two or more persons acting together and without authority of law is a _______.
riot
1918
407 PC Whenever two or more persons assemble together to do an unlawful act, and separate without doing or advancing toward it, or do a lawful act in a violent, boisterous or tumultuous manner, such assembly is an _________________.
unlawful assembly
1919
406 PC Whenever two or more persons, assembled and acting together, make any attempt or advance toward the commission of an act which would be a riot if actually committed, such an assembly is a ______.
rout
1920
Any supervisor initiating a tactical alert shall notify his/her commander. That Area shall identify and notify _____ of their on-duty personnel (regardless of rank) to equip themselves and be prepared to respond.
one half
1921
The standard radio extender is programmed to operate on ____ VHF channels and ____ mutual aid radio channels.
4, 3
1922
Inventories of specialized emergency related items shall be conducted on a ________ basis. Those items include: Gas masks and canisters, shields, cameras, Marc-30 arrest chains, 37mm weapons and ammo, CS foggers / grenades / launchers, tactical rifles, bull horns, and cellular phones.
semi-annual
1923
A ______ normally consists of three officers, or one sergeant and two officers.
team
1924
A team is normally transported within ____ automobile.
one
1925
A squad normally consists of _______ teams and is comprised of a squad leader and eight officers.
three
| *normally a sergeant and eight officers
1926
A ___________ is composed of two, three, or four squads.
platoon
1927
An arrest squad is usually composed of a squad leader (preferably a Sergeant) and ____________ officers.
eight to ten
1928
A company is composed of ______ squads.
five
1929
A ____________ is composed of two to four companies.
battalion
1930
The _________________ is the basic squad formation and that from which other tactical formations are most often initiated.
Columns of Files
1931
The Column of Files formation is used to move a multi-squad unit from one point to another in an ____________________ manner.
organized and orderly
1932
The ______________ formation is used to move small crowds or to deny access by crowds to small controllable areas such as doorways, etc.
skirmish line
1933
The Wedge formation is used to ______ crowds and/or enter the crowd in order to effect a rescue.
split
1934
The Echelon/Diagonal formation can be employed to move or direct crowds away from building lines and to clear doorways in the process with a “___________” movement.
scraping
1935
The use of the wooden dowel as a distraction tool during an incident may only be authorized by the ____________________.
CHP incident commander or designated manager/supervisor
1936
Arrestees restrained through the use of handcuffs or flex-cuffs (may/may not) be linked together with a single flex-cuff to form a chain.
may
1937
Passive demonstrators shall not be ____________.
dragged, carried, or lifted
* EXCEPT:
(1) After all other reasonable methods have been attempted without success, and with the arrest squad leader's permission, and
(2) When, in the arresting officer's opinion, the arrestee is sick, elderly, injured, or disabled to the extent that the person is unable to walk under his/her own power, or
(3) When the arrestee is so impervious to pain that control holds prove ineffective, or(4) In any case where lifting or carrying becomes necessary, a minimum of two officers shall carry the arrestee.
1938
Flex-cuffs should be used when CHP approved handcuffs are unavailable or the incident commander or designated supervisor authorizes their use for incidents involving __________ arrests.
multiple
1939
An arrest squad is usually composed of a squad leader and ___________ officers.
eight to ten
1940
Minors under the age of what are not normally arrested?
12 years
1941
At the discretion of the uniformed supervisor, persons at least 12 years old, but under 18 years old, who are not arrested, but in the company of an adult who is arrested, _______________. Those under 12 years old should be taken to Child Protective Services.
may be released to a responsible adult provided the parent or guardian gives written consent
1942
Arrest squad officers (should/shall) work in pairs when effecting arrest.
shall
1943
Application of pressure point stimuli techniques with or without the dowel shall only be used for _____________ and in combination with departmental control holds and handcuffing techniques.
distractions
1944
Personnel not trained in the use of the wooden dowel (are/are not) authorized to carry or use the dowel.
are not
1945
The MARC-30 (Mass Arrest Restraint Chain-30) was designed for use as a ______________________ for passive demonstrators during the lag time between arrests and arrestee transportation from the scene.
temporary restraintfixed
1946
The arrest chain should be attached to two _______ objects to serve as tether points for either end of the chain.
fixed
1947
Patrol vehicle push bumpers _____________ be used a tether point if a fixed tether point is not available.
should only
1948
Never secure more than ___ demonstrators to the arrest chain.
30
1949
Once arrestees are attached to the chain, a minimum of ____________ shall be assigned to provide security.
one officer
1950
In a riotous, violent situation, the “order to disperse” and “use-of-force” warnings (do/do not) have to be given prior to the use of chemical agents or non-lethal weapons.
do not
1951
The CHP incident commander shall ensure that an _______________ warning has been given to participants prior to the use of chemical agents and/or non-lethal weapons.
“order to disperse” and “use-of-force”
1952
37mm NLWs will only be assigned for use during civil disturbance operations with prior approval of the _____________________.
Division commander or his/her designee
1953
Only officers who have been certified by the Academy Weapons Staff or __________ will be authorized to use the state issued 37mm NLWs and cartridges.
Division Training Coordinators
1954
The 37mm NLW projectiles shall not be fired at an individual or group closer than ____ feet from the deploying officer.
30
1955
When firing the 37mm NLW, the rounds shall be _______ off of the ground, approximately 6 feet in front of a specified or justified target.
skipped
1956
Chemical agents should be used only when sufficient _____________ have been identified allowing participants to egress the area of the disturbance.
escape routes
1957
Chemical agents (may/should not) be used in close proximity to occupied schools, hospitals, or convalescent homes, except in extreme cases.
should not.
1958
A _____ should be maintained of persons who enter and leave the scene. Only authorized persons i.e. investigators, coroner, etc. should enter a crime scene.
log
1959
Who should be summoned during the investigation of a crime scene?
Summon the agency having investigative responsibility for the crime. Summon additional help i.e., canine units, crime lab personnel, technicians, air support etc., if needed.
1960
No one should be permitted to leave a crime scene until they have been _____________.
interviewed and identified
1961
If outdoors or large interiors are involved, the crime scene should be initially identified as _____ the distance form the center of the scene to the farthest known piece of evidence.
twice
1962
What are the immediate responsibilities of the initial phase of an investigation?
Preservation of life, determine if a crime has been committed, and proper protection of the crime scene.
1963
What should be used for establishing the actual crime scene boundaries?
Scene securement tape.
1964
If MAIT or the shooting team is used, who assumes functional responsibility for crime scene coordination and collection of evidence under the overall direction of the incident commander?
The team leader or lead person.
1965
Unless directed otherwise by a supervisor, the __________ will act as the custodian of evidence and assume security responsibilities.
primary investigating officer
1966
____________ requires all tape recordings to be preserved for trail.
Case Law
1967
When videotapes are used to record subject matter pertinent to criminal prosecution, the tape is to be treated as _______.
evidence
1968
Evidence gathered during an administrative investigation (should/should not) be treated the same as evidence gathered during a criminal investigation.
should
1969
Administrative evidence shall be retained for a minimum of _____ years or the life of the investigative file, whichever is longer.
five
1970
True/False - Circumstantial evidence is evidence that, if found to be true, proves a fact from which an inference of the existence of another fact may be drawn.
True
1971
An inference is a _______ of a fact that may logically and reasonably be drawn from another fact or group of facts established by the evidence.
deduction
1972
True/False - It necessary that facts be proven by direct evidence?
False, facts can be established by circumstantial, or a combination of the two. Neither is entitled to any greater weight than the other.
1973
Direct evidence is evidence that directly proves a fact, without the necessity of an _______.
inference
1974
True/False - Evidence is either direct or circumstantial.
True
1975
What are the five basic criteria for the evaluation of physical evidence?
Relevancy, Identifiable, Legally Obtained, Continuity, Integrity
1976
A crime scene search is a _______, legal search of a crime scene to locate physical evidence or witnesses to the crime under investigation.
planned and coordinated
1977
When collecting physical evidence, always use a _________ approach.
systematic and thorough
1978
Large items of evidence (should/shall) be tagged with the plastic Department evidence tag. Weapons not packaged in an envelope or gun box (should/shall) be marked with an evidence tag.
should, shall
1979
(T/F) - Large quantities of controlled substances (in excess of 10 pounds) and hazardous chemicals (in excess of 2 ounces), used or intended to be used in the manufacture of controlled substances may be destroyed without a court order per H&S code.
True
1980
How are controlled substances required to be packaged when booked into evidence?
Controlled substances shall be sealed in heat seal polyester bags.
1981
True/False - All evidence obtained in the course of employment shall be placed in the evidence/property system prior to the employee ending his/her shift.
True
1982
What type of evidence shall be double bagged in heat seal polyester bags?
Substances believed to contain PCP shall be double bagged.
1983
Hazardous materials (should/shall) be stored outside the area office in a locked area.
shall
1984
Money shall be counted by ______ employees, one of whom should be a ________.
two, supervisor
1985
The CHP 36 serves what six purposes?
(1) A record of property and evidence for Department.
(2) A receipt for property taken from and arrestee.
(3) A notice of the right to a property hearing to the person in possession of stolen or embezzled property.
(4) A declaration of ownership for the person claiming to be the owner of stolen or embezzled property at the time it was stolen or embezzled.
(5) An affidavit and notice of rights for citizen’s who turn in found property.
(6) A report form for found property.
1986
The evidence number (should/shall) be included on any related reports. CHP 202, etc.
should
1987
True/False - Weapons seized pursuant to 12028.5 PC family violence incidents, such weapons are not evidence. They are only seized to reduce the threat of violence.
True
| *Weapons used in an assault at a family violence incident, however, would be classified as evidence.
1988
The booking employee (should/shall) weigh all seized drugs.
shall
1989
When describing jewelry on a CHP 36, describe items by __________.
color and appearance only
1990
Officer’s _________ (shall/should) give an arrestee a receipt for property or money taken from that arrestee.
shall
1991
When submitting jewelry as evidence or property it shall be described by __________ and __________ only.
color, appearance (e.g. yellow metal necklace, yellow metal ring with clear stone, yellow metal watch labeled “Rolex”)
1992
Before submission, a supervisor or OIC __________ (shall/should) review the CHP 36 for accuracy and completeness, and place his name, date, and initials in the appropriate boxes.
should
1993
True/False - The chain of possession should be recorded for each movement and transfer of evidence.
False, it is a shall.
1994
Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) are required by _____________.
the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
1995
True/ False - Narcotic test kits shall be disposed of monthly.
False, they can be disposed of as needed.
1996
Only self-contained pouch type test kits, NIK kits and ODV kits. (Valtox is not authorized). 1863
With the exception of wet marijuana, all controlled substances shall be placed in ________ by the booking officer.
heat-sealed polyester bags
1997
True/False - Narcotic test kits can be disposed of by throwing them in a trash can.
False, Narcotic test kits can only be disposed of by placing them in an authorized container and to be disposed of at the appropriate County Household Waste Facility. Approved container is a 5 gallon plastic bucket with absorbent material (sand, cat litter) that has a lid.
1998
To ensure that other employees are not exposed to hazardous chemicals, officers handling the hazardous substances shall work in an area isolated from _________________.
other employees and foot traffic
1999
Penal Code Section 11108 requires that all serialized evidence and found or recovered property be entered into the _______________.
California Department of Justice Automated Property System or Automated Firearms System, as appropriate.
2000
Property held for safekeeping is not entered into the Automated Property System (APS), except ________.
firearms
2001
Evidence officers should purge on a ___________ basis.
weekly
| *daily in busy Areas
2002
Purging of evidence involves checking court records to determine the status of cases, then disposing of the evidence by one of the following methods:
(1) Return to owner.
(2) Sale.
(3) Destruction.
2003
Daily purging is advisable in offices with a significant volume of evidence. The status shall be checked for all defendants and all charges. This requires a thorough check of court records as follows:
(1) The case status on misdemeanor/infraction evidence shall be checked after six months. (2) The case status on felony evidence shall be checked one year after booking and every year thereafter.
(3) Document in the evidence log the last time case status was checked.
2004
Adjudicated case evidence must continue to be held until the period for appeals has expired... What is the criteria for each classification?
Felonies 90 days, Misdemeanors 60 days, Juvenile cases 90 days.
2005
Evidence obtained by search warrant is the property of the court and may only be disposed of by __________.
court order
2006
What are the two methods to dispose of controlled substances?
(1) Some allied agencies may accept controlled substances from the CHP, which they will burn with their drugs at no cost to the Department.
(2) The Department may conduct its own burn. To reduce costs, Division Evidence Coordinators will coordinate the collection of drugs from Areas and conduct one burn for the entire Division.
* Note - Procedures associated with allied agency disposal may be used in lieu of CHP
2007
The Division Evidence Coordinators are responsible for the following:
(a) Establishing a destruction timetable for each Division. Burns shall be conducted no less than twice per year.
(b) Contacting the nearest incinerator site, obtaining a copy of its protocol, and ensuring that the burn is conducted according to that protocol.
(c) Establishing a burn date and making an appointment at the burn site.
(d) Coordinating with Areas for the delivery or pick up of their controlled substances.(e) Reviewing the documents and packaging at the collection point to ensure compliance with requirements.
(f) Arranging for transportation to the burn site.
(g) Providing appropriate security for the shipment during transport and at the incinerator.
(h) Arranging for payment to the destruction facility.
(i) Returning the signed original copies of the destruction logs to the Areas.
2008
What is required for all shipments of controlled substances for destruction?
(1) They will be escorted by two employees to ensure accountability and at least one of the employees shall be an officer.
(2) An Area evidence supervisor will witness the destruction with the Evidence Coordinator. Both will sign all pages of the original copy of the CHP 37, Controlled Substances Destruction Log, to show all items were received and burned.
(3) If the container arrives at the burn site with the original seal intact, it is not necessary to inventory the individual items.
(4) Should the integrity of the seal be broken at any time prior to arrival at the burn site, an inventory shall immediately be conducted by the Evidence Coordinator and a supervisor. If a discrepancy is found, the supervisor will notify the Area and the Division commanders. The Division commander shall cause an investigation to be initiated. Reseal the container after completion of the inventory.
2009
Can anything other than drugs be disposed of at the drug burn facility?
With the concurrence of the destruction facility, drug paraphernalia and biohazard waste (bloody clothing, blood samples, etc.) may also be burned at the time of the drug burn.
2010
__________ is the preferred method of payment for the disposal services.
An “X” number
2011
Unclaimed (more than 180 days) found firearms and stun guns shall be
Found firearms and stun guns shall not be returned to the finder. If the lawful owner is not located or if the property is unclaimed after 180 days, it shall be forwarded to the Weapons Control Unit (Academy WCU) at the Academy.
2012
Found firearms and stun guns shall not be returned to the finder. If the lawful owner is not located or if the property is unclaimed after __________, it shall be forwarded to the Academy Weapons Control Unit (Academy WCU).
180 days
2013
Weapons that are no longer needed as evidence (nuisance weapons and unclaimed or abandoned weapons), which have been held for at least 180 days, shall be sent to the __________ for destruction.
Academy Weapons Control Unit (Academy WCU)
2014
True/False - The Academy WCU also destroys other items of evidence besides guns, e.g., knives, clubs, ammunition, brass knuckles, stun guns, etc.
True
| *Note - No drugs or drug paraphernalia will be accepted.
2015
How must ammunition be packaged when it is sent to Academy Weapons Control Unit (Academy WCU)?
Ammunition may be put in a smaller box then placed in the larger box with the other items. Ammunition IS NOT to be shipped in the same box as firearms.
2016
What are the basic objectives of an evidence/property audit?
(1) Control and verify the integrity of the records, property handling, and security procedures.
(2) Assure compliance with existing policies, laws, regulations, and practices.
(3) Verify that the description, quantity, location, and disposition of property agree with records.
2017
How are the evidence/property audit objectives achieved?
(1) Verifying the location of property or by identifying missing or misplaced property.
(2) Identifying any procedural or physical weaknesses.
(3) Provide information necessary to take corrective action that will improve performance and integrity.
2018
The property supervisor shall conduct a ___________ audit of the property system. If the property supervisor becomes aware of problems with property management between audits, more frequent audits shall be initiated to identify the source of the problem and correct deficiencies. An inventory may be substituted for one of the quarterly audits.
quarterly
2019
During audits and inventories, evidence (shall/shall not) be opened to verify the contents.
shall not
2020
During an audit a random sample of property sufficient to validate the integrity of the system shall be verified. A minimum of _____ percent shall be checked and in no event will fewer than ____ items be audited. Emphasis should be placed on ___________.
five ten
| guns, drugs, money, and valuables
2021
What three different methods of random auditing shall be used for evidence/property audits?
(1) Select a case from the CHP 36B, Evidence/Property Log. Trace it through the system to locate the property. Verify the file and make sure all required forms accurately reflect the status of the property.
(2) Select an item of property and trace it back to the case file, verifying that the file and all required forms accurately reflect the status of the property.
(3) Select a closed case with property. Trace it through the system to the property, or if the property has been purged, verify that all reports and forms accurately reflect the disposition of the property.
2022
What must be done to the CHP 36, Evidence/Property Receipt/Report, for items inspected during an audit?
Items audited shall be initialed and dated by the auditor on the CHP 36, Evidence/Property Receipt/Report.
2023
Audits will be documented on a _________ and filed at the Area office. Property supervisors are to follow the format in the example provided in the evidence manual. Commanders are to __________.
memorandum
| review and sign the audit report
2024
The property supervisor shall conduct at least one inventory of the property system each year. Inventories shall also be conducted _____________.
upon change of command, change of evidence officers, and any time there is doubt as to the integrity of the system
2025
During an Area inventory of the evidence/property system does every item have to be inventoried?
No, It may not be practical to inventory every item in a large property room. A random sample, sufficient to verify the integrity of the system, will suffice. Emphasis should be placed on drugs, money, guns, and valuables.
2026
How are Area inventories conducted?
The inventory shall be conducted by reviewing the CHP 36B, Evidence/Property log, then visually verifying the presence of the items. If the items are not on hand, obtain documentation verifying the disposition.
2027
The completed inventory will be documented on a memorandum to the Area. The memo will address how the inventory was conducted, the results, and any follow-up or corrective action taken. The ______ most recent inventories will be retained in the file. Commanders are required to review and sign the inventory report.
two
2028
A ________ log will be maintained in the evidence/property room. The log shall document any _____ into the property room by any person other than the Evidence Officer.
security, entry
For example, entry by the property supervisor during an audit, a supervisor or officer during an emergency, or a Department of General Services employee making repairs. If the Evidence Officer is absent and the alternate has access to the property room during that period, the security log will reflect that information.
2029
What is required to be recorded on the security log?
The name and identification number of the person entering, the date and time of entry, and reason for entry.
2030
How many keys or sets of keys to the property room and temporary storage lockers are maintained?
Two
2031
There shall be only two keys or sets of keys to the property room and temporary storage lockers. Who is responsible for them and how are they maintained?
The Evidence Officer will have one, the second will be placed in an envelope and secured in the office of the commander, or designee, for use in an emergency. The Evidence Officer will seal the second key in an envelope with evidence tape, then date and initial the seal.
2032
Use of the spare evidence/property room key shall be restricted to the commander or his/her alternate. What must be done if the spare key is used?
Document any entry made with the spare key on the evidence room entry log and reseal the envelope after use.
2033
True/False - Whenever a change of Evidence Officers occurs, the locks to the property room should be re-keyed.
True, document the re-keying on a memorandum to the Area and place a copy in the audit file.
2034
For Areas which have safes, the combination will be known to as few persons as possible. Additionally, a record will be kept showing _________________.
the date the combination was last changed and names of persons knowing the present combination
2035
The Evidence Officer (may/should not) be an active field officer or investigator involved in the collection of evidence in the field.
should not
2036
An evidence officer (should/shall) always be present when anyone else is in the property room. If impractical, a supervisor or manager (should/shall) be present.
shall, shall
2037
Evidence will not be left in temporary lockers more than __________, excluding weekends and holidays.
one day
2038
True/False - The property room should be easily identified to officers by external signs or markings.
False, the property room should not be identified as such by external signs or markings.
2039
Any package containing controlled substances that appears to have been opened or otherwise tampered with after laboratory analysis shall be ________________.
returned to the laboratory to be analyzed again
2040
When package containing controlled substances is returned to the laboratory to be analyzed again, because it appeared to have been opened or otherwise tampered with, and there is an unaccounted-for discrepancy, between the weight or original laboratory analysis and the later weight or analysis, an _________ shall be conducted.
internal investigation
2041
During audits, what records should be inspected?
* Determine if personnel are properly packaging, marking, and sealing items for booking.
* Verify that serialized property and weapons are being entered into CLETS. Copies of the entry printouts should be in the property file.
* Randomly select active cases and review the CHP 36 forms for accuracy and completeness. Are supervisors reviewing and initialing the forms?
* Check the chain of custody records. Is the chain of custody properly documented for each transfer of custody?
* Review the controlled substances destruction file. Check that court orders were obtained for destruction and the required forms are complete, signed (all pages), accurate, and included in the file.
* Review the destroyed weapons file. Check that the required forms are complete, accurate, and included in the file.
* Does the Evidence Officer maintain a suspense file for items which have been signed out of evidence.
* Check that the Entry Log is sequentially numbered and all evidence numbers are accounted for.
2042
Evidence not processed locally may be submitted to a _____________ for evaluation.
Department of Justice, Bureau of Forensic Services (BFS) Criminalistic Laboratory
2043
BFS Laboratories will generally only conduct tests to determine _______________.
intoxication when the case involves driving under the influence
2044
BFS Criminalists can be requested for the interpretation of physical evidence. Area commanders (should/shall) screen all such requests. Calls to BFS should be made by a supervisor or the area commander whenever possible.
should
2045
How long must an area maintain a confidential file of CHP 330’s?
3 years plus current
2046
the EMT-I trauma kit shall be inspected at least once each year during _________- by the employee’s immediate supervisor or Area/Division EMT Coordinator.
the annual employee appraisal process
2047
What form is used to document an exposure in which an injury was sustained by the CHP employee?
CHP 121
2048
An employee who has been exposed must be offered standard blood test at what intervals?
Immediately, 6 weeks, 6 months, and 1 year
2049
What form is used to document an exposure in which no injury was sustained by the CHP employee?
CHP 121A
2050
How long must the department maintain files of all communicable disease exposure incidents via CHP 121 and 121A?
30 years beyond separation
2051
If an exposure to HIV/AIDS is caused by a needle stick with wet blood, treatment with AZT should be started within ________ of exposure.
two hours
2052
Where is the authority which requires peace Officers to search for anatomical gift cards from people who are dead or near death?
Health and Safety Code
2053
When potential organ donors are located, who notifies the transplant council/bank?
Admitting hospital, another competent medical authority, or coroner.
2054
If the AED pads are connected to a patient, but no power is applied; does it constitute use?
Yes
2055
Following an AED use, A copy of the CHP 330 and a copy of the event printout shall be forwarded to the Academy EMS Unit within ____________.
two business days
2056
Drivers operating their vehicles in any manner indicative of an intoxicated driver (should/shall) be stopped for further investigation.
should
2057
It is the ____________________ responsibility to obtain the evidence necessary to substantiate the enforcement action.
arresting officer's
2058
Documentation should be made ________ so that evidence to support prosecution is properly preserved.
as soon as practical
2059
When deviations from normal driving have been observed, the officer should make an enforcement stop as soon as ________________ has been established.
reasonable suspicion
2060
If it is suspected that a subject's condition may require medical attention, the officer should immediately _____________________________.
arrange for medical treatment
2061
A roadside sobriety examination should not be given at a location that is ___________________.
hazardous
2062
Officers (should/shall) ask all of the s on page 2 of the CHP 202.
should
2063
If the officer feels a location is unsafe for FSTs, the subject should be _______________ from the _________________ as soon as possible. The examination shall then be conducted at the safe location
removed, hazardous location
2064
When placed in an unsafe location to conduct a DUI stop, the officer should attempt to gain the subject's consent to move or evaluate the facts learned after contacting the driver (not DUI, reasonable suspicion of DUI, or probable cause to arrest for DUI) prior to moving the detention to a safe location. This should be done to ensure a _______________________________.
lawful detention
2065
Using the SFST’s what is the reliability rate for identifying drivers with a BAC at or above the legal limit?
90%
2066
What are the three standardized field sobriety tests?
Horizontal Gaze Nystagmus, Walk and Turn, One-Leg-Stand
2067
Including the PAS test, the Department utilizes ______ FST’s for determination of sobriety.
nine
2068
Officers (may/should not) rely on one test as the sole criteria for making a DUI arrest.
should not
2069
A DUI arrest should be made on the _______ of the circumstances.
totality
2070
True/False - Other field sobriety tests may be used instead of the three standardized field sobriety tests (One leg stand, walk and turn, horizontal gaze nystagmus (HGN))?
False, alternative FSTs should be used if for some reason the standardized field sobriety tests cannot be given. The remaining tests are considered alternative or additional FSTs:
Romberg Balance, Finger to Nose, Hand Pat, Finger Count, and Alphabet.
2071
The Department recognizes five alternative FSTs and accepts that additional FSTs may be given if approved and authorized by the __________.
local district attorney
2072
What is the recommended order for administering Horizontal Gaze Nystagmus?
The six recommended order for administering Horizontal Gaze Nystagmus are tracking ability, pupil size, lack of smooth pursuit, distinct nystagmus at maximum deviation, nystagmus prior to 45 degrees, vertical nystagmus.
2073
Approximately ___% of all people will show nystagmus at extremes.
50
2074
If Vertical Gaze Nystagmus is present and Horizontal Gaze Nystagmus is not, it could be a _______.
medical condition
2075
Approximately __% of all people may have nystagmus prior to 45 degrees.
4
2076
If a subject refuses to complete an FST, his/her refusal (should/shall) be explained in the narrative of the report.
should
2077
FSTs (should/shall) be administered in all cases, except when, in the officer's opinion, it is impractical.
should
2078
The normal pulse range for an adult is _________.
60-90
2079
The antagonistic effect is two drugs with opposite effects acting against each other to ___________ the effects.
cancel each of
2080
The additive effect is two drugs with similar effects acting together to __________ the effect.
reinforce
2081
A drug with a low potential for abuse relative to drugs in schedule four and a currently accepted medical use is classified in schedule _______.
five.
2082
A dilated pupil measures greater than _____ mm.
6.5
2083
A drug that has a high potential for abuse and no accepted medical use is classified as a schedule ______ drug.
one
2084
A constricted pupil measures less than ______ mm.
3.0
2085
The normal respiration rate for an adult is __________.
12-20
2086
A drug with a low potential for abuse and has a currently accepted medical use is classified as a schedule ______ drug.
four
2087
Controlled substances are put into _____ schedules.
five
2088
A drug with a high potential for abuse and has a currently acceptable medical use is classified in schedule _________.
two
2089
A drug with a potential for abuse less than drugs in schedule 1 and 2 and having a medical use is classified in schedule _____.
three
2090
The normal pupil size is in the range of ____ mm to ____ mm.
3.0 mm to 6.5 mm.
2091
A normal blood pressure will be in the range of _________ systolic and __________ diastolic.
120-140, 70-90
2092
Alcohol is a ___________.
depressant
2093
A DRE (shall/should), whenever possible, evaluate anyone suspected of being under the influence of drugs.
should
2094
Charge section ____________ for drivers under the influence of a depressant. Charge section ____________ for passengers under the influence of a depressant (except with methaqualone, 11550(a) H&S applies).
23152(a) VC, 647(f) PC
2095
_______is the preferred chemical test for CNS depressant influence. It will take __ hour (s) after ingestion before theses drugs can be detected.
blood, 1-2 hours
2096
A CNS depressant will cause the pupils to be _________ in size and the pulse and blood pressure to be ________________.
normal, lowered
2097
To obtain accurate estimate of pupil size, a _____________ must be used and _______ pupils must be measured.
pupilometer, both
2098
_________ describe a person's eyes as dilated unless you have estimated their size with a pupilometer.
Never
2099
Stimulants cause the pupils to _________ and the pulse and blood pressure to _____________.
dilate, elevate
2100
Charge section ___________ for a driver under the influence of stimulants. For any person, not just the driver, charge section _________.
23152(a) VC, 11550(a) H&S.
2101
___________ is the most commonly abused narcotic analgesic.
Heroin
2102
Heroin causes the pupils to ___________ with _________ or ____________ to light.
constrict, little or no reaction
2103
PCP is almost always ingested through ____________.
smoking
2104
PCP causes an __________ onset of ___________ and ___________ nystagmus.
early, horizontal, vertical
2105
PCP causes the blood pressure to _________.
elevate
2106
Charge section ___________ for a driver under the influence of PCP. For any person, not just the driver, charge __________.
23152(a) VC, 11550(a) H&S
2107
Charge section _____________ for a driver under the influence of narcotic analgesics. For any person, not only the driver, charge ___________.
23152(a) VC, 11550(a) H&S
2108
Cannabis will cause the pupils to ________ and the pulse to __________.
dilate, elevate
2109
Cannabis causes the conjunctiva (whites of the eyes) to __________.
redden
2110
Charge section ____________ for drivers under the influence of cannabis and section ___________ for passengers and pedestrians.
23152(a) VC, 647(f) PC
2111
Officers (should/shall) investigate all incidents involving DUI and (should/shall) arrest any persons in violation of 23152/23153 VC.
shall, shall
2112
The misdemeanor incarceration section of the CHP 202 (should/shall) be completed whenever a physical arrest has been made for a misdemeanor.
shall
2113
Section 23152(c) VC makes it unlawful for a ___________ to drive a vehicle.
drug addict
2114
Section 40300.5 VC applies __________ under the definition of an accident.
anywhere (public as well as private property)
2115
Pursuant to 40300.5 VC, when may a peace officer, without a warrant, arrest a person when the officer has reasonable cause to believe that the person had been driving while under the influence
1) Involved in an accident (any unexpected and undesirable event, anything that occurs unexpectedly or unintentionally).
2) The person will not be apprehended unless immediately arrested.
3) The person may cause injury to himself or herself or damage property unless immediately arrested.
4) The person may destroy or conceal evidence of the crime unless immediately arrested.
2116
If a driver arrested for 23152 VC has a passenger in the vehicle under 14 years of age, the officer (should/shall) recommend enhanced penalties, upon conviction of 23152(a) VC, per section 23572(a) VC.
shall
2117
Section 273a(a) PC makes it a ________ to place a child in any situation likely to produce great bodily harm or death.
felony
2118
In the case of a hospitalized misdemeanor arrestee, where the evidence has been legally and properly collected, an officer has five options to choose from when dealing with the subject. What are the five options?
1) Post an officer(s) at the hospital for guarding and booking upon the subjects release from the hospital.
2) Book the subject in a jail ward.
3) Release the subject to the custody of a deputy or officer authorized to accept him.
4) Cite and release (providing you have a cite and release program) using a CHP 215.
5) Release the subject per 849(b) PC and complete a CHP 202 requesting a complaint to be filed.
2119
In the case of a hospitalized felony arrestee, where the evidence has been legally and properly collected, an officer has five options to choose from when dealing with the subject. What are the five options?
1) Post an officer(s) at the hospital for guarding and booking upon the subjects release from the hospital.
2) Book the subject in a jail ward.
3) Release the subject to the custody of a deputy or officer authorized to accept him.
4) Contact the on-call magistrate and request the arrestee be released on his/her O.R.5) Release the subject per 849(b) PC and complete a CHP 202 requesting a complaint to be filed.
2120
In the above scenario, the officer must have reasonable cause to believe a subject is DUI, DUI is an element of the crime being investigated, the driver is home, and the time between the crime and _______ is brief enough that there is still a blood alcohol level present.
arrest
2121
When a subject evades arrest and flees into a residence an officer is justified to enter the residence without a warrant in order to ________________________.
prevent the destruction of evidence
2122
necessary evidence
necessary evidence
2123
The objective of a cite and release program is to ________________________ for detection and apprehension of DUI drivers, as well as other emergency services to the public.
increase patrol hours
2124
Officers may cite and release________ DUI offenders only.
misdemeanor
2125
Section 23152(d) VC makes it unlawful for a commercial driver to drive with a BAC of _____ or greater.
0.04%
2126
Implied consent (does/does not) apply to 23152(d) VC.
does
2127
Admin per se applies to DUI commercial drivers, 23152(d) VC, only when the BAC is greater than ________.
0.04%
2128
The driver of a commercial vehicle shall be placed out of service for a period of ___________ when the driver has a BAC of _____or greater.
24 hours, .01%
2129
What shall an officer do when a commercial driver is found to have a BAC of .01% but less than .04%?
the officer shall issue a CHP 215 for a violation of Section "34506.3 VC, failure to comply with CHP regulations - BAC of 0.01 percent or greater - out-of-service for 24 hours." The driver shall be advised of the 24-hour out-of-service order, and a notation shall be printed in the driver's log book (if applicable) stating the time and place that such order was given (Title 13 CCR 1213.1[d]).
2130
A .009 reading on a PAS device (may/shall not) be rounded to .01%.
shall not
2131
Implied consent (does/does not) apply to drivers being placed out of service for having a BAC of .01% or greater, a violation of Section 1213.1 (c) CCR.
does not
2132
True/False - Section 23152(d) VC shall always be used when a commercial driver is arrested for DUI and has a BAC over .04%, this includes a BAC over .08%.
True
2133
A commercial driver under the influence of drugs with a BAC under .04% shall be charged with ___________.
23152(a) VC
2134
Only a _________ is placed out of service. The vehicle can not be tied up for the same time. A sober driver can drive the vehicle.
driver
2135
A violation of section 23136 VC is punishable as a __________ and (may/may not) be cited on a CHP 215.
infraction, may
2136
Section 23136 VC makes it unlawful for a driver under the age of ___ with a BAC of .01% or greater to drive a vehicle.
21 years
2137
If a driver under 21 yrs is is driving and a PAS reading is between .01 and .04 percent, the officer should issue a _________ and complete a _________.
CHP 215, DMV DS 367M
2138
True/False - Implied consent applies to section 23140 VC and shall be enforced only when the violation is corroborated by a chemical test or P.A.S. test.
True
2139
If a juvenile is determined to be in violation of 23140 VC, but not 23152 VC, the minor shall be _____________ and handled according to Area SOP.
issued a 215
2140
Section ____________ provides authority to store the vehicle of a driver issued a DS 367.
22651(h)(2) VC
2141
If under 18 yrs of age, the minor shall be taken to a _____________________ or should be handled according to local juvenile in-custody policies.
juvenile detention facility
2142
If a minor is determined to be DUI, he/she shall be arrested for violating section _________.
23152 VC
2143
A DS 367M shall be issued ____________.
in all instances, even if the driver does not have a California drivers license.
2144
After a juvenile is arrested for 23152 VC and the chemical test shows a result of greater than .01% BAC but less than .08% BAC, a juvenile shall also be charged with __________.
23136 VC or 23140 VC
2145
Section 23550.5 provides that a DUI conviction occurring within ___ years of a prior felony DUI or manslaughter is punishable as a felony.
ten
2146
For violations of 23550.5 VC, the charges of ________________ or _______________ shall be documented on the CHP 215.
