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Clerkship Prep > Infectious Disease > Flashcards

Infectious Disease Flashcards

1
Q

Gram positive cocci in chains

A

Group B strep or enterococcus

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2
Q

Gram negative rods

A

E. coli, klebsiella, proteus

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3
Q

Gram positive rods

A

Listeria

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4
Q

Dental extraction/trauma frequently leads to infection with what bacteria?

A

Actinomyces

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5
Q

Actinomyces, a common dental bug, is usually treated with what antibiotic?

A

Penicillin

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6
Q

Amphotericin B and fluconazole are what type of drug

A

Antifungal

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7
Q

What type of infections is azithromycin commonly used for

A

Respiratory infections like pneumonia, bronchitis

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8
Q

Drug regimen for TB

A

Isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, ethambutol

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9
Q

Is TB acid fast?

A

Yes

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10
Q

Is actinomyces acid fast?

A

No

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11
Q

Symptoms of an actinomyces dental infection

A

Chronic, slow growing, non tender mass at or near the mandible

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12
Q

Manifestations of disseminated gonococcal infection

A

Purulent monoarthritis or triad of tenosynovitis, dermatitis, migratory polyarthralgia

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13
Q

Treating disseminated gonococcal infection

A

3rd gen cephalosporin via IV (for example, ceftriaxone)

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14
Q

Rash associated with acute rheumatic fever is called

A

Erythema marginatum (raised, ring shaped lesions over the trunk and extremities)

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15
Q

Lesion associated with primary syphilis is called

A

Chancre

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16
Q

Chancre associated with primary syphilis looks like

A

A painless ulcerative lesion with heaped-up borders

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17
Q

Rash associated with secondary syphilis affects which body parts

A

Palms and soles

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18
Q

The most common risk factor for orbital cellulitis is

A

Sinusitis

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19
Q

Symptoms of orbital cellulitis include

A

Proptosis, opthalmoplegia, and visual changes

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20
Q

Most common predisposing factor for orbital cellulitis

A

Bacterial sinusitis

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21
Q

Post herpetic neuralgia treatment

A

Gabapentin/pregabalin, tricyclics antidepressants

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22
Q

What type of bug typically causes cellulitis

A

Gram positive skin flora like strep or staph

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23
Q

Tinea pedis is a risk factor for

A

Cellulitis

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24
Q

Adverse effects of doxycycline use

A

Skin photosensitivity and esophagitis

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25
Q

Which antibiotic has negative effects on collagen

A

Fluoroquinolone

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26
Q

Fluoroquinolones should be avoided in patients with what known cardiac condition

A

Aortic aneurism (due to collagen degradation)

27
Q

Are fluoroquinolones okay in pregnancy?

A

No

28
Q

Is trimethoprim-sulfamethozaxole okay in pregnancy?

A

Not in 1st and 3rd trimesters

29
Q

When would you treat asymptomatic bacteriuria

A

In a pregnant patient

30
Q

Nonexudative painless ulcer with a raised edge on genitals is called a

A

Chancre (syphilis)

31
Q

First line treatment for syphilis

A

Penicillin

32
Q

First line treatment for lymphogranuloma venereum (chlamydia)

A

Doxycycline

33
Q

First line treatment for herpes simplex virus infection

A

Valacyclovir

34
Q

Treatment for chlamydia

A

Doxycycline

35
Q

Treatment for gonorrhea

A

Ceftriaxone

36
Q

Complications of chlamydia and gonorrhea in women

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease, ectopic pregnancy, infertility, pharyngitis

37
Q

Screening test for chlamydia and gonorrhea

A

NAAT nucleic acid amplification test

38
Q

Viral arthritis is often due to what pathogen

A

Parvovirus B19

39
Q

Triad associated with disseminated gonococcal infection

A

Pustular rash, migrating arthralgia, and tenosynovitis

40
Q

Patients with suspected gonorrhea and joint effusion require

A

Synovial fluid sampling

41
Q

Transient synovitis typically follows

A

Upper respiratory infections

42
Q

Coxsackie virus causes

A

Hand foot and mouth disease

43
Q

Bacterial meningitis predominant white cell type

A

Neutrophils

44
Q

Viral Meningitis prominent white blood cell type

A

Lymphocyte

45
Q

Things to order on a lumbar puncture

A

Gram stain, culture and sensitivity, cell count and differential, glucose and protein

46
Q

CT before an LP if

A

Abnormal level of consciousness, immunocompromised, seizure in the last week, focal neurological deficits

47
Q

Treat bacterial meningitis empirically with

A

Ceftriaxone IV

48
Q

Treat viral meningitis with

A

IV acyclovir

49
Q

In bacterial meningitis protein will be _ and glucose will be _

A

Protein will be high because bacteria produce protein, and glucose will be low as bacteria will use it for an energy source

50
Q

Enviral meningitis protein will be and glucose will be

A

Environmen meningitis protein will be elevated and glucose should be normal

51
Q

Maximum points for eyes on GCS

A

Four if spontaneously opening

52
Q

Maximum points for movements on GCS

A

Six if moving to commands

53
Q

Maximum points for verbal on GCS

A

Five if alert and oriented times three

54
Q

Three common organisms that cause meningitis

A
  1. Streptococcus pneumonia
  2. Neisseria meningiditis
  3. H. Flu
55
Q

Atypical cause of bacterial meningitis in elderly

A

Listeria

56
Q

Kernig sign is

A

Resistance to full extension of leg at the knee when the hip is flexed

57
Q

Brudzinski sign is

A

Flexion of both hips and knees when the neck is passively flexed

58
Q

Normal GCS

A

15

59
Q

How many points are awarded to each section of the GCS

A

Eyes are four points, verbal is five points, motor is six points

60
Q

Gram-positive cocci that causes meningitis

A

Streptococcus pneumonia

61
Q

Gram-negative cocci that causes meningitis

A

Neisseria meningitidis

62
Q

Gram-negative Cocco bacillus that causes meningitis

A

H flu

63
Q

Gram-positive cocco bacillus that causes meningitis

A

Listeria

Clerkship Prep (34 decks)

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