10/06 and 11/06 Flashcards

(103 cards)

1
Q

suspected aortic dissection invx

A

CT chest abdo pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

bishop score <= 6

A

vaginal prostaglandins or oral misoprostol
if prev section or higher risk of hyperstimulation -> mechanical methods eg balloon catheter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

bishop score >6

A

amniotomy and IV oxytocin infusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

expectant mx of an ectopic

A

1) An unruptured embryo
2) <35mm in size
3) Have no heartbeat
4) Be asymptomatic
5) Have a B-hCG level of <1,000IU/L and declining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

when can trial of diet and exercise be offered in GDM

A

fasting glucose <7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

secondary dysmenorrhea mx

A

refer to gynae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which anticoagulants are contraindicated in preg

A

NOACs and warfarin -> switch to LMWH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what increases risk of ovarian cancer

A

more hormone exposure eg early menarche, late meno, nulliparity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

RF for placental abruption

A

A for Abruption previously;
B for Blood pressure (i.e. hypertension or pre-eclampsia);
R for Ruptured membranes, either premature or prolonged;
U for Uterine injury (i.e. trauma to the abdomen);
P for Polyhydramnios;
T for Twins or multiple gestation;
I for Infection in the uterus, especially chorioamnionitis;
O for Older age (i.e. aged over 35 years old);
N for Narcotic use (i.e. cocaine and amphetamines, as well as smoking)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

when can hormonal contraception be taken after emergency contraception

A

levonelle -> straight away
ullipristal -> 5 days (breast feeding also delayed 1 week)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

delivery in intrahepatic cholestasis of labour

A

increased risk of stillbirth so IOL at 37-38 wks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

when can IUS/IUD be inserted after birth

A

within 48 hours or after 4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

chalmydia tx where compliance concern

A

azithromycin 1g orally single dose then 500mg orally for 2 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

pansytolic murmur

A

ventricular septal defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

mesenteric ischaemia tx

A

laparotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

right sided heart failure

A

pulmonary stenosis = systolic murmur in 2nd intercostal space left sternal edge
JVP, ankle oedema and hepatomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

which statin cannot be prescribed with amlodipine

A

simvastatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

which statin is better/higher intensity

A

atorvastatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what suggests idiopathic parkinsons

A

asymmetrical symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what needs to be checked before starting azathiprine tx

A

TPMT activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

which analgesics cause hyperkalaemia

A

saids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

mx of pyloric stenosis (olive shaped mass)