23152 (a),(b),(c) or (d)/23550.5 VC, felony DUI with prior felony, 23153 (a), (b), or
(d)/23550.5 VC, felony DUI with prior felony
2147
If no 215 is required for a misdemeanor arrest, a system using a _______ for tracking reports must be implemented.
unique local six digit number
2148
Implied consent does not apply to ___________ DUI and DUI _________.
attempted, bicyclist/motorized scooter
2149
A chemical test must be incidental to a __________________.
lawful arrest
2150
If the parent refuses to sign the consent to draw blood form for a juvenile, this may constitute a _______.
refusal
*If the hospital form contains a waiver of liability which absolves the hospital in any way from civil or criminal action stemming from its actions, the subject does not have to sign, and such refusal to sign shall not be construed as a refusal under the provisions of Section 23612 VC.
2151
True/False - Juveniles fall within the provisions of Section 23612 VC and may legally consent to the drawing of blood in compliance with the Implied Consent law without parental permission.
True
2152
If a hospital consent form contains a waiver of liability and the subject refuses to sign, this (shall/shall not) be construed as a refusal.
shall not
| *Note - no waiver and no sign is a refusal
2153
(T/F) - If a hospital form for a blood draw contains a waiver of liability which absolves the hospital in any way from civil or criminal action stemming from its actions, the subject does not have to sign, and such refusal to sign shall not be construed as a refusal under the provisions of Section 23612 VC.
True
* This does not preclude the administration of a test at another facility.
* If the form contains no waiver of liability clause, but contains pertinent medical information or other general data, the subject's refusal to sign shall be construed as a refusal.
2154
A minimum of _______ milliliters of blood will be collected to permit duplicate determinations.
three
2155
Blood specimens will be retained for a minimum of ________ from date of collection.
one year
2156
If the defendant requests a sample of the blood, the area will give them a sample and ______________. The laboratory will normally retain a portion of the analyzed specimens for the required retention period. However, if the laboratory is unable to do so, or if the specimens are not delivered for analysis, the Area shall _________.
retain the original store them for the required retention period.
*Note - This requirement is not waived by an earlier adjudication of the case.
2157
Only breath test equipment that is approved by _____ shall be used in this state.
NHTSA
2158
Prior to nonconsentual testing, supervisory approval ________ be obtained and the supervisor ________ be present during the procedure.
shall, should
2159
A person can be forced to submit to a non consensual blood withdrawal only after all of the following criteria have been met:
1) Chemical test is essential to prosecution.
2) Use of alcoholic beverages and/or drugs suspected.
3) Individual arrested for 23153 VC 23252/23550 VC, 191.5 PC, 192(c)(3) PC (*standard program) AND 23140 VC, 23152 (*enhanced program) -- NOTE: 23140 only when TC results in death & arrest for felony manslaughter.
4) Arrestee given opportunity to submit to test & back of DS 367 read verbatim.
5) Supervisory approval, no more force than reasonably necessary.
6) Medically quaified individual must consent and obtain sample in reasonable and mecically approved manner.
7) Refusal section of DS 367 completed.
8) Statement made in report.
2160
The arresting officer (should/shall) obtain supervisor approval for a forcible withdrawal.
shall
2161
Blood samples (shall/shall not) be withdrawn from hemophiliacs or people with heart conditions that are using prescribed anticoagulants.
shall not
*A statement by the arrestee that he/she is subject to one of these medical conditions is sufficient for the officer to assume that the subject qualifies for exemption.
2162
True/False - Admin per se applies to all drivers in California whether or not the driver is a California resident.
True
2163
Admin Per Se (does/does not) apply to drivers arrested for being under the influence of drugs only.
does not
| *Note - The DS 367/DS 367M should be filled out and only the "Officer’s Statement" portion should be filled out.
2164
The original DS 357, the violators drivers license, and a copy of the breath test results shall be forwarded to the DMV within ______ business days.
five
2165
Chemical test results, blood or urine, shall be forwarded to the DMV within ___ calendar days.
15
2166
A witness fee of $______ shall be deposited at the CHP office for each officer's appearance.
150
2167
The supervisor accepting a subpoena for an officer to a DMV hearing shall determine________________ the subpoena, the DMV or the defendant.
who is serving
2168
If overtime is accrued, duty code ___ is used.
duty code 51 (for defendant subpoena) or 02 (for DMV subpoena) is used.
2169
A CHP 90 is used only when an officer is subpoenaed by the _________.
defendant
2170
A PAS device is ___________ by the department as a field sobriety test.
approved
2171
PAS readings (are/are not) admissible as court testimony.
are
2172
The use of a PAS device constitutes a search or seizure under the ___________ Amendment.
Fourth
2173
True/False - Asking a person to take a PAS test is no more intrusive than asking a person to perform FST's.
True
2174
PAS device logs shall be retained in the area for _____ years plus the current year.
two
2175
PAS device calibrations shall be performed by the Area _______.
PAS coordinator.
2176
PAS devices shall be checked for accuracy every _____ days or every ____ tests, whichever comes first.
10 calendar, 150
2177
An officer is required to obtain ________ from a subject prior to PAS testing.
consent (subjects over 21 years old)
2178
Tobacco smoke (will/will not) damage a PAS device.
will
2179
PAS device storage cases (should/shall) have two adhesive-backed magnetic strips affixed to the bottom side of the exterior.
should
2180
Commanders shall ensure that the serial number or CHP number from a lost/stolen PAS device is entered into the _____________.
CLETS APS (mask menu 8)
2181
Operational plans will be sent to division for approval at least _____________ prior to the scheduled date of the checkpoint.
one week
2182
DUI checkpoint sites shall be based on alcohol and drug related ____________ experience or __________________.
accident, DUI arrests
2183
DUI checkpoint operational plans shall be maintained at the area for a minimum of ____ years plus the current year.
two
2184
Sobriety checkpoints shall be comprised of _______ sergeant and _________ officers to effectively operate the checkpoint.
one, enough
2185
The sergeant, team leader, shall designate one officer as the ___________________.
assistant team leader
2186
At intervals of approximately ___________, a vehicle should be selected and timed through the sobriety checkpoint lane to ensure that a delay of not more than three minutes per vehicle is maintained.
10 minutes
| *Note - The information is noted in the Sobriety Checkpoint Activity Report, CHP 205).
2187
The average time a vehicle spends in a sobriety checkpoint lane should not normally exceed __________ minutes.
three
2188
Screening of a vehicle in a sobriety checkpoint should not take more than _________.
30 seconds
2189
Team leaders, sergeants, are responsible for completing a CHP 205, Checkpoint Activity form. The _________ must be kept at the office and the __________ are to be forwarded to division and ORP within 48 hours of the conclusion of the checkpoint operation.
original, copies
2190
A team leader at a DUI checkpoint shall ___________ and _________ all enforcement not related to DUI.
evaluate, approve
2191
A news release must be provided to the media ___ hours prior to the checkpoint. The specific location of the checkpoint shall not be given to the media sooner than ___ hours prior to the checkpoint.
48, two
2192
How many sobriety checkpoint trailers assigned to each division and how many "Consolidated Communications Mobile Alcohol Testing (CCoMBAT) Vehicles" for the Department?
There are two sobriety checkpoint trailers assigned to each division and two "Consolidated Communications Mobile Alcohol Testing (CCoMBAT) Vehicles" for the Department.
2193
Regulations governing “boating” under the influence are contained in what code?
655 Harbors & Navigation Code
2194
Reasonable cause to arrest (may/may not) be based solely on Coast Guard observations.
may
2195
Section 655 HNC (BUI) establishes ____ as the presumptive limit for recreational/operators and ___ as the presumptive limit for commercial operators.
.08%, .04%
2196
Section 655.1 HNC contains a BUI chemical test Reviewing CHP 202DRE's, Maintaining DRE forms file, Comparing chemical analysis with DRE opinion, Submitting DRE stats 30 days after end of quarter.. Does "Implied Consent" and "Admin Per Se" apply?
No
2197
An Area DRE coordinator shall be a uniformed Officer and is responsible for:
Reviewing CHP 202DRE's, Maintaining DRE forms file, Comparing chemical analysis with DRE opinion, Submitting DRE stats 30 days after end of quarter.
2198
True/False - A CHP DRE report shall be completed for each individual assessed by a DRE.
True
2199
An Officer may decertify for the following reasons:
Substandard performance, Voluntary withdrawal by a DRE, improper/inaccurate documentation, refusing to perform DRE evaluations, insufficient use of DRE skills, failure to complete biennial recertification, inappropriate acts which bring discredit.
2200
A minimum test score of _____% is required in the classroom phase.
80
2201
It (is/is not) necessary to move progressively through the use of force options while escalating or de-escalation the degree of force utilized.
is not
2202
The use of force option wheel diagram contains the following options.
Control Holds, CEW, Personal Weapons, Less Lethal Shotgun, Baton, O.C., and Deadly Force.
2203
Reports of use of force shall be documented on a CHP 268 when a firearm, aerosol subject restraint, personal weapons, or other _________________ is used in an enforcement situation.
defensive instrument
2204
When officers are involved in or witness an incident in which they believe excess force may have been used by _________ , they (should/shall) immediately report the incident to a CHP supervisor and submit a report thoroughly documenting the events.
any peace officer shall
2205
The CHP 268 (shall/shall not) be used when a control hold or handcuffing results in injury, complaint of injury, or claim of injury.
shall
2206
The CHP 268 (shall/shall not) be used when High Risk or Felony procedures are used and the subject is later found to be an innocent party.
shall
2207
Whenever, in the officer’s opinion, the use of force by any peace officer (CHP or allied agency) is excessive, it is his/her responsibility to _______________.
take immediate action appropriate for the circumstances. Either verbally or physically
2208
Uniformed employees should not place their finger on the trigger except under the following circumstances:
When actually firing the firearm.
When the firearm is pointed at an identified target and the use of deadly force is justified.
Examples:
Known / suspected felon refuses to show hands or follow instructions.
Building search with suspect located but refusing to come out or follow instruction. Suspect advancing on officer, ignoring orders, armed with weapon capable of causing serious injury or death.
2209
Case law generally holds that a peace officer may employ deadly force against a fleeing felon if ____________.
the felony is forcible and atrocious
2210
Uniformed employees should not place their finger on the trigger when in the following examples:
When on a felony stop behind cover/concealment and the suspect is following commands. During a foot pursuit with the weapon drawn.
Building search with no suspect located.
Felony arrest handcuffing and CHP officers are available.
2211
Firearms shall not be discharged from departmental aircraft expect in compliance with this policy and only when the aircraft _____________.
is not in flight
2212
The departmental shooting policy shall be reviewed how often and by whom?
Quarterly by all uniformed employees at the rank of sergeant and below.
2213
For utilizing deadly force as indicated in Penal Code Section 196, what does necessarily mean in the statement “When necessarily committed in retaking felons who have been rescued or have escaped, or when necessarily committed in arresting persons charged with a felony, and who are fleeing from justice or resisting such arrest.”
All other means of effecting arrest have been exhausted.
2214
Which Code states that homicide is justified when committed by public officers and those acting by their command in their aid and assistance.
Penal, 196
2215
When an animal is destroyed by an officer within policy, that officer shall submit a ____________ to his commander. That _____________ shall be submitted to Division and maintained for ____________.
memorandum memorandum
| the current year plus one
2216
First Responder responsibilities of a discharged firearm, he/she shall assume incident command responsibilities in accordance with the ___________. Special considerations should be given to_______, ________ and _______.
Departmental Employee-Involved Shooting Incident On-Scene Guidelines (Annex 2-A-1) scene management
care for the involved officers evidence preservation
2217
Upon learning of an officer-involved shooting incident, the supervisor shall immediately:
(1) Notify all involved commanders AND the law enforcement agency with the primary investigative responsibility to conduct the criminal investigation.
(2) Respond to the scene and assume incident command responsibilities.
(3) Coordinate resources with the primary investigating agency as appropriate.
(4) Request the appropriate CIIT in accordance with Division and Area SOP, if applicable.
(5) Ensure all the first responder’s responsibilities have been completed.
(6) Provide for the safety of employees, victims, suspects, and witnesses, confirm that all weapons in the shooting incident are secure.
(7) Provide for the integrity of the shooting scene and physical evidence by establishing a scene perimeter that is as large as practical.
- An officer shall be assigned to track and record the information indicated on the CHP 328, On-Scene Checklist/Discharge of Firearm Incident.
- Evaluate and adjust the crime scene perimeter to ensure the safety, security, and confidentiality of the entire crime scene.
(8) Do not allow allied agency personnel to interview or interrogate departmental employees involved in the shooting incident until the primary investigator or CIIT investigator can be consulted.
(9) In addition to the above responsibilities, the supervisor should utilize the Departmental Employee-Involved Shooting Incident On-Scene Guidelines to assist with scene supervision.
2218
Allied agency personnel ________ be allowed to interview or interrogate departmental employees involved in the shooting incident until the primary investigator or CIIT investigator can be consulted.
shall not
2219
After the discharge of a firearm the officer shall notify his/her immediate supervisor, the immediate supervisor shall notify ___.
The immediate commander and respond to the scene and conduct a complete investigation.
2220
During an investigation of an officer-involved shooting a supervisors shall assign an officer to track and record information on what form?
CHP 328 On-Scene Checklist/Discharge of Firearm Incident
2221
During an allied agency interview or interrogation of involved parties of officer involved shootings, the investigator or another individual at least one rank higher than the involved employee(s) shall ______.
attend
2222
Ensure that the required departmental investigation discharged firearm report is prepared in triplicate. The original and one copy are sent to _______ and the second copy shall be retained________.
Division
| at the Area office for 10 years
2223
In the event the discharge of a firearm is directed toward a person, an occupied vehicle, or causes injury of death to a person, or is of unusual interest, the _________or alternate shall prepare a ___________.
Commander
| Comm-Net message per GO 100.80
2224
With the approval of the appropriate Assistant Commissioner, the Commander may grant up to _____ days off for an employee after a traumatic shooting incident.
five
2225
In the event of a discharge of a firearm, where the operating condition of the firearm is able, or where injury or death occurs, the firearm shall be __________.
forwarded to the Department gunsmith for inspection with a CHP 125, Weapon Control Memo.
2226
True/False - An officer involved in a shooting incident in which shots were fired at another person, shall qualify at the range prior to returning to full duty.
True
2227
Memorandums of finding in shooting cases are issued after __________.
direction from Division
2228
Officer Involved Shooting reports shall be retained by Legal Coordination Unit for ____ years plus the current year unless there is litigation. Area shall retain the report for ____ years plus current. The Academy will retain the report indefinitely if it involved an employee fatality.
five, 10
2229
A copy of Memorandum of Findings from an officer involved shooting shall be placed in the officer’s ________ and retained for _______years plus the current year.
field personnel folder three
2230
All evidence of a shooting shall be maintained for a period of _____years plus the current year.
10
2231
A memorandum of finding in a shooting case is retained in the employee's field personnel folder for ________.
three years plus current year
2232
When stopping a violator, the desired minimum distance between the patrol vehicle and violator’s vehicle is ___ feet; the officer should offset his/her patrol vehicle slightly to the ___ of the violator’s vehicles.
10, left
2233
True/False - During normal operation of an authorized emergency vehicle (AEV), officers are required to obey all provisions of the vehicle code in the same manner required of all other persons using the roadway. (Section 21052 V.C.)
True
2234
Any vehicle furnished by the State for police work, equipped with a red light and a siren, and operated by a member of the Department in the performance of his/her duty is a what?
Authorized emergency vehicle.
2235
(True/False) - A pursuit shall not be initiated, or engaged in, while providing transportation for any person, other than Departmental employees, authorized observers or sworn peace officers.
False
2236
Pursuit coordination with allied agencies should be undertaken at the ______level except in major metropolitan areas where Division may elect to provide coordination
Area
2237
CHP participation in an allied agency's pursuit is appropriate only in response to ____________.
a specific request
2238
The distance for a motorcycle conducting a felony stop is _________ feet.
50-75
2239
Two units with four officers conduct a felony stop. Where should the arrest zone be located?
In either the left or right “V” patrol vehicle positions, the arrest team officers (ATO) should consist of the officers located at the “inside” positions between the front fenders of the patrol vehicles, in front of the patrol vehicle’s doors.
2240
Where is the arrest zone for three or more officers using an arrest team?
In either the left or right “V” patrol vehicle positions, the arrest zone is located at the “inside” positions between the front fenders of the patrol vehicles, in front of the patrol vehicle’s doors.
2241
Weapons shall be in the low ready position for _____________ stops and in the ready position for _______ stops.
High Risk Felony
2242
What is the primary concern in a hostage incident ?
The protection of all life involved (i.e. hostage, innocent persons, police personnel, & hostage taker).
2243
When a hostage situation becomes mobile, maximum use of law enforcement _____________ should be made as quickly as possible.
aircraft
2244
What is the primary concern in freeway patrol?
The maintenance of a smooth and steady flow of traffic.
2245
Congestion is the _______ or _________ of vehicular movement resulting in the inability of available lanes to accommodate the volume of traffic at maximum efficiency.
slowing stopping
2246
There are two types of congestion _____________ and ______________.
recurrent non-recurrent
2247
True/False - The beat officer should as rapidly as possible remove physical obstructions and visual impediments to restore traffic flow to normal.
True
2248
Disabled vehicles (are/are not) a major cause of freeway congestion.
are
2249
True/False - Enforcement action should only be directed to the primary collision causing violations during peak traffic periods.
True
2250
The number one priority when dealing with spilled loads is to determine if ___________ are involved.
hazardous materials
2251
Officers shall have _________ knowledge that the persons being sought are fleeing to avoid prosecution for a forcible or atrocious felony before employing a roadblock.
definite
2252
Every Officer and Sergeant shall be certified ___________ in enforcement tactics, physical methods of arrest and proper use of safety equipment.
annually
2253
True/False - The CHP 270 is a permanent record of training. It shall be used to note each uniformed employee’s actual date of certification. Each annual entry should be initialed by the certifying officer or supervisor.
True
2254
The CHP 199 is a permanent record of Officer Safety Certification. It shall be used to document ____________ and will be retained in the uniformed employee's personnel file of field training folder.
annual certification
2255
Each uniformed employee who transfers (should/shall) have a current CHP 199, Officer Safety Certification, on file.
shall
2256
Uniformed employees who fail to meet the required level of certification after a maximum 30 days of refresher training shall be placed on ________________ pursuant to the procedures contained in HPM 10.10, Performance Appraisal Manual.
interim reporting
2257
Uniformed employees unable to demonstrate an acceptable level of skill shall be provided refresher training for a period of time not to exceed ____ days after annual certification is due.
30
2258
Annual certifications of employee at the rank of _______ shall be documented on the CHP ___ or CHP ___.
Sergeant and below 118 / 118S
2259
The basic principles in all of the handcuffing techniques are ____________, selfprotection, and ________ of the suspect.
balance, control
2260
An officer should tighten handcuffs only to the extent necessary to prevent ________.
escape
2261
All persons arrested on a charge requiring incarceration shall be handcuffed with their hands to the rear. What persons are exempt from this policy?
sick, injured, or disabled, elderly, visibly pregnant
2262
Position of advantage: Officers body will be at a __ degree angle to the subject.
45
2263
Transfer of prisoner custody requires an immediate search by the ______________ officer.
receiving
2264
All persons subjected to physical arrest (should/shall) be searched for offensive weapons.
shall
2265
When a single officer unit is transporting a single prisoner, the prisoner __________(should/shall) be seated in the ________ ________ seat position.
shall, right front.
2266
Who can the spit sock be used on?
Person’s in physical custody who spit or threaten to spit.
2267
In the absence of a spit sock can something else be used on the subject?
No other device shall be attached or affixed to the head, face, or mouth, of a spitting prisoner.
2268
What notification/documentation must be done if a spit sock is used?
Employees shall notify a supervisor as soon as possible and all documents shall note the use of the spit sock (202, 216, 268, etc.)
2269
What criteria (arrest/detention) is needed for use of the spit sock?
Can only used on subjects placed under physical arrest or individuals taken into protective custody per 305 and 5150 WIC.
2270
True/False - The elastic collar of the spit sock can be modified.
False, the elastic collar of the spit sock cannot be modified in any manner?
2271
During enforcement duties, the side handle baton, collapsible PR-24, or ASP (should/shall) be carried by all officers and Sergeants except for funerals, court appearances, lunch and breaks, and when it is against good judgment.
shall
2272
OC shall not be used at a distance of less than ____ feet unless an extreme hazard exists and not aimed directly at the eyes at a distance of less than ___ feet.
three, five
2273
A saline solution should be used to decontaminate a person who has received mace. Area Commanders shall assure that each patrol car in their command is provided with at least one ________ bottle of saline solution and after the initial application should be administered within ________.
500 ML 30 minutes
2274
True/False - The Department shall primarily use canines as a law enforcement tool.
True
2275
A Narcotic Detection Canine shall not be trained to:
1) Protect the handler or other persons.
2) Apprehend a fleeing suspect.
3) Locate suspects.
2276
A Narcotic Detection Canine may be used to:
1) Search for narcotics in conveyances, buildings or open areas. 2) Perform demonstrations at public events.
2277
An Explosives Detection Canine shall not be trained to:
An Explosives Detection Canine may be used to:
1) Sweeps for Protective service Details.
2) Searches for explosives.
3) Perform demonstrations at public events.
2278
Training aids for Narcotics Detection canines are issued to the handler, for packaging in various containers, in 60 gram increments of the following drugs:
1) Cocaine (powder)
2) Marijuana
3) Heroin (powder or tar)
4) Methamphetamine
2279
Employees shall thoroughly clean their primary firearm after being fired during any training session and shall inspect it at least ________ to ensue that it is in proper working order. (70.8, 5-5)
Once a week
2280
Each employee’s primary firearm shall be recorded on what CHP form?
A CHP 311, Annual Safety/Protective Equipment Inspection.
2281
True/False - Employees shall have a primary firearm immediately available while traveling in a marked patrol vehicle, regardless of destination or attire.
True
2282
True/False - The supplemental firearm (S&W 4013) requires additional training prior to carrying.
False
2283
What caliber of weapons is permitted as a secondary weapon?
9 MM, 10 MM, .40, .38, .357, .45
2284
If an employee desires to carry a secondary firearm, the firearm and related safety equipment shall be submitted to the Weapons Officer for inspection and completion of what CHP form?
CHP 4, Firearms Report
2285
Special purpose firearms may only be carried with the prior written approval of the _______. A copy of the approval shall be sent to the _______.
appropriate Division Chief, appropriate Assistant Commissioner
2286
When can an employee’s change their designated secondary firearm(s)?
At any time.
2287
True/False - The employee is responsible for maintaining proficiency with his/her secondary firearm.
True
2288
How often is a secondary weapon inspected?
Annually
2289
Any employee purchasing a firearm subject to registration with the Department shall complete what CHP form?
CHP 4
2290
The original CHP 4 pertaining to secondary firearms shall be forwarded to:
The Academy Weapons Control Unit
2291
If an employee chooses to buy or sell any firearm, the transaction must be completed by _________________.
a licensed firearms dealer pursuant to P.C. section 12078
2292
Trigger shoes (are/are never) permitted.
are never
2293
The primary and secondary firearms may be stored in the trunk of the patrol vehicle or in the gun locker at a jail facility. Policy requires:
The magazine shall be removed form the pistol prior to unholstering
2294
Per section 12035(b) PC, ___________ charges can be filed against an employee if a minor gains access to and discharges a firearm causing great bodily harm and/or death to him/herself and/or another due to the employee’s failure to use reasonable measures to secure the firearm.
Felony
2295
If a uniformed employee is carrying his firearm during air travel he must also carry_________ or ___________. (70.8 2-5)
Handcuffs/ flex-cuffs.
2296
Uniformed personnel electing to carry their firearm during travel shall carry it __________________.
concealed
2297
May uniformed employees carry firearms on interstate flights.
No, intrastate only prior to flying armed, uniformed personnel shall obtain written authorization letter from their commander on departmental letterhead.
2298
How many primary firearm shoots are required each year?
12 (once each month)
2299
Employee’s are required to shoot a TOQC qualifying course ______ a year for the shotgun and riffle. At least ______ additional practices shoots shall be held, one of which shall be during _____________.
twice two
| the hours of darkness
2300
Employees who have been assigned to office duty because of their involvement in an actual shooting confrontation where shots were fired at another person, whether or not an injury resulted, shall fire a _________ score on the _________ prior to returning to full duty.
qualifying, TOQC - primary firearm
2301
How many qualifying shotgun and riffle shoots are required in a year?
Two qualifying and two practice (One of the practices shall be during darkness).
2302
Commanders shall submit a memorandum by February 15 of each year to Division indicating those employees missing more than _______primary firearm shoots and/or more than ______shotgun or riffle shoot.
3,1
2303
Quarterly shotgun and riffle shoots shall be completed by whom?
All officers and sergeants.
2304
(True/False) - (True/False) Employees in administrative positions may be excused from the normal monthly shoot requirement providing they demonstrate quarterly the minimum proficiency as outlined in HPM 70.8.
True
2305
In no event shall an employee expend over ________ rounds in any single training session.
100
2306
An employee on night shift (is/is not) exempt from the monthly shoot.
is not
2307
Employees shall normally make up all required shoots. Employees off duty for more than ______ may be exempt from making up all required shoots.
three months
2308
Range Officer’s conducting a firearms training session ____ wear a red safety vest over their clothing.
shall
2309
Black-Bottom Magazines shall be used during training _______ and shall be inspected _________.
once a year, once a year
2310
The minimum qualifying score for TOQC Qualification is __________.
100%
2311
True/False - Shoots, regardless of the firearm being shot, shall be recorded on what a CHP 416, Monthly Record of Shoots
True
2312
Commanders shall be responsible for all ammunition received and its distribution. What CHP form shall be used to record all the ammunition received, issued, and the current balance of hand.
A CHP 269
2313
Government Code Section 13403(a)(1) requires a plan of organization that provides segregation of duties appropriate for proper safeguarding of state agency assets. Therefore, commanders shall ensure that a separation of duties exists between the handling of _________ and the handling of ________ training records. The person who issues _________ for training shall not be responsible for recording the training.
ammunition firearms ammunition
2314
The primary firearm shall be completely disassembled __________ by an academy certified weapons officer and recorded on a CHP 311.
once yearly
2315
How often shall Shotguns and rifles be inspected and cleaned at the Area level?
Quarterly
2316
True/False - The tactical rifle is provided as a supplemental firearm to the pistol and shotgun and may be used at all distances from close quarters to 300 plus yards.
True
2317
Ammunition stored in magazines for tactical rifles shall be replaced:
Quarterly, at the time of rifle cleaning.
2318
All State owned firearms requiring service or repair must be shipped where and with what form?
Shipped to the Academy gunsmith with a CHP 125, Weapons Control Memorandum.
2319
All uniformed employees, whether or not they intend to purchase their primary firearm, shall submit to their commanders a CHP _____. The memorandum shall include a statement indicating whether or not they intend to purchase the primary firearm.
4B
2320
A retiring officer must have how many months of service in order to purchase his/her state owned weapon.
120
| *Note - The only exemption to this rule is if the officer is medically retired.
2321
The assignment of split duty shifts where part of the duty is performed in an automobile shall be avoided except when the assignment is affected by __________
weather, motorcycle repairs/maintenance, or obvious emergency
2322
A report of this evaluation shall be submitted via memo to the Division Chief by _____.
Jan 31 each year
2323
True/False - Employees with transfer requests on file may be selected for motorcycle training.
False, employees with transfer requests on file will not be selected for motorcycle training.
2324
Area Commanders shall make utilization of motorcycles evaluations how often?
Annual and end-of-the-year.
2325
Applicants who fail to complete the training program due to a lack of riding skills must wait a minimum of ________ before returning to the Motorcycle Enforcement Training Program.
six months
2326
Applications will complete in _________ "Application for Motorcycle Training", CHP 138.
duplicate
2327
Applications may be forwarded when the employee's assignment to motorcycle duty can be accomplished _______________.
immediately following completion of motorcycle training
2328
The original and one copy of the CHP 138, one copy of the CHP 442, Individual Accident, Injury, and Safety Recognition Record, will be forwarded to the ________.
Academy
2329
The first 30 day training period will be evaluated in _______ increments.
10 day
2330
Officers on a one-year probationary status and assigned a Certified Motorcycle Training Officer for a 30 working day period are classified as Category _______ rider's.
II
2331
Officers presently capable of performing motorcycle enforcement duties are classified as Category _____ rider's.
I
2332
Officers who do not meet riding standards or physical requirements are classified as Category _____ rider's.
III
2333
Category III rider's (should not/shall not) be assigned to motorcycle enforcement duty.
shall not
2334
Only those employees who are assigned a permanent motorcycle and work a minimum of _________ hours during the one year probationary period are eligible to be reclassified into Category I. (Category II alternate riders do not meet this requirement.)
1680
2335
After the first 30 day training period an eight hour ride-along will be completed with a CMTO and documented at the end of the _____________.
first, second, third, and final quarters
2336
The entire probationary period (should/should not) be completed with the same CMTO.
should
2337
Category II employees (should not/shall not) be assigned to in-service or other non-riding duties until completion of the 30 working day training period.
shall not
2338
In Areas where volunteers for motorcycle duty are unavailable, recruitment of qualified employees is authorized with the approval of the ___________.
Division Chief
2339
Employees in Category I or II must complete a ________ evaluation period after an absence from motorcycle duty of more than ___________ and less than 12 months.
five-day riding, three months
2340
Employees must perform motorcycle duties for a minimum of _____________ within the 12 month period to maintain the Category I or II qualification.
one continuous month
2341
Area Commanders will notify __________ by memo of all reclassifications to Category III.
the Academy
2342
Employees should complete the 30 day working day period within __________ from the first day of the pay period following completion of the motorcycle training class, or the day training actually begins, or be required to requalify.
two months
2343
The remaining probationary period will be completed by alternate riders when the employee __________________________.
is assigned a permanent motorcycle position
2344
True/False - Alternate riders will be evaluated during the first 30 days only.
True
2345
Employees who do not perform motorcycle duties during a period of _________ or more will be required to requalify.
12 consecutive months
2346
Applications for motorcycle training will be forwarded to Division no more than ________ prior to the scheduled motorcycle training class.
60 days
2347
An motor officer reassigned for training due to substandard performance shall be reassigned for ________.
an entire pay period
2348
Removal from motorcycle duty, upon the employee's written request, will be made at the discretion of the ________.
Area Commander.
2349
True/False - Riders who request removal from motorcycle duty without good case shall be placed at the bottom of the motorcycle replacement list for that particular Area.
True
2350
Commanders may temporarily reassign an employee for _________.
training purposes due to substandard performance
2351
A copy of the CHP 200 shall be forwarded to ________ in order to establish a date for motorcycle boot allowance.
the Accounting Section
2352
Areas will forward a copy of collision reports involving Departmental motorcycles to _________ within 5 working days.
the Academy
2353
The original of the CHP 200, Motorcycle Performance Evaluation, is retained _________.
in the employee's field folder
2354
True/False - Minor changes, alterations, addition of equipment to a departmental motorcycle are prohibited.
False, may be permitted at the discretion of the Area Commander
2355
All motorcycles are to be inspected _______ by motor officers and a minimum of ___________ by a sergeant or lieutenant.
daily, once a month
2356
At least ________ a supervisor will accompany each motor officer during one of the required daily inspections and personally inspect the officer's motorcycle. A minimum of ________ shall elapse before the next required inspection by a supervisor.
once a month, 20 days
2357
When motorcycles are garaged at other than CHP facilities, they shall be ________.
under cover in an enclosed, locked area
2358
Area Commanders shall provide for physical inspection of the storage facility when __________.
a rider is newly assigned or when a change of residence is made
2359
Malfunctioning body cables or headsets shall be forwarded to ___________ for repair.
Telecommunications Section
2360
A motor officer shall have a minimum of _________ of enforcement riding experience with this department prior to being selected for the Certified Motorcycle Training Officer Program.
two years
2361
Area Commanders will notify _________ by memo of members that they have selected for CMTO training.
the Academy
2362
All areas assigned motorcycles shall have at least ______ CMTO(s).
one
2363
Immediately prior to the trainee's riding of any assigned motorcycle, it shall be inspected and test-ridden by the training officer for ________.
a complete duty shift
2364
All evaluations shall be retained in the trainee's area personnel folder for ___________ after successful completion of the 30 working-day training period.
the duration of his category I classification
2365
Category III evaluations shall be retained in the personnel folder for _________.
the current year plus three
2366
The trainee shall not use the motorcycle for transportation to and from work during the first ________.
20 days
2367
The use of the motorcycle for transportation to and from work during the final 10-day period will be determined by __________, with approval of _________.
the training officer, the Area Commander
2368
The trainee shall not make emergency runs and shall avoid speed arrests during the first ___ days of training.
20
2369
Area Commander (should/shall) establish motorcycle refresher training programs.
shall
2370
A minimum of one _________ per quarter shall be utilized to provided training.
8 hour day
2371
If an officer/sergeant fails to participate in more than two training sessions within 12 months ______________.
they will be placed in a remedial status and assigned to work with a CMTO until proficiency is reestablished
2372
The motorcycle evaluation report completed during quarterly training, will be retained at Area for __________.
the current year plus one
2373
Areas shall notify the Academy by MIS not less than _______ before a scheduled Area refresher training day.
30 days
2374
________ hours of the training day will be dedicated to mandated training.
Four
2375
Headlights on departmental motorcycles shall be lighted _____________.
at all times during operation
2376
Training resources are allocated in the following priority order:
1) Job Required
2) Job Related
3) Upward Mobility
4) Career Related
2377
Coordination of the Department's training, providing assistance to all levels in planning, developing and coordinating training programs is the responsibility of ____________.
the Personnel and Training Division
2378
Development of human resources, providing financial resources for training and approving Departmental training and policies is the responsibility of __________.
Executive Management
2379
Cost accounting of all training and development programs, reporting of fiscal information is the responsibility of the ________________________________.
Administrative Service Division
2380
Commander at all levels shall have the responsibility for:
1) Identification of training needs of subordinates.
2) The evaluation of on-the-job performance of their subordinates after training, relative to improved performance and cost effectiveness.
2381
Effective implementation of skills, knowledge, and abilities, seeking training opportunities to improve performance initiating career development plans is the responsibility of _______________________.
of the individual employee
2382
Responsibility for administration of the Department's upward mobility program is the responsibility of _________________________.
the Office of Equal Employment Opportunity
2383
True/False - The authority and guidance for training is derived solely from the Vehicle Code.
False, it comes from the Government Code, State Personnel Board Rules, Department of Administration Rule, State Training Policy, State Administrative Manual, Cal OSHA, POST, Penal Code, Vehicle Code, Health and Welfare Code, and CHP Policy.
2384
A Career Development Plan shall be approved by ____________________.
the employee’s Commander
2385
Training designed to increase an employee’s job proficiency by enabling an employee to improve his/her performance above the acceptable level of competency established for the specific job assignment or for preparing the employee for assuming increased responsibilities in his/her current assignment is classified as ________ training.
Job Related
2386
Orientation training to acquaint all new employees with State service, Departmental organization, State and Department personnel practices, employee benefits, or training necessary to newly-assigned employees, including supervisors and managers, to acquire an acceptable level of competence in their assignment, or training mandated by law or other State authority including safety training is classified as ________ training.
