10 - The principles of investment Flashcards

(73 cards)

1
Q

What do pragramits use to asset allocation

A

Long run average rate of returns from relevant asset calasses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does theoretical approach to asset allocation

A

Masthematical analysis to obtain risk-return trade off given volatility. (uses historic volatility)
Correlation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What type of judgement do pgramatists use

A

forward looking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is efficient frontier

A

A set of portfolios that have maximum rate of returns for every given level of risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are some assumptions of optimisation models

A

Risk
Historic data
Forecasts
Cost
Implementation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is stochastic modelling?

A

Models the outcomes of random changes in variables, generates probabilistic assessment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is an example of stochastic modelling

A

Inflation
Interest rates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When is strategic asset allocation for

A

Long term

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How can an advisor create a portfolio once a risk profile has been administered

A

In order of complexity

Historic data
Adjusted historic data
Stochastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What must an advisor do when creating a porfolio

A

Explain why chosen portfolio matches clients requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is top-down investment management?

A

Determine asset allocation within each world major investment region

Choose sector weightings

Select stock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is bottom up investment management

A

Managers select stocks based on own criteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the four fund management styles

A

Value
GAARP
Momentum
Contraianism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is value fund management style

A

Use analysis to identify under-valued businesses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What type of funds typically adopt a ‘value’ management style?

A

Equity income; income & growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the ‘GAARP’ fund management style?

A

Find reasonably-priced areas with growth potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What type of funds typically adopt a ‘GAARP’ management style?

A

Active growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the ‘momentum’ fund management style?

A

Relies on tendency for both good + bad performance to persist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is an example of ‘momentum’ fund management?

A

Sector rotation: tendency of sectors to do well at different points in economic cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the ‘contrarianism’ fund management style?

A

Buck trends to achieve high returns, taking advantage of the majority’s excessive optimism/pessimism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Q
What type of funds typically adopt a ‘contrarian’ management style?

A

Hedge funds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is beta?

A

Market related return

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is alpha

A

Specific return independent of market

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is overlay strategy

A

Core portfolio is held and derivatives are used to alter currency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is a structured product?
Uses derivatives to limit capital risk in return for a lock-in period of up to 6 years
26
For a structured product, what is ‘hard protection’?
A given return is guaranteed
27
For a structured product, what is ‘soft protection’?
A Capital is at risk if a certain threshold is breached e.g. if the index drops 50%
28
Q What type of risk is involved with structured products?
Counterparty i.e. failure of the institution from which derivatives are bought
29
What are the charges of funds
AMC On going charge figure Performance fee Total cost of ownership
30
How many components should cost be separated into
4
31
What are the components of costs with investments
Ongoing charges for fund one off fees Incidental fees Transaction fees
32
What does the regulation of funds mean for investors if management group falls
Investors have no monetary loss - independent custodian holds asset
33
Q What detail does the FCA require if a fund advertises its past performance?
Discrete year-by-year performance
34
What is reputation based on
Performance Consistency on strategy
35
What criteria should be considered when choosing investment manager
Relevant experience Structure and style of investment Size, access to resources Quality of staff cost
36
Which are more volatile, open or closed-ended funds?
Closed, as they may be geared & the premium/discount to NAV can change
37
Which are better suited to illiquid asset classes, open or closed-ended funds?
Closed, as it may not be possible to sell illiquid assets in volumes required to meet redemptions in open-ended funds
38
What is one place to identify companies with strong ESG practices?
FTSE4Good Index Series
39
how are tracker funds structured?
Usually ETFs but can be investment trusts, unit trusts or OEICs
40
What are the two ways an ETF can track an index?
‘Physically’ (by holding stocks) or ‘synthetically’ (using derivatives)
41
What are the two aspects of passive fund selection
Index selection Structure
42
What are the two factors when choosing tax wrapper
Client individual tax and financial circumstances Underlying assets held in tax wrapper
43
What are the main tax wrappers to consider?
Collective investments (OEICs etc.) ISAs Personal pensions / SIPPS Life assurance bonds (UK/offshore)
44
Who benefits the most, relatively, from tax relief on pension contribitons?
Higher & additional rate taxpayer
45
What is the annual exempt amount for gains - investment
£6,000
46
What are collectives tax wrapper?
Tax efficient hold equity-based investments -Dividend tax Gains subject to CGT (When units or shares are sold)
47
What is an advantage of personal pension
PCLS aged 55 over - draw freely subject to marginal rate of income tax
48
When is tax free access of investment of life policies
after 7.5 years from inception (75% of 10 years for example)
49
What is maximum contribution of life policies
£3,600 a year
50
What does SIPP stand for?
Self-invested personal pension
51
What happens if a SIPP operator fails?
SCS covers the claim up to £85,000 per person, per firm
52
How can tax shelter benefits of UK investment bonds be maximised?
Arrange for investor to be a basic-rate taxpayer in the year of encashment
53
Can you gift investment bonds?
Yes - no Tax to trustees or other individuals
54
What is an advantage of offshore investment bonds?
They are not subject to UK tax so should grow faster
55
What are some features of platforms
Reduced paperwork Choice of funds Tax wrappers Allocation across wrappers Consolidated statements Portfolio reblanacing
56
Q Since 2014, why does the FCA require platform fees to be paid separately & directly?
To improve remuneration transparency and help consumers compare platforms
57
What is the exception to the FCA’s platform fee rule?
The product provider can pay a rebate to the platform provider IF it is passed on to the consumer in the form of additional units
58
What is one potential issue with third-party discretionary management services?
If the assets are held in the client’s name, the manager’s actions can trigger CGT liabilities
59
Where is objectives and principal factors of how portfolio be managed set out
Investment policy statement
60
If a trust deed has no specific investment powers, what governs the trustees?
Trustee Act 2000
61
What is a churn?
A switch of investments where the primary aim is to generate income for the adviser
62
What powers does Trustee Act 2000 give?
Invest as your own provided you have regard to standard suitability & diversification criteria
63
What are the categories of overall investment objective?
Capital growth Income Balance
64
What are some principles that affect investment strategies
Legal Nature of liabilities Cash flow Taxation
65
What does a strong positive cash flow into a portfolio mean for a manager?
They can take a long-term view & accept short-term uncertainty / losses
66
67
Where is means and frequrency of client reporting contained in
Terms of business letter given to clients Otherwise agreed in writing
68
Q How can an advisor decide if complex new products & services are appropriate investments?
3rd-party advice or external services
69
What is included in a contract note?
Bargain date & settlement date Who purchase was made for Number & price of shares Full name of share Charges including stamp duty/SDRT
70
How often are summary portfolio evaluations usually issued?
Quarterly
71
What does a summary portfolio evaluation include?
Value at date of last report Addition of cash/stock Reduction by each withdrawal Appreciation or depreciation New value & date
72
What are some justifications for switching investments
Change in objectives Client gives clear instructions market conditions overweigh initial investment Consistent underperformance of investment long term
73
How to reduce CGT on property, collective investment or shares
Transfer to partner - gain CGT exempt ammount - or lower tax Gain can be offset against other losses