A

Ramstedt pyloromyotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

mx of bronchiolitis

A

supportive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

mx of croup

A

single dose oral dex or pred

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
plummer vinson syndrome
Plummers DIE: Dysphagia, Iron deficiency anemia, Esophageal webs
26
an arhythmia and signs of decompensation eg hypotension, heart failure
DC cardioversion
27
first line primary dysmenorrhea
NSAIDs eg mefanemic acid
28
charcots triad of ascending cholangitis
RUQ pain jaundice fever
29
Acute heart failure not responding to treatment
CPAP
30
flashers and floaters
vitreous detachment which can lead to retinal detachment
31
somatisation disorder
multiple physical SYMPTOMS present for at least 2 years patient refuses to accept reassurance or negative test results
32
illness anxiety disorder (hypochondriasis)
persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious DISEASE, e.g. cancer patient again refuses to accept reassurance or negative test results
33
conversion disorder
typically involves loss of motor or sensory function the patient doesn't consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain
34
dissociative disorder
dissociation is a process of 'separating off' certain memories from normal consciousness in contrast to conversion disorder involves psychiatric symptoms e.g. Amnesia, fugue, stupor
35
facticious disorder
also known as Munchausen's syndrome the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms
36
malingering
fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain
37
inguinal hernia in infants
urgent surgery as high risk of strangulation
38
Wernicke's encephalopathy features
CAN OPEN confusion ataxia nystagmus ophthalmoplegia peripheral neuropathy
39
symptomatic bradycardia, atropine fails
external pacing
40
why does raised ICP cause a third nerve palsy (down and out)
transtentorial or uncal herniation
41
surgery to defunction colon to protect anastomosis
loop ileostomy
42
pt presents within 7 days of TIA
aspirin 300mg and specialist review within 24hr
43
ongoing jaundice and pain after cholecystectomy
common bile duct stone
44
acute liver failure triad
encephalopathy (confusion and flap) jaundice coagulopathy
45
Caput succedaneum
puffy swelling that usually occurs over the presenting part 2 words(legs) -> Crosses suture lines
46
cephalohaematoma
1 word -> DOES NOT cross suture lines
47
paed BLS pulse check
brachial and femoral arteries
48
mx of alcohol withdrawal
chlordiazepoxide
49
hypocalcaemia
prolonged QT
50
hypercalcaemia
shortening of QT interval
51
intertrochanteric (extracapsular) proximal femoral fracture
dynamic hip screw
52
reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric type extracapsular fracture
intramedullary nail
53
chronic sinusitis
intranasal steroids
54
secondary pneumothorax <1cm
admit and give oxygen for 24 hours and review
55
myxoedema coma tx
thyroxine and hydrocortisone
56
thyrotoxic storm tx
beta blockers, propylthiouracil and hydrocortisone
57
ectopic preg with foetal HB present
surgical management
58
drug causes of urinary retention
anti-cholinergics eg clozapine, TCAs (amitryptylline) opioid analgesia eg morphine, tramadol
59
DKA insulin mx
fixed rate infusion continue long acting, hold short acting
60
anterior uveitis tx
steroid + cycloplegic (mydriatic) drops
61
Hyponatraemia correction
osmotic demyelination syndrome
62
hypernatraemia correction
cerebral oedema
63
acute dystonia due to anti-psychotics
procyclidine
64
IV fluid resus in paeds
bolus of 20 ml/kg over less than 10 minutes
65
what should u prescribe in babies with CMPI
hypoallergic infant formula calcium and vitamin D for mum
66
suspected AACG invx
tonometry and gonioscopy
67
temporal arteritis with visual loss tx
IV methylprednisolone
68
definitive mx of atrial flutter
radiofrequency ablation
69
black African/carribean pt with T2DM
arb eg irebsartan, losartan
70
TIBC in anaemia of chronic disease
low/normal
71
TIBC in iron deficiency anaemia
high
72
anti-mitochondrial antibodies
primary biliary cholangitis
73
common thyroid cancer with best prognosis
papillary
74
proliferative diabetic retinopathy tx
intra vitreal anti-VEGF injections
75
alcohol withdrawal
symptoms: 6-12 hours seizures: 36 hours delirium tremens: 72 hours
76
when is metformin contraindicated
EGFR<30
77
ipsilateral CN3 palsy and contralateral hemiparesis
webers syndrome
78
head bobbing murmur
aortic regurgitation
79
T1DM screening
ACR in early morning specimen
80
imagine in breast cancer
women <35 - USS women >35 - mammogram
81
hormone therapy breast cancer pre and peri-meno
tamoxifen
82
hormone therapy breast cancer post-meno
aromatase inhibitor eg anastrazole
83
breast cancer screening
3 yearly mammogram to women aged 50-70
84
medial breast cancer lymphatic spread
internal thoracic or parasternal
85
winged scapula
serratus anterior/long thoracic nerve
86
biochem addisonian crisis
severe hypovolaemia and hyponatraemia
87
fragile X complications
mitral valve prolapse autism pes planus memory problems speech disorders
88
which diseases exhibit anticipation
trinucleotide repeat disorders eg huntingtons, myotonic dystrophy
89
head, shoulders, knees and toes 3 6 9 12.
3 months - control of head 6 months - sitting up 9 months - crawling 12 months - walking
90
localised signs on resp exam in paeds
?foreign body
91
roseola infantum
HHV6 high fever -> resolves -> maculopapular rash
92
paeds loss of internal rotation of the leg on flexion
SUFE
93
solitary cleft lip/palate assoc
maternal anti-epileptic use
94
laxative prescribing
osmotic initially (loosen stool) then stimulant
95
benign rolandic epilepsy
partial seizures at night
96
PDA pulse
collapsing
97
shaken baby syndrome triad
retinal haemorrhages subdural haematoma encephalopathy
98
hand foot and mouth disease cause
coxsackie A16
99
double bubble sign AXR
intestinal atresia
100
IM adrenaline
anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh
101
squamous cell carcinoma assoc
hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy
102
T2DM drug when egfr<30
sulfonylureas
103
AOM with perforation tx
5 days amox and check up to ensure healed in 6-8 wks time