Job Required
2387
A planned movement of personnel between jobs within or between departments for the purpose of preparing that individual for assignment of greater responsibility within his/her present position and/or the movement to higher level positions is called ______
rotational assignment
2388
Training and Development assignments are ______________ and not to exceed __________.
temporary, 2 years
2389
“From low paying classes with minimal career opportunities into higher paying classes with broader career opportunities,” or “up within class series from entry level into journey levels to higher supervisory levels or into management positions,” or “into classifications which traditionally have had little or no utilization of minorities, women, and the disabled” is classified as ________________ training.
Upward Mobility
2390
Personal growth is accomplished through techniques such as _______________________.
rotational assignment , special duty assignments, formal education, individual upward mobility plan, interchanges between government Jurisdictions, out service training, and formal training
2391
Training which is sponsored and administered by the Department or the State for its employees and a high degree of control over course content is classified as ____________.
In-Service training
2392
Training which is sponsored by a non-state agency and is open to the public as well as state employees is classified as ________________.
Out-Service training
2393
The development of an inventory of critical areas of knowledge, tasks, skills, and abilities necessary to perform in all job classifications within the Department is the responsibility of __________________.
Personnel and Training Division
2394
Cadet training requires a minimum of _________ hours.
1256
2395
EMT-1 Refresher training requires a minimum of how many hours every six months?
6 hours
2396
Career related training will normally be at the _________________ time & expense.
employees
2397
Upward Mobility and career related travel and per diem will be at the _______________ expense.
employee's
2398
Job-Required training will be on _________ time.
State
2399
Job-Related and Upward Mobility training will normally be on _________ time.
State
2400
Tuition, book and fees, travel expenses for job-required and job-related training is paid by the ____________.
State
2401
True/False - CHP Form 50 (Request for out-service training) is not required when the employee will pay for all expenses associated with the course attended on state time. (i.e. tuition, books, travel expenses)
False, it must be completed for all training attended on state time.
2402
CHP Form 50 (Request for out-service training) must be received by Division _______ prior to scheduled class.
30 working days
2403
Requested training that is on the requester’s approved out-service training plan requires approval from ________________ and the concurrence of _______________ before forwarding to the appropriate Division for processing.
immediate supervisor, Commander
2404
Requested training that is not on the requester’s approved out-service training plan must receive approval from ___________.
Division Commander
2405
Commanders (may/should) allow adjustment of work schedules or use of vacation or CTO to attend school.
may
2406
Tuition assistance for non-uniformed supervisors, represented & confidential employees is allowed up to ______ of tuition and textbook expenses up to ______ per term. The maximum is ________ per fiscal year.
50 percent, $150, $450
2407
Tuition assistance for managerial employees and uniformed supervisors is allowed up to _______ of tuition and textbook expenses up to _______ per term. The maximum is _____ per fiscal year.
100 percent, $400, $1,200
2408
Employees will not be reimbursed for a course in which a minimum of a ____ final grade has not been achieved.
“C” (2.0)
2409
True/False - Reimbursement for tuition is submitted on a CHP 262, travel expense claim.
True
2410
Candidates for the FBI Academy shall be at rank of ______ or above.
Lieutenant
2411
All mandated or other in-service training and out-service training _______ be recorded on the _______.
shall, CHP 270
2412
Other training/educational courses _____ be recorded.
may
2413
The four types of uniforms authorized for wear by uniformed members of the CHP are _________, _________, ________ and __________.
formal uniform, work uniform, utility uniform, and cold weather uniform
2414
True/False - All uniformed employees are required to have a formal uniform?
True, all uniformed employees are required to have a formal uniform that fits and is ready for immediate use (Long sleeve shirt, pants and all required accouterments).
2415
The dickey or turtleneck sweater may be worn in lieu of the tie, except ________.
when wearing the formal uniform.
2416
A formal uniform is used for what functions?
The formal uniform shall be worn by all uniformed personnel when representing the Department at official functions such as funerals, memorial services, formal personnel inspections, Academy graduations, award presentations, or as otherwise directed by the commander.
2417
True/False - Employees may wear the formal uniform as a work uniform at their discretion.
True
2418
The dickey or turtleneck shall not be worn with ___________.
green jacket.
2419
True/False - Regardless of the type of neckwear worn with the work uniform, a uniform shirt is always required.
True
2420
Who can wear the approved utility uniform?
Primary wearers are authorized to wear either the utility uniform, the work uniform or the formal uniform while engaged in the performance of their duties. Incidental wearers are those persons who are authorized to wear the utility uniform only while actually engaged in a work task which necessitates the wearing of a uniform other than the formal or work uniform.
2421
True/False - Regardless of the type of shirt worn, whenever a jacket is worn, employees shall at all times wear some form of approved neckwear.
True
2422
The utility uniform may be worn at all times by _________.
primary wearers only
2423
True/False - The appropriate tie may be worn with the short sleeve shirt provided an approved uniform jacket is worn.
True
2424
True/False - A commander may authorize personnel to wear jackets and exclude the tie.
False
2425
True/False - Regardless of the type of neckwear worn with the work uniform, a uniform shirt is always required to be worn.
True
2426
True/False - Whenever the dickey is worn over the shirt in lieu of the tie, the shirt shall not be visible.
True
2427
(T/F) - DRE’s performing initial Field certifications are authorized to wear utility uniforms.
True
2428
Incidental wearers may only wear the utility uniform when _________.
actually engaged in a work tasks that necessitates the wearing of the utility uniform
2429
What is the definition of an incidental wearer of the utility uniform?
Those persons who are authorized to wear the utility uniform only while ACTUALLY ENGAGED in a work task which necessitated the wearing of a uniform other than the formal or work uniform.
2430
What positions are deemed Primary wearer positions for the utility uniform?
Uniformed personnel assigned to the Commercial Program. Level 1 or 2 trained commercial officers that drive SMPV’s on a full-time basis, Canine Handlers, Bomb detection officers who are canine equipped, Full time VIN officers, Division personnel permanently assigned to MAIT (not associate team members), ), Nonuniformed, full-time MAIT members (Motor Carrier Specialist and Caltrans.) FSP members, MAIT associate members while performing MAIT duties.
2431
True/False - When wearing the utility trousers with any other style of footwear (other than combat-style boots), the trousers shall not be bloused.
True
2432
When wearing the utility trousers with combat-style-boots, the trousers (may/shall not) be bloused.
may
2433
Employees may requisition the cold weather cap and insulated boots, but the _____________ is purchased at the employee’s expense.
cold weather jump suit
2434
Effective January 1, 2000, the only authorized utility uniform will be the ___________ utility uniform.
ripstop
2435
Who has the authority to designate an area a cold-weather area?
Division commander
2436
When performing patrol duties, uniformed employees operating a patrol car (should/shall) keep the campaign hat readily available within the vehicle.
shall
2437
The ____________, is not authorized for wear.
long blue car coat, also known as the cold weather coat
2438
True/False - Employees assigned to road patrol duties shall keep the campaign hat (either felt or straw) readily available within the vehicle.
True
2439
All uniformed employees, regardless of rank, shall possess ____________.
felt campaign hat, complete with hat/cap piece and appropriate accouterments.
2440
The campaign hat shall be worn by uniformed employees under the following conditions:
As part of the formal uniform.
While performing traffic or crowd control duties.
When on the grounds or within the confines of the State Capitol.
Should be worn when a high degree of officer recognition is essential.
2441
True/False - The 10851 VC award may be worn on the left pocket?
False, the pin shall be worn in one of three locations (right pocket flap, center, left side, or centered above the right pocket).
2442
The maximum number of accouterments that can be worn on the right pocket flap is _________ while the maximum on the left pocket flap is ______.
three, two
2443
What helmets are required to have the American Flag decal on them?
Motorcycle, mounted, bike, aviation
2444
What is not considered a part of the basic uniform?
Blue patrol jacket
2445
True/False - An exception to the fact that while on duty, uniformed employees shall wear the appropriate uniform is when commanders direct pregnant uniformed employees assigned to limited duty to wear appropriate civilian attire because the term of pregnancy is such that wearing the uniform is impractical and/or creates an abnormal appearance.
True
2446
Visible undergarments shall be _____ when wearing the utility uniform. Visible undergarments shall be _____ while wearing any departmental uniform other than the utility uniform.
dark navy blue, white
2447
Accouterments and badges _____ be cleaned but not polished.
shall
2448
The following code prohibits employees from striking while in uniform and/or possessing concealed weapons during such activities.
Penal (section 12950(a))
2449
Hair (male) which is combed forward on the forehead shall not be lower than the ____________ of the relaxed eyebrow, nor _______ of the ear.
high point, cover any part of the outside portion
2450
Sideburns shall not extend past ____ of the ear.
the bottom
2451
The maximum width of the bottom of the sideburn is no wider than _____?
1½”
2452
A mustache cannot extend more than ___ inch beyond the corners of the mouth nor ____ below the corner of the mouth.
½, ¼ inch
2453
True/False - A mustache shall not extend below the vermilion border of the upper lip.
True
2454
Maximum extension from the (male’s) scalp for hairstyles shall not exceed _______ inches.
two
2455
Hair (female) may be combed over the ears but cannot extend below the ______ of the collar or the ear, nor more than _____ inches in front of the ear.
Bottom, two
2456
The maximum extension of hair from a male’s scalp is two inches while the maximum for females is ____ inches.
two
2457
True/False - Hair shall not be worn in a pony tail or similar style.
True
2458
Fingernails shall not extend more than _____.
beyond the finger tips
2459
A stud-type, pierced earring may be worn by female officers while in civilian attire provided they are gold, silver or clear in color and are not larger in diameter than ______.
4 mm
2460
A maximum of _____ ring(s) may be worn while on duty.
two
2461
All uniformed employees and cadets are prohibited from displaying any body art, tattoo(s), brands(s), intentional scarring, mutilation, or dental ornamentation while _____ or _____.
on duty, representing the Department in any official capacity
2462
The alternative method for cleaning the departmental badge and cap piece is placing them in oaklite solution for ____ minutes.
15
2463
Soft body armor shall be worn by:
All personnel assigned to field enforcement duties.
All personnel who operate a marked patrol vehicle while in uniform. All personnel participating in "live-fire" weapons training.
Certain special duty personnel (i.e. front Counter Officer)
2464
When may a commander grant exceptions to the mandatory wearing of soft body armor?
(1) Extremely hot weather when an employee’s health, welfare, or ability to perform his/her duties would be impacted by wearing soft body armor.
(2) When an employee has a temporary health condition which precludes the wearing of body armor. Examples would include sunburn, rash, poison oak, etc.
* Commanders may not grant open-ended or long-term exemptions to the wearing of soft body armor. In such circumstances, employees should be reassigned to duties which do not require the mandatory wearing of body armor, or medically evaluated to determine fitness for duty.
2465
Who is not required to wear a vest?
All employees, regardless of assignment, are encouraged to wear soft body armor while in performance of their duties. Personnel in the following assignments are not required to wear soft body armor: Area SPECIAL duty positions OTHER THAN primary front counter or watch officer. Headquarters and Division staff positions. Communications and TMC centers. Commanders, except when performing field enforcement duties or driving a marked patrol vehicle.
2466
Commanders are not required to wear soft body armor except when _________ or ___________.
performing field enforcement duties or when driving a marked patrol vehicle
2467
True/False - The uniform badge shall be attached to the badge holder on the outer-most garment and visible at all times.
True
2468
When riding a departmental motorcycle, the helmet shall be worn with the chin strap fastened except:
There are no exceptions.
2469
Vehicle inspection officers (should/shall) wear the scalp guard cap when performing underthe-hood or under-vehicle inspections.
shall
2470
True/False - Employees may wear a standard hand-tied tie (uniform) however, it is discouraged.
False
2471
The green dress jacket shall be zipped during official functions and should be zippered when in public view except _______________.
when operating an automobile
2472
Officers may not wear white socks without what?
A physician’s written statement.
2473
Uniformed employees with a foot condition are authorized to wear white socks as specified in writing by the uniformed employee’s physician. If the foot condition exceeds 30 days, the footwear _________ be changed to an approved type which ______ the socks.
shall, covers
2474
A pocket watch or wristwatch capable of maintaining accurate time, (should/shall) be worn while on duty.
shall
2475
True/False - A pen and pencil shall be carried concealed within the uniform.
False, a pen OR pencil shall be carried concealed within the uniform.
2476
Service stripes (should/shall) be worn.
shall
2477
At the discretion of the commander, the aiguillette (should/shall) be worn when participating in a funeral when the green dress jacket is worn.
shall
2478
The topmost portion of both the standard and the mid-size chevron shall be sewn __________ the shoulder patch.
touching the lowermost part of
2479
True/False - Only the mid-size chevron is authorized on uniform shirts.
False, the mid-sized chevron is only authorized on the short-sleeve uniform shirt and shortsleeve utility uniform.
2480
The next calendar day following funeral services if local agency.
The next calendar day following funeral services if local agency.
2481
Which colors are authorized for insulated boots if black is not available?
brown, green & tan are all authorized
2482
True/False - When the cold weather jumpsuit is worn, the blue patrol jacket or cold weather parka may be worn as an outer garment.
True
2483
True/False - The only dickey and turtleneck approved for wear are the items sold by the Academy PX.
True
2484
True/False - Uniformed employees shall use the department issued plastic flexcuffs only as a supplement to the conventional regulation handcuffs.
True
2485
True/False -The tie clasp shall be affixed within the area bound by the imaginary parallel lines drawn between the top of the pocket flaps and the center of the pockets.
True
2486
The marksmanship medal shall be attached as follows:
Right pocket flap, 1 inch to the right of the left edge and centered.
2487
How many keys, to include whistle, can be carried on the Sam Browne belt?
Only those necessary to the performance of duty.
2488
on the duty belt
on the duty belt
2489
Who will grant approval for the wearing of a uniform substantially similar to the uniform of the CHP?
The Commissioner.
2490
Completed applications for the wearing of uniforms for programs of entertainment (movies) shall be submitted to the _____________.
Office of Media Relations
2491
The service stripe shall be sewn ______ above the cuff of the long sleeve shirt and at a ____ angle.
¾”, 45 degree
2492
During formal inspections, _____ handcuff case(s) may be worn.
one double or one single
2493
What form will be completed in triplicate to repair/replace damaged items?
CHP 130
2494
The Vehicle Ownership Security Program is the responsibility of ____________.
Assistant Commissioner, Staff
2495
The __________ provides direct supervision to subordinate vehicle theft supervisors and is responsible for the operation and administration of all CHP vehicle theft related activities including the related equipment budget within their Division.
Division ISU Coordinator
2496
_____________ are directly accountable to the Division chiefs and oversee all programs coordinated through ISUs. The SSC provides direct supervision to the Division ISU.
_____________ are directly accountable to the Division chiefs and oversee all programs coordinated through ISUs. The SSC provides direct supervision to the Division ISU.
2497
Newly assigned vehicle theft investigators should attend the Department’s Commission on Peace Officer Standards and Training certified Vehicle Theft Investigation Course as soon as practical.
40-hour
2498
Initial training of new investigative personnel should be provided by an experienced Division vehicle theft investigator for a minimum of _______ working days.
60
2499
ISU coordinators are responsible for ensuring that vehicle theft training is provided to the following:
(1) CHP Vehicle Identification Number (VIN) officers.
(2) Area CHP beat officers.
(3) Division vehicle theft investigators.
(4) Other law enforcement agencies upon request.
(5) The general public regarding vehicle theft awareness/education programs.
2500
The ISU Coordinator shall conduct a Category 6 Fleet Inspection of every undercover vehicle assigned to ISU on a ________ basis.
annual basis
2501
Division Investigative Services Unit’s (ISU) Vehicle Theft Operations report shall be submitted to Investigative Services Section (ISS) no later than __________ following the end of the quarter.
the 20th day
2502
For reporting purposes, the value of a vehicle recovered is __________ of the vehicle at the time of theft.
the fair market value of the vehicle at the time of theft
2503
The VIN replacement system is administered by __________.
DMV
| *Note - CHP is responsible for the operational aspect of the assignment of the VIN numbers.
2504
Replacement VIN plates are requisitioned from ________ based on an anticipated need for a period of ___________.
requisitioned from ISS, based on an anticipated need for six months
2505
10th working day of each month
10th working day of each month
2506
Any replacement VIN plate which is damaged prior to or during application, or on which a typing error occurs, shall be forwarded to _______________ no later than _______.
forwarded to ISS, the next working day (Use regular mail)
2507
10751 CVC vehicle impounds require authorization of __________.
a supervisor or an auto theft investigator
2508
Vehicles without the required VIN should be impounded or issued a CHP 215. If CHP 215 issued, it must be cleared within __________.
45 days or else turned over to auto theft for follow-up
2509
the Area VIN Officer, a Division Vehicle Theft Investigator
the Area VIN Officer, a Division Vehicle Theft Investigator
2510
Vehicles with obvious VIN alterations _______ be impounded. A CHP 215 _______ be issued.
should, will not
2511
When there exists reasonable doubt about VIN alterations the officer should ____________ unless _______________.
issue a CHP 215, the driver/owner is taken into custody for another violation
2512
A civil hearing regarding the impound of a vehicle must be conducted within __________ days of the seizure.
90 days
2513
The registered owner of a vehicle which has been impounded for 10751 CVC, must be provided with notice of his/her rights to a hearing within __________ days of the seizure using a _________.
5 working, CHP 181A
2514
To request the use of a court awarded seized vehicle a CHP 51 must be submitted and approved by __________.
A.C. Field
2515
Vehicles awarded to the CHP by court order may be dismantled/parted out. Authority to do so depends on the vehicle's value as follows:
1) $500 or less, Division ISU coordinator.
2) $500 or more, Division Chief.
3) $2000 or more, A.C. Field.
2516
Use of informant funds in excess of __________ must be approved by the Division Chief.
$750
| *Note - If over $2000, by A.C. Field.
2517
Division ISU Coordinators may have up to __________ in informant funds.
$5,000
2518
A CHP 180 is not required for a vehicle when a tow truck, motor club, or any other emergency roadside service provider has been called at the request of ________________ and owner or agent retains control of the vehicle
vehicle owner
2519
All stored vehicles shall be entered into the ______.
Stolen Vehicle System (SVS)
2520
True/False - When an officer stores a vehicle, and is unable to ascertain the name of the owner, or is unable to give notice to the owner of a California registered vehicle, the officer must immediately notify the Department of Justice, Stolen Vehicle System, of the removal.
True
2521
True/False - 22853 VC requires public agencies to immediately notify the Department of Justice, Stolen Vehicle System, (DOJ-SVS) if vehicle owners cannot be identified or notified. If the vehicle is not returned to the owner within 120 hours the storing agency shall send a written notice of the removal to the Department of Justice in Sacramento. This apply to all sorted vehicles owners cannot be identified or notified
False - This does not apply if the vehicle is a California registered vehicle. If the notice is returned unclaimed, attach it to the CHP 180 and retain both in the file.
*Note - The following must be done if the vehicle is registered in a foreign jurisdiction, and the “Notice of Stored Vehicle” is returned unclaimed or the vehicle is not returned to the owner within 120 hours, OR if the vehicle is removed from private property and stored, and its ownership is unknown or cannot be ascertained, and if the vehicle is not returned to the owner within 120 hours: print “Owner cannot be identified or notified” to the right of “Notice to Department of Justice” in section “C” of the “Notice of Stored Vehicle” and mail the notice to DOJ-SVS along with a copy of the Comm-Net message reply concerning registration information.
2522
When an officer stores a vehicle, and is unable to ascertain the name of the owner, or is unable to give notice to the owner of a foreign registered vehicle, the officer must ______________________.
Immediately notify the Department of Justice, Stolen Vehicle System, of the removal.
2523
If the vehicle is removed from private property and stored, and its ownership is unknown or cannot be ascertained, the tow company shall be notified of the unknown ownership status. How is this requirement to notify the tow company satisfied?
By the copy of the CHP 180 provided by the storing officer.
2524
What code authorizes the Commissioner of the CHP to designate uniformed employees to make vehicle appraisals?
The Vehicle Code.
2525
CHP 180s completed for vehicles impounded pursuant to Section 22655.5 VC shall be retained for ______.
two years
*Note - Unless court proceedings require the reports to be retained longer. In that event, the Area should ensure that all court proceedings, criminal as well as civil, are adjudicated before removing a report from the Area files.
2526
True/False - Employees of the Department shall inventory all contents of a stored vehicle, including the contents of closed containers requiring forced entry.
False, employees of the Department shall inventory all contents of a stored vehicle EXCEPT those contents, which are in locked containers, which require forced entry.
2527
In the event that the employee does not enter the value of the vehicle in the “Appraised Value” box of the CHP 180, who must make the entry and within how many days?
The tow operator within three (the manual does not indicate business or calendar)
2528
Values of vehicles are _________________.
$300 or less, over $300 and up to $4,000, and over $4,001
2529
Items of evidence, which are discovered during a vehicle inventory, are admissible in a court of law. The admissibility of the evidence was affirmed by ______ and ______.
the U.S. Supreme Court (Colorado v. Bertine) and the California Court of Appeals (People v. Steely).
2530
True/False - The registration status of each vehicle lawfully impounded shall be entered on the CHP 180 and serves as an additional condition of release for vehicles with expired registration.
False, the "22850.3" and "Agency Hold" boxes should be checked to indicate the vehicle is being held for an overdue registration. These boxes can be checked regardless of the storage or impound authority used.
2531
True/False – A vehicle impounded for 14602.6 VC shall be immediately released to the legal owner.
True, but the L/O or agent must present foreclosure documents or an affidavit of repossession at the time of release.
2532
An _______________ vehicle is one which has been removed from a highway, public or private property, under legal authority, and is subject to a conditional release or is being held as evidence
impounded
2533
A _______________ vehicle is one which has been located and identified as a vehicle previously reported stolen or embezzled
recovered
2534
A ____________ vehicle is one which has been removed from a highway, public or private property, under legal authority, for the purpose of providing safe custody, and is subject to an unconditional release.
stored
2535
True/False – The “Notice of Stored Vehicle” shall be sent regardless of whether or not the vehicle was recovered within a few hours.
True
2536
The “Notice of Stored Vehicle” shall be sent to the R/O and L/O within ______ hours, excluding weekends and holidays.
48
2537
Section 14602.6 VC should be used to impound a vehicle when an officer encounters a driver with a(n) ____________ license or a person who ___________________.
suspended or revoked
has never been issued a license
*Note - This section should be used to impound a vehicle for 30 days when an officer encounters a driver with a suspended or revoked license, or a person who has never been issued a license and there are indications that the driver will continue to drive if he or she continues to have access to the vehicle. The legislative intent is to ensure that these drivers do not have access to the vehicle for 30 days.
2538
True/False – Section 14602.6 VC does not apply to licenses which have expired or when a driver is driving out of class.
True, Section 14602.6 VC does not provide for the impoundment of a vehicle when the driver’s license is expired or when a driver is driving out of class. For these situations, Section 22651(p) VC should be used.
2539
True/ False - As a rule, vehicles impounded by uniformed employees of this Department require the concurrence of a supervisor.
True, officers should obtain the approval of a supervisor when possible, or as local policy mandates. The requirement to obtain a supervisor’s approval may be waived at the discretion of the Area commander.
2540
True/False - An Officer may impound a vehicle per Section 14602.6 VC when an individual’s driving privilege has been suspended under Section 11350.6 of the Welfare and Institutions Code (W&I).
False, Section 14602.6 VC does not apply when an individual’s driving privilege has been suspended under Section 11350.6 of the Welfare and Institutions Code (W&I).
2541
Which vehicle code section gives the authority to impound the vehicle of an unlicensed or suspended driver who has been involved in a traffic collision?
Drivers who have been cited for being unlicensed or suspended or who have drivers involved in traffic collisions may have their vehicles impounded pursuant to Section 14602.6 VC. Officers shall not issue a citation when impounding a vehicle as a result of a traffic collision, but shall ensure that there is sufficient evidence to establish the driver has violated 12500(a), 14601, 14601.1, 14601.2, 14601.3, 14601.4, or 14601.5 VC.
2542
When a vehicle has been impounded pursuant to 14607.6, a release prior to the end of the 30-calendar day period require the R/O or agent to have ____________.
a valid drivers license and proof of registration
*Note - A vehicle impounded for Section 14602.7 VC shall be released upon court order, or upon completion of the 30-day impoundment period, only when the R/O or agent provides a current valid driver license and proof of current vehicle registration to the impounding agency.
2543
When releasing a vehicle prior to the end of the 30-calendar day period, all decisions shall ensure that __________.
the driver at the time of the impoundment does not have access to the vehicle for 30 days. *Note - Area commanders shall use discretion when releasing vehicles prior to the end of the 30 calendar-day period. All decisions shall ensure that the driver at the time of the impoundment does not have access to the vehicle for 30 days.
2544
Section 14602.7 VC allows impound for 30 days of a vehicle used as an instrumental in the __________ and requires a ___________.
evasion of a peace officer, warrant or court order
2545
Section 14602.8(a) VC should be used to impound a vehicle for ____ or ____ days when the driver has a blood-alcohol content of .10% or more and has _____ or _____ DUI convictions in the past 10 years respectivelly.
5, 1
| 15, 2 or more
2546
Section 14607.6 VC allows for an officer to impound a vehicle for forfeiture if the registered owner has a previous conviction for Misdemeanor conviction for driving with a suspended/revoked license or 12500(a)VC. What impound authority should be listed on the CHP 180 if the Officer is unable to confirm the Misdemeanor conviction.
14607.6/14602.6 should be listed on the CHP 180 if the Officer is unable to confirm the prior conviction is a Misdemeanor. If the conviction is an Infraction, only 14602.6 would apply.
2547
Section 14607.6 VC allows for the forfeiture of a vehicle as a nuisance when ____________.
the driver is unlicensed or has a suspended or revoked driver’s license, and has a prior misdemeanor conviction for specified driver’s license violations or the driver is unlicensed and the R/O has an SVRA indicated on his or her driver record.
*Note - Section 14607.6 VC - 30-Day Impoundment/Forfeiture for Driver License Violations. This section shall be used when an officer encounters a driver who is the R/O and is unlicensed or has a suspended/revoked license, and the driver has a prior misdemeanor conviction for a violation of Section 12500(a), 14601, 14601.1, 14601.2, 14601.3, 14601.4, or 14601.5 VC; or the R/O of the vehicle has a Stipulated Vehicle Release Agreement (SVRA) indicated on his/her driving record.
2548
When completing the CHP 180F, the uniformed employee shall ensure the name and address of the appropriate ___________________ and the correct area office are entered.
City/District Attorney
2549
When impounding a vehicle pursuant to Section 14607.6 VC, the officer shall complete the top portion of the ______ and provide the R/O of the vehicle with a copy of ______.
CHP 180F
| a "Notice of Intended Vehicle Forfeiture"
2550
Areas shall send by certified mail, return receipt requested, a CHP 180G (Notice of Forfeiture), to all R/Os and L/Os of record that were not served a Personal Notice of Intended Vehicle Forfeiture by an officer. This shall be completed within _____ days of impounding a vehicle pursuant to Section 14607.6 VC.
two working
2551
When a vehicle is impounded under the authority of 14607.6 VC and the R/O’s prior conviction is for Sections 12500(a), 14601, 14601.1 or 4601.2 VC with a conviction date after January 1, 1995, Areas shall make a request contact to the appropriate court to verify conviction as a misdemeanor on which day following the impound.
first
2552
True/False – A community property owner may have a vehicle which has been impounded for 14607.6 VC released to him/her if no SVRA is on file.
True, but he/she must sign an SVRA.
2553
An SVRA must be sent to DMV within ______ days.
10 (the manual does not specify calendar or business days)
2554
A vehicle forfeited pursuant to Section 14607.6 VC shall be released to an L/O who, in the regular course of business, conducts sales of repossessed or forfeited vehicles if the L/O notifies the Area of its intent to conduct the sale within ___________ days of the mailing of the CHP 180G.
15 days (the manual does not specify calendar or business days)
2555
Auction companies will transport vehicles to the auction site within ______.
24 hours
2556
Divisions shall submit a(n) ______ report to ______ detailing their audits by ____.
quarterly
Commercial Vehicle Section (CVS)
the end of the month following the end of each quarter
2557
Regarding Section 14607.6 VC (Vehicle Disposal (Auction) Procedures), _______ shall audit Areas _____ and auction companies _____ to insure that proper procedures are being followed.
Divisions biannually quarterly
2558
Who is responsible for the disposal of forfeited vehicles.
Division Commanders
*Note - Division commanders shall develop policy for the implementation of Section 14607.6 VC. Policy shall include procedures to track and coordinate the sale of all forfeited vehicles, conduct audits, and resolve complaints associated with the contracted auction company.
2559
All documents related to the sale of a forfeited vehicle will be retained by the Area for ______ calendar years from the date on the form.
All documents related to the sale of a forfeited vehicle will be retained by the Area for ______ calendar years from the date on the form.
2560
Auction companies are required to provide to the area, reports of vehicles auctioned within ______ days.
15 (the manual does not specify calendar or business days)
*Note - Auction companies are required by Section 14607.6 VC to provide a report to the impounding agency (Area) for each vehicle auctioned and sold within 15 days.
2561
Vehicles not sold at auction must be offered for sales within ______ days.
60 (the manual does not specify calendar or business days)
*Note - When an auction company declines to sell a vehicle, the impounding Area shall, as soon as possible, provide the Declaration of Forfeiture to the tow company in possession of the vehicle and request that the vehicle be immediately offered for sale at a public auction, unless the L/O has requested to sell the vehicle. The forfeited vehicle must be offered for sale within 60 days following the declaration.
2562
The ______ serves as a title for those buying forfeited vehicles.
Declaration of Forfeiture
*Note - The auction contract terms require the auction company to provide the buyer of a forfeited vehicle with the Declaration of Forfeiture. The DMV indicates that the Declaration of Forfeiture serves as title for registration purposes when accompanied by the appropriate supporting documents; e.g., bill of sale, odometer disclosure, etc.
2563
A vehicle may be impounded pursuant to Section 22651(o) VC if the registration has been expired for ______ months and the vehicle is on a highway, public lands, or an off-street parking facility.
six
2564
Section 22651(o) VC permits the storage of vehicle when the registration has been expired in excess of ______ months.
six
2565
Can employees store a vehicle for 22651(h) VC from private property if the property is owned, leased, or rented by the driver or person in control of the vehicle?
No, officers shall not store vehicles from private property if the property is owned, leased, or rented by the driver or person in control of the vehicle. This includes parking spaces at community parking facilities, single family dwellings, apartment complexes, etc., where the driver or person in control of the vehicle resides.
2566
True/False - Vehicles may be impounded under Section 22651(J) VC if they are illegally parked on a highway with no license plates or other evidence of registration.
True
2567
True/False - When a vehicle registration inquiry on California license plate is made and returns with “NO RECORD ON FILE” and officer may impound the vehicle for 22651(o)VC.
False, when a vehicle registration inquiry (license plate or VIN) is made and returns with “NO RECORD ON FILE,” this message identifies that no transactions have taken place on the vehicle for four years. NOTE: A VIN inquiry automatically checks all states. Officers shall not remove a vehicle when an inquiry for an out-of-state or California license plate returns with “No Record on File;” however, officers may remove a vehicle when a VIN inquiry returns with “No Record on File.”
2568
True/False - A person whose vehicle is impounded for 22651(o) VC may also be cited.
True
| *Note - Generally, officers should not cite in addition to removing a vehicle.
2569
Which suspension services are not good and require a DMV for DL-310A be immediately issued?
An officer shall immediately issue a DL 310A on any Service Code “I,” “K” or “R” and on any Service Code “A” issued prior to June 30, 1995. Under these circumstances, the vehicle shall not be removed unless further evidence of suspension can be substantiated. Further evidence includes statements by the driver, passengers, or other documentation.
2570
On which good suspension service shall an officer still issue a DMV form DL-310A?
All “A” Service Codes shall be considered served, but An officer shall immediately issue a DL 310A on any Service Code "A" when the suspension was issued prior to June 30, 1995.
2571
DMV Service Codes which are known to be valid are:
A, B, D, H, J, M, and P (Remember the acronym MP HAD a BJ, "Big Job". If the letter is in the acronym, it is a good service.)
2572
Pursuant to 22651.6 VC, officers may cause the removal of a vehicle used in a speed contest when the driver was arrested and taken into custody for a violation of ________.
Section 23109 VC
2573
The intent of Section 22651.5 VC (Vehicle Theft Alarm) is to prevent excessive disturbances of the peace in residential districts. What documentation does the Department require to justify such a storage?
The name of the reporting party should be shown in the “Reporting Party” box located above the “Remarks” section of the CHP 180.
2574
When a commercial vehicle is stored and contains perishable cargo, the cargo should be released to the owner ______.
as soon as practicable
*Note - Arrangements should be made with the owner to recover any perishable cargo at a safe location, such as the storage lot. In no instance shall the cargo be off-loaded from the impounded commercial vehicle at the commercial inspection or scale facility or on the side of the highway.
2575
If a vehicle was impounded for a hit and run investigation or when the vehicle was used to flee from a peace officer, it should be released within ______ hours, excluding weekends and holidays.
48
*Note - Vehicles shall not be held more than 48 hours without the Area commander’s approval. It is not the intent of the Department to deprive the R/O of their vehicle while conducting an extensive investigation.
2576
Prior to impounding a vehicle for 22655.5 VC, supervisor’s permission ____________ (shall/should) be obtained?
shall
2577
Vehicles may be impounded pursuant to Section 22655.3 VC when a vehicle was used in violation of fleeing or evading. The vehicle shall not be held more than ______ hours without the Area Commander’s approval.
48
2578
(T/F) - Section 22655.5 VC allows for the impounding of a vehicle when the vehicle was used to commit a public offense on a highway or public or private property. The crime of DUI is included in applicable public offenses.
False, routine DUI is not included in applicable public offenses.
2579
According to Williams v. State of California, uniformed employees have no affirmative duty to ______.
secure information or preserve evidence for civil litigation when they have come to the aid of injured or stranded motorists
*Note - Officers have no affirmative duty to secure information or preserve evidence for civil litigation when officers have come to the aid of injured or stranded motorists.
(Williams v. State of California [1983] 192Cal.Rptr. 233.)
2580
The People v. McNeil and People v. Bradley cases held that uniformed employees have no due process duty at the scenes of traffic collisions or other crime scenes, to collect and preserve vehicles or other articles which ______.
might prove useful to the defense
*Note- Officers have no “due process” duty at the scenes of traffic collisions or other crime scenes to collect and preserve vehicles or other articles which might prove useful to the defense. (People v.
McNeil [1980] 169Cal.Rptr. 313.) (People v. Bradley [1984] 205Cal.Rptr. 485.)
2581
When a vehicle is impounded as evidence, the local district attorney should be notified of the seizure within ______.
72 hours
*Note - To ensure the county is advised of vehicular evidence seizures that are pending, commanders should establish an agreement to provide a case-by-case notification procedure with the local district attorney within 72 hours of the seizure, not including Saturdays, Sundays, or holidays.
2582
If a vehicle is impounded when it is suspected that illicit narcotics were being transported and it is likely that the vehicle will be forfeited, Section ______ should be used.
