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Derm > Infectious Skin Diseases > Flashcards

Infectious Skin Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

type of wart caused by HPV 1 and 2; transmission of person to person or contact with contaminated surfaces; common in kids; hyperkeratotic, exophytic (dome-shaped) papules and plaques with scattered black dots (thrombosed capillaries); common on HANDS; many regress with time but takes 1-2 years

A

Verruca Vulgaris (common warts)

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2
Q

virus associated with many warts; transmitted by skin-skin contact or through contaminated surfaces/objects; infects basal keratinocytes of epithelium

A

HPV

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3
Q

type of wart caused by HPV 3 and 10; skin-colored to pink/brown minimally elevated papules with smooth flat top; common on hands, face, legs; easily spread by shaving

A

Verrucae Planae (flat warts)

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4
Q

type of wart caused by HPV 1 and 2; thick hyperkeratotic papules and plaques with black dots (thrombosed capillaries); common on palms or soles

A

Plantar warts

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5
Q

Treatment for warts (Verruca vulgaris, planae or palmoplantar)

A

Cryotherapy

Salicylic acid

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6
Q

type of wart caused by HPV 6 and 11; range from small smooth flesh-colored papules to large verrucous cauliflower-like plaque; on genitalia, perineum, and perianal

A

Condyloma Acuminatum (genital warts)

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7
Q

Treatment for genital warts

A

Cryotherapy, imiquimod, excision rarely

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8
Q

Flesh-colored papules with central umbilication caused by pox virus; very common in young children; spread by skin to skin contact usually; considered as STI if on genital skin in aults

A

Molluscum Contagiosum

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9
Q

Treatment for Molluscum Contagiosum

A

observe (self-resolve over time)

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10
Q

skin infestation with Sarcopetes scabiel (mites that live in s. corneum); multiple very itchy erythematous small papules, vesciles, patches of eczema; burrow in the webspaces; more common in GROUP settings (group homes, nursing homes, daycare); spread by DIRECT contact with infested person or fomite; incubation up to 6 weeks

A

Scabies

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11
Q

small area of grayish white scale where scabies has been moving

A

burrow in the webspaces

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12
Q

Mineral oil prep of a skin scraping helps diagnose

A

Scabies

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13
Q

Treatment for Scabies (dermal infection with burrows)

A

Medication: Permethrin cream or oral ivermectin

Wash all clothing and bedding with high heat drying of all family members

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14
Q

painful erythematous grouped vesicles on lips; spread by contact with bodily secretions containing the virus; primary infection 3-7 days after exposure with fever, malaise, and lymphadenopathy; viral latency in dorsal root ganglia

A

HSV I (cold sores)

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15
Q

reactivation of what virus can be triggered by stress, UV light, fever, trauma, immunosuppression; presents with localized pain and burning; shorter course than primary infection

A

HSV I (cold sores; labial herpes)

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16
Q

painful erythematous vesicles on genitalia; spread by contact with bodily secretions containing the virus; primary infection 3-7 days after exposure with fever, malaise, and lymphadenopathy

A

HSV 2 (genital herpes)

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17
Q

Treatment for HSV 2

A

acyclovir or valacyclovir

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18
Q

HSV infection of the finger; mostly seen in children

A

Herpetic Whitlow

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19
Q

Skin disorder caused by reactivation of VZV (human herpes virus 3) after chickenpox exposure in childhood; more common in elderly and immunocompromised; first sign is pain, then pink edematous papules in dermatomal distribution often on trunk, then evolve into vesicles/pustules with crusting

A

Herpes zoster virus (Shingles)

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20
Q

Pathology of herpes zoster will show

A

multinucleated giant cells

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21
Q

Tx for zoster

A

acyclovir or valacyclovir

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22
Q

Shingles put patient at risk for what?

A

post-herpetic neuralgia

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23
Q

Infection of the deep dermis and maybe subcutaneous fat; painful, warm to touch, spreading redness with fevers and chills; normally caused by Strep pyogenes or Staph. aureus (gram - if immunocompromised); almost always unilateral leg

A

Cellulitis

24
Q

If both legs have cellulitis-like infection, what must be considered first?