22655. 5 VC
* Note - Section 22655.5 VC is the proper impound authority if there is potential that the vehicle or property may be seized pursuant to asset forfeiture procedures.
2583
Section ______ gives CHP employees the authority to investigate accidents and gather evidence for prosecution when personal injury or death has resulted.
2412 VC
*Note - Section 2412 VC - Authority - All officers of the California Highway Patrol (CHP) may investigate accidents resulting in personal injuries or death to gather evidence for the purpose of prosecuting the person or persons guilty of any violation of the law contributing to the cause of such accidents.
2584
The Hitch motion states that once an officer impounds a vehicle or other article as evidence, ______.
the officer must insure adequate preservation measures are taken to preserve it for use by the defense
2585
True/False – Vehicles impounded under the authority of a search warrant may be released when the local Area has finished with its investigation.
False, vehicles impounded under the authority of a search warrant cannot be released except by a court order, per Section 1536 PC. This requirement applies only to those items specifically listed on the search warrant.
2586
True/False – The CHP is responsible for towing and storage fees until the case is filed or rejected and the vehicle is released.
True
2587
Any uniformed employee of the Department may remove a vehicle which is located within a railroad right-of-way if the vehicle parked upon or within ______ feet of the nearest rail.
7½
*A vehicle may be removed if parked beyond 7 ½ feet of the nearest rail, but within the right-of-way f a railroad, street railway, or light rail if signs are posted giving notice that vehicles may be removed.
2588
True/False – The CHP is responsible for towing and storage fees when a vehicle is released by court order.
True
2589
Vehicles illegally parked on private property shall not be stored by uniformed employees of this Department when the private property is a(n) ______, ______, ______, or ______.
garage repair shop parking lot trailer park
2590
Regarding section 23109.2, the impounding agency will be held liable for the towing and storage costs if, prior to the end of the 30-day impoundment, ________.
the citation is dismissed in the interest of justice, criminal charges are not filed because of a lack of evidence, or the charges are otherwise dismissed by the court
*Because of the financial liability imposed upon the impounding agency by Section 23109.2 VC, members of this Department using Section 23109.2 VC as an impound authority shall use this section only if a flagrant violation has occurred and no other impound authority reasonably applies to the situation.
2591
Section 23109.2 may be used to impound a vehicle for 30 days when used in violation of section 23109 VC, however section 22651.6 VC _____ be used first unless circumstances warrant a more severe action.
should
2592
True/False – When written notice is received from ARB to release a vehicle stored under 27159, the CHP is responsible for towing and storage fees.
False, the vehicle owner or the ARB will be responsible for the charges.
2593
True/False - Section 27159 VC allows for the impoundment of a vehicle at the request of the Air Resources Board. A request from the ARB is a requirement to impound a vehicle.
True
*Note - This section is to be used by CHP officers only when requested by California Air Resources Board (ARB) personnel to impound a vehicle previously cited for pollution violations under Health and Safety Code Section 44011.6.
2594
If an out-of-service condition is discovered on the highway and the condition permits restricted movement under VC Section 24004, the driver should be allowed to move the vehicle to a place of repair ______________________.
near the violation
2595
Who can store a commercial vehicle found in an unsafe condition?
An officer who has completed the Department’s Commercial Enforcement Program and is currently involved in the Commercial Enforcement Program.
2596
Uniformed employees may immediately remove any vehicle or structure parked or placed within any state highway for the purpose of _________.
vending (Per 731 Streets and Highways Code)
2597
Reports believed to be filed fraudulently require the officer to ______ and the ______ shall cause an investigation to be initiated to determine the authenticity and validity of the theft report.
advise the individual of the criminal consequences of filing a false report (148.5 PC &
10501 VC) the Area Commander
2598
Departmental personnel receiving a vehicle theft report shall ______.
attempt to determine the validity of the report
2599
Who may decide whether to accept formal vehicle or vehicle component theft reports over the telephone?
The Area Commander
2600
When there is reason to believe there is intent to defraud an insurance company, the ______ shall notify the insurance carrier in writing within ______ days.
Area Commander
30
*Note - A copy of the letter is also forwarded to Division ISU.
2601
True/False - Stolen reports taken over the phone require the officer to obtain copies of the R/O and SVS check printouts, attach them to the report, and retain the forms in the Area file for a period of six months.
True
2602
Local policy for taking reports of vehicle theft shall be approved by __________.
Division Commander
2603
A copy of the vehicle theft report is mailed to the reporting party within ______ days.
10 (The manual does not specify if it is business or calendar)
2604
Although stolen reports can be taken over the phone, an Officer shall respond if which of the following conditions exist?
A crime in progress and/or the suspects are present.
The reporting party is not the R/O or L/O, nor the lessee of the vehicle.
The information provided by the reporting party is unreasonable, able, or suspicious.
*Also:
The reporting party insists that an officer respond to the scene.
Witnesses or physical evidence are reported as being present at the scene.
The reporting party is intoxicated or disoriented.
The reporting party is not at their residence or is stranded without transportation.
The vehicle is embezzled or is associated with another crime.
The theft occurred within an incorporated city’s jurisdiction.
Other complicating factors are present which make it difficult to determine the validity of the stolen vehicle/component report on the telephone.
2605
True/False - If a stolen report is taken in another CHP Area, the Area shall assign an investigator and obtain a case number from local files.
False, the Area shall contact the CHP Area having jurisdiction and obtain a case number for the report.
2606
A stolen vehicle broadcast shall be canceled after ______ hours if a signed stolen report has not been taken.
six
2607
If no method is in place to take a stolen vehicle report over the telephone, a uniformed employee shall respond to the theft location as soon as practicable but in no case later than _____ hours after telephonic notification, to take a report unless the victim agrees to respond to the Area office within ______ hours to file the report.
six six
2608
True/False - If it is determined that the motor vehicle theft occurred in an incorporated city’s jurisdiction, the city’s police department shall be contacted to take the report.
True
2609
If more than one vehicle is stolen in one instance, how many “S” numbers are used?
One “S” number for all vehicles and the same “S” number will be used on all CHP 180s.
2610
When a courtesy stolen vehicle report has been taken, which Area enters the information into the SVS?
The Area having jurisdiction.
2611
True/False - Uniformed employees of this Department should not take reports for stolen boats.
False, but uniformed employees should limit the reports to those boats mounted on trailers and stolen in conjunction with other vehicles.
2612
Records of stolen vehicles shall be keyed to the ___________, and shall be retained for a period of ____ years plus the current year.
vehicle license number and VIN six
2613
True/False - Records for vehicles which have not been recovered shall be kept for 10 years and copies shall NOT be forwarded to Headquarters.
True
2614
Each Area shall provide for ______ contacts with the theft victim to determine if the vehicle has been recovered. These contacts are at ______ days and ______ days after the date of theft.
two
three
60
2615
True/False - A boat entered into the Automated Boat System uses same case number (S#) as the other vehicle (i.e. trailer or camper).
True
2616
True/False - Stolen license plates are given an “S” number.
True
2617
All license plates coming into the possession of CHP offices shall be held for ______ days and then forwarded to ______.
30 (does not specify business or calendar days in the manual) the nearest DMV office
2618
If a recovered vehicle is stored, send the “Notice of Stored Vehicle,” as required per Section 22852, shall be sent within _______, excluding weekends and holidays.
48 hours
| *Refers to p. 2-1
2619
True/False - When an office holding a stolen or embezzled report receives information that the vehicle has been recovered, the notification of recovery shall be shredded as confidential information.
False, when an office holding a stolen or embezzled report receives information that the vehicle has been recovered, the notification of recovery shall be stapled to the original file copy of the stolen or embezzled report and retained in file.
2620
True/False – When a CHP Area receives notification of a vehicle recovery, and the same office took the stolen report, the original notification report shall be stapled to the stolen report and retained in the Area’s files.
True
2621
R/O's, L/O's, or their agents, must request a post storage hearing within ______ days of the date appearing on the Notice of Stored Vehicle.
10 (the manual does not specify calendar or business days)
2622
Post Storage Hearings are informal and shall be conducted to determine ______.
if the vehicle was lawfully impounded
| *Note - Any relevant evidence shall be admitted, and the hearing shall be documented on the CHP 422B form.
2623
When a registered owner requests a post seizure hearing, the hearing Officer may be a _______ or a ________.
Sergeant Lieutenant
2624
A post storage hearing shall be conducted within ______ hours of the request, excluding weekends and holidays.
48
2625
Hearings must be held in a comfortable setting, ___________, and conducted in a professional and business like manner.
free from interruption
2626
True/False - The employee who stored the vehicle must be present.
False - The employee may be present, but it is not required.
2627
At the conclusion of the hearing, a decision must be made and the vehicle owner shall be provided with a copy of ______.
the CHP 422B within a reasonable amount of time.
2628
When the Department is ruled responsible (the storage or impound was unlawful), five complete packages including copies of all reports and invoices shall be forwarded to appropriate field Division for review, and then four complete packages forwarded to ____________________.
Field Services Section
2629
If the storage or impound was found to be lawful, the vehicle owner may file a(n) ______, with the assistance of the Area personnel.
appeal
*Note - In those instances when the storage/impoundment is found to be lawful and a request is made to appeal the decision, Area personnel shall assist the R/O, L/O, or agent by providing the appropriate form.
2630
____________ shall coordinate any response and/or departmental representation for Board of Control hearings.
Field Services Section and Legal Coordination Unit
2631
According to the Vehicle Code, any personal property, in or on vehicles subject to lien sale, _______ a part of the lien and _______ be released to the registered owner or agent.
is not, shall
2632
According to California Vehicle Code 22851, possession of an impounded vehicle is deemed to arise when ______.
the vehicle is removed to a public highway and in transit
2633
If no public facilities are available for the storage of seized vehicular evidence, the Department must _______________.
contract with a private facility for such services
*Note - Both A.G.’s Opinions 84-106 and 85-804 require that if no public facilities are available for seized vehicular evidence, the Department must contract with a private facility for such services.
2634
The Attorney General’s opinion is that the Department is liable for all towing and storage fees when a vehicle is impounded pursuant to a(n) ______.
search warrant
*Note - A.G.’s Opinion 84-106 held that the Department is financially responsible for all costs incurred as a result of towing and storage of vehicles and/or vehicle components seized pursuant to a search warrant.
2635
When criminal charges are filed against an individual by the district attorney, the towing and storage charges are normally the responsibility of ______.
the district attorney
*Note - Attorney General’s Opinions 84-106 and 85-804 address the Department’s financial responsibility for the towing and storage of vehicular evidence. This A.G.’s Opinion also held that the district attorney, of the county where the case is filed, is financially responsible for those charges incurred from the time that charges are filed until the case is adjudicated.
2636
The ______ is responsible for evidence impound fees and charges incurred from the time of filing to the date of adjudication. The CHP has responsibility up to the filing date.
District Attorney
2637
True/False - In counties where the district attorney agrees to assume financial responsibility for all seizures of vehicular evidence, the Commander must have a contract for the storage of seized vehicular evidence only.
False - In those cases where the district attorney or other county representative says that the county will assume financial responsibility for all seizures of vehicular evidence, it is not necessary for the commander to contract for towing and storage of evidence.
2638
If the county refuses to enter into an agreement with the Department for their portion of the storage costs, what should the a Commander do?
In those cases where a district attorney or other county representative refuses to enter into an agreement with the Department regarding paying their portion of the storage cost, commanders shall advise the district attorney, in writing, that the Department will not accept financial responsibility for the county’s portion of the charges. In such cases, the charges for storage for the period of time between filing of the case and adjudication of the case will become a civil matter between the storage facility owner and the county.
2639
Only contract tows should be used to store vehicles as evidence. When a departmental rotational tow is used, the vehicle shall be ____________.
transferred immediately to a contract tow facility and the rotation tow company should be advised to bill the CHP directly for charges accrued
*Note - The rotation tow company, which initially towed and stored the vehicle, shall be advised to bill the Department for the charges accrued prior to the contract tow company taking possession of the vehicle.
2640
In cases where long-term storage of vehicular evidence is probable, commander’s should ___________.
consider alternative means of storage; e.g., public facilities, if possible
2641
Pursuant to Section 22655.5(d) VC, the Department may seek reimbursement for towing and storage cost when _____________.
the perpetrator is convicted of a crime involving the impounded vehicle
*Note - It is Departmental policy to seek reimbursement for costs incurred for vehicles impounded as evidence pursuant to Section 22655.5 VC. Section 22655.5(d) VC provides a means for the recovery of the towing and storage costs when the perpetrator is convicted of a crime.
2642
Areas shall mark the CHP 180 and tow invoices for vehicles impounded as evidence under Section 22655.5 VC by writing object code _________ in red ink on the top right-hand corner of the document.
535. 05
| * Note - This will enable Accounting Section to identify those invoices as evidence-related impounds.
2643
If the perpetrator does not comply with the court order to reimburse the CHP, a ___________ should be issued by the court.
warrant
2644
the Division Commander
*Note - The Area Commander, upon approval from the field Division, may grant a waiver of requirements or may insert an addendum to the TSA.
the Division Commander
*Note - The Area Commander, upon approval from the field Division, may grant a waiver of requirements or may insert an addendum to the TSA.
2645
True/False - When a tow operator locates a vehicle blocking a roadway, that tow operator shall be assigned the call and allowed to store the vehicle.
False, when a tow operator locates a vehicle blocking a roadway, they should be directed to assist with the movement of vehicles to clear the roadway. The tow operator should be directed to leave the vehicle in a safe location. The tow operator shall not normally be allowed to tow a vehicle away from the scene unless he/she is assigned to the call. This service shall be provided at no expense to the vehicle owner.
2646
True/False – An officer may elect to assign vehicles on a first to arrive/first choice basis.
True - Use the discretion to assign vehicles to tow operators when two or more tow operators respond to the same incident. The officer/incident commander may elect to assign vehicles on a first to arrive / first-choice basis.
2647
The enrollment period for the Rotation Tow List may be open continuously throughout the year but must be open at least ______ days a year.
30
2648
Requests for rotation tow application packages within the enrollment period shall be processed as soon as possible but no later than ______ days.
Requests for rotation tow application packages within the enrollment period shall be processed as soon as possible but no later than ______ days.
2649
Applications for the Rotation Tow program submitted after the end of the open enrollment period should be ______.
denied in writing
*Note - Requests submitted following the end of the enrollment period should be denied in writing. The written response should include the reason for denial, as well as information concerning dates of the next enrollment period.
2650
The term of Tow Service Agreement is ______.
one year
| *Note - The term of the TSA should normally be for one year, beginning with a date specified by FSS.
2651
When a waiver of the requirements of the Tow Service Agreement has been granted, it shall be in force for a maximum of ___________.
six months
*Note - This waiver of requirements shall only be valid for six months after an applicant has met all terms of the TSA and is accepted.
2652
The tow operator must ensure all drivers are qualified, competent, and at least ___ years of age for intrastate towing, and ___ years of age for interstate towing.
18, 21
2653
All tow truck drivers and owner/operators must be enrolled in the DMV ______.
"Pull Notice Program"
2654
A tow operator who submits rates with the rotation tow application which are determined to be unreasonable may resubmit the rates _____________.
only once
2655
Submitted Tow Service rates may not be more than ______ higher than the rates for comparable services submitted by other tow companies.
15%
2656
Tow operators are allowed to charge customers from ______ to ______.
portal to portal
| *Note - Tow Rates shall be computed from portal to portal as defined in the Tow Service Agreement.
2657
Total fees charged for an after hours call are limited to ______, and shall be outside must be outside of normal business hours.
no more than 1/2 the hourly rate
| *Note - It shall only be allowed outside posted business hours, after 6 p.m. on business days, weekends and holidays.
2658
The operator may charge up to a ______ minimum per call on a public safety response call.
one hour
*Note - A public safety response call is one that results in the storage of a vehicle at the direction of an officer. A CHP 180 must be completed when this type of service occurs.
2659
The operator may charge up to ______ minimum per call, for base service, (i.e.. Tire change or out of gas).
30 minutes
*Note - A Base Service call is a call that is performed when the vehicle is not towed at the direction of an officer and when the vehicle owner, operator, or agent is present.
2660
The Tow Service Agreement allowed response time is considered ___________.
time of dispatch to time of arrival
| *Note - The Area commander shall determine the maximum allowable response time for a tow operator to respond to a call.
2661
True/False – Tow operators may remove property from vehicles fore safe keeping without the approval of the CHP.
False, operators shall obtain approval from the CHP prior to the removal of any property from a stored or impounded vehicle.
*May be waived if safeguards are in place to assure that property is handled appropriately, and the company has demonstrated that they are trustworthy.
2662
Tow truck inspections must be conducted at least once ______.
annually
| *Note - The inspection is completed on a CHP 234B.
2663
Prior to inspecting a tow operator’s place of business, Areas should ascertain if a motor carrier terminal inspection has been completed within the previous ______ months.
six
*Note - Areas shall query the Management Information System of Terminal Evaluation Records (MISTER) system to ascertain if a motor carrier terminal inspection has been performed in the preceding six months.
2664
If a new truck is added, the truck shall be inspected no later than _________ days following the applicant’s request.
30 calendar
2665
Area commanders or Tow Service records shall be maintained and available for inspection by the CHP for ______ plus the current term of the TSA.
two years
2666
Area commanders or their designees shall hold a meeting at least once __________ with tow operators within their Area.
annually
2667
Written notice shall be provided at least _____ days prior to the meeting (certified mail, return receipt requested).
30
2668
The tow operator shall be notified in writing of the findings (non-criminal investigations) within ______ days following completion of the complaint investigation.
30 calendar
2669
How often are tow complaints/investigations required to be submitted to Division by an Area?
Complaints are to be sent upon completion to Division rotation tow officers which are to be entered into a Microsoft Access database. Division sends info to Statewide coordinator via email within 30 days of the end of each quarter.
2670
All records concerning violations of the TSA are retained for ______ months from the date of the final disposition of the case.
All records concerning violations of the TSA are retained for ______ months from the date of the final disposition of the case.
2671
True/False - The appellant (tow operator) shall be allowed access to a copy of the investigative report.
False, The appellant shall be allowed access to a SANITIZED copy of the investigative report. Additionally, the tow operator shall be charged for the copy in accordance with the policies contained in HPM 11.1, Administrative Procedures Manual, Chapter 4.
2672
True/False - Tow hearing should be tape recorded.
True, the hearing officer should tape record the meeting and upon request, provide a copy of the tape to the tow operator or his/her representative.
2673
If the Area Commanders decision in a tow hearing is appealed to the field division level, the Division Chief or his designee shall notify the appellant of their decision within ______ days of the hearing.
10 business
2674
True/False – Tow hearing appellants may be represented by legal counsel.
True
2675
Area tow operators who appeal a sustained tow complaint, and are dissatisfied with the Area Commander’s decision, may appeal to Division within ______ days.
seven calendar
*Note - If, after attending an Area hearing, the tow operator is dissatisfied with the decision, he/she may request an appeal hearing. To request a field Division hearing, the operator shall submit their request in writing within seven calendar days of the Area’s decision, to the appropriate field Division.
2676
What is the final level of review for Tow Operators concerning written reprimands, suspensions, or terminations?
A hearing by the Division Commander.
2677
Who verifies the R/O and L/O information on pages two and three of the CHP 180?
The appropriate Clerical personnel.
2678
If the vehicle is stolen or embezzled and no R/O or L/O cannot not be determined, _______ is entered into the space for the legal owner.
the reporting party's name
2679
True/False - The Notice of Stored Vehicle may be discarded if the vehicle is an embezzled or stolen vehicle.
True
2680
The _________ is responsible for establishing policy for department drug programs.
Office of the Commissioner
2681
The _________ is the designated office of Primary Interest (OPI) for all drug programs.
Field Services Section
2682
________ must maintain a high level of knowledge in all aspects of the Department’s drug programs. Furthermore, field supervisors must be directly involved in ensuring compliance with applicable laws and policies and ensuring that the proper focus of the program centers on enforcement efforts intended to achieve the Department’s mission of providing for a safe and efficient highway transportation system.
Field supervisors
2683
Which of the following is not one of the intended purposes of the asset forfeiture program?
to gain revenue for the department
2684
Officers who travel out of their assigned Area or Division and make an enforcement stop resulting in seizure of assets should normally obtain an Area felony number from the Area ____________ and should route all reports through that Area.
where the stop was made
2685
A supervisor’s approval (should/shall) be obtained prior to the seizure of any asset.
shall
2686
All Area commanders shall develop a __________ with all allied law enforcement agencies and/or NTFs within their geographical jurisdictions for cases involving asset seizures and drug arrests initiated by CHP personnel not assigned to an NTF.
Memorandum of Understanding (MOU)
2687
11488(b) H&S mandates the issuance of a receipt. The receipt (should/shall) be given to the person who claims ownership or to the individual with standing. If the owner cannot be located, officers shall provide a receipt for the asset to the individual with standing (the person in control of the vehicle/premises when the asset was seized).
shall
2688
The investigating Law Enforcement Agency may hold property for up to ______ days after the seizure to determine whether there is sufficient evidence to seize the property.
15
2689
The CHP 300D shall be attached to every asset forfeiture case and (should/)shall be reviewed and signed by the supervisor (AFC), and signed by the seizing officer’s commander (or acting commander in his/her absence).
shall
2690
The Area AFC is responsible for notifying the Division AFC of all seizures no later than the _________ business day following the seizure.
next
2691
When assets subject to seizure under state or federal asset forfeiture laws have been identified by departmental personnel, a departmental uniformed supervisor (should/shall) be immediately notified and (should/shall) respond to the scene, preferably before assets are seized or removed.
shall, shall
2692
Vehicles containing hidden compartments (may/may not) be seized pursuant to Section 11366.8 HSC and impounded as evidence provided there is a clearly established nexus to illegal narcotics or drugs.
may
| *no limit on minimum value
2693
Generally, vehicles with a minimum equity value (determined by taking the fair market value and subtracting any unpaid liens) of less than _______ should not be seized.
$5,000
2694
What is the legal authority for vehicle seizure to be stated on the CHP 180?
22655.5 VC
2695
It is the Area __________ responsibility to assure that in no case shall the seized currency be released from departmental control until a true and accurate count of the currency is assessed.
Commander's
2696
(T/F) - Personal items such as jewelry, pagers, cellular telephones, and digital scales are elligible for asset forfeiture.
False
2697
True/False - It is the policy of the Department to seize weapons for asset forfeiture.
False
2698
The Area AFC shall forward two copies of the asset forfeiture case file to the Division AFC within _____ days of the seizure/incident.
20
2699
The __________ makes the final determination as to whether participation in a task force is “legitimate.”
Assistant Commissioner, Field
2700
Departmental participation must be _________ by local jurisdictions forming the task force.
requested
2701
Division commanders shall ensure county-sponsored drug task forces have adequate ____________ similar to those developed by DOJ.
supervision, control and audit procedures
2702
If at any time, the officer begins to show signs of alienation from the Department or fails to comply with CHP directives, he/she (should/shall) be removed from drug task force operations. Commanders (should/shall) always retain the right to remove a CHP officer from the task force at any time.
shall, shall
2703
CHP commanders (should/shall) investigate any complaint against a CHP officer. DTF commanders (should/shall) advise CHP commanders of all complaints against a CHP officer.
shall, shall
2704
Generally, complaints generated by task force activities should be investigated by the ________. However, the CHP commander shall be notified of all complaints against a CHP officer assigned to a task force and ensure an investigation is completed.
task force supervisor
2705
All adverse action investigations involving a CHP officer assigned to a drug task force (should/shall) be conducted by a CHP supervisor.
shall
2706
While there is flexibility in the investigation of personnel complaints as to who may conduct the actual investigation, there is ________ with adverse actions.
no such flexibility
2707
Job related injuries or illnesses which occur while the officer is assigned to a task force shall be documented by a _________, regardless of any other documentation by the task force.
CHP supervisor
2708
When fees have been deposited, but the application is incomplete, the proper enforcement should be cite section __________.
4000(a) VC
| *Note - Registration is a two-part process; payment of fees and completion of the application.
2709
Apportioned/Prorate registration enforcement should normally only be taken by _____________.
Officers who are knowledgeable in apportioned/prorate registration requirements
2710
Vehicles should not be stopped solely for failure to display year-round registration indicia until ______________.
the beginning of the second month following the month of expiration
2711
Enforcement of California registration renewal shall commence __________.
the day following expiration
2712
An officer observes a motor vehicle parked in a public parking lot/structure with expired registration. They __________ take appropriate enforcement action.
shall
2713
When a vehicle has been stopped for any other reason, appropriate registration enforcement ______ be taken.
should
2714
Appropriate enforcement action shall be taken when any vehicle is observed ________________.
parked or operated upon any highway or in an off street public parking facility
2715
Enforcement action for expired partial year registration shall be limited to ________.
the use of the dismissible infraction process for the first 20 days following the expiration date of any preceding partial year registration. After the first 20 days, a non-dismissible citation should be issued
2716
True/False - Passenger vehicles offered for rent from an address in this state must be registered in this state.
True, unless the vehicle is rented to be taken out of the state and not returned to this state.
2717
License plates may be mounted ______________.
on any exterior location within the confines of the rear half of the vehicle
2718
True/False - Whenever a disabled vehicle is being towed upon a highway by a tow truck by order of a peace officer, no enforcement action for 4000(a) shall be taken.
True
2719
Special Vehicle Identification documents are valid for ___________.
five years
2720
Cashier's Temporary Receipts and Suspense Receipts are valid for _______.
90 days
2721
When an application for registration is made which requires additional action on the part of the owner before the registration may be completed, the owner may deposit fees with DMV. Although DMV has collected registration fees, the registration process is not complete and permission to operate the vehicle (has/has not) not been granted.
has not
2722
Temporary Operating Permits may be displayed on ____________________.
the rear window or the right front windshield area
2723
To be valid, Temporary Operating Permits must match the _____________.
VIN on the vehicle it is attached to and have supporting documents
2724
Temporary Operating Permits are issued as a substitute for ________.
license plates
2725
Temporary permits for foreign commercial vehicles are valid for ___________.
90 consecutive days
2726
When is vehicle is operated with a Special Moving Permit, it is __________.
exempt from registration provided the operation is in compliance with the permit restrictions
2727
A One-Trip Permit may be used to:
Move a vehicle unlading for one continuous trip or for one round trip, from one place within this state to a place either within or out of this state, or from a place outside of this state to a place within this state.
2728
Except for ______________ plates, license plates remain with the vehicle until lost, stolen, mutilated or surrendered to DMV.
environmental, olympic and apportioned
2729
Passenger car plates may also be issued to _________________.
mobile cranes, forklifts, and commercial vehicles not used for hire by disabled persons
2730
There is __________ for Disabled Veterans license plates.
no fee
2731
True/False - Owners of Environmental and Special Interest license plates may transfer the plates between vehicles and retain them even if they no longer own the vehicle they were last assigned to.
True, however annual fees are due.
2732
In order to participate in the special interest license plate program ________ must be passed and the organization must receive a minimum of __________ applications must be received.
legislation must be passed
| 7,500 application must have been received
2733
Amateur Radio Station Operator License Plates begin with the letter _____.
W
2734
To qualify for the exemption from registration as a nonresident student, a nonresident student must meet the following requirements:
(a) Must be paying nonresident tuition, unless attending a private college or university. (b) Must be under 23 years of age.
(c) Must still be a dependent.
(d) Must be unemployed.
(e) Must have valid registration from their home state.
(f) May possess a California driver license or may operate on a validdriver license from their home state.
2735
Vehicle salespersons may use unregistered vehicles (with special plates) for ______________ or ___________ purposes or in the course of their ___________________.
Demonstration, Testing, employment.
2736
Road patrol officers are responsible for assuring that drivers of commercial vehicles comply with _________.
laws regulating driving and should enforce other laws regulating commercial drivers and vehicles when a violation is observed
2737
A CVIS who fails to pass the commercial enforcement training class with a passing grade should be placed on _________________.
interim reporting
2738
Officers assigned to the commercial program must pass the commercial enforcement training class within ________ months of appointment or be returned to non-commercial duties.
six
2739
True/False - During State or national emergencies, scale facilities may be used for regrouping of military convoys for short periods of time.
True
2740
Instructions given a driver under 24004 CVC are recorded where?
On the enforcement document
2741
Federal vehicles (are/are not) required to comply with licensing, inspection, equipment, shipping documents, and cargo requirements, but (are/are not) required to observe route requirements and general traffic laws.
are not, are
2742
Per 2810 VC, officers may stop any vehicle on a highway which is transporting any timber product, livestock, poultry, farm produce, crude oil, or other petroleum product or inedible kitchen grease to investigate if the driver is _______________ of the load.
in legal possession
2743
True/False - When a load of timber, livestock, poultry, farm produce, crude oil, or other petroleum products is taken into custody pursuant to section 2810(a) VC, the local sheriff shall respond to the arrest site and accept custody of the timber, livestock, poultry, farm produce, crude oil, or other petroleum products.
False, section 2810(b) VC does not require the sheriff to take custody of illegally possess loads at the arrest site. The sheriff and CHP should mutually decide where the illegal load (evidence) will be accepted for safekeeping.
2744
True/False - Probable cause is a prerequisite pursuant to 2810 V.C. for stopping a vehicle for a determination of legal possession of timber, livestock, poultry, farm produce, crude oil, or other petroleum products.
False, probable cause IS NOT a prerequisite.
*Note - Proper documentation of legal possession may include bills of lading, shipping or delivery papers, sales receipts or other evidence.
2745
Whenever a load of timber, livestock, poultry, farm produce, crude oil, or other petroleum products is taken into custody pursuant to section 2810 V.C. it shall be turned over to _____________ where the apprehension was made.
the sheriff of the county
2746
True/False - A transportation tag is not required for trees harvested outside of California.
True, however, bills of lading including points of origin and destination should accompany the load.
2747
Drivers transporting crude oil or petroleum products without proper documentation can be cited for violating section:
34506(b) V.C
2748
Fruits, nuts, or vegetables, which are the products of trees, vines, or plants, may also be seized pursuant to sections 881 Food and Agriculture Code (FAC) and turned over to the county agricultural commissioner if the total weight of the commodity exceeds how many pounds?
200
2749
CVSA decals are valid for ______________.
the month issued plus the following 2 months
2750
Terminal inspection of commercial vehicles and maintenance records is the primary responsibility of ________.
Motor Carrier Safety Specialists
2751
True/False - A "commercial vehicle" includes all motortrucks, truck tractors, and any pickup truck transporting hazardous materials.
False, haz mat must be in reportable quantities.
2752
True/False - Area Commanders may use commercial enforcement officers to certify farm labor vehicles.
True
2753
Commercial supervisors Facility Commanders shall ensure first aid kits are stocked at least once every __________.
30 days
2754
Commercial supervisors will inspect fire extinguishers at least once every __________.
90 days
2755
Platform Scales shall be inspected and sealed at least _______.
once each year
2756
Portable scales shall be inspected and sealed ____________.
once each year
2757
What endorsement does a driver need to operate two tank trailers hauling Haz-Mat?
X endorsement
2758
How old does a driver have to be to haul haz-mat for compensation?
21
2759
How many hours of driving is an intrastate driver allowed before he has to requalify?
12
2760
How many hours of driving is an intrastate driver allowed before he has to requalify?
10
2761
A vehicle or load may not be in excess of 14’ in height. The exception is ________.
Double Decker Bus - 14' 3"
2762
A vehicle shall not be permitted to proceed without a permit if the vehicle or load are more than ___________.
4" in excess of statutory limitation
2763
Any single vehicle, any load, or combination of vehicles and load shall not be permitted to proceed without a permit if the length is _________.
in excess of 12" of statutory limitations
2764
A vehicle shall not be permitted to proceed without a permit if the load is more than _____________.
102" includes tire chains draped on fuel tank
2765
True/False - The load may not extend beyond the outside dimensions of the vehicle.
False
2766
A vehicle shall not be permitted to proceed without a permit if its wheels and tires are in excess of __________.
108" wide does not include load induced bulge
2767
A vehicle shall not be permitted to proceed without a permit if loosely piled AG products are in excess of __________.
120" wide
2768
Required devices, mirrors, lights, etc., may extend beyond the permissible width not more than ______.
10" on each side, for a maximum width of 122"
2769
A single vehicle may not be more than ______ in length.
```
40'
Exceptions: Integral load, Safety bumpers, Cotton module mover (may be 48'), Bus with bicycle carrier (up to 50'), Combination vehicle - 65' 8-6, Truck + 2-28 1/2' trailers - 75' (except farm implements and articulated bus or trolley)
```
2770
The weight variance for True/False - There is an unlimited length allowance on interstate and designated connecting highways for a truck tractor combo with a semi trailer that does not exceed 53’ or double trailers if neither trailer exceeds 28’6"
True
2771
The weight variance for portable scales is _____.
2% of the scale weight
2772
The weight variance for platform scales is ________.
200 lb.
2773
Regarding required publications to be in possession by maintenance station licensees. Is internet access for required publication by these entities acceptable (i.e.: vehicle code, government code).
Yes, access to the internet with updated copy of these publications is acceptable.
2774
Area Commanders are responsible for the following:
1) Enforcement of Haz Mat traffic laws.
2) Enforcement of Departmental regulations.
3) Providing Division MCSU with copies of related enforcement docs.
4) Reviewing explosive routes in the command.
5) Requests from local agencies to close routes for Haz waste transportation.
6) Coordinating with Division for FRO and HMIS training.
7) Providing HMIC personnel at incidents.
8) Notifying County Health / Supervisors of Haz spills.
2775
Investigations concerning transportation and/or disposal of hazardous waste should be handled by __________.
Environmental Crimes Unit
2776
Authority for incident command at haz mat events is found in ____________.
2454 V.C., 8574.17 G.C., California Haz Mat Incident Contingency Plan
2777
When discussing HMIC the terms ________________ are critical.
authority, responsibility and jurisdiction
2778
The Incident Commander’s primary concern is the protection of ______________.
life, environment and property
2779
A truck that began leaking on the freeway but stops and spills in the city is the _____ overall responsibility of the CHP.
initial
2780
Off highway HMIC is "jurisdiction specific" per the CHMICP. Agency jurisdiction is found in what code?
Penal Code 830-830.65
2781
The most important aspect in determining HMIC jurisdiction is the _____ location of the spill.
initial
2782
Section ____ V.C. names the CHP as the information, assistance and notification coordinator for all haz mat incidents on highways within California.
2453
2783
The five levels of HMIC are:
1) FRA – first responder awareness
2) FRO – first responder operational
3) Technician
4) Specialist
5) Incident Commander
2784
Section ______ V.C. gives the CHP Incident Command authority for on highway haz mat incidents where CHP has primary traffic investigative authority.
2454
2785
"On highway incident command authority is the responsibility of the law enforcement agency with traffic investigative authority" This quote is from _________.
8574.17 G.C.
2786
___________ requires "designated employees" to report haz mat releases or threatened releases to the County Health and Board of Supervisors.
Proposition 65 requires
2787
Notification per Prop. 65 must be made within ____ hours of the employee’s knowledge of the incident.
72
2788
Sections 8 CCR and 29 CFR require two plans at a haz mat incident. The plans are:
1) Incident Action Plan (IAP)
| 2) Site Safety Plan (SSP)
2789
Which plan is required to be written for all incidents regardless of size?
Site Safety Plan (SSP)
2790
Which plan does not need to be in written form at minor incidents?
Incident Action Plan (IAP)
2791
A suspected haz mat incident, later determined to be non-hazardous, shall not be reported if it was determined to be non-hazardous ______________. (when?)
before any mitigation action is taken
2792
The original 407E should be submitted to CVS within ___ days.
30
2793
The CHP 407E shall be submitted to Division within ____ business days following the conclusion of the incident.
10
2794
(T/F) - The CHP is responsible for ensuring the safe transportation of explosive and radioactive materials.
True
2795
True/False - Radiation incidents occurring on highways are considered hazardous materials incidents. When occurring on CHP jurisdiction, the Department of Energy will assume Incident Command System (ICS).
False, CHP will assume ICS.
2796
What vehicle code section establishes authority for abandoned vehicle abatement?
2710 V.C.
2797
True/False - Guidelines for the AVA plan are provided by the DMV.
False, guidelines are provided by the CHP.
2798
True/False -A vehicle that is parked upon the highway and is missing any part that allows it to be operated safely upon a highway may be removed immediately as a hazard to public safety and qualifies as an abandoned vehicle for the purposes of the Abandoned Vehicle Abatement Program.
True, This is a violation of section 22669(d)VC.
2799
A vehicle removed in violation of 22651 (k) V.C. shall/shall not qualify as an abated vehicle pursuant to the AVA Program.
shall not
2800
The Authority of an AVA program shall conduct audits ____________.
annually
2801
Audit records shall be retained by the Authority, jurisdiction, auditor controller, certified public accountant, or public accountant for a period of __________.
current plus four years
2802
True/False - A vehicle which has been wrecked in a traffic accident and removed to a storage facility, but has not been claimed by its owner is considered abandoned for the purposes of the AVA program?
False
2803
An Area command may enter into a contractual agreement with the local Abandoned Vehicle Abatement Service Authority to conduct operations on ____________ within CHP jurisdiction.??
freeways and public highways within CHP jurisdiction (Moved from the Vehicle Procedures Manual)
2804
Departmental employees shall not remove abandoned vehicles from ____________.
private property, from public property other than a highway, or from jurisdictions covered by other agencies
(Moved from the Vehicle Procedures Manual)
2805
True/ False – Departmental Rotation Tow services shall not be used to remove vehicles under the AVA Program.
True, utilize tows that are under contract with the local AVA Service Authority. (Moved from the Vehicle Procedures Manual)
2806
True/False - The Department may seek reimbursement for services rendered under the AVA Program.
False, the department will not assume responsibility for any portion of the reimbursement process.
(Moved from the Vehicle Procedures Manual)
2807
True/False – Area Commanders shall, upon proper request, conduct storage hearings for vehicles removed under the local AVA service Authority.
False, these hearings are the responsibility of the local entities. (Moved from the Vehicle Procedures Manual)
2808
When removing an abandoned vehicle valued at $300 or less, the employee shall utilize Section ___________ VC as the removal authority.
22669(a) or (d)
| Moved from the Vehicle Procedures Manual
2809
True/False - A vehicle which is stored pursuant to Section 22651(k) VC solely based upon the 72-hour violation is not generally considered an abandoned vehicle.
True
| Moved from the Vehicle Procedures Manual
2810
Internal public affairs information includes, but is not limited to, the following activities:
(a) Dissemination of information on internal activities.
(b) Image building/employee support.
(c) Employee recognition.
2811
External public affairs information deals with relations and image. The following are some of the external public affairs activities:
(a) News media relations.
(b) Public relations, information and support.
(c) Traffic safety and education.
(d) Goal attainment.
(e) Legislative information and support.
(f) Departmental image enhancement.
2812
What is the purpose of public affairs?
To disseminate external and internal information concerning the activities of the Department and its employees.
2813
The responsibility for pursuing an effective public affairs program is vested with __________.
all employees
2814
__________ are accountable for the effectiveness of Command public affairs programs.
Commanders
2815
Public affairs activities are actively directed toward __________.
achieving Departmental goals and objectives
2816
What is the objective of public affairs?
To generate positive external and internal support for the goals and objectives of the Department through information dissemination.
2817
The Office of Public Affairs reports to __________.
the Commissioner
2818
CHP press cards are valid for __________.
three years
2819
Area/Section PAOs shall report to __________.
the Area/Section Commander
2820
True/False - Members of media may not be excluded from crime/accident scenes.
True, at a crime scene, restrict media only as long as there is clear interference and provide a press area with maximum access possible under the circumstances.
2821
Names of persons killed in accidents/incidents shall not be given to the media at the scene without the approval of __________.
the coroner
2822
CHP may operate as an __________ and deny access to a commercial plane crash even though the crash may not have resulted from an obvious criminal act.
"agent of the investigator"
2823
Public Affairs Officer activity is summarized/recorded on CHP form 320 on a __________ basis.
daily
2824
"Key Contacts" shall be made on quarterly basis. Area PAOs record the following information given to them by _________ on the CHP 320 - Side 2.
their commanders
2825
True/False - Holiday fatality reporting is required of an Area even if no fatalities occurred during the reporting period.
True, negative reports are required.
2826
Holiday reports are compiled by __________ based upon information provided by the Areas. These reports are then forwarded to OPA.
Divisions
2827
True/False - Holiday fatality reports include all T/C deaths that occur during holiday periods.
False, don't include deaths on private property.
2828
Elementary School programs emphasize __________.
pedestrian and bicycle safety
2829
Junior High School programs are directed toward ______________.
traffic safety and law enforcement
2830
High School program address __________.
knowledge of traffic laws, driver responsibility, respect for traffic law enforcement
2831
Releasable criminal/records information from CHP files includes:
(1) Arrestee's full name (except juveniles).
(2) Arrestee's complete address except as otherwise exempted by statute
(3) Victim's name and address (except certain crimes)
(4) Arrestee's occupation, physical description, and date of birth.
(5) Time, date, location, and circumstances of arrest.
(6) Pursuit or use of weapons by officers.
(7) Name of arresting/investigating officer and length of investigation, unless disclosure would jeopardize personal safety.
(8) Limited description of evidence seized (i.e. handgun, not Smith & Wesson .38 caliber revolver).
(9) Time, date, and location of booking.
(10) All charges, including warrants and probation or parole holds.
(11) Amount of bail, court schedule, time, and manner of release.
2832
Criminal history records consisting of photographs can only be released to media if __________.
to be used to assist in apprehension of criminal
2833
The news media (can/cannot) be denied access to information already in public domain.
cannot
2834
Sensitive issues, such as ____________, should be referred to HQ OPA for direction. The Area commander should be responsible for releasing information regarding CHP personnel, or give the Public Affairs Officer specific direction whether or not to disseminate information regarding pursuits, shootings, etc.
officer involved crimes
*The POBR states that an officer under investigation shall not be required to speak with the media without the officer’s consent, the officer’s picture shall not be given to the media, and the officer’s home address shall not be given to the media without the officer’s consent.
2835
In developing a specific public affairs program PAOs, are fulfilling the Department's three "E" concept which stands for includes ____________________.
enforcement, engineering, and education
2836
The Supreme Court has ruled that the News Media enjoys _________ right of on-scene access than does the general public.
no greater.
2837
__________ allows the media to enter scenes of disaster, riot or civil disturbance.
California Penal Code Section 409.5
2838
The policy in this manual has been developed to limit the ___________ while providing adequate security and transportation assistance to visiting dignitaries.
expenditure of resources
2839
Upon request, Departmental resources will be used for _______________.
transportation, motorcade, protection and communication
2840
PSD has been identified as requiring heavy ________________.
financial commitment of fiscal resources
2841
True/False - The Department should provide assistance including transportation, escort and protective security within its area of responsibility and consistent with available resources for national, State, and foreign government officials and dignitaries.
False, shall provide assistance.
2842
True/False - Transportation includes protectees, their families, staff and all of the personal property they own.
False, we will only transport property in the immediate possession of the protectee being transported.
2843
The Department has identified three groups that need protection ____________.
State Officials National Officials
Foreign Officials
Dignitaries
2844
Division Commanders or Asst. Chiefs should review all requests for PSD and ensure the following:
There is a verifiable threat level.
The detail is within the area of responsibility.
Regular shift time is used and overtime is kept to a minimum.
2845
A PSD coordinator should normally be a _________.
Lieutenant
2846
Two minimum requirements for PSD assignments:
Satisfactory performance in all critical tasks.
| No more than one preventable accident/injury during the past 12 months.
2847
True/False - PSD reports are to be submitted to Headquarters.
False, Submitted to the Division Commander.
2848
Quarterly reports due from Division go to __________ by the last day of the month following end of the quarter.
A.C. Field
2849
The 4 basic levels of PSD movements are:
1) Formal Motorcade (i.e.. President, Vice-President or a political party nominee).
2) Semiformal Motorcade (i.e.. First Lady, Vice-President’s wife, presidential candidates).
3) Informal Motorcade (i.e.. Lowest level of motorcade).
4) Vehicle escort with Protectee (i.e.. 1 CHP vehicle escorting 1 non-departmental vehicle containing a Protectee).
2850
________ may use utilize their aircraft resources for formal motorcades.
Division Commanders
2851
The lowest level of motorcade operations available for dignitary protection is _______.
Informal Motorcade
2852
True/False - A vehicle escort is considered a motorcade.
False
2853
The first priority in a emergency response for an Escort Unit is _________.
ensure that he/she is clear of the secure package
2854
The second priority in a emergency response for an Escort Unit is _________.
ID the threat
2855
The third priority in a emergency response for an Escort Unit is _________.
secure a perimeter around the location of the attack
2856
The fourth priority in a emergency response for an Escort Unit is _________.
provide care for the injured
2857
The fifth priority in a emergency response for an Escort Unit is _________.
proceed to a safe house or hospital and provide site security
2858
True/False - PSD members SHALL attend in-service semiannually for 8 hours.
False, May be waived by Division if the member was utilized on three or more details during the last 12 months.
2859
PSD members shall have a minimum of _____ hours of training.
16
2860
PSO members shall have a minimum of _____ hours of training.
40
2861
True/False - Request for PSD for the Governor, Lt. Governor requires prior approval of the Office of the Commissioner.
False, Prior approval is not required. All other details require approval (except when a contract exists).
2862
Radar may be used to enhance speed enforcement if speed or accident problems have not been adequately controlled by _______.
conventional techniques
2863
(T/F) - Radar and lidar is approved for use in speed enforcement on all freeways statewide.
True
2864
The Department _________ deploy ______ enter into an agreement to use speed detection devices where photographic or video images are used as evidence and a notice to appear is not issued to the driver at the time of the violation.
will not nor
2865
40802 VC requires that a traffic engineering study be conducted on roads with radar enforcement unless __________.
local or statutory speed limits apply (i.e. school zone)
2866
Local streets and roads do not require a engineering traffic survey if they are defined by the latest usage and federal-aid system map submitted to the Federal Highway Administration or they meet all three of the following:
Roadway width of not more than 40 feet.
Not more than one-half mile of uninterrupted length.
Not more than one traffic lane in each direction.
2867
Traffic and engineering surveys must be updated at least every:
5 years.
They may extend to 7 years with officer qualification.
Ten years with an engineers determination that there are no significant changes.
2868
(T/F) A 30 day conditioning period is required for new/expanded radar programs.
False, no longer required.
2869
Radar units used by the Department must meet __________ specifications.
NHTSA
2870
The performance of each radar must be checked once each _______ months by an approved IACP laboratory unless service or maintenance is performed on the unit during that period.
30
2871
Signing of roadways on which radar will be used is required by ____ and is effected by _____.
the Department County/Caltrans
2872
_______ is the office of primary interest for Departmental radar programs.
Research and Planning Section
2873
Area Commander responsibilities:
- - Respond to public inquiries
- - Designate a radar coordinator
- - Ensure peogram is managed pursuant to statutory and departmental requirements -- Maintaining liasion with county
- - Ensure county roads departments have fulfilled their program responsibilities
- - Coordinating a public information campaign
- - Provide necessary training and resource materials
2874
The county will normally provide the primary ________ for ETS on county roadways required by Section 40802 VC, and the signing of county roads to advise that speed limits are enforced through the use of radar.
funding
2875
The advantages of radar enforcement are ________.
increased safety, effectiveness, deterrence and accuracy
2876
When operated correctly, radar measurements are accurate within ___________ MPH.
+ / - 1 (one)
2877
The following can absorb or distort radar signals:
```
Heavy landscaping.
Radio transmitters.
Heavy traffic.
A/C fan in the patrol car.
*Some radar detectors REMOVED
```
2878
Area radar coordinators ________ provide a radar enforcement guide to radar operators in their Area.
shall
2879
Roadways appropriate for radar enforcement may be added to approved Area wide radar programs by the _________________.
Area Commander
2880
The Departmental radar trailers are also know as _____________.
Special Traffic Education Radar Trailers (SPECTER)
2881
The SPECTER units are lightweight units capable of being moved to any location via a patrol car and set up by ___________.
one officer
2882
Areas requesting to deploy Division-controlled SPECTER devices must coordinate with their ______________ to schedule or reserve the radar trailer.
Division Coordinator
2883
All radar operators shall have ____ hours of Academy supervised training and 30 hours of practical field training with radar, including 100 speed and distance estimations.
24
2884
Officers assigned to a radar enforcement program must be certified ___________.
each calendar year
2885
Officers who have been previously certified by the Department as radar operators or who have not maintained their skills (e.g., transfer) through annual recertification, may recertify for operation of traffic radar if the following is accomplished:
(1) Complete a written test available from the Academy for recertification purposes. The operator must attain a minimum 80 percent score.
(2) Complete a CHP 99A with at least 80 percent accuracy.
2886
Units must be calibrated __________.
at least at the start and end of each shift
2887
Radar confirms _____________ it is not the sole basis for enforcement action.
an officer's visual estimate of speed
Officer shall place a notation in the violation portion of the CHP 215 to indicate that radar was used to verify a speeding violation. The notation shall include:
The counting unit serial number.
The CHP vehicle license number (not for stationary mode).
2888
Radar history files will be maintained by ______ each radar unit shall be available for court testimony.
Area and Division radar coordinators
2889
What California Codes prohibit the alteration or the destruction of any issued CHP 215?
The VC, PC and the Government Code.
2890
Violations committed by children under 14 years of age as pedestrians or riding bicycles (may/may not) be recorded on the CHP 215.
may
2891
Commanders are required to document local procedures in the Area’s SOP when the DA or Courts do not comply with the Departmental policies for the use of the CHP 215 _________.
as a complaint
2892
Whenever any arrest or investigation is turned over to an allied agency for completion, one of the following methods of documentation shall be prepared:
A CHP 215 for statistical information with 110 in the special box.
Areas that do not use a CHP 215 for statistical information shall prepare a CHP 216 or 202 with 110 clearly visible on the top of the form.
2893
True/False - When subsequent investigation reveals that an individual has committed a public offense unknown to the officer at the time the CHP 215 was issued, a complaint may be filed, and an additional CHP 215 prepared.
True
2894
True/False - A CHP 215 may be issued in combination with a CHP 281, Notice to Correct Violation, on a single enforcement stop if conditions warrant.
True
2895
A CHP 215 shall only be prepared using black ink or pencil?
False, pencil or black/blue pen
2896
A second CHP 215 (may/shall not) be issued in lieu of a CHP 215S.
shall not
2897
When completing a CHP 215 pursuant to a warrant arrest and there is more than one warrant issued for the violator, but the warrants are from different counties, the officer should:
Complete a separate CHP 215 for each county that issued a warrant. If the warrants are for the same county use one CHP 215.
2898
On the CHP 215, 215S or 281, the traffic box shall be marked if ________ cited are Vehicle Code violations. Mark the Non-traffic box if any non-traffic violations are cited.
all violations
2899
When issuing more than one enforcement document on a single enforcement stop, the time ______ in the "time" field at the top of the documents.
must be at least one minute apart
2900
When a CHP 215 is issued as a result of a collision investigation, enter the date ___________ in the "date" field at the top of the 215. Enter the date on which the 215 was prepared on the officer’s s signature line.
of the collision
2901
In the drivers license information box of the CHP 215, for a driver who is not licensed enter:
1) UNL for unlicensed.
2) SUS for Suspended.
3) EXP for Expired.
4) NIP for Not in possession.
2902
If an officer is uncertain of a violators ethnicity and the violator declines the requested information, the ethnicity box shall be marked _________.
other
2903
For the Financial Responsibility box on the CHP 215, if the driver is being issued a CHP 215 for a stopping, standing, or parking, is being issued the CHP 215 for other than a Vehicle Code violation, or when the employer is being issued a CHP 215 for 16028(a), the box shall be marked ______.
N/A
2904
When a vehicle is stopped for registration violation 4000(a) VC, the officer has the option to issue either a CHP 215 or CHP 281?
False, shall be on a CHP 215
2905
For correctable violations, if the violator does not agree or cannot promptly correct the violation, or there is evidence of fraud or intentional violation, or it presents an immediate hazard, the 40610(B) box should be marked _______.
No
2906
When a CHP 215 is issued for 24002 (unsafe vehicle), and ____________, the officer shall identify the specific cause for the violation.
it is marked as correctable
2907
When a person is arrested for 647(F), a notation of "A" for alcohol or "D" for drugs must be entered in the body of the CHP 215. If the person is under a combination of the two, _______ shall be entered.
"D"
If more space is needed to record all the necessary information for vehicle combinations, the heading “Additional Vehicle Information” may be entered after the last violation charged. The information shall be entered on the line(s) following the heading.
2908
Whenever a person is arrested for 647(f) PC, a notation _______ must be made in the body of the CHP 215, Notice to Appear, indicating whether the intoxication was due to alcohol or drugs.
("A" or "D")
| *If the intoxication is due to a combination of alcohol and drugs enter "D" in the body of the citation
2909
When issuing a CHP 215, enter the name of the applicable city or county where the CHP 215 was prepared. If prepared in a different political subdivision than where the violation occurred:
Enter the city/county where the citation was prepared, and enter and circle the city/county where the violation occurred.
2910
What can be in the signature box:
```
Signature
“Owners Responsibility”
“In Custody”
“Parental Notification”
"Complaint to be Filed”
“Refused”
“Statistical Purposes Only”
```
2911
Officers may request violators to provide a fingerprint for identification when they reasonably expect a of identity might arise. The violator’s right thumbprint should be placed on the reverse side of the court’s copy of the CHP 215 prior to have the violator sign the citation. The preferred order for obtaining a fingerprint from a person missing a right thumb is:
Left thumb, right index finger, left index finger
2912
An officer temporarily assigned to another Area should use the CHP 215’s issued by the ________ for the duration of the assignment.
temporary Area
2913
Officers (should not/shall not) begin to issue forms from a new CHP 215 book until all forms from their previous book have been issued.
should not
2914
When a CHP 202 or a CHP 216 is not prepared, the officer (should/shall) make notes on the officer’s (green) copy of the citation.
shall
2915
The retention period for the officer’s (green) copy of the CHP 215 is:
One year from the completion of the CHP 215 book. Six months for the office copy (white).
2916
The violator copy of the CHP 215 delivered to the violator, ___________ of whether or not the signature is obtained.
regardless
2917
During the retention period, the officer’s copies of the CHP 215s _______.
shall be available in the officer’s assigned Area office for supervisory review
2918
A CHP 215 shall be considered "issued" when the alleged violator _______.
has signed and received a copy of the citation or a copy has been mailed to the individual
2919
Who is authorized to void a CHP 215?
Area Commander or the Commanders designee.
2920
When Voiding CHP 215’s, the officer shall enter _____________.
their name, ID and permanent Area in the appropriate locations on the voided citations
2921
If an officer is permanently transferred or obtains CHP 215s from any other than his/her assigned location and the officer does not complete the issuance of all the citations from the book within the Area from which the book was obtained, the officer is to _________________.
void all unused citations by entering his/her name and ID number in the “issuing officer” box and permanent Area in the “Area” box. The employee shall void the remaining citations by completing section B, Voiding, of the CHP 215A. The Area Commander of the Area where the book of citations was obtained shall sign the CHP 215A in section B. The citation Clerk of the Area from which the forms were obtained is to file all remaining unused forms, and file all CHP 215s in that series along with the CHP 215A in sequential order
2922
True/False - Upon the issuance of a CHP 215, corrections of a minor nature are allowed to be made to the document (e.g., birth date correction, day of week circle)
False, any change must be made through the use of a CHP 411.
2923
If the violator refuses to sign the CHP 215S, but has signed the parent document, ___________.
write refused in the signature box and release the violator *Note - 40302 does not apply to the 215S
2924
True/False - A CHP 215S may be used in conjunction with a CHP 281.
True, the CHP 215S is no longer titled, "Continuation of Notice to Appear." Now it is called a "Continuation Document" and can be used with a CHP 215, CHP 215X, and CHP 281.
2925
If the violator refuses to sign the CHP 281 what do you do?
40302 does not apply to a CHP 281. However it is a disqualified for dismissal of the violation under 40610 (B). In this instance, the use of a CHP 215 should be considered.
2926
Upon the issuance of a CHP 281 the violator shall be advised that it is his/her obligation to deliver proof of correction (by mail or in person) to the Area office of issuance within _____ days. A CHP 215 shall be filed as a complaint if the commander chooses to process the document.
30
2927
True/False - On the CHP 267 the type of violation shall be indicated on the title by striking out the “Parking” or “Registration,” whichever does not apply. If a violation of both types is indicated, no strikeout is necessary.
True
2928
True/False - All misdemeanor parking violations (e.g., Section 22513 VC - unlawful solicitation of tow services) shall be written on a CHP 215 instead of CHP 267.
True, all misdemeanor parking violations shall be on a CHP 215, Misdemeanor parking violations are not civil per 40200(a)VC.
2929
The commander has ______ to cancel an improperly prepared CHP 267 that has been submitted to the processing agency.
21 days
2930
True/False - If an officer wishes to void a citation (CHP 267), with the commanders approval, and the document has not been issued. The officer writes a memo, completes the name, ID and Area on the CHP 267, the commander marks it void and writes the reason to void in the body, and the commander signs below the reason.
True
2931
If the court requests officer’s attendance in court for a CHP 267, the Department (will/will not) seek reimbursement. If the violator requests officer attendance, procedures for civil proceedings are to be followed.
will not
2932
True/False - If a Universal Countywide Parking Citation is developed and agreed upon by mutual agreement, officers shall complete the UCPC as prescribed by the county.
True
2933
True/False - The CHP 422 has been revised and may be used as a Highway Damage Report in place of the HM 60, Highway Damage Memo.
True, the CHP 422 is now titled Vehicle Check/Parking Warning/Highway Damage Report
2934
A CHP 422 should not be placed on the ______________?
Painted surface, front windshield, and side view mirrors. (Pg.16.2.A.4)
2935
The upper portion of the CHP 422 shall be assigned for follow-up within _____ days?
Five
2936
The CHP is required to submit to the ___________ on a ____________ basis uniform crime report data for any reportable incident investigated by the CHP when the incident involves one of the eight specified crime categories.
California Department of Justice, Monthly
2937
When shall the Uniform Crime Report data be submitted to the Office of Research and Planning?
To arrive no later than the 5th working day of the month following the reporting period.
2938
What are the eight crime categories, in hierarchal order, that are required to be reported for Uniform Crime Reporting purposes?
(1) Homicide, (2) Forcible Rape, (3) Robbery, (4) Assault, (5) Burglary, (6) Larceny-Theft,
(7) Motor Vehicle Theft, (8) Arson
2939
Which two related incidents MUST be reported, even when the crime itself is not a Uniform Crime Reportable offense?
(1) Domestic Violence Incidents, (2) Incidents of Hate Crime
2940
When is the “This is a clearance only” box checked on the Uniform Crime Report?
Whenever your command arrested an individual responsible for a UCR crime previously reported by your command. (Not to be used if an arrest is made at the same time the crime was committed.) In addition, the box is also checked whenever a vehicle previously reported stolen by your command is recovered.
2941
(T/F) - The UCR classification “Motor Vehicle Theft” used in identifying the crime being reported, cleared or declared unfounded, includes carjacking (215 CPC).
False
2942
For UCR purposes, when is arson actually reported?
Only when an investigation for arson determines that arson did occur.
2943
The CHP UCR information is combined with that of other California law enforcement agencies by the DOJ and forwarded to the __________ for what purpose?
Federal Bureau of Investigation, The FBI’s use in the federal UCR program
2944
When the fair market value for property is recorded, the fair market value must be at least $__________ except for stolen credit cards, license plates, checks or airline tickets which are reported with a value of $______________.
One Dollar, Zero
2945
When a request for Mutual Aid has not been made, there are only two conditions which allow CHP officers to provide assistance to city law enforcement agencies. What are the two conditions?
Officer needs assistance (11-99), and emergency traffic assistance.
2946
Departmental aid to Law enforcement agencies within the state may include:
Temporary emergency assistance.
Mutual aid operations.
Result of police labor controversy.
2947
Organizational framework for mutual aid contains four levels:
Local Areas = Cities
Operational Areas = Counties
Regions = 2 or more counties State
2948
The California Emergency Management Agency (Cal EMA) divides the state into _____ mutual aid regions.
seven
2949
Local police must request mutual aid from the ________________.
Operational Area Coordinator (county sheriff).
2950
Requests for unarmed assistance to custodial facilities will be ________.
declined
* (1) Missions within the confines of custodial facilities shall be limited to the prevention of death or injury to any person, including inmates or wards, as deemed appropriate and necessary by the ranking CHP officer at the scene.
(2) The Department will also respond to "officer needs assistance" (11-99 or 999) type requests whenever the lives or safety of any custodial personnel are in immediate jeopardy, regardless of the peace officer status of the person needing assistance.
2951
CHP can be used at any response level, and may be used to _____________.
assist local law enforcement to protect firefighters or other appropriate missions
2952
(T/F) - Prior to receiving approval from the Commissioner for mutual aid, Area commanders may authorize the mobilization of no more than 50% of Area personnel.
False. The Area commander may mobilize as many personnel as deemed necessary.
2953
Request for mutual aid must be approved at what level?
Commissioner or his designee.
2954
Personnel committed to the support of local authorities (should/shall) remain under the control of the CHP.
shall
2955
What level personnel shall respond to “officer need assistance?”
Uniformed personnel (Senior field supervisor shall proceed to scene and assess and direct units which have responded).
2956
A mutual aid request from the “operational area coordinator” or “regional coordinator” first goes to the appropriate _____________ and then to the ______________.
Area Commander Commissioner
2957
Who deploys personnel to “emergency traffic assistance?”
Senior ranking officer on duty, until relieved by a CHP officer of higher rank.
2958
The chief law enforcement official of a city affected by a law enforcement job action (may/may not) make a request for CHP assistance to an Area Commander.
may
2959
Who is the primary back-up for non-traffic matters in a city police job action?
The County Sheriff
2960
The Department (does/does not) provide mutual aid to national parks under exclusive jurisdiction.
does not
2961
Cal EMA maintains _____ mobile communications support vans for loan to law enforcement.
four
| *Note - The vans are stationed in Alameda, Shasta, Fresno, and Stanislaus Counties.
2962
If it is determined that departmental assistance is necessary, A MOU must be signed by the ______________.
Department and the requesting agency, with concurrence by the applicable county sheriff.
2963
Local requests for supplemental law enforcement should first be made to _______________.
Operational Area Coordinator (county sheriff)
2964
In regards to police protection California cities are classified what two ways:
“Charter” (operates under charter) or “general law cities” (chief of police or city manager appoints officers).
2965
If requested by a newly incorporated city the CHP will provide traffic law enforcement without reimbursement for:
The remainder of the fiscal year of incorporation or until establishment of a police department, which ever occurs first.
2966
Upon learning of proposed incorporation, or annexation the Area Commander shall ___________.
notify ACF through channels by memorandum.
2967
Area must provide Division within ____ days an assessment of the request for services in an incorporated city, and an implementation plan.
30
2968
What V.C. section provides the Department primary jurisdiction on toll roads, freeways?
2400(d)
2969
Are there exceptions to 2400 (d)?
Cities with populations over 2,000,000 (e.g. Los Angeles) or area over 300 Sq. (e.g. San Diego) miles.
2970
What states participate in the interstate mutual assistance agreement?
California, Oregon, Nevada and Arizona.
2971
IMAAs convey limited peace officer authority under what two conditions?
In response to a request for services by either state, or Circumstances requiring “immediate law enforcement or emergency action.”
2972
Assistance rendered shall be limited to that area within ___ statute miles of the common border.
50
2973
If an assisting officer takes a person into custody they (should/shall) relinquish custody to an officer of the requesting state.
shall
2974
Who maintains exclusive control over assisting forces?
Commanding officer for assisting forces.
2975
Who exercises general control in directing assisting officers to locations?
Requesting state.
2976
Interstate mutual assistance agreements are normally negotiated on ________ basis. (how often)
biennial (every two years)
2977
The bordering state’s Fresh Pursuit Act statutorily extend peace officer authority to officers from other states when in “fresh pursuit” of ____________.
fleeing felons
2978
Fresh Pursuit Acts and Interstate Mutual Assistance Agreements (IMAA).
Fresh Pursuit Acts and Interstate Mutual Assistance Agreements (IMAA).
2979
IMAAs convey limited peace officer authority under what two conditions?
Response to a request for services and Circumstances requiring “immediate law enforcement or emergency action.”
2980
The state in which the suspect is physically located at the time of arrest is known as the ______.
asylum state
2981
The Fresh Pursuit Acts apply to felonies only; however, the Interstate Mutual Assistance agreements permit officers to act within _____ statute miles of the state border where immediate law enforcement action is required or requested.
50
2982
Local factors significantly impact issues pertaining to interstate incidents. Therefore, each Area bordering another state shall develop a local operational plan which addresses __________.
local needs and procedures
2983
IWhere is the authority for pursuing DUI and other misdemeanor drivers found?
IMAAs (not fresh pursuit), 50 miles
2984
Can a pursued DUI suspect be tried in more than one state?
No
2985
Fresh pursuit authority applies to ____________ investigations.
felony
2986
Is there authority for out-of-state misdemeanor follow-up?
Yes, IMAA.
2987
True/False - The Fresh Pursuit Act mandates officers take the accused (felony) before a local magistrate to determine the lawfulness of the arrest.
True
2988
True/False - The IMAA requires an officer to relinquish custody on misdemeanor arrests to a local agency at the earliest convenience.
True
2989
There are four types of peace officer authority on Federal Land - ranging from no authority to complete authority.
1) Exclusive Federal Jurisdiction: State has no powers to enforce federal, state, or local laws
2) Partial Federal Jurisdiction: Fed handle criminal & civil - State has a few, limited powers but not law enforcement.
3) Concurrent Federal Jurisdiction: Both have power. State furnishes normal services except for citations of federal civil law.
4) Proprietary Federal Jurisdiction: Feds have interest but no power. State furnishes normal services.
2990
National forests fall within the classification of _________________ jurisdiction.
concurrent
2991
Federally recognized Indian reservations are to be considered __________ jurisdictions with respect to criminal matters.
Proprietary
*Note - Exceptions to above include: No Fish and Game Code enforced against native Indians on reservations and no civil code enforcement.
2992
If mutual aid were requested to exclusive or proprietary jurisdictions, affected officers would have to be ___________ before beginning.
Deputized as U.S. Marshals
2993
Area commands will neither routinely patrol nor take any enforcement action on any highway through ______ jurisdiction property.
Exclusive or Partial
2994
Area commands will routinely patrol and take any enforcement action on all highways through ______ jurisdiction property. (beats 1-699, except deferred highways)
Concurrent
2995
Area commands will routinely patrol and take any enforcement action on any highway, except those where traffic law enforcement is provided by the Federal Government, through ______ jurisdiction property. (i.e., Indian reservation, a proprietary jurisdiction military base or a proprietary jurisdiction national monument)
Proprietary
2996
United States Department of Energy (DOE), National Nuclear Security Administration (NNSA), armed convoys transporting nuclear materials (are/are not) exempt from enforcement action.
are not
2997
United States Department of Energy (DOE), National Nuclear Security Administration (NNSA), escort vehicles display what kind of license plates?
U.S. government plates.
2998
True/False – All incidents involving a NNSA convoy shall be reported by Memo to the area Commander.
True
2999
How do CHP personnel responding to emergency receive countersign info issued by TECC.?
CHP dispatch will advise sign.
3000
If you were contacted by a unit with the call signs 5417A or 5417B, who would they be?
Defense Courier Service (DCS).
3001
You observe a vehicle with 2’ by 1’, orange, magnetic sign on the roadway side of the vehicle with the black letters DCS, on the door. Does this mean anything?
Emergency. Assistance needed.
3002
True/False - A person shall not be subjected to in-custody arrest when diplomatic or consular immunity is claimed by the individual or suspected by the officer and the officer has verified or reasonably suspects the claim is valid.
True
3003
There are ______ levels of immunity as it pertains to foreign diplomat / consular
four, Diplomatic agents, Consular Officers, Consular Employees, and Honorary Consuls
3004
An enforcement document (shall/ shall not) be issued at the scene for all violations warranting such action, regardless of the violator's diplomatic immunity status.
shall
| *The issuance of a citation is not considered an arrest or detention under current DOS guidelines.
3005
All diplomatic and consular personnel who are entitled to immunity are registered with the ________ and are issued distinctive identification cards by that government entity.
Department of State
3006
All diplomatic and consular personnel who are entitled to immunity are registered with the ________ and are issued distinctive identification cards by that government entity.
Department of State
3007
True/False - Vehicles which are owned by foreign missions or foreign service personnel are registered with the Department of State’s (DOS) Office of Foreign Missions (OFM).
True
3008
Verified Diplomatic agents and Consular Officers are not required to sign the CHP 215. What procedures should be followed next?
“Refused” shall be written in the signature box of the CHP 215 and the violator shall be released.
3009
True/False - A subject who is placed under arrest and claims diplomatic or consular immunity shall not be physically restrained before verification of the claim (unless restraint is necessary for the protection of the officer or others). A supervisor shall be promptly notified and should respond to the scene when possible.
True
3010
True/False - A supervisor’s approval for the release of a violator with immunity shall be obtained whenever possible.
True
3011
True/False - If a person who has immunity has been driving while under the influence, the subject shall not be permitted to drive. A supervisor’s approval for release shall be obtained whenever possible, and alternative transportation should be arranged.
True
3012
Persons involved in traffic accidents who possess a DOS Diplomatic Drivers License, issued by the Diplomatic Motor Vehicle Office, shall have "__" coded in the license "class" box of the CHP 555.
D
3013
Vehicles which are owned by subjects with full immunity (may/may not) be searched, stored, or impounded without the owner’s permission.
may not
*These vehicles may, however, be towed the necessary distance to remove them from obstructing traffic or creating any other hazard.
3014
A photocopy of each CHP 215 or CHP 202 involving an immunity claimant shall be forwarded within _______ hours to Assistant Commissioner, Field, whether or not the claim is verified.
48
3015
How long may a CHP Officer detain a foreign national for alleged illegal presence?
Officers shall not arrest or detain foreign nationals solely for alleged illegal presence. However, if the subject is detained for reasons unrelated to illegal presence (e.g., traffic stop), officers may detain the foreign national for illegal presence if the INS can respond to investigate within the duration of the unrelated investigation.