A

Stasis dermatitis (bilateral cellulitis is very rare)

25
Q

Well-defined bright red hot indurated (hardened) plaque with possible progression into vesciles/bullae; commonly caused by Strep. pyogenes infection of the superficial dermis with lymphatic involvement.; higher risk in pts with lymphedema or elderly

A

Erysipelas

26
Q

firm, tender red nodule/abscess that involves a hair follicle

A

furuncle

27
Q

firm, tender red nodule/abscess that involves several adjacent hair follicles

A

carbuncle

28
Q

furuncle/carbuncle are most commonly due to

A

staph aureus; sometimes by MRSA

29
Q

SUPERFICIAL bacterial skin infection of gram + cocci (Staph. aureus and Strep. pyogenes); erosions with honey colored crust; may be bullous or nonbullous; very contagious

A

Impetigo

30
Q

Bullous impetigo due to staph aureus is caused by

A

exfoliative toxin that binds to desmoglein I (desmosome) and leads to acantholysis of upper epidermis

31
Q

Treatment for Impetigo

A

Topical or oral antibiotics

32
Q

Staph. aureus (group II) infection elsewhere and not at the skin sites with symptoms; exfoliative toxin leads to widespread superficial blisters and skin peels away in sheets; crusting and radial fissures around corners of mouth and eyes

A

Staphylococcal Scaled Skin Syndrome (SSSS)

33
Q

Infection of the subcutaneous fat and fascia; violaceious to gray color indicative of necrosis; resembles cellulitis but pain is out of proportion; MEDICAL EMERGENCY; risk factors include diabetes, alcoholism, elderly, vascular disease, immunosuppression

A

Necrotizing Fasciitis

34
Q

Treatment for Necrotizing Fasciitis

A

Debridement ASAP and IV antibiotics

35
Q

Dermatophyte (fungal) skin infection; “ringworm” usually affecting trunk and limbs; erythematous annular (central clearing) thin plaque with scaly border; transmitted by close contact with infected human, animal, or fomites

A

Tinea Corporis

36
Q

Tinea in general is more common in adults/kids

A

adults (except tinea capitis)

37
Q

Treatment for Tinea Corporis

A

Topical antifungals (allylamines, imidazoles) or oral allylamine if extensive (terbinafine)

38
Q

What can be seen on KOH prep that is used for diagnosis of Tinea corporis?

A

hyphae

39
Q

fungal infection caused by Trichophyton rubrum; 3 different types

A

Tinea Pedis

40
Q

type of tinea pedis; erythema and scaling on lateral surface of the feet

A

mocassin

41
Q

type of tinea pedis with scaling in webspaces

A

Interdigital

42
Q

type of tinea pedis with vesicles

A

inflammatory

43
Q

Diagnosis and Tx for Tinea Pedis

A

same diagnosis (KOH) and treatment as tinea corporis

44
Q

Which fungal infection is referred to as “athlete’s foot”

A

Tinea Pedis

45
Q

Chronic dermatophyte fungal infection of the toe nail bed; respond POORLY to topical antifungals; need MONTHS of oral azoles or terbinafine; often seen with concurrent tinea pedis or tinea cruris

A

Onychomycosis

46
Q

Dermatophyte infection of moist areas such as groin and inner thighs ; aka. jock itch

A

Tinea cruris

47
Q

infection of the face with a dermatophyte fungus

A

Tinea facei

48
Q

Fungal skin infection often caused by microsporum canis; causes fragility and breakage of the hair leading to multiple patchy ALOPECIA and black dot patches on scalp; reversible; 2 types

A

Tinea Capitis

49
Q

type of tinea capitis in which spores coat the hair

A

ectothrix

50
Q

type of tinea capitis in which spores are in the hair

A

endothrix

51
Q

Treatment for Tinea Capitis

A

oral antifungals since TOPICAL INEFFECTIVE

52
Q

What tinea is more common in kids than adults?

A

Tinea Capitis

53
Q

candidiasis infection causing erythematous patch with occsional erosions in intertriginous areas (groin, armpits, buttocks, breasts, muffin-top)

A

Candidiasis (Intertrigo)

54
Q

primary syphilis presents with

A

painless chancre (an ulcer on genitalia)

55
Q

pink scaly papules that can occur anywhere on the body, especially on palms and soles; can imitate any skin disease; appears 3-10 wks after chancre; can cause moth-eaten alopecia

A

secondary syphilis

Derm (13 decks)

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