3016
Detainment of foreign nationals in excess of _____ hour(s) require advisement or embassy notification.
two
3017
When a foreign national is arrested (for an unrelated criminal offense - other than being an illegal) and the officer suspects a violation of immigration laws the officer (should/shall) notify INS.
should.
3018
True/False - The maximum effectiveness of each beat officer in collision prevention cannot be obtained until he/she fully accepts the concept of "beat accountability."
True
3019
Who shall evaluate each subordinate’s demonstrated willingness to accept personal obligations for the fulfillment of departmental duties and objectives within the scope of assigned responsibilities?
Each level of command.
3020
Command and supervisory personal are responsible for instilling in each enforcement officer a lasting personal interest and sense of individual obligation to prevent traffic collisions on his/her assigned beat. This can be accomplished by:
Identifying their strengths and weaknesses, establishing methods for increasing individual effectiveness, and personally providing high-quality leadership and expert direction.
3021
Who is responsible for instilling in each enforcement officer a lasting personal interest and sense of individual obligation for fulfillment of the departmental duties and objectives within the scope of assigned responsibilities?
command and supervisory personnel
3022
Senate Bill 1102 defines racial profiling as:
the practice of detaining a suspect without any individualized suspicion of the particular person being stopped
3023
Under ____________ law, peace officers in the performance of their duties may not discriminate based on ethnic, racial, religious, or socio-economic background.
Federal and State
3024
True/False - Officers shall not conduct traffic enforcement stops for the primary purpose of drug interdiction in the absence of probable cause or reasonable suspicion to believe the motorist or an occupant of the vehicle is involved in illegal drug related activity.
True
3025
True/False - Officers shall not stop individuals for the primary purpose of drug interdiction unless they have probable cause or reasonable suspicion of drug-related activity.
True, officers must have specific and Articulable facts to support their determination; a mere suspicion for "hunch" is not sufficient.
3026
True/False - After an enforcement stop has been made, officers shall not extend the stop beyond the time necessary to address a traffic violation unless there is reasonable suspicion or probable cause of criminal activity.
True
3027
True/False - Officers shall take appropriate enforcement action for all violations of the law witnessed.
False, officers SHOULD take appropriate enforcement action for all violations of the law witnessed. The Department recognizes that there will be situations when officers will be unable to take action on an observed violation due to extreme congestion, officer safety, or other considerations.
3028
All enforcement actions shall be accomplished in a businesslike, firm, impartial, courteous, and consistent manner using one of the of the following procedures EXCEPT:
Officers must use one of the of four following procedures: physical arrest, issuance of a CHP 215, issuance of a CHP 281, issuance of a verbal warning.
3029
True/False - A CHP 215 should normally charge a single, major, hazardous violation observed during the continuing movement immediately prior to the enforcement action.
True, additional charges are permitted when there is clear-cut evidence of other violations which are not connected to the major violation charged.
3030
True/False - Normally, correctable violations identified in Vehicle Code Section 40303.5 should be charged on a CHP 281, Notice to Correct Violation.
True
3031
The CHP 281 will normally be used to cite VC violations of a correctable nature where there is no evidence of _____________________.
persistent neglect, there is no immediate safety hazard, and the violator promises to correct the violation(s) promptly
3032
True/False - Issuance of a verbal warning is to be used when a violation is observed but the officer is not certain of the accuracy of his/her observation regarding the element of the violation or within his/her professional judgment such action is deemed improper.
True, warnings shall be accomplished by stopping the vehicle in discussing unsafe act or omission with the driver (no white door verbals).
3033
After stopping a passenger vehicle or light-duty truck for the observed violations, officers are encouraged to inspect the vehicle to ensure compliance with equipment proper license and registration requirements. Equipment Inspections will be limited to vehicles over __________ years old and should not be conducted on congested freeways.
three years old
Note* - Routine "under the hood" inspections of emission control devices will not be made by authors who do not possess the necessary technical expertise. The depth and degree of the inspection should be reasonable considering traffic conditions, location, weather, officer safety, and the nature of the original violation.
3034
True/False - Officers patrolling the highways observing motorist behavior or writing reports shall remain on their signed beat and in public view at all times.
True, officers shall not create an appearance of concealment.
3035
True/False - Parking on freeway ramps for the purpose of observing motorists behavior is always prohibited.
False, it is normally prohibited.
3036
True/False - The Area commander may direct the use of off-street observation for limited periods for the purpose of reducing a specific condition which has not responded to visible enforcement.
True, each use of off-street observation shall have the prior approval of the appropriate Division Chief who shall designate the termination date.
3037
True/False - Officers monitoring traffic from the side of the roadway may use the technique of parking on the wrong side of the highway facing oncoming traffic.
False, Officers shall not use this technique.
3038
True/False - Officers may park in the center median to monitor high occupancy vehicle (HOV) lanes.
False, parking in the center median to monitor traffic for any reason, including radar use is discouraged. Monitoring traffic from the center median requires Division approval.
3039
True/False - Area commanders may assign officers to the duty of enforcing any city or county ordinance.
False, Area commanders SHAL REFRAIN FROM assigning officers to the duty of enforcing any city or county ordinance, and officers shall not seek out violations of city and county ordinances in conjunction with their regularly assigned duties. This does not preclude officers from the responsibility of enforcing any valid city or county ordinance when they observed a violation incidental to traffic law enforcement in the CHP's jurisdiction
3040
True/False - Officers shall physically arrest all felony violators as prescribed by law.
True
3041
Section 851.5 PC requires that an arrested person has the right to at least ___________ completed telephone calls, as described, immediately upon being booked, and, except where physically impossible, no later than ________ after the arrest.
three, three hours
3042
True/False - Officers shall physically arrest all violators meeting the conditions described in Section 40302 of the California Vehicle Code.
False, officers SHOULD physically arrest all…
3043
A person taken into custody pursuant to Section 40302(b) VC (refusal to sign) shall be afforded every opportunity permitted by law to sign the CHP 215 until the __________ has begun.
booking process
3044
True/False - When a violator refuses to sign a CHP 215, the violator shall be taken without unnecessary delay before magistrate.
False, Officers SHALL direct the violator's attention to the introductory statement over the violator's signature line on the CHP 215; SHOULD carefully explain that signing the citation has the same effect as cash bail, which is required for release if taken before a magistrate or to jail; if the violator still refused to sign this occasion it appears physical rest will be necessary the officer shall notify an on-duty supervisor (the supervisor shall determine the appropriate course of action and respond to this he is necessary); as a final measure, the violator shall be taken without unnecessary delay before a magistrate.
3045
In the interest of providing for the violator's safety and limiting the Department's liability, the following transportation services should be afforded to anyone who reconsiders and signs the CHP 215 after being arrested EXCEPT:
All of the below are correct:
(1) The violator should be transported to his/her vehicle or the original place of arrest, when practical.
(2) When transportation is unavailable, the violator should be left in a safe location, convenient to communication and transportation facilities.
(3) Violators shall not be left at any location which would either cause them a reasonably avoidable hardship in resuming normal activities or place them in foreseeable peril.
3046
True/False -Once the booking process has begun for violator who has refused to sign a CHP 215, the violator is in the jailer's custody and can not be released by the arresting officer.
True
3047
True/False - Officers should cite and release violators of specific misdemeanor offenses listed in Sections 40303 and 40304 of the Vehicle Code.
True, physical arrest for these offenses should only be made when the officer has reasonable caused the believe one of the following condition exists:
(1) The violator will not be available for due process of law
(2) The continued liberty of the violator presents a danger to him/herself or others(3) The violator is suspected of violating Section 2813 of the Vehicle Code, refusal to submit to an inspection of size, weight and/or equipment
(4) The violator is suspected of violating Section 21200.5 of the Vehicle Code, riding a bicycle while under the influence or Section 212 21.5, operation of a motorized scooter while under the influence.
3048
In-custody arrest of minors shall be handled in the manner which __________, provided such disposition is compatible with the best interests of the minor and the community.
least restricts the minor's freedom of movement
3049
Section 627 WIC provides that an officer taking a minor before a probation officer or to a place of confinement shall take immediate steps to notify a relative. This section also provides that the minor has the right to make _____ telephone calls, __________; the other(s) may be to an attorney. The calls, except where physically impossible, are to be allowed no later than _____ hour(s) after the minor is taken into custody. Such calls are to be made at public expense if within the local calling area. Calls must be made in the presence of an officer or employee.
two
| one of which may be to his/her parent or guardian, responsible relative, or his/her employer one
3050
Section 207.1 WIC defines a "________" as "a locked facility administered by a law enforcement or governmental agency, the purpose of which is to detain adults who have been charged with violations of criminal law and are pending trial, or to hold convicted adult criminal offenders sentenced for less than one year."
Jail
3051
Section 207.1 WIC defines a "________" as ""any locked room or secure enclosure under the control of a sheriff or other peace officer that is primarily for the temporary confinement of adults upon arrest."
Lockup
3052
A minor, who is 14 years of age or older, taken into temporary custody on the basis of having violated a criminal law, and the peace officer apprehending the minor has a reasonable belief that the minor presents a "serious security risk of harm to self or others," may be locked in a room or cell in the station, subject to the following conditions:
(1) May not be detained longer than six hours. To be securely detained longer than six hours, the minor must be transferred to a juvenile facility, i.e., juvenile hall.
(2) The temporary detention must be for the purpose of giving the officer time to investigate the case, facilitate release of the minor to a parent or guardian, or arrange transfer to an appropriate juvenile facility.
(3) Must be separated from adults (Section 208 WIC).
(4) Must be told how long the incarceration can last.
(5) Must be adequately supervised.
(6) The law enforcement agency must keep a written record explaining the need and length of the secure detention.
3053
Although Section 207.1 WIC generally provides that a minor may not be detained in a jail or lockup for adults, an exception permits the temporary, secure detention of a minor in a police or sheriff's lockup, not a jail, if the minor meets all the following criteria:
(1) The minor is 14 years of age or older.
(2) The minor is taken into temporary custody on the basis of having violated a criminal law (Section 602 WIC).
(3) The peace officer apprehending the minor has a reasonable belief that the minor presents a "serious security risk of harm to self or others."
3054
A minor taken into custody for a violation of criminal law, who is UNDER 14 years of age or is not believed to be a security risk, may be kept in temporary custody at a law enforcement facility. This would include a police station or sheriff's station but does not include a "jail." The custody must be ________, and the minor must be adequately supervised to ensure that there is no contact with in-custody adults. Final disposition (as described in Sections 626 and 626.5 WIC) must take place within six hours.
nonsecure (the minor is not locked in a cell or room)
3055
The total secure and nonsecure detention time in a law enforcement facility, excluding a jail as defined in Section 207.1 WIC, may not exceed ______ hours.
six
| *Note - The minor may remain on the premises voluntarily.
3056
In situations where departmental personnel have temporary custody of a minor for a criminal law violation which necessitates the administration of a chemical test or an investigative procedure buildings ________ which provide chemical testing or investigative facilities should be used when possible
without a jail facility
3057
Section 207.1 WIC permits a peace officer to escort a minor arrested for DUI into an adult detention facility or jail for the purpose of administering an evaluation, test, or chemical test for alcohol or drugs, if specified conditions are met. Such conditions include __________.
the minor is not locked in a cell or room within an adult detention facility or jail, is under continuous personal supervision, and is not permitted to come into contact with in-custody adults.
3058
True/False - When an interrogation will not be conducted the officer does not need to advise a minor of his/her constitutional rights.
False, As with any arrest, the Miranda warning must be provided after a custodial arrest and prior to an interrogation. When an interrogation will not be conducted the officer shall advise the minor of his/her constitutional rights just prior to the release of the juvenile to a jail facility or a parent to comply with Section 625 WIC.
3059
In situations where departmental personnel have temporary custody of a minor for a criminal law violation which necessitates the administration of a chemical test or an investigative procedure within a jail or other law enforcement facility, Departmental personnel shall ensure that the following procedures are followed regardless of whether a jail facility or other law enforcement facility is used:
(1) Arrested minors shall remain under the continuous supervision of a departmental or law enforcement facility employee.
(2) Minors shall not be locked in a cell or room within an adult detention facility or jail. (3) Minors shall not be permitted to come into contact with in-custody adults. If chance contact occurs, the contact shall not be permitted to continue.
(4) A minor’s presence in a law enforcement facility or jail shall not be unnecessarily extended. The minor shall be removed as soon as reasonably possible. In no event shall a minor be present in an adult detention facility or jail for a continuous period in excess of two hours.
3060
True/False - When a uniformed employee is requested to accept custody of a person arrested by a person without peace officer authority, he/she shall ensure that the arresting party has made the arrest in accordance with the procedures provided by law.
True
3061
When the arrest is for a public offense not requiring a mandatory appearance, the arrested party should be satisfactorily identified. He/she should then be cited and released after signing the CHP 215. Prior to issuing a CHP 215 legal custody of the person arrested must have been accepted. "_____________" is entered in the Special box of the CHP 215.
private person’s arrest
3062
When the arrest is for a felony or a misdemeanor requiring a mandatory appearance, take the arrested person without unnecessary delay before a magistrate, unless _____________.
the violation is the normal responsibility of another law enforcement agency, that agency should be requested to handle the arrest to conclusion.
3063
True/False - When a person arrested, including an issuance of a CHP 215, by this Department and is released from custody without being formally charged with an offense, that person shall be issued a CHP 103, Certificate of Release from Custody.
True
3064
A CHP 103, Certificate of Release from Custody, should normally be issued by a supervisor. If a supervisor is not available, the arresting officer may issue the certificate. Officers should coordinate the release with a supervisor whenever one is available. While on duty, supervisors (should/shall) be responsible for having copies of the CHP 103 in their possession.
shall
3065
True/False - There is no requirement for the officer accepting custody of a person arrested by a private citizen to determine probable cause for the arrest (Kinney vs. County of Contra Costa, 8 C.A. 3d 761). However, if the facts of the arrest become known to the officer and he/she is satisfied that there are insufficient grounds for making a criminal complaint against the person arrested, the arrested party should be released from custody pursuant to Section 849(b)(1) PC.
False, Federal law requires probable cause to believe a crime has been committed before a government agent can take someone's liberty - and "receiving" an arrested person is restricting their liberty. Therefore, when an officer accepts custody of the arrested person, even for the short time it takes to complete the 849(b)(1) release, the officer is violating that person's federal civil rights, since the officer has NO probable cause to believe a crime was committed. (This is not in the manual, it has not been revised yet.)
3066
True/False - If a person is released on his/her own recognizance or on bail after being arrested and booked, and prior to arraignment, the district attorney declines prosecution or the Department uncovers evidence which bars prosecution. The Area commander shall ensure that a CHP 103 is issued, which can be accomplished by mailing the completed release form to the arrested person at the address listed on the arrest report.
True
3067
True/False - When circumstances require issuance of a CHP 103, Certificate of Release from Custody, it shall be completed in triplicate.
False, it shall be completed in duplicate. The original shall be filed in the Area office and the copy shall be delivered to the person being released. If not hand-delivered, the CHP 103 will be mailed to the person released from custody. The mailing date shall be noted on the Area office copy.
3068
Officers who arrest a driver for a violation of Section 12500 VC, Sections 14601 through 14601.4 VC, or Section 14603VC, are responsible for _______________.
preventing that driver from repeating the same offense in their presence
*Note - An officer should provide reasonable assistance to the driver in order to prevent recurrence of the offense.
3069
True/False - In instances where this Department no longer has physical control of an arrested person to be released from custody without being charged with an offense, a CHP 103, Certificate of Release from Custody, shall be issued.
True
3070
True/False - If a person is still in custody after being arrested and booked, and prior to arraignment, the district attorney declines prosecution or the Department uncovers evidence which bars prosecution. The Area commander shall ensure that a CHP 103 is issued by coordinating with the jail facility or by assigning an officer to complete the CHP 103.
True
3071
Physical arrests for a violation of Section 12500 VC, Unlicensed Driver; Sections 14601 through 14601.5 VC, Driver License Suspended or Revoked; or Section 14603 VC, Driving with a Restricted License, (should/shall) only be made with the concurrence of a supervisor or in response to a warrant. Drivers charged only with Section 14603 VC shall not be taken into custody only to prevent recurrence of the offense.
shall
3072
For Section 14603 VC, Driving with a Restricted License, violations officers should take reasonable steps to prevent recurrence of the offense. This can be accomplished by:
1) Admonishing the person that each instance of driving in violation of the license restrictions constitutes a new and distinct offense.
(2) Allowing a licensed passenger to drive.
(3) Providing reasonable assistance, as necessary, to secure alternate transportation to a nearby residence or other safe location where alternate transportation can be arranged.
3073
For violations of Sections 12500 and 14601 through 14601.5 VC, officers should take reasonable steps to prevent recurrence of the offense. This can be accomplished by:
(1) Admonishing the person that each instance of driving in violation of the license restrictions constitutes a new and distinct offense.
(2) Allowing a licensed passenger to drive.
(3) Impounding the vehicle pursuant to Section 22651(p), 14602.6, or 14607.6 VC and the procedures in HPM 81.2, Vehicle Procedures Manual.
3074
True/False - Officers are required to cease normal patrol activities to servile the driver to preclude the recurrence of an unlicensed driver offense.
False, Officers are not required to do so.
3075
True/False - Officers shall not detain or arrest a person solely on the belief that the person is an unlicensed driver, unless the officer has reasonable cause to believe that the person is under 16 years of age.
True
3076
During the first 12 months, after issuance of the provisional driver license, a driver under the age of 18, must be accompanied and supervised by a parent, guardian, licensed driver ___________ years of age or older, or a licensed or certified driver instructor when ____________________________.
25
| driving between the hours of 11 p.m and 5:00 a.m., or when transporting passengers under 20 years of age at any hour
3077
All of the following are exceptions to the graduated provisional driver license:
medical necessity, school or school-authorized activity, employment necessity, immediate need of a family member, or an emancipated minor. The minor must carry a signed note by the appropriate person (e.g., physician, school authority, employer, parent, or legal guardian) and the note must explain why the minor must drive and include the date when the necessity will end. For an emancipated minor, no documentation is necessary; however, the minor must have already declared him/herself emancipated by completing the appropriate DMV paperwork.
3078
True/False - Officers may stop a vehicle for the sole purpose of enforcing provisions of the graduated driver license.
False, an Officer shall not stop a vehicle for the sole purpose of enforcing provisions of the graduated driver license.
3079
Restriction code ____ will appear on any provisional driver license, for a driver under the age of 18, and will automatically be removed after _________.
47, Removed after 12 months
3080
Upon determining that a driver is in violation of Section 12814.6(b)(1) VC, provisional drivers under the age of 18 failing to follow the provisions of the license, officers shall:
(1) Take appropriate enforcement action by citing the driver for1 a violation of 12814.6(b)(1) VC
(2) Take reasonable steps to prevent recurrence of the offense.
(3) Admonishing the person that each instance of driving in violation of the license restrictions constitutes a new and distinct offense.
(4) Allowing an appropriately-licensed passenger to drive.
(5) Providing reasonable assistance, as necessary, to secure alternate transportation to a nearby residence or other safe location where alternate transportation can be arranged.
3081
True/False - Off duty enforcement actions are discouraged and should not be conducted ______________.
True, unless the violation is serious in nature or pose a danger to the public
3082
Officers involved in off-duty enforcement actions shall, as soon as practical, _______________.
notify their command of their involvement
3083
True/False - Officers shall arrange for a medical examination whenever a prisoner appears to be in need of or requests medical attention, regardless of outward symptoms of illness or injury.
True
3084
When a prisoner requests or is provided medical attention, arrest reports should include, at a minimum, the following additional information:
(1) Nature of illness or injury.
(2) Name of attending doctor and his/her recommendations.
(3) Whether jail personnel were requested to arrange for the medical care.
(4) Time elements, symptoms, requests for aid by the prisoner(s), and details of the transportation and treatment, when pertinent.
3085
True/False - Officers may accelerate above the prima facie or absolute speed limit to obtain a pace on a vehicle approaching from the rear.
False, when a petrol vehicle is operated at the speed limit and the violator overtakes it from the rear, the violator may be cited for an estimated speed in excess of the applicable speed limit.
3086
True/False - Computed Average Speed (CAS) meets the definition of a speed trap.
True
3087
Although not considered an absolute speed, Section 22350 VC applies to freeways posted at less than ________ MPH and to multi-lane or undivided roadways posted at ______ MPH or less than ______ MPH.
65, 60, 55
3088
Enhanced penalties apply to the operator of a tank vehicle transporting more than ______ gallons of a flammable liquid for a violation of any speed law or a violation of 23103/23104 VC.
500
*Note - In the violation portion of the CHP 215, after the explanation of the violation, enter: "Enhanced Penalty Per 22406.5 VC."
3089
Slow moving vehicles can pose hazards, not only to faster moving traffic but also to themselves. These vehicles can also present an obstruction to the smooth flow of traffic, causing traffic back-ups, particularly on two-lane rural roads and metropolitan freeways where expeditious traffic flow is essential. Officers observing slow moving vehicles obstructing traffic on highways (should/shall) take prompt action as necessary to maintain safe, unimpeded traffic flow
should
3090
According to HPM 100.68, Traffic Enforcement Policy Manual, Normal speed is determined by the speed of vehicles to the front and rear in the same traffic lane. The courts have defined the word "normal" as, "the average or mean of observed quantities" (66 Corpus Juris Secundum [CJS] 606). A driver is traveling at less than the normal speed of traffic if he/she fails to keep up with the vehicles ahead and is impeding the vehicles to his/her rear. When conditions of this type exist and the vehicle speed is______________, the driver must move to the right side of the roadway.
less than the maximum speed limit
3091
Slow-moving vehicle enforcement action against drivers in other than the right-hand lane shall be guided by the following:
(1) At _____ MPH or more below the normal speed of traffic, the officer shall stop and should issue a CHP 215.
(2) From ________ MPH below the normal speed of traffic, the officer should stop and take an appropriate enforcement action.
(3) From __________ MPH below the normal speed of traffic, the officer may stop and take an appropriate enforcement action.
ten (10) five (5) to nine (9) one (1) to four (4)
3092
Who specifies the color of vehicles used for the main purpose of enforcing provisions of VC Divisions 10 and 11?
The Commissioner.
3093
True/False -The emphasis of PCFV operations should be on heavy truck violations.
False.
3094
Deployment of PCFVs shall be focused upon _________________.
(a) Roadways with an identified high incidence of fatal and/or injury collisions regardless of vehicle type.
(b) Roadways where traditional strategies have been ineffective in gaining compliance.
(c) Roadways identified by the command warranting supplemental enforcement.
3095
Adequate levels of service shall be maintained during PCFV operations to ensure that public service is provided in __________.
an appropriate and timely manner
3096
What uniform shall be worn by personnel operating a PCFV?
Work uniform, except officers with Level 1 Commercial Training who may wear the approved utility uniform.
3097
Who determines the degree of beat accountability assigned to PCFV personnel?
The Area commander.
3098
Special Project Code "_____" shall be entered in the "Special" box on all CHP 215s issued by personnel operating PCFV.
66
3099
Approval from __________ shall be obtained prior to Area PCFV operations.
the Division chief
| *Note - Area commanders requesting such approval shall submit their requests with full justification.
3100
Division requests for increasing or decreasing the number of PCFVs is directed to ______________.
Assistant Commissioner, Field.
3101
Who is responsible for developing PCFV proposals for the Division chief’s approval, briefing members of the court and district attorney’s office prior to initial deployment, implement a public affairs program concerning PCFV use, and managing the PCFV deployment and operations within the Area to ensure the effectiveness of overall Area operations?
Area commanders
3102
The use of unmarked vehicles for the apprehension of violators of Section 23109 VC requires approval from ______________.
Office of the Commissioner
3103
True/False - Only aggravated or geographical circumstances that make normal enforcement procedures impractical will constitute a basis for the use of unmarked vehicles for the apprehension of violators of Section 23109 VC.
True
3104
True/False - Anyone summoned to render assistance to a vehicle or person, may stop on a freeway.
True
3105
True/False - Occasionally, tow trucks en route to or from a legitimate call may stop to aid a stranded motorist. Single instances under these circumstances should be permitted.
True, Appropriate enforcement action should be taken if either of the following occur:
(1) Repeated instances of tow services soliciting business by cruising roadways. *FSP exempt*
(2) Confirmed instances of overcharging or unlawful practices by tow truck operators who are on CHP rotation lists.
3106
An “emergency incident zone” as an area on a freeway that is within _______ feet of, and in the direction of travel of, a stationary authorized emergency vehicle that has its emergency lights activated.
500
3107
Officers (should/shall) not park on the shoulder for the sole purpose of enforcing 21809 VC (move over law).
shall
3108
Persons transporting ill or injured parties are normally not cited. The medical and transportation needs of the patient supersede ______________.
enforcement of the law
3109
If an officer is requested to escort expectant parents to the hospital, the situation can best be handled by _____________.
placing the patient in the patrol car and taking her to the NEAREST hospital.
3110
Patrol cars should only be used in lieu of an ambulance in emergencies wherein time is of the utmost importance and ________________.
Patrol cars should only be the patient does not object to such transportation
3111
In regards to a motorist transporting an ill or injured party, arrest for misdemeanors or infractions should normally be effected only when there is ________________.
a willful and wanton disregard for the safety of persons or property. Officers should quickly take enough information for a complaint to be filed and allow the motorist to proceed without further delay
3112
True/False - qualifying clean air vehicles to use HOV lanes as single occupant vehicles when the vehicles display a special sticker issued by DMV. To qualify for the stickers, the vehicles must meet specific federal and state emission standards. Currently, vehicles meeting the prescribed emission requirements are either electric or compressed natural gas powered vehicles.
False, now hybrids are allowed with fuel efficiency of at least 45mpg
3113
True/False - Section 21058 VC, Vehicles Owned by Physicians, provides an exemption from Sections 22351 VC, Speed Law Violations, and 22352 VC, Prima-Facie Speed Limits, for physicians traveling in response to an emergency if the vehicle displays an insigne approved by the Department indicating that the vehicle is owned by a licensed physician. The display and proper use of this insigne also provides an exemption from Section 22348(a), 22348(b), or 22356(b) VC, Maximum Speed Limits, or other rules of the road violations such as shoulder or unsafe passing, etc.
False, The display and proper use of this insigne provides only an exemption from Sections 22351 VC, Speed Law Violations, and 22352 VC, Prima-Facie Speed Limits. It does not provide an exemption from Section 22348(a), 22348(b), or 22356(b) VC, Maximum Speed Limits, or other rules of the road violations such as shoulder or unsafe passing, etc.
3114
Section 225 Streets and Highways Code (SHC) authorizes ___________ to enact rules and regulations governing the time and manner in which roadside rest areas and vista points may be used.
Caltrans
3115
Section 225.5 of the ______________ states: "No person shall display, sell, offer for sale, or otherwise vend or attempt to vend any merchandise, foodstuff, or service within any vista point or safety roadside rest area. No person shall solicit money within any vista point or safety roadside rest for any purpose." The section further states that a person, the person's property, or their activity shall not create a safety problem or nuisance either on or near a safety roadside rest or vista point.
Streets and Highways Code (SHC)
3116
Section 22520.6(a) of the __________ provides that, "no person shall engage in any activity within a highway roadside rest area or vista point prohibited by rules and regulations adopted pursuant to Section 225 of the Streets and Highways Code."
Vehicle Code
*Note - Section 22520.6(b) VC provides that a violation of the section is an infraction and that a second or subsequent conviction for a violation of the section is a misdemeanor. This section also provides that enforcement action may be taken at roadside rest areas and vista points located both within and outside of freeway right-of-ways. However, Section 22520.5(a) VC controls vending on all areas of a freeway right-of-way.
3117
True/False - Caltrans will coordinate enforcement of roadside rest and vista point regulations. Persons who are suspected of violating these regulations should be informed of the prohibition and appropriate enforcement action should be taken.
True, Area Standard Operating Procedures should include guidelines coordinated with Caltrans and the local district attorney’s office. Officers should assist Caltrans when requested to cite suspected violators.
3118
Officers are not prohibited from taking an enforcement action upon observing an obvious or blatant violation of rules and regulations governing the use of roadside rest areas and vista points. Citations issued for violation of roadside rest and vista point regulations should be governed by the following:
(1) Section 225.5(b) Streets and Highways Code (SHC) should be cited when the violator has already been warned or refuses to cease his/her solicitation of money.
(2) Section 22520.6 VC should be cited when regulations established pursuant to 225 SHC have been violated. Officers should cite this section, followed by the appropriate CCR Title number and section (e.g., 22520.6 VC, Title 21, Section 2205 CCR).
3119
Section 27803 VC requires all operators and passengers of motorcycles and/or motorized bicycles (including mopeds) to wear an approved safety helmet __________.
while on a highway
3120
Vehicle Code Section 27803(f) exempts a person operating or riding in a fully enclosed three-wheeled motor vehicle that is not less than _______ in length and not less than ______ in width and has an unlading weight of _________ lbs or more from wearing a helmet.
seven feet, four feet, 900
3121
A motorcycle safety helmet is any helmet certified by the manufacturer at the time of sale to meet FMVSS. The specific requirements are contained in FMVSS 218 (49 CFR, Part 571). This standard requires that each helmet be labeled permanently and legibly so that the label(s) can be read showing:
(1) Manufacturer's name.
(2) Model designation.
(3) Size.
(4) Month and year of manufacture.
(5) The symbol "DOT" should appear on the outer surface, in a color that contrasts with the helmet color, on the bottom edge of the posterior portion of the helmet.
3122
True/False - Helmets must be worn with the safety straps fastened and be of a size that fits the wearing person’s head securely without excessive lateral or vertical movement.
True
3123
True/False - An officer shall not attempt to make an enforcement stop to solely determine if a motorcyclist's helmet is in compliance with the federal motor vehicle safety standards (FMVSS).
True, officers shall focus enforcement action on the following: motorcyclists not wearing a helmet, motorcycle is wearing helmets which are obviously not motorcycle helmets, such as a Styrofoam bicycle helmet or football helmets.
3124
True/False - Officers may seize any helmet, or purported helmet, as evidence to prove that a particular helmet worn by the violator does not meet Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standards (FMVSS).
False, officers shall not seize the helmet.
3125
True/False - Persons riding in a sidecar of a three-wheeled motorcycle are exempt from the helmet law.
False, applies to the operator and the passenger of a three-wheeled motorcycle.
3126
True/False - Bicycles are not included in the definition of a motor vehicle.
True, therefore Sections 23109 and 13353 VC, specifically addressing violations by motor vehicles, are not applicable to bicycles.
3127
No bicycle operator shall allow a child _________ or younger, weighing _____________ or less, to ride as a passenger on a bicycle unless the seat is mounted separate from the operator’s seat, retains the child adequately, and protects him/her from the moving parts of the bicycle.
four years of age, forty pounds
3128
No person under the age of _______ shall operate or ride as a passenger upon a bicycle, a nonmotorized scooter, or a skateboard, nor shall they wear in-line or roller skates unless the person under 18 years of age is wearing a properly fitted and fastened bicycle safety helmet.
18 years of age
3129
True/False - Section 21212(a) VC, requiring a helmet for person under 18 years of age, applies to bicycles, nonmotorized scooters, skateboards, in-line or roller skates, operated upon a street, bikeway, or any other public bicycle path or trail.
True
3130
A person under the age of 18 years of age while operating or a passenger upon a bicycle, a non-motorized scooter, skateboard, or in-line skates shall wear an approved helmet meeting the standards of either _______________________________.
the American Society for Testing Materials (ASTM) or the United States Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC). Note * - A sticker noting one of the above standards should be affixed to the interior or exterior of the helmet at the time of sale. The sticker may be removed by the user.
3131
A “_________” is any two-wheeled device that has handlebars, has a floorboard that is designed to be stood upon when riding, and is powered by an electric motor. This device may also have a driver seat that does not interfere with the ability of the rider to stand and ride and may also be designed to be powered by human propulsion. A device meeting this definition that is powered by a source other than electrical power (e.g., a gasoline-powered two-stroke engine) is also a motorized scooter.
motorized scooter
3132
Section _________, Operating a Motorized Scooter Under the Influence, makes it a misdemeanor for anyone to ride a motorized scooter upon a highway while under the influence of alcohol and/or drugs. Persons arrested for violation of this section should be handled according to the provisions contained in HPM 70.4 (same requirements as arresting a bicyclist).
21221.5 VC
3133
Enforcement actions involving a motorized scooter shall be coded as ________ on the CHP 215 and CHP 555, Traffic Collision Report.
miscellaneous vehicle type 94
3134
Motorized scooters are required to be equipped with a muffler meeting specified requirements which is in constant operation and properly maintained to prevent any excessive or unusual noise. Persons are prohibited from modifying the exhaust system in a manner that will amplify or increase the noise level. Manufacturers of motorized scooters are required to __________________.
provide a disclosure to buyers that they may not modify or alter the exhaust system to cause that system to amplify or create excessive noise, or to fail to meet applicable emission requirements
3135
Section 21720 prohibits pocket bikes from being operated __________________.
on a sidewalk, roadway or any other part of a highway, or on a bikeway, bicycle path or trail, equestrian trail, hiking or recreational trail, or on public lands open to off-highway motor vehicle use.
3136
True/False - Every person operating a motorized scooter upon a highway has all the rights and is subject to all the provisions applicable to the driver of a vehicle by this division, including, but not limited to, provisions concerning driving under the influence of alcoholic beverages or drugs, and by Division 10 (Accidents and Accident Reports), Division 17 (Offences and Prosecution [may take shall take etc.]), and Division 18 (Penalties and Disposition of Fees, Fines, and Forfeitures), except those provisions which, by their very nature, can have no application.
True
3137
Vehicle Code Section 21228 states that every person operating a motorized scooter upon a highway at a speed less than the normal speed of traffic moving in the same direction shall ride as near the right-hand curb or edge of the roadway as practicable except:
(1) When overtaking and passing another vehicle proceeding in the same direction.
(2) When preparing to make a left turn.
(3) When attempting to avoid hazards in the roadway.
(4) When riding on a one-way street with more than two lanes, they may ride as near the left-hand curb or edge of the roadway as practicable.
3138
Vehicle Code Section 21229(a) states whenever a class II bicycle lane has been established on a roadway, any person operating a motorized scooter upon the roadway shall ride within the bicycle lane, except that the person may move out of the lane under any of the following situations:
(1) When overtaking and passing another vehicle or pedestrian within the lane or when about to enter the lane if the overtaking and passing cannot be done safely within the lane. (2) When preparing for a left turn, the operator shall stop and dismount as close as practicable to the right-hand curb or right edge of the roadway and complete the turn by crossing the roadway on foot, subject to the restrictions placed on pedestrians in Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 21950).
(3) When reasonably necessary to leave the bicycle lane to avoid debris or other hazardous conditions.
(4) When approaching a place where a right turn is authorized.
3139
Vehicle Code Section 21229 (b) states no person operating a motorized scooter shall leave a bicycle lane until ________________ provided in Chapter 6 (commencing with Section 22100) in the event that any vehicle may be affected by the movement.
Vehicle Code Section 21229 (b) states no person operating a motorized scooter shall leave a bicycle lane until ________________ provided in Chapter 6 (commencing with Section 22100) in the event that any vehicle may be affected by the movement.
3140
Vehicle Code Section 21235 prohibits the operation of a motorized scooter:
(1) When the operator does not possess either a driver’s permit or a Class C driver’s license.
(2) On a highway with a speed limit in excess of 25 miles per hour unless the motorized scooter is operated within a Class II bicycle lane. (3) With any passengers in addition to the operator.
(4) Unless wearing a properly fitted and fastened bicycle safety helmet that meets the standards described in Section 21212 VC.
(5) While carrying any package, bundle, or article that prevents the operator from keeping at least one hand on the handle bars.
3141
Vehicle Code Section 22411 prohibits the operation of a motorized scooter in excess of _____ miles per hour.
15
3142
True/False - Pocket bikes are generally between 18 and 22 inches tall and are not manufactured with a conforming 17-digit vehicle identification number (VIN). The lack of a conforming VIN indicates the manufacturers intended they be operated on private property, not for use on a highway. Without the conforming 17-digit VIN, the Department of Motor Vehicles (DMV) will not register these pocket bikes for on- or off-highway use.
True
3143
Section 21721 authorizing a peace officer to cause the removal and seizure of a _______, upon a violation of Section 21720.
pocket bike
*While pocket bikes have been defined in the VC, they still do not meet the classification of a motor vehicle for highway use (cannot be registered and do not have a 17-digit VIN, etc.). As such, they may only be seized as property; if a tow truck was utilized, the tow operator could not attach a lien and there is no impound authority for a non-highway use motor vehicle.
3144
Vehicle Code Section 313, defines an __________ as a selfbalancing, nontandem twowheeled device, that is not greater than 20 inches deep and 25 inches wide and can turn in place, designed to transport only one person, with an electric propulsion system averaging less than 750 watts (1 horsepower), the maximum speed of which, when powered solely by a propulsion system on a aved level surface, is no more than 12.5 miles per hour (e.g., Segway Human Transporter).
electric personal assistive mobility device (EPAMD)
3145
True/False - Electric personal assistive mobility device (EPAMD) as a conveyance allowed under the definition of a “pedestrian.”
True
3146
An electric personal assistive mobility device (EPAMD) shall be equipped with the following safety mechanisms:
(1) Front, rear, and side reflectors.
(2) A system that enables the operator to bring the device to a controlled stop.
(3) If operated between one-half hour after sunset and one-half hour before sunrise, a lamp emitting a white light that, while the EPAMD is in motion, illuminates the area in front of the operator and is visible from a distance of 300 feet in front of the EPAMD.
(4) A sound emitting device that can be activated by the operator.
3147
True/False - For the purposes of assuring the safety of persons using sidewalks, bike paths, pathways, trails, bike lanes, streets, roads, and highways, Section 21282 VC provides that a city, county, or city and county may, by ordinance, regulate the time, place and manner of the operation of an electric personal assistive mobility device (EPAMD). Officers shall take appropriate enforcement action for violations of the local ordinances passed within their jurisdiction governing the operation of an EPAMD.
True
3148
Enforcement actions involving an electric personal assistive mobility device (EPAMD) shall be coded as __________ on the CHP 215 and CHP 555, Traffic Collision Report.
miscellaneous vehicle type 60 (Pedestrian)
3149
Vehicle Code Section 385.5 defines a low-speed vehicle (also known as a neighborhood electric vehicle [NEV]) as a motor vehicle that meets all of the following requirements:
(a) Has four wheels;
(b) Can attain a speed in one mile of more than _____ miles per hour (MPH) and not more than ____ MPH on a paved level surface;
(c) Has a gross vehicle weight rating of less than 3,000 pounds.
20 and 25
3150
Enforcement actions involving low-speed vehicles shall be coded as __________ on the CHP 215 and CHP 555, Traffic Collision Report.
miscellaneous vehicle type 97
3151
True/False - Only vehicles which have been specifically certified by their manufacturer as complying with FMVSS 500 (49 CFR, Part 571) may be registered or operated as a lowspeed vehicles (LSV).
True
*There is no provision in the VC for existing vehicles to be retrofitted or converted to comply with the provisions of FMVSS 500, except as may be accomplished and certified by the vehicle manufacturer.
3152
All low-speed vehicles (LSV) must meet the requirements of FMVSS 500, which requires that all LSVs be equipped with the following:
(a) Head lamps.
(b) Front and rear turn signal lamps.
(c) Tail lamps.
(d) Stop lamps.
(e) Red reflex reflectors: one on the rear, and one on each side at the rear.
(f) Two rearview mirrors, one exterior mirror on the driver's side and either an interior mirror or an exterior mirror on the passenger's side.
(g) A parking brake.
(h) A windshield of laminated safety glass or rigid plastic composition.
(i) A 17-digit vehicle identification number assigned by the manufacturer.
(j) A lap or lap and shoulder seat belt assembly installed at each designated seating position.
*Note: No performance requirements were given for the required equipment, with the exception of windshields and seat belts; therefore, any vehicle certified by the manufacturer as complying with FMVSS 500 and having equipment which appears to comply with that standard shall be deemed to comply with the standard.
Pursuant to Section 21251 VC, low-speed vehicles are required to comply with all provisions of the VC except those which by their very nature can have no application to LSVs.
3153
True/False - The driver of a low-speed vehicles (LSV) is required to obey the same rules of the road and driving regulations as those that apply to the driver of any other motor vehicle, including possession of a valid driver license, current vehicle registration, and proof of financial responsibility.
True
3154
A low-speed vehicles (LSV) operated pursuant to Section 21115 VC (Golf Carts on Local Highways) or 21115.1 VC (Gold Cart Crossing Zones) is________.
exempt from registration requirements
3155
True/False - Officers shall take appropriate enforcement action for a violation of Section 22400(a) VC, impeding traffic, if a low-speed vehicles (LSV) is observed traveling on a highway at such a slow speed as to impede or block the normal and reasonable movement of traffic.
True
3156
True/False - Officers observing a low-speed vehicles (LSV) traveling on a highway in excess of 25 MPH shall take appropriate enforcement action for a violation of applicable equipment requirements and/or Section 22350 VC, unsafe speed for conditions.
True, an LSV exceeding a speed of 25 MPH, is no longer entitled to the relaxed equipment standards established for an LSV, but is required to comply with all provisions of the VC, which includes all appropriate lighting, tire, brake and other equipment requirements. Further, LSVs are intended for speeds not in excess of 25 MPH and may be considered unsafe at greater speeds.)
3157
In addition to existing rules of the road, SB 186 contains the following additional provisions which apply specifically to LSVs:
(1) Section 4023 VC: Exempts LSVs from registration when they are operated in accordance with Section 21115 or 21115.1 VC.
(2) Section 21115 and 21115.1 VC: Includes LSVs in the provisions for operating a golf cart in residential areas adjacent to golf courses and/or in golf course crossing zones.
(3) Section 21260(a) VC: Prohibits LSVs from being operated on any roadway with a speed limit in excess of 35 MPH.
(4) Section 21260(b)(1) VC: Authorizes LSVs to cross a roadway with a speed limit in excess of 35 MPH if the crossing begins and ends on a roadway signed for 35 MPH or less. (5) Section 21260(b)(2) VC: Prohibits LSVs from crossing at uncontrolled intersections with state highways unless authorized by the approving agency.
3158
True/False - The California Highway Patrol is responsible for off-highway enforcement of Division 16.5 VC.
False, the California Highway Patrol is NOT responsible for off-highway enforcement of Division 16.5 VC.
* This does not preclude enforcement when violations are observed from a highway or incidental to the performance of regularly assigned duties. Drivers should not be pursued into areas not designed for vehicular use.
3159
True/False - In regards to off-highway enforcement, violators should be pursued into areas not designed for vehicular use.
True/False - In regards to off-highway enforcement, violators should be pursued into areas not designed for vehicular use.
3160
Citizens complaints against motor vehicles operating off Highway should be referred to the appropriate _________ for investigation.
police or sheriff's
3161
Section 27315 VC uses the term "motor vehicle" which includes __________________.
any passenger vehicle, motortruck, or truck tractor. *Note - It does not include motorcycles.
3162
True/False - The passenger restraint laws apply to any person in a three-wheel motorcycle.
True/False - The passenger restraint laws apply to any person in a three-wheel motorcycle.
3163
Vehicles manufactured after _____________, and motortrucks and house cars manufactured after _____________ must have safety belts at all designated seating positions.
January 1, 1968, January 1, 1972
*Note - Drivers and passengers of vehicles manufactured prior to these respective dates are not subject to the usage provisions of the occupant restraint laws, even if the vehicles are retrofitted with safety belts.
3164
Any plain-view location capable of accommodating a person if the position is likely to be used as a ________.
designated seating position
| *Note - Auxiliary seating accommodations, such as temporary or folding jump seats, are not included in this definition.
3165
A passenger vehicle is defined as any motor vehicle other than a motortruck or truck tractor, designed and used for carrying not more than ________ persons including the driver and used or maintained for the transportation of persons. The definition includes ___________.
10, a housecar
3166
A pickup truck is defined as a motortruck with a GVWR of less than _______, an unlading weight of less than ________, and is equipped with an open box-type bed less than ____________ feet in length (Per 471 VC).
11,500 lbs, 8,001 lbs, nine
3167
A housecar is defined as a motor vehicle originally designed, or permanently altered and equipped for _________, or to which a camper has been permanently attached.
human habitation
3168
A motor vehicle to which a camper has been temporarily attached is not a housecar except that, Division 11 (Rules of the Road) and Division 12 (Equipment of Vehicles), _________________.
a motor vehicle equipped with a camper having an axle that is designed to support a portion of the weight of the camper unit shall be considered a three-axle housecar regardless of attachment or manner of registration. (i.e. a three axle truck with a camper attached can go out of lane, etc.)
3169
A Farm Labor Vehicle is any motor vehicle designed, used, or maintained for the transportation of nine or more farm workers, in addition to the driver, to or from a place of employment or employment-related activities. What is the exception?
Excluded is any vehicle carrying only members of the immediate family of the owner or driver thereof, and any vehicle while being operated under specific authority granted by the State Public Utilities Commission or under specific authority granted to a transit system by an authorized city or county agency.
3170
Passenger vehicles manufactured on or after January 1, 1968, require three-point systems in ___________ seating positions.
front outboard
3171
Trucks and vans manufactured between ____________ require lap belts only in designated seating positions.
1972 and 1975
3172
Trucks and vans manufactured on or after January 1, 1976, require __________.
Trucks and vans manufactured on or after January 1, 1976, require __________.
3173
Passenger vehicles manufactured on or after September 1, 1989, were required to have a three-point system in __________ seating positions.
the rear outboard
*Note - Officers may encounter 1987 through 1990 model year Volkswagen, Hyundai, and Yugo vehicles having only a shoulder belt installed in front outboard seating positions, with lap belts in all other seating positions. Do not issue a CHP 215, Notice to Appear, to the registered owner of these vehicles for removal of lap belts in the front outboard positions, since the vehicles were originally equipped this way.
3174
According to the Department the proper wearing of the safety belt is when it is buckled, positioned, and adjusted as designed and intended by the various vehicle manufacturers Which of the are examples of the improper wearing of the safety belt:
(1) Extending the length of the shoulder harness to increase the slack in the belt; (2) Tucking the shoulder harness behind the wearer's torso; or
(3) Disabling a portion of the safety belt.
3175
Section 27315 VC mandates safety belt use by drivers and passengers in motor vehicles but excludes the following:
(1) Taxicab operators only when they are operating on a city street and engaged in the transportation of a fare-paying passenger.
(2) Rural postal carriers while actually engaged in the delivery and collection of mail between their first and last stops along their specified routes.
(3) Newspaper delivery persons while actually engaged in the delivery of newspapers between their first and last stops along their specified routes.
(4) Persons with a duly certified physically or medically disabling condition. The certification must: be in the person's possession; describe the nature of the condition; cite the reason why restraint use is inappropriate; and be signed by a licensed physician, surgeon, or chiropractor.
(5) Public employees, when in an authorized emergency vehicle, as defined in Section 165(b)(1) VC, or any passenger behind the front seat of an authorized emergency vehicle, unless required by the agency employing the public employee.
(6) Passengers in a sleeper berth as defined in Section 1201(x) of Title 13 of the California Code of Regulations.
(7) A driver actually engaged in the collection of solid waste or recyclable materials along that driver’s collection route if the driver is properly restrained by a safety belt prior to commencing and subsequent to completing the collection route.
3176
True/False - Public employees, when in an authorized emergency vehicle, or any passenger behind the front seat of an authorized emergency vehicle, must wear a seat belt.
False, unless required by the agency employing the public employee.
*Note - The operator of an authorized emergency vehicle as defined in Section 165(a) VC shall not operate the authorized emergency vehicle unless the operator and any passengers six years of age, but less than 16 years of age, or who are less than six years of age and weigh 60 pounds or more, in the front seat are properly restrained by a safety belt.
3177
True/False - The driver should not normally be issued a CHP 215 for a passenger 16 years of age or older not wearing a safety belt when the passenger has been issued a CHP 215 for a violation of Section 27315(e) VC.
True
3178
A CHP 215 for a violation of Section 27315(f) VC should normally be issued to the _______ when the required safety belts have been removed or have not been properly maintained in good working order for the use of vehicle occupants.
registered owner
3179
The Department has interpreted "maintained in good working order" to mean:
(1) The webbing is not excessively worn, is free of any significant cuts, and the buckles and inertia-reel assemblies are functional. Officers need not go beyond a cursory inspection to determine the integrity of those systems.
(2) Safety belts are present and accessible in those seating positions required by federal regulation to have safety belts installed.
3180
When an Officer encounters a vehicle in which the safety belts have been removed, in conflict with federal regulation, a citation for a violation of Section 27315(f) VC should normally be issued to the registered owner of the vehicle. Additionally, the driver and passengers 16 years of age or older in a vehicle in which the required safety belts have been removed may be issued a citation for a violation of Section 27315(d) VC or Section 27315(e) VC, respectively.
True
3181
True/False - A complaint may be filed for an occupant restraint violation after a traffic collision investigation if the officer deems such action is appropriate.
True, nonuse of the vehicle's safety belt must be clearly evident (e.g., safety belts tucked behind the seats, safety belts removed, or occupants ejected with no evidence the safety belt is defective).
3182
True/False - Once an enforcement stop has been made for a safety belt violation and all of the elements of the offense are not clearly present a verbal warning should normally be issued.
True, (e.g. Requirements to have safety belts in the vehicle, as required by FMVSS No. 208, are in or it is unclear whether or not the safety belt was actually in use prior to the enforcement stop.)
3183
True/False - Children are exempt from the requirement to be properly restrained in the sleeper berth.
False, they must be restrained in sleeper berths.
3184
Child restraint devices manufactured since ________ are required to have a sticker attached at the time of manufacture indicating federal approval.
Child restraint devices manufactured since ________ are required to have a sticker attached at the time of manufacture indicating federal approval.
3185
Vehicle Code Section 27360 states A child may not to be transported upon a highway in the motor vehicle without properly securing the child in a rear seat in a child passenger restraint system meeting applicable federal motor vehicle safety standards, unless the child is six years of age or older, or sixty pounds or more. What are the exceptions to this?
a child under the age of six years who weighs less than 60 pounds may ride in the front seat of a motor vehicle, if properly secured in a child passenger restraint system that meets applicable federal motor vehicle safety standards, under any of the following circumstances:
(1) There is no rear seat.
(2) The rear seats are side-facing jump seats.
(3) The rear seats are rear-facing seats.
(4) The child passenger restraint system cannot be installed properly in the rear seat.
(5) All rear seats are already occupied by children under the age of 12 years.
(6) Medical reasons necessitate that the child or ward not ride in the rear seat. The court may require satisfactory proof of the child's medical condition.
* Note - A child may not ride in the front seat of a motor vehicle with an active passenger airbag if the child is one of the following:
(1) Under one year of age.
(2) Less than 20 pounds.
(3) Riding in a rear-facing child passenger restraint system.
3186
True/False - Regardless of the existence of any other violation of law, officers reasonably suspecting a violation of the child passenger restraint requirements may stop a vehicle to determine whether or not a violation of Sections 27360 or 27360.5 VC has occurred.
True
3187
True/False - Sections 27360 and 27360.5 VC apply to all passenger vehicles, all motortrucks, and all truck tractors, regardless of the state in which the vehicle is registered.
True
3188
True/False - Officers may provide directions for the installation of a child restraint system device.
False, may not provide directions unless they are trained in the installation of child restraint systems.
3189
All of the following are exemptions to Vehicle Code Section 23116 (a) and (b), which prohibits any person from riding in the back of a pickup truck or flatbed motortruck, EXCEPT:
The exemptions are as follows:
The person in the back the truck is secured with a restraint system which meets or exceeds Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standards.
The person is being transported by a public agency or pursuant to the direction of a public agency, to prevent injury or death to persons or to prevent, confine, or mitigate damage or destruction to property in response to an emergency situation.
The person is being transported in the back of the pickup or flatbed motortruck owned by a farmer or rancher, and vehicle is being used exclusively within the boundaries of lands owned or managed by that farmer or rancher. This includes incidental use of that vehicle on not more than one mile of highway between one part of the farm or ranch to another part of the farm or ranch.
The person is being transported in a parade that is supervised by a law enforcement agency that does not exceed eight miles per hour.
*Note -all trucks used primarily or regularly for the transportation of workers or subject to section 31400 V.C. (farm labor vehicles)
3190
True/False - Children six years of age, but less than 16 years of age, or who are less than six years of age and weigh 60 pounds or more are subject to the requirements of Section 27360.5 VC.
True, a child who is six years of age or older, but less than 16 years of age, or who is less than six years of age and weighs 60 pounds or more must be properly secured in an appropriate child passenger restraint system or safety belt meeting applicable federal motor vehicle safety standards.
3191
True/False - A child shall only be transported in a patrol vehicle if there is a child passenger restraint system available.
False, when a child is be transported in an authorized emergency vehicle, the child shall be transported using a safety belt if there is no child passenger restraint system available.
3192
Therefore, all seat belt installation and usage violations for _________ shall be cited under Sections 31405(a) or Section 31405(d) VC, as appropriate.
farm labor vehicles
3193
All seat belt installation and usage violations for Farm Labor Vehicles shall be cited under Sections _______________, as appropriate.
31405(a) or Section 31405(d) VC
3194
Section 16020(a) VC requires that every driver and every owner of a motor vehicle be able to establish financial responsibility and shall _______.
carry in the vehicle evidence of financial responsibility
3195
Farm labor vehicles are now required to have what?
Every farm labor vehicle (FLV) (as defined in Section 322 VC) be equipped with a Type 1 (lap) or Type 2 (lap and shoulder) seat belt assembly at each passenger seating position.
3196
True/False - Assembly Bill 1165 also modified Section 27315 VC to include FLVs among the vehicles required to be equipped with seat belts. However , Section 27315(f) VC, exempts vehicles not required to have seat belts installed at the time of original sale. The Department believes the intent of the Legislature was to retrofit older FLVs with passenger seat belts regardless of age.
True
*Note - Per Section 31406 VC no person may be transported in a FLV that does not have all passenger seating positions in compliance with FMVSS 207 (Title 49, Section 571 CFR), it also prohibits a person from installing a seat or seating system in a FLV unless that seat or seating system is in compliance with FMVSS 207.
3197
Section 16025(a) VC requires that every driver of a vehicle involved in a traffic collision exchange financial responsibility information with the other driver or property owner at the scene unless _________.
unless rendered incapable
3198
Section 16028(a) VC requires that every driver who drives a vehicle in California shall provide evidence of FR for the vehicle upon demand of a peace officer or traffic collision investigator and Section 16028(b) requires that the evidence be _________.
written
3199
Officers shall request written FR information from the driver of a motor vehicle whenever the officer issues a notice to appear for a VC violation that occurred upon a highway, except ____________.
violations specified in Chapter 9 of Division 11 relating to stopping, standing, or parking or for a violation of a local ordinance
3200
True/False - Officers may issue a CHP 215 for a violation of Section 16028(a) VC when no other action has been taken (i.e. verbal warning, CHP 281, etc.).
False, Officers SHALL NOT issue a CHP 215 for a violation of Section 16028(a) VC when no other action has been taken
3201
If a driver fails to provide evidence of financial responsibility, the VC states that an officer may charge Section 16028 VC; however, it is the policy of the Department that ________.
Officers shall charge that section.
3202
Officers should not request financial responsibility information and shall not issue a notice to appear nor request a complaint for Section 16028(c) VC if an involved party is __________.
not a driver
3203
Officers shall request written evidence of financial responsibility from all drivers of motor vehicles involved in a traffic collision except:
when the drivers completes a counter report.
| *Note - The policy reads "Excluded from this policy are uninvestigated counter reports."
3204
True/False - Violations of section 16030(a) VC, providing false evidence of financial responsibility, may be cited and released.
False, Violations of section 16030(a) VC, providing false evidence of financial responsibility, SHALL ONLY be charged through the complaint process.
3205
An owner’s responsibility notice to appear for Sections 16028(a) and 16028(c) VC can only be issued when __________.
an employee/employer relationship exists.
*Note - Absent an employee/employer relationship, all the policies and procedures contained in this manual relating to FR enforcement apply to a driver operating a vehicle owned or leased by another person.
3206
An owner’s responsibility notice to appear for Section 16028(a) or 16028(c) VC may be issued only when all of the following are present:
(1) A notice to appear is issued for a VC violation other than stopping, standing, or parking.
(2) The motor vehicle is owned, operated, or leased by the driver’s employer.
(3) The motor vehicle is being operated with the employer’s permission.
(4) The driver cannot provide evidence of the employer’s FR. Prior to issuing an owner’s responsibility notice to appear, the identity of the registered owner or lessee should be verified by actual registration documentation, lease agreement, or other objective documentation.
3207
An owner’s responsibility citation may be signed by the driver. Pursuant to departmental policy, officers should ___________.
allow the driver to sign the notice to appear if he/she requests; however, officers shall not solicit the signature.
3208
Drivers signing the notice to appear do not receive a copy. They are required to notify their employer within __________.
five days after receipt.
3209
True/False - Pursuant to departmental policy, officers shall accept expired insurance cards if the driver indicates that the policy is still in effect and the card contains the name of the insurance company and the policy number.
True
3210
Pursuant to Section 16020(b) VC, “evidence of financial responsibility” means any of the following:
(1) A form issued by an insurance company or charitable risk pool, as specified by the DMV pursuant to Section 4000.37 VC.
(2) The certificate of self-insurance or the assignment of deposit letter issued by the DMV if the owner is a self-insurer, as provided in Section 16052 VC or a depositor, as provided in Section 16054.2 VC.
(3) An insurance covering note or binder pursuant to Section 382 or 382.5 of the Insurance Code.
(d) A showing that the vehicle is owned or leased by, or under the direction of, the United States or any public entity, as defined in Section 811.2 of the Government Code.
(4) For purposes of this section, "evidence of financial responsibility" also may be obtained by a law enforcement officer from the electronic reporting system when that system becomes available for use by law enforcement officers.
(5) The name of the insurance company and the number of an insurance policy or surety bond that was in effect at the time of the traffic collision, if that information is contained in the vehicle registration records of the DMV.
(6) The identifying motor carrier of property permit number issued by the CHP to the motor carrier of property as defined in Section 34601 VC and displayed as specified.
(7) The identifying number issued to the household goods carrier, passenger stage carrier, or transportation charter party carrier by the Public Utilities Commission and displayed as specified.
(8) The identifying number issued by the Interstate Commerce Commission or its successor federal agency, if proof of financial responsibility must be presented to the issuing agency as part of the identification number issuance process and displayed as specified. *Note - Evidence of financial responsibility does not include any of the identification numbers listed above if the carrier is currently suspended by the issuing agency for lack or lapse of insurance or other form of financial responsibility.
3211
True/False - Officers are required to accept proof of financial responsibility even if the information is written on a plain piece of paper.
True
3212
True/False - Area commanders should develop local follow-up procedures when an officer has reason to believe that obviously incorrect were nonexistent financial responsibility information has been given by a driver.
True
3213
True/False - Area commanders should coordinate with the local district attorneys and courts in developing procedures for filing follow-up complaints on individuals who provide incorrect or false information of financial responsibility.
True
3214
True/False - Section 40600 VC establishes that a CHP 215 may be issued if, as a result of the officer's investigation, the officer has evidence, either testimonial or real, or a combination thereof, that would be sufficient to issue a written notice to appear if the officer had personally witnessed the events investigated.
True
3215
Officers investigating a traffic collision may issue a CHP 215 to any person involved in the traffic collision whom the officer has reasonable cause to believe committed a VC violation (not declared to be a felony or a local ordinance) that was ______________.
a factor in the occurrence of the traffic collision.
3216
True/False - A CHP 555 shall be completed when issuing a CHP 215 pursuant to Section 40600 VC.
True
3217
A CHP 215 issued to an involved party as the result of a traffic collision investigation shall be handled the same as a citation issued for an observed violation. In addition what must be indicated on the citation?
In the “Violation” section of the CHP 215, after the description of the violation, write “Issued per Section 40600 VC” and check the “AI” box.
3218
True/False - A CHP 215 issued pursuant to Section 40600 VC is not considered an arrest, therefore there is no authority to arrest a violator who refuses to sign a CHP 215.
True, after explaining the violation charged and the court information, write "refused to sign" in the violator's signature box and give the party the violator's copy of the CHP 215.
3219
When a CHP 215 is authorized to be completed pursuant to Section 40600 VC (notice to appear as a result of a traffic collision) (may/may not) be used to include additional charges.
May, providing the officer has the statutory authority to do so.
For example:
(1) A violation of Section 16028(a) VC could be included in the same enforcement document.
(2) A violation of Section 11357(b) of the Health and Safety Code could be included in the same enforcement document.
(3) Section 40600 VC does not grant authority to cite persons involved in a traffic collision who committed a violation which was not a contributing factor in the collision and NOT witnessed by the officer.
*Note - If the provisions of Section 40600 VC do not apply, e.g., the driver was in violation of Sections 14601 or 12500 VC, a “complaint to be filed” may be processed.
3220
True/False - When an officer chooses to cite a driver for running a stop sign, as a result of a traffic collision investigation, violations of unlicensed or suspended driver’s license may be included.
False, Section 40600 VC grants authority to cite persons involved in a traffic collision who committed a violation which was not a contributing factor in the collision and not witnessed by the officer. If you did not see the party driving then the provisions of Section 40600 VC do not apply. A “complaint to be filed” may be processed for a driver who was in violation of Sections 14601 or 12500 VC.
3221
True/False - Enforcement action should not be taken against drivers of vehicles transporting United States mail when such drivers are observed violating the law.
False, enforcement action SHOULD BE TAKEN against drivers of vehicles transporting United States mail when such drivers are observed violating the law. When a physical arrest is made officers shall immediately notify the nearest accessible postal authority for the disposition of the vehicle. The vehicle and its contents shall be safeguarded until released to the custody of the postal service.
3222
When a physical arrest is made, of drivers of vehicles transporting United States mail, officers shall ___________.
immediately notify the nearest accessible postal authority for the disposition of the vehicle. The vehicle and its contents shall be safeguarded until released to the custody of the postal service
3223
When a highway is not of sufficient width to allow stopping or parking off the main traveled portion of the highway, a mail carrier may stop on the main traveled portion of the highway in an______________. An unobstructed width of the highway must be available opposite the stopped vehicle for the free passage of other vehicles. There must also be a clear view of the stopped vehicle on the highway for a distance of ________ in each direction.
unincorporated area, 200 feet
3224
True/False - A person transporting United States mail is subject to state regulations regarding traffic laws. They do not secure a general immunity from state law while acting in the course of their employment.
True
3225
Who administers the Sno-Park Permit Program?
The California Department of Parks and Recreation.
3226
The ______________ Code provides that enforcement action may be taken against a vehicle that does not display a valid Sno-Park permit. The _______ Code authorizes the department to enforce parking regulations pursuant to the above code.
Public Resources, Vehicle
3227
Enforcement of permit requirements at Sno-Park sites will be governed by the prioritized needs of those Areas having sites within their commands. Commanders shall develop enforcement strategies consistent with _________ and ______________. Demands for more urgent services must take priority.
the objectives of the Department, the availability of personnel
3228
True/False - The department has primary responsibility for patrol and enforcement at SnoParks.
True
*Note - In exceptional cases, Area commanders may coordinate with their local sheriff's office to ensure that adequate site coverage is maintained, particularly where remote SnoPark sites may be more accessible to the sheriff's patrol than to CHP patrol personnel.
3229
Permit requirements will be enforced during the Sno-Park season which normally runs from ______________ of the current year through _______ of the following year.
November 1, May 30
3230
True/False - Permit parking requirement should be enforced when there is a lack of snow in areas adjacent to snow park sites.
False, permit parking requirement SHOULD NOT be enforced…
3231
At all Sno-park sites, which have not been designated for overnight camping, overnight camping in a vehicle is prohibited whether or not a valid permit is displayed. Unless signs are posted indicating this limitation, officers (should/shall) give verbal warnings to persons observed camping overnight.
shall
*Note - Parking overnight is permitted while persons are on cross-country ski trips or are involved in back-country snow camping or hiking, provided persons are not camping in vehicles.
3232
True/False - Officers should not tow vehicles from Sno-Park sites unless the provisions of Section 22651 or 22669 VC apply.
True
3233
A vehicle registered in Oregon may be parked at a California Sno-Park if it displays a valid Oregon Sno-Park permit, and officers (shall/shall not) withhold enforcement for the period covered by the Oregon permit.
shall
| *Note - California has reciprocity with the state of Oregon concerning Sno-Park permits.
3234
Public Utilities Commission Order 135 requires that a public grade crossing which is blocked by a stopped train, other than a passenger train, be opened with ________.
10 minutes
3235
True/False - There is no codified law regarding the blocking of grade crossings by railroads.
True
3236
Switching movements over public grade crossing should be avoided, but if the grade is occupied, it must not be occupied for longer than _________ unless there is no vehicle or pedestrian traffic.
10 minutes
3237
time-out features are provided to allow the gate arms to rise
time-out features are provided to allow the gate arms to rise
3238
Officers observing violations of the blocking of public grade crossings by railroad operations should __________.
document the activity on a memorandum to the Area commander. The Area commander should forward the memorandum to the prosecuting attorney for appropriate action. *Note - Officers are not to initiate prosecution of these regulations by issuing a CHP 215 or making a physical arrest.
3239
Section 22522 VC prohibits the parking of any vehicle within ______ of any sidewalk access ramp constructed adjacent to a crosswalk so as to be accessible and usable by the physically disabled, if the access ramp is designated by either a sign or red paint.
three feet
3240
True/False - A disabled person may park in a metered parking space without being required to pay any parking meter fee.
True
3241
It may take as long as _______ to receive a permit if the person applies by mail.
60 days
3242
All parking violations are to be cited on a __________.
CHP 267
| *Note - Effective July 1, 1993, parking violations, excluding misdemeanors, were subject to a civil penalty.
3243
Area commanders shall ensure that all complaints of disabled parking violations within the Department’s jurisdiction are _________.
responded to in a timely manner
3244
Section 23123 was added to the VC making it unlawful to use a hand-held cellular telephone while driving except in the following circumstances:
(a) A person using a cellular telephone for emergency purposes, including, but not limited to, an emergency call.
(b) An emergency services professional using a cellular telephone while operating an authorized emergency vehicle, in the course and scope of his/her duties.
(c) Persons driving a vehicle on private property.
(d) Until July 1, 2011, a person using a digital two-way radio that utilizes a cellular telephone that operates by depressing a push-to-talk feature when driving certain vehicles.
3245
Officers (shall/shall not) seize a cellular phone to determine if the driver is using it for emergency purposes as listed in paragraphs 11.b.(1)(a) and 11.b.(2)(a).
shall not
3246
According to GO 0.9, Use of State Owned Resources, all employees shall use state owned equipment and resources _____________.
for business purposes only in the furtherance of the Department’s Mission.
3247
Section 851.5 PC requires that an arrested person has the right to make at least _______ telephone calls immediately upon being booked and within ________.
three completed, three hours after the arrest
3248
Violators refusing to sign the CHP 215 shall be taken without unnecessary delay ___________.
before a magistrate, or if after court hours, to jail.
3249
True/False - A violator who has refused to sign the CHP 215 must be allowed to do so at any time during the booking process.
False, once the booking process is started, the violator is in the custody of the jailer and cannot be released by the arresting officer.
3250
Section 625 WIC also states that when a minor has been taken into custody the officer shall advise the minor of his/her constitutional rights. These rights include _______________________.
anything he/she says can be used against him/her. His/her right to remain silent. His/her right to have counsel present during any interrogation and to have counsel appointed if he/she is unable to afford counsel.
3251
Section 853.6(a) PC provides that the place of appearance specified on the CHP 215 shall be "before the juvenile court, a juvenile court referee, or a juvenile traffic hearing officer ________________________."
within the county in which the offense charged is alleged to have been committed
3252
Section 602 WIC provides that any person under the age of ______ years when he/she violates any law, falls into the jurisdiction of the juvenile court.
18
3253
Section 625 WIC provides that a peace officer may, without a warrant, take a minor into temporary custody. The officer shall ___________________.
advise the minor of his/her constitutional rights
3254
An officer taking a minor before a probation officer or to a place of confinement shall take immediate steps to _____________________.
notify a relative
3255
A minor who is _________ years of age or older and who is taken into custody by a peace officer for the personal use of a firearm in the commission or attempted commission of a felony shall not be released until that minor is brought before a judicial officer.
14
3256
Pursuant to 627 WIC, a minor has the right to make ________ telephone calls. One may be to ______________. The other may be to _____________.
two
| his/her parents or guardian, responsible relative, or to his/her employer an attorney
3257
Telephone calls made by minors pursuant to 627 WIC are to be allowed no later than __________ after the minor is taken into custody.
one hour
3258
Custody of minors shall be handled in a manner which least restricts the minor’s freedom of movement. If taken before the probation officer, the minor should be taken without unnecessary delay (_________ hours or less).
24
3259
Any locked room or secure enclosure under the control of a sheriff or other peace officer which is primarily for the confinement of adults upon arrest is known as _________.
a lockup
3260
True/False - An exception permits the temporary secure detention of a minor in a police or sheriff’s jail.
False, may be secured in a LOCKUP only and only if the minor is 14 years of age or older, he/she has violated a criminal law, or he/she presents a serious security risk of harm to self or others.
3261
Telephone calls made by minors pursuant to 627 WIC must be made in the presence of _____________________.
an officer or an employee
3262
"Jail" means any building which contains a locked facility administered by a law enforcement or governmental agency for the purpose of ____________________________________.
detaining adults charged with violations of criminal law pending trial or to hold convicted criminal offenders sentenced for less than one year
3263
During the detention of a minor 14 or older for a criminal offense, they must be ___________, must be ___________, must be ________, and the law enforcement agency must ________________.
separated from adults
told how long the incarceration can last adequately supervised
keep a written record explaining the need and length of the secure detention
3264
The temporary detention of a minor 14 or older for violating a criminal law must be for the purpose of _____________________.
giving the officer time to investigate the case, facilitate the release of the minor to parents, or to arrange transfer to juvenile hall *not longer than six hours
3265
A minor may not be detained in a Lockup for more than _________ hours.
six
3266
True/False - Status offenders not accused of criminal conduct may be detained in adult jails or lockups.
False
3267
Enforcement actions for misdemeanor violations not committed in the officer’s presence are to be initiated by ___________.
filing an affidavit with the probation officer
3268
True/False - The total secure and non-secure detention time in a law enforcement facility excluding a jail may not exceed six hours, however the juvenile may remain on the premises voluntarily.
True
3269
A minor under the age of 14 may be kept in temporary custody at a police or sheriff’s station provided the custody is ___________ and the minor is adequately _________. Final disposition must be within ____________ hours.
non-secure, supervised, six
3270
True/False - Abused and neglected children may not be detained in adult jails or police lockups, nor can they be detained in a building that contains a jail or lockup for the confinement of adults unless the minor is under continuous supervision and is not permitted to come into or remain in contact with in-custody adults.
True
3271
When a minor is taken into temporary custody for a criminal violation that requires a chemical test or an investigative procedure within a jail or other law enforcement facility, a building _________________ should be used.
without a jail facility
3272
A minor present in an adult jail facility should be removed as soon as reasonably possible, but in no event longer than __________ hours.
a continuous period in excess of two
3273
A Miranda warning must be given after a custodial arrest and prior to interrogation. When an interrogation will not be conducted, the _________________ should be given just prior to the release of the juvenile to a jail facility or a parent.
Constitutional Advisement
3274
True/False - A minor may not be detained for failure to sign a citation.
False, mandatory incarceration rules apply.
3275
Officers shall physically arrest violators, as required by law, in response to a warrant. The warrant may be either __________________________.
an original or an abstract relayed by the issuing agency
3276
The filing of a petition to initiate further proceedings is the responsibility of _______.
the Probation Officer
3277
True/False - The amount of bail is a criterion for deciding to arrest a person for a warrant.
False
3278
When no bail has been set, the person should _____________.
be booked
3279
True/False - An officer may accept bail.
False
3280
Officers shall not conduct a field check for outstanding warrants unless _________.
there is reasonable suspicion that a warrant exists and/or the check will not cause unreasonable delay
3281
Any person who falsely represents him/herself as another person should be charged with ___________.
148.9 PC
3282
If bail has been set, the officer shall ________________________.
take the arrestee before the issuing magistrate or another magistrate within the county, or before a person who can accept bail if no magistrate is available
3283
True/False - When an arrestee requests to be taken before a magistrate in the county of arrest, the officer shall comply with the request.
True, but overnight lodging should be in a city or county jail.
3284
True/False - Uniformed employees of this Department shall accept custody of persons arrested by private persons.
False, federal law requires probable cause to believe a crime has been committed before a government agent can take someone's liberty - and "receiving" an arrested person is restricting their liberty. Therefore, when an officer accepts custody of the arrested person, even for the short time it takes to complete the 849(b)(1) release, the officer is violating that person's federal civil rights, since the officer has NO probable cause to believe a crime was committed. (This is not in the manual, it has not been revised yet.)
3285
True/False - Abstracts of warrants containing the phrase "for bail purposes only" are not valid.
False, they are handled as though they do not contain the phrase. Sections 821 and 822 PC require the law enforcement agency in the county where the warrant was issued to take the person into custody within five days after notification and bring the person before a magistrate in the issuing county.
3286
If a warrant is not executed within _________ days, a written explanation should be made.
60
3287
Prior to the issuance of a CHP 215 to an individual arrested by a private person, an officer must _____________________________________.
have accepted legal custody of the person being cited
3288
Arrests for possession of controlled substances should be handled to conclusion by members of this Department provided ___________________.
supplemental investigation is not required
3289
True/False - Regarding private persons arrests, if the violation is the normal responsibility of another law enforcement agency, that agency should be requested to handle the arrest to conclusion.
True
3290
True/False - An officer has a responsibility to determine if probable cause for a private persons arrest exists.
False, however, if the facts of the arrest become known to the officer and he/she is satisfied that there are insufficient grounds for making a criminal complaint against the person arrested, the arrested party should be released from custody pursuant to Section 849(b)(1) PC.
3291
If the facts of the arrest become known to the officer and there is insufficient grounds for making a criminal complaint against the person arrested, the arrested party should ______________.
be released from custody pursuant to Section 849(b)(1) PC. *Note - This should be changed when the policy changes.
3292
What type of documentation is necessary when a party arrested by a private person is released from custody?
Issue a CHP 103 and document on a memorandum to the Area the reason for the release. *Note - This should be changed when the policy changes.
3293
Section 11362.5 H&S states that possession (11357 H&S) and cultivation (11358 H&S) of marijuana shall not apply to ____________________.
a patient or primary caregiver
3294
A Primary Caregiver is defined as a person designated by the patient who has ______________________.
consistently assumed responsibility for the housing, health, and safety of that person. Implies a direct "one-on-one" relationship with the patient
3295
True/False - As a rule, officers should actively enforce all marijuana related violations.
True
3296
If an individual posesses a valid state medical marijuana identification card and the individual is within the state limits designated under Senate Bill (SB) 420, (eight ounces of dried marijuana, or the plant conversion, and no more than six mature or 12 immature marijuana plants) the individual is to be ___________.
released and the marijuana is not to be seized
3297
If an individual claims Section 11362.5 or 11362.7 H&S and possesses an identification card from another governmental entity (e.g., city/county identification card), or a written recommendation from a licensed physician, officers shall use ________ to determine the validity of the person’s medical claim. Based on the totality of the circumstances present, if the officer reasonably believes the medical claim is valid, and the individual is within the state/local limits (whichever applies) the individual is to be _______.
sound professional judgment, released and the marijuana is not to be seized
3298
True/False - The standard search and seizure liability rules remain applicable to enforcement of marijuana related violations.
True
3299
Although Proposition 215 made reference to the cultivation of marijuana, there was no defense created for ___________________________.
the sale of marijuana
3300
The 11362.5 H&S defense only applies to _______________________. Most other marijuana violations remain unaffected.
possession and cultivation of marijuana
3301
True/False - Primary caregivers may cultivate marijuana for "personal" medical use by the patient.
True
3302
True/False - "Clubs" may cultivate marijuana as long as they do not show a profit and do not produce more than is necessary.
False, commercial cultivation of marijuana, is not protected. (The Statute permits six mature or 12 immature plants; however, local limits may be higher.) Caregivers, as previously defined, must have a direct relationship with the individual patient. Thus, their ability to cultivate is limited. Likewise, “clubs” that show a profit or that can be shown to produce more than necessary for medical use are not protected.
3303
True/False - A person charged with possessing, transporting, giving away, or driving a motor vehicle while in possession of marijuana in an amount of 28.5 grams or less, must be cited and released after being satisfactorily identified and signing a CHP 21
True, mandatory.
3304
True/False - A person arrested for simple possession of marijuana where the amount is clearly in excess of 28.5 should be physically arrested, but cite and release may be considered.
True
3305
True/False - The mandatory cite and release provisions of the marijuana law do not apply to juveniles.
False, applies to juveniles as well as adults.
3306
True/False - Section 11357(b) H&S, 11360(b) H&S and Section 23222(b) VC are "Recordable" offenses and the booking required box shall be checked on the CHP 215.
False, these offenses are not recordable and the booking required box shall not be checked.
3307
Section 23222(b) VC, driving a motor vehicle while possessing not more than _________, is a misdemeanor with mandatory cite and release provisions.
1 ounce
3308
An officer may cite and release an individual with more than 28.5 grams of marijuana where neither the amount nor the circumstances indicate ___________.
an intent to sell (11357 (c) H&S)
3309
Possessing, transporting, or giving away not more than _________ of marijuana (other than concentrated cannabis) is a misdemeanor with cite and release provisions.
28.5 grams
3310
When a member of this Department handles a hate crime to conclusion, the victim shall be provided with _______________________________.
the CHP 876, “Rights of Hate Crime Victims” Brochure, the CHP 174, Right to Privacy Acknowledgment and shall be advised of their right to confidentiality
3311
Unless a hate crime occurs on state property with a designated service area, the appropriate local law enforcement agency should be notified to handle the investigation to conclusion. When the local law enforcement agency cannot or does not respond to handle, ___________________.
this Department will handle to conclusion
3312
True/False - Words alone, when they fall within the specification of the law and constitute a threat that causes the victim to reasonably fear "for his or her own safety" are a crime.
True
3313
If a victim of hate crime invokes confidentiality pursuant to 6254(f)(2) GC, the CHP _____ becomes the face page of the report and _____________ shall be inserted in the place of the victim's name on the CHP 202 or CHP 216.
174, "John/Jane Doe"
3314
The _______________ gives the victims of hate crimes the right to have their name and address withheld from the CHP 202 or CHP 216.
Government Code
3315
The Right to Privacy Acknowledgment (CHP 174) may only be released to ___________________.
the District Attorney’s Office for purposes of prosecution, to an allied law enforcement agency for follow-up investigation
3316
The CHP 103 should normally be issued by _______________.
a supervisor
3317
While on-duty, supervisors (should/shall) have copies of the CHP 103 in their possession.
shall
3318
True/False - Off-duty enforcement actions are discouraged and should not be conducted unless the violation is serious in nature or poses a danger to the public.
True
3319
Officers involved in off-duty enforcement actions shall, as soon as practical, _____________.
notify their command of their involvement
3320
Documentation of off-duty incidents may range from ___________________.
a memorandum to an Arrest-Investigation Report
3321
Due to _________________, commanders should ensure that proper documentation is retained at the Area level.
potential civil liability
3322
When detaining someone pursuant to 5150 WIC, officers are required to advise the person that he/she ______________ and to provide to the treatment facility staff ________________.
is not under arrest, but have been detained with a written record of the advisement
3323
Section 5150 WIC permits a person with a mental disorder to be detained for _________ at a county-designated mental health treatment facility.
72 hours
3324
True/False - Information and records pertaining to recipients of mental health services are confidential and shall not be released by this Department.
True
3325
In cases of sexual assault, a "Victims of Domestic Violence" card which includes the names and locations of rape victim counseling centers within the county (should/shall) be provided to the victim, including the local rape victim counseling center of the nature of the sexual assault.
shall
3326
In non-congested areas, pilots may not operate an aircraft at an altitude of less than ___________ above the surface, except over open water or sparsely populated areas. Additionally, an aircraft may not be operated closer than ___________ to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
500 feet
| 500 feet
3327
No person shall operate an aircraft over a congested area below __________ or within a horizontal radius of __________ of the aircraft.
1,000 feet
| 2,000 feet
3328
No person may operate an aircraft in aerobatic flight below an altitude of _________ or when flight visibility is less than _____________.
1,500 feet
| 3 miles
3329
Operating an aircraft with a blood alcohol level of _________ is prohibited.
0.04% or more
3330
True/False - It is a felony to maliciously and willfully discharge a firearm at an occupied or unoccupied aircraft.
True, Sections 246 and 247(a) PC.
3331
True/False - It is a felony or a misdemeanor to discharge a laser at an aircraft while occupied whether in motion or in flight
True, Section 247.5 PC
3332
Member of this Department (should/shall) assist the FAA and Caltrans Division of Aeronautics by taking appropriate action for all observed violations of the Aeronautics Act.
shall
3333
True/False - Submission to a chemical test is required by Section 21407.2 PUC upon the request of a peace officer. The requirements are essentially the same as Vehicle Code section 23157.
True
3334
What code gives every peace officer the authority to enforce aeronautics codes?
Section 21252 of the Public Utilities Code.
3335
For a violation of Section 21407.1 PUC (operating an aircraft while under the influence of alcohol or drugs), Officers shall ______________________.
arrest, book, and obtain a chemical test
3336
Where is the authority for CHP Officers to enforce rules under the aeronautics act and other laws relating to aircraft operation.
public utilities code
3337
Generally, pilots may not operate an aircraft at an altitude below ___________.
500 feet
3338
Pilots are required to possess certificates, permits and licenses while operating aircraft and presented upon demand of ____________.
any peace Officer
3339
For each documented violation, the ________________ shall notify the FAA and the Caltrans Division of Aeronautics by contacting ________________ and ___________.
a) Area Commander
b) Flight Standards District Office (FSDO) or FAA Flight Service Station
c) Sacramento Communications Center (by Comm-Net).
3340
Officers may assist a person who is in immediate and present danger of domestic violence by helping that person to obtain a ________________.
Emergency Protection Order (EPO)
3341
Follow-up investigations for domestic violence shall be _____________, whenever possible.
turned over to the local agency that has primary jurisdiction
3342
CHP officers who encounter a domestic disagreement or incident will attempt to ____________.
arrive at a solution that is equitable to both parties
3343
True/False - The victim’s statement of abuse or threat of abuse is sufficient justification to seek an EPO.
True
3344
Communications centers shall rank domestic violence calls as ___________.
among the highest priority
3345
Which code requires agencies to develop written policies and standards for officers and communication operators response to domestic violence calls and to report monthly to the Department of Justice on the volume and nature of the calls received?
Sections 13700-13730 PC.
3346
Which code requires that restraining orders be enforced by all law enforcement officers?
Sections 6200-6389 of the Family Code (FC).
3347
Which codes ensure the victim’s right to confidentiality and ensures the victim is made aware of his/her right to make a citizen’s arrest?
The Government Code/The Penal Code.
3348
What code requires that counties develop a countywide protocol to assist officers in determining when arrest and release is appropriate, rather than taking the arrested person before a magistrate?
Section 853.6 of the Penal Code.
3349
Cohabitant is defined as __________________.
two unrelated adult persons living together for a substantial period of time, resulting in some permanency of relationship
*Factors that may determine whether persons are cohabiting include, but are not limited to: sexual relations between the parties while sharing the same living quarters; sharing of income or expenses; joint use or ownership of property; whether the parties hold themselves out as husband and wife; the continuity of the relationship; and the length of the relationship.
3350
A "Restraining Order" is issued by _________________.
issued by the court during normal business hours
3351
True/False - The existence of the elements of a crime and/or the willingness of the victim to make a private person’s arrest shall be the sole factors that determine the proper method of handling the domestic violence incident.
True
3352
True/False - The "Primary Aggressor" is the person determined to be the most significant, not necessarily the first, aggressor.
True
3353
If a person commits an DV assault or battery, an officer may arrest the person if ___________________.
the officer has reasonable cause to believe that the person to be arrested has committed the assault or battery whether or not it has in fact been committed and the officer makes the arrest as soon as reasonable cause arises to believe that the person to be arrested has committed the assault or battery whether or not it has in fact been committed. (Both circumstances must exist).
3354
True/False - An officer may make an arrest, without a warrant, for a violation of a domestic violence protective order whether or not the violation occurred in the officer’s presence.
True
3355
The officer shall notify the victim of the existence of a local shelter and __________.
transport the victim to the shelter if the victim fears retribution from the individual placed under citizen’s arrest
3356
Any time a peace officer is called out on a domestic violence call, it shall be mandatory that the officer make a good faith effort to ________________.
inform the victim of his/her right to make a private person's arrest.
3357
The victim shall be notified that the restrained person _____________.
may be released at any time
3358
True/False - Any reported crime involving domestic violence to which an officer responds and takes action shall be documented through the preparation of a CHP 202 or CHP 216.
True, Whether or not an arrest was made
3359
Victims of sexual crimes and victims of crimes committed against a spouse, cohabitant, or parent of one’s child have the right to have their name and address withheld, if requested. The officer _____ notify the victim of the right to request confidentiality in both situations and explain that _______________.
must
| the victim’s name and address will become public record if confidentiality is not requested
3360
True/False - The offer of confidentiality shall be made prior to the initiation of a report and a CHP 174 completed with the victim’s name and address.
True, With confidentiality requested, the CHP 174 becomes the face page of the report.
Without confidentiality, the CHP 174 becomes an attachment to the CHP 216 or CHP 202.
3361
Section 13701(c)(9) PC states that an officer who handles a domestic violence call must
provide the victim with a written notice explaining his/her future options
3362
availability of the indemnification program CHP 170, Notice to Victims of Violent Crimes
availability of the indemnification program CHP 170, Notice to Victims of Violent Crimes
3363
Peace officers who are at the scene of a family violence incident may take temporary custody of any firearm or other deadly weapon in plain sight or discovered pursuant to a consensual search. Weapons shall be held not less than _____ hours and unless retained for evidence, must be available for release not more than _____ hours after the seizure, or no later than _____ business days after a Law Enforcement Gun Release Application is approved by the Department of Justice.
48, 48, five
3364
True/False - It is a felony to maliciously disclose the location of any domestic violence shelter.
False, it is a misdemeanor.
3365
Individuals arrested for violating a restraining order should be charged with _________.
166(4) PC, Contempt of Court
3366
Domestic violence must be reported through the use of the UCRS. _________ must also be reported.
Weapon-involved information
3367
An "Emergency Protective Order" means a court order prepared by ________ and issued by ___________, by telephone or otherwise, whether or not the Superior Court is not in session.
1) an officer
| 2) a judge, commissioner, or referee
3368
Commanders shall ensure that their Area’s Standard Operating Procedure contains the necessary direction about ______________________.
about local procedures for handling court protective orders
3369
Court protective or restraining orders may be issued by a civil or criminal court. These orders prohibit the restrained party from purchasing, attempting to purchase, or otherwise obtain _________.
a firearm
3370
True/False - An officer should physically arrest an individual who has violated the provisions of a “protective” order, whether or not the violation occurred in the officers presence.
False, the officer shall physically arrest.
3371
Emergency Protective Orders (EPO) expire _________________.
no later than the close of business on the fifth court day or the seventh calendar day following the day of issuance
3372
True/False - The GREEN copy of the EPO shall be carried by the officer while on duty during the time that the order is valid, even if the order has not yet been served.
True
3373
True/False - EPOs are the only order that will be both issued and served by a CHP Officer.
True
3374
The Department’s copy of a served order shall be retained consistent with the retention of the CHP 202 or CHP 216 - ____________ for felonies and ________ for misdemeanors.
four years two years
3375
The CHP 176, Control Log, shall be retained _____________.
four years from the date of the latest entry on each page
3376
What code requires uniformed CHP personnel and any employee working as a child care custodian to report known or suspected instances of child abuse?
The Penal Code - Also requires child care custodians to read and sign a statement acknowledging the provisions of the section and agreeing to comply with it.
3377
Departmental personnel shall submit a completed DOJ form SS8572, Suspected Child Abuse Report to the local CPA within __________ of receiving information of suspected child abuse.
36 hours
3378
Commanders shall ensure that all uniformed personnel have a ____________, in their personnel folder.
CHP 192, Receipt of Requirement to Report Child Abuse
3379
When dealing with child abuse, a person under the age of ________ is considered a child.
18
3380
If an officer responds to a suspected case of child abuse and the CHP’s role is limited to “standing by” until the local LCDA has arrived and assumed responsibility, a report (should/shall) be prepared and submitted within ___ hours
shall, 36
| *DOJ SS 8572
3381
When a child is found unattended, the officer first responsibility is to _________.
determine if medical treatment is necessary
3382
Departmental personnel shall access the CHP 144 for possible information on persons reported missing, overdue, or as a runaway. If the results are negative, officers shall _________.
broadcast an Attempt to Locate (ATL)
3383
Generally, reports of missing persons should be referred to the appropriate local law enforcement agency. Departmental employees shall provide the _____________ of the appropriate law enforcement agency and offer assistance in making contact with those agencies.
name, address and telephone number
3384
True/False - If the local police department is unable or will not respond to take a missing persons report, officers shall conduct a preliminary investigation and report, including facilitating (through the CHP Communications Center) notification to the Department of Justice (DOJ) Missing/Unidentified Person System (MUPS)
True
3385
immediately notify the Attorney General’s Office via MUPS
immediately notify the Attorney General’s Office via MUPS
3386
A Child is any person under age 18 (as defined by section 14213 P.C.). However, many statutes specifically pertaining when the missing person is under ________ or _________.
age 16, “at risk”
3387
The term "At Risk" is synonymous with _____________.
a victim of a crime or foul play, one who has no pattern of running away or disappearing, one who may be a victim of parental abduction, is in need of medical attention, or one who is mentally impaired
3388
When notified of a missing person, the CHP is required to ___________.
advise the reporting party of the name and address of the appropriate law enforcement agencies, the agency having jurisdiction where the missing person resides and the location where they were last observed
3389
Generally, missing person reports should be referred to the appropriate local law enforcement agency. However, if circumstances warrant immediate action, officers shall conduct a _________ report and investigation.
preliminary
3390
Officers taking reports of missing persons shall provide the reporting party with ______.
a CHP 337, Authorization to Release Dental/Skeletal X-Rays
3391
Within ________ of taking a preliminary missing persons report, a copy of the CHP 216 shall be forwarded to the appropriate local law enforcement agencies.
24 hours
3392
Within ________ of the MUPS entry, the CHP Area office shall ascertain whether the local law enforcement agency has established their own MUPS entry.
24 hours
3393
When taking a missing person report the officer shall record the time they contacted the Comm Center, the MUPS record number and the time of MUPS notification in the narrative portion of the CHP ______.
216
3394
Section 279.6(c) PC requires that upon the arrest of a person for child abduction, officers shall __________________.
take possession of an abducted child who is found in the company of, or in control of, the arrested person and deliver the child in a manner consistent with the law
3395
Section 14205 PC requires notification of the Attorney General’s Office within ______ of accepting a report of a missing person under the age of 16 or "at risk."
four hours
3396
Which Assembly Bill enhanced the Supervised Release File and the Violent Crime Information Network to include sex registration information?
AB 1562, Meagan’s Law.
3397
Departmental personnel releasing sex offender information to the public shall complete a _____________, regarding the incident.
CHP 216, Arrest - Investigation Report
| *Officers shall obtain supervisory approval prior to releasing any information to the public.
3398
Departmental personnel releasing sex offender information to the public shall complete a CHP 216 regarding the incident. The CHP 216 shall be maintained at the Area office for a minimum of ________.
5 years
3399
Prior to releasing the residence or business address of a sex offender, ______________.
verify that the person lives or works there
3400
True/False - When releasing information, departmental personnel must state that the purpose of the release of the information is to allow members of the public to protect themselves and their children from sex offenders.
True
3401
Commercial salvage operations which block or partially block a highway may be conducted only under an encroachment permit issued by _______ if the closure will be for more than _____ minutes.
Caltrans, 30
3402
True/False - The CHP is required to provide for the physical security of any current or former constitutional officer of the State, and any current or former legislator of the State.
True
3403
True/False - An MOU should be developed by the CHP and local law enforcement agencies to establish a mutual understanding as to which agencies will perform specific roles. The response policy should be outlined in Area S.O.P.
True
3404
If a crime occurs on state property, which form shall be complete by facility manager?
STD 99 (Report of Crime/ Incident on State Property)
3405
If a State Facility with existing Law Enforcement Security requests response, members of the Department (will/will not) provide non-reimbursed SSP services except when an emergency exists.
will not
3406
Per MOU’s with allied agencies and state facility managers the Department will:
1) Respond and handle crime in progress if the local agency declines or is unavailable. The case will be turned over to the responsible allied agency.
2) If the crime is not an immediate threat and the local agency can not respond, the on duty supervisor may send an officer or request the requesters to complete a STD 99 form (Report of crime or incident on State Property).
3407
For reimbursable service agreements not to exceed 7,000 per occasion, local commands may?
prepare a letter of agreement (Not to include an indemnification clause or Hold Harmless Agreement, then it must go through Contract Management Unit). For those exceeding 7,000, the Officer of the Commissioner must handle.
3408
OSHA Shall be notified of all accidents at the workplace involving death, injury (seriousloss of member or 24 hour stay in Hospital) or illness.
True
3409
A STD 268 shall be completed by CHP for visitors to State facilities who are injured.
False, shall not
3410
When do Supervisors notify Division SSU of Major crimes occurring on State Property?
Immediately
3411
Per Section 2400(g) of the California Vehicle Code, who is given the authority and responsibility to develop a program to protect state employees?
Commissioner of the California Highway Patrol
3412
(True/False) - State Property Permits can be revoked at any time if the activities are creating or causing a risk of injury, risk of damage and/ or destruction to property, and impeding public business.
True
3413
(True/False) - If alcoholic beverages are being served, but not sold on state property, an alcohol license must still be obtained from ABC?
False. An amendment to the permit is adequate
3414
Any person seeking entrance to any state or local building or any meeting required to be open to the public while lawfully possessing a weapon is subject to arrest?
False, only unlawful or unauthorized wespons will lead to arrest.
3415
Reimbursable contract service must be requested at least ______ hours in advance of the service date?
72
3416
What is the minimum number of officers required to respond to investigate DOJ stops
Two
3417
Emergency Action Plans (EAP) are kept in what color binder?
Red
3418
Per the work place violence prevention, what is the policy regarding tolerance?
Violence or threat of violence in the workplace will not be tolerated in any form and the CHP has enacted a “Zero-Tolerance” workplace violence policy.
3419
What is the employers responsibility regarding work place violence?
CHP employees are expected to act professionally, courteously, and responsibly at all times, which will ensure compliance with the Department’s “Zero-Tolerance” workplace violence policy. It is the responsibility of each and every employee to immediately report any and all acts of workplace violence to their supervisor without fear of reprisal. All reports must be taken seriously, and the appropriate progressive disciplinary actions shall be taken.
3420
Who is responsible for ensuring compliance with the provisions of the Injury and Prevention Plan (IIPP)?
Managers and Supervisors.
3421
Regarding work place violence, what is the required training for the Injury and Prevention Plan (IIPP)?
All employees are required to attend training of work place violence and prevention.
3422
Regarding work place violence prevention, which of the following resources are available for victim employees?
The following are the resources available for victim employees: Peer Support Personnel, Employee Assistance Program, Support Group, and Clergy.
3423
What is the policy regarding reporting work place violence?
If the departmental investigator assigned to follow-up on an incident of violence in the workplace deems it necessary to complete a CHP 216, Arrest-Investigation Report, a copy of the report shall be forwarded to PSD for inclusion in the Workplace Violence Program (WVP) database. (Revised 04-04.)
3424
The appropriate Division commander shall be notified for the following types of incidents for which MAIT shall be utilized:
(1) A fatal or severe injury collision occurs involving an on-duty CHP or Caltrans employee, including subcontractors working on a Caltrans work project (i.e., broken bones, dislocated or distorted limbs, severe lacerations, or unconsciousness at or when taken from the collision scene). The fatal or severe injury pertains to any involved party, and not specifically to the on-duty CHP or Caltrans employee (e.g., CHP pursuit resulting in a collision causing fatal or severe injury to a party other than CHP personnel).
(2) A fatal or severe injury accident occurs involving a departmental aircraft or when specifically requested by the OAO. In cases where the collision or incident involves substantial damage only, OAO may determine if MAIT involvement is required. A qualified member of OAO will be assigned as a member of the MAIT conducting the investigation of any departmental aircraft accident or incident.
3425
The following list is representative of the type of incidents when, at the discretion of the Division commander, MAIT may be utilized:
Any collision or incident which, in the judgment of the Area commander or of a higher command authority, MAIT involvement would be appropriate. An example of this would be a collision involving a law enforcement agency during which a fatal or severe injury occurs.
(a) Any significant collision in which a fatality or fatalities occur which could lead to prosecution.
(b) Any collision in which a fatality or fatalities involving any vehicle or combination of vehicles described in Section 34500 VC.
(c) Any collision which results in the spillage or leakage of a significant amount of a hazardous material which seriously threatens life or property.
(d) Any collision in which the Department has been notified that investigators from the National Transportation Safety Board will be responding to conduct a parallel investigation.
(e) Any fatal or severe injury collision involving a possible roadway defect as a primary cause or contributing factor.
(f) Any collision where there is an indication that an involved vehicle has a manufacturing defect which was the primary cause or contributing factor.
(g) Any collision where there is a need for an in-depth speed analysis.
(2) A fatal or severe injury collision occurs in which the investigating officer suspected an occupant restraint system failed to operate as designed. In cases where the only issue is the possible failure, a consultation with the team leader shall be conducted. After consultation, the team leader will determine if a failure analysis should be conducted and whether or not sufficient physical evidence is available to complete the investigation. If enough physical evidence is documented, a failure analysis will be conducted. If enough physical evidence is not available, the Area will document the condition of the safety restraint with MAIT assistance/consultation.
3426
________ shall institute procedures for the timely completion of collision investigation and report documents, emphasizing the need to prepare, review, and approve these documents.
Area Commanders
3427
Collision reports shall normally be available to the public within _____ days.
eight working days
3428
A collision involving property damage only, which involves a vehicle fire or tow-away, will be documented as a _______.
report
3429
The _______ Code requires law enforcement agencies to inform victims of violent crimes of the availability of the Victims of Violent Crimes program.
Government
3430
The following victims (who may be California residents or non-residents) shall be notified by CHP 170, Notice to Victims of Violent Crimes, either in person or by mail:
* person sustains physical injury or death
* anyone legally dependent for his/her support upon a person who sustains physical injury or death
* any individual who legally assumes the obligation or who voluntarily pays the medical or burial expenses in the event of a death
3431
An officer should prepare and ___________if state property was damaged.
attach a CHP 422
3432
The CHP 422 may also be prepared to identify ______.
damaged private property
3433
CHP commanders shall maintain a file of all original traffic collision reports prepared in their jurisdictions for __________.
48 months rotating
3434
Document in the _____________ of the CHP 555 that a CHP 422 was attached to the damaged property following the description of the damaged state property.
property damage section, Pg. 2
3435
A CHP 422 need not be prepared when ___________.
attaching the memo to damage property jeopardizes the safety of the officer or public, or DOT is provided the information at the scene
3436
CHP Commanders shall maintain a file of all original traffic collision reports prepared in their jurisdiction for _______, unless sealed by court order or the report is a felony hit-andrun involving a fatality.
48 months, rotating
3437
Areas shall retain all unsolved felony hit-and-run fatality investigations in the Area file for what time period?
indefinitely
3438
Requests for duplicate copies of traffic collision reports, either missing from the local files or beyond the local retention schedule, should be directed to __________.
CHP Headquarters, Information Management Division, Support Services Section, Production Controls Unit
3439
After the Headquarters retention period, the reports become property of ________.
DMV
3440
Headquarters copies of collision reports are retained for _______ if they involve fatalities, and _______, for all others.
the current year plus one, six months
3441
After the DMV retention period, the reports become property of _________.
Caltrans
3442
DMV retains fatal accident reports for _________ and for _______ for all other collisions.
five years from the month of the accident, 18 months from the date of the accident
3443
Caltrans destroys “non-state highway related” reports and retains all “state highway related” reports for ______.
ten years from the month of the accident
3444
A copy of the collision report is always sent to ___________.
California Highway Patrol
| Information Management Division, Support Services Section, Production Controls Unit
3445
When a courtesy Traffic Collision Report is prepared for another Area or allied agency, the original is sent to ______ and a copy is _______.
the appropriate Area/allied agency, retained at the preparing Area
3446
Counter reports, Citizen reports, and nonfatal Private Property reports ___________ be sent to the CHP Support Services Section, Production Controls Unit.
shall not
3447
When there are indications that a collision has been staged forward a copy to ________.
Department of Insurance, Fraud Division
3448
Corrections of collision reports shall be made by ________.
the officer submitting the report
3449
When the reporting officer is not available, corrections may be made by _____ or _____.
a supervisor or a member designated by the Commander.
3450
Corrections can be made by _____________.
drawing a line through the incorrect words or figures, and placing correct information directly over lined out information followed by initials and date
3451
No changes should be made on a collision report after it has been __________.
processed, filed and copies forwarded
3452
Copies of collision reports should be forwarded to CHP Support Services Section, Production Controls Unit within _____ from the date the collision is recorded.
10 working days
3453
Collision reports which cannot be completed due to unusual circumstances may be retained at local level for a maximum of _______.
15 days
3454
When a report cannot be completed within 15 days, a ______ should be submitted. The special conditions box will be marked as ____.
preliminary investigation, preliminary
3455
Transmitted collision reports shall be batched in the following three groups:
Traffic collision reports with yes marked in the state highway related box, supplemental reports, all other traffic collision reports.
3456
Copies of collision reports should be forwarded to CHP Support Services Section, Production Controls Unit. Each batch should contain _____ or less accident reports.
100
3457
Requests for CHP 555/556 forms should be based on what realistically will be used during a _____ period.
six month
3458
CHP and local agencies may order CIM’s through the ________.
Publications Unit
3459
The ______ Code requires that when CHP responds to an accident, other than an accident on a public street or highway, involving serious injury, illness, or death of an employee of any employer in connection with his/her employment, the nearest office of the Division of Occupational Safety and Health (OSHA) shall be notified immediately by telephone.
Labor
3460
True/False - Injury or death caused by the commission of a Penal Code Violation, except 385 P.C., operating equipment near high voltage conductors, is not required to be reported to the Division of Occupational Safety and Health.
True
3461
We are required as an Agency under _________ ____ to establish a procedure to investigate citizens complaints against the personnel of our department.
Penal Code 832.5
3462
Have there been instances where judges have ordered the production of peace officer(s) personnel records without adhering to the pitchess motion?
Yes
3463
According to Penal Code Section 832.5 Investigative reports (citizens complaint) must be retained for ______ years.
five
3464
Section 832.8 PC Describes Personnel Records, as used in Section 832.7pc “personnel records” means any file maintained under that individuals name by his/her employing agency and containing records relating to any of the following:
Home Addresses, Medical history, Complaints or Investigations of Complaints, Employee advancement, Appraisal, or Discipline, and Election of Employee benefits and Employment history.
3465
According to Evidence Code Section 1045, when a motion is filed and the police agency produces the records, who will make an initial relevance decision to determine if the requirements of the motion are satisfied?
The Judge
3466
(T/F) - During an In Camera review in chambers the district attorney and the defense attorney are allowed in the judges chambers.
False
3467
________ law holds that certain personnel records of Officers involved in an arrest or traffic stop may be discoverable through a Pitchess Motion.
Statutory
3468
Can a judge disclose the Conclusions of the officer who investigated the complaint?
No
3469
May a District Attorney obtain access to the personnel records of a police officer(s) without a court ordered authorization?
Yes
3470
_____ law has held that only names, addresses and telephone numbers of persons who have made complaints against an officer and/or persons interviewed in connection with complaints are discoverable through a Pitchess Motion.
Case
3471
Once a defendant files a written motion with the proper court and served on the agency having custody/control of the records either by mail or in person, they have _________ days by mail or _____ days if in person prior to the hearing date.
20, 15
3472
Evidence Code Section ________ prohibits disclosure of the records of peace officers who were not present during the arrest or who had no contact with the individual seeking disclosure from the time of arrest through the booking process.
1047
3473
Should the officer that the Discovery Motion is being filed on receive a Memo from Legal Coordination Unit as a notification with the date and time of hearing?
Yes
3474
If a Pitchess Motion is received at the area office, can a complaint investigation be instituted solely on that basis?
No
3475
Is a Pitchess Motion a complaint or a legal process?
Legal process
3476
When a Motion is received at the Area office, who should be notified Immediately?
LCU
3477
If there are no records to disclose, must the custodian of records remain in court during the entire process?
Yes (shall)
3478
May a officer who is subject of the motion hand deliver a sealed records to the court, and act as custodian of the records?